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  • Network use of Gaming PC

    - by Matthew Patrick Cashatt
    Background After YEARS of waiting, I built the custom gaming PC of my dreams: Intel i7 - 975 Extreme Edition 3.3ghz (overclocked to 4.0) ATI Radeon 5970 2gb Corsair 256 gb SSD Drive 2 TB Sata II 3.0 7200rpm data drive 12 GB Kingston Hyper-X (1600mhz) DDR3 Windows 7 Ultra 64 bit And so on. . . Problem I hooked this beast up to our home theater and settled in for a great gaming season only to realize a couple of drawbacks: It's hard to accurately wax bad guys using a keyboard in your lap whilst reclined on your couch (and using a wireless keyboard). It's hard to read the text on the screen (i.e. menus, etc). I find that a 1:1 ratio (screen diagonal inch to inch away from screen) is optimum, but using the home theater, it's more like 1:3 which has me squinting unless I sit on the coffee table. The wife always seems to want the TV the same time I do and, unfortunately "Real Housewives of Beverly Hills" and Battlefield BC don't mix. I am losing the battle in the home theater room, but the PC has to stay there (long story). So, this leaves me with the option of playing in my home office which is about 30 feet away from the home theater. I am a software developer so I have a pretty decent set up in my office--multiple 1080p monitors, HP Envy 17 which can run games like Crysis in 720p with out stammering too much. Also, I can game very comfortably at my desk in the office. Still, even though the set up in my office can run games well enough, I don't want to regress to that when I have worked YEARS for an awesome gaming PC that can run everything on ultra high settings. My Question What are my options for running my games on the beastly desktop in the Home Theater, but physically playing in my office about 30 feet away? A really long HDMI cable? LAN/RDC? Details that May Help We have an open crawlspace so running cable from HT room to office is no problem. I already have networked the house with a LAN Any help is GREATLY appreciated. Thanks, Matt

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  • Windows 2003 GPO Software Restrictions

    - by joeqwerty
    We're running a Terminal Server farm in a Windows 2003 Domain, and I found a problem with the Software Restrictions GPO settings that are being applied to our TS servers. Here are the details of our configuration and the problem: All of our servers (Domain Controllers and Terminal Servers) are running Windows Server 2003 SP2 and both the domain and forest are at Windows 2003 level. Our TS servers are in an OU where we have specific GPO's linked and have inheritance blocked, so only the TS specific GPO's are applied to these TS servers. Our users are all remote and do not have workstations joined to our domain, so we don't use loopback policy processing. We take a "whitelist" approach to allowing users to run applications, so only applications that we approve and add as path or hash rules are able to run. We have the Security Level in Software Restrictions set to Disallowed and Enforcement is set to "All software files except libraries". What I've found is that if I give a user a shortcut to an application, they're able to launch the application even if it's not in the Additional Rules list of "whitelisted" applications. If I give a user a copy of the main executable for the application and they attempt to launch it, they get the expected "this program has been restricted..." message. It appears that the Software Restrictions are indeed working, except for when the user launches an application using a shortcut as opposed to launching the application from the main executable itself, which seems to contradict the purpose of using Software Restrictions. My questions are: Has anyone else seen this behavior? Can anyone else reproduce this behavior? Am I missing something in my understanding of Software Restrictions? Is it likely that I have something misconfigured in Software Restrictions? EDIT To clarify the problem a little bit: No higher level GPO's are being enforced. Running gpresults shows that in fact, only the TS level GPO's are being applied and I can indeed see my Software Restictions being applied. No path wildcards are in use. I'm testing with an application that is at "C:\Program Files\Application\executable.exe" and the application executable is not in any path or hash rule. If the user launches the main application executable directly from the application's folder, the Software Restrictions are enforced. If I give the user a shortcut that points to the application executable at "C:\Program Files\Application\executable.exe" then they are able to launch the program. EDIT Also, LNK files are listed in the Designated File Types, so they should be treated as executable, which should mean that they are bound by the same Software Restrictions settings and rules.

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  • How should I convert a physical drive to a VHD for use with VirtualPC?

    - by RBerteig
    I have the hard disks from a PC that was happily running Windows Me until is it suffered an unknown hardware failure. The drives are intact, and can be mounted and read on other PCs. We have data backups, but there is licensed software installed that may not be possible to migrate to newer versions running on a more modern platform making the idea of just booting a virtual image attractive. Is it possible to make VHDs from the drives such that I can boot them in VirtualPC? If not VirtualPC, would it be possible in any other virtualization tool? Edit: Some more details.... The system was running Windows Me, but upgraded from Windows 95 (or possibly 98). It can't have been more than a Pentium II, but I will have to look at the motherboard to confirm that. There were no "exotic" devices installed, and nothing beyond the usual legacy stuff that would need to survive into a virtual machine. The licensed software did not have a dongle, so I won't need to worry about virtualizing a physical dongle of some kind. Licenses were probably died to the disk serial number. There were two HDs, both IDE. The boot disk is about 6GB, and the spare data disk is 12GB, but nearly empty. I have a small bias in favor of VirtualPC just because its free and I've used it successfully in the past. But this is a good excuse to revisit the state of the art. I do know from direct experience that it is possible to install and boot DOS 5.0 and Win95 in VirtualPC, but the VM extensions weren't available so the experience isn't as seamless as I would have liked. A very old DirectX game that failed miserably under XP SP2 runs really nicely on that VM, and actually plays better in a lot of ways than it did on period hardware, so that gives me hope that this is possible. Edit 2: Well, I'm closer than I was when I asked... so thanks to all for helpful suggestions and hints to what I should be trying. I used WinImage to copy the disks, and VirtualPC 2007 to attempt to boot. So far, I have it booting in safe mode, but hanging with a black screen otherwise. I strongly suspect that the copy of Artisoft Lantastic 8.0 (anyone else remember them?) that is still installed for networking with even older PCs that mostly don't exist any more is the culprit there. In my infinite free time, I will try to resolve the differences between a Safe Mode boot and a normal boot, and feel that it is likely to yield to pressure. I'd accept more than one answer if I could... this isn't as black and white a question as the one accepted answer convention assumes.

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  • Seeking (somewhat) better explanations about supporting > 2.1 TB hard drives.

    - by irrational John
    Today while Googling about I stumbled across posts claiming that Seagate plans to ship a 3TB drive sometime later in 2010. Unfortunately, the stuff I looked at all seemed to contain tidbits of info which I didn't think fit together properly. (I would link to some examples, but I'm only allowed 1 link per post at the moment). Now I really don't have any "need" to better understand the underlying tedious details of this. I am just curious. And confused. So ... some questions I'm hoping someone better informed than I might answer. The talk about a potential addressing problem in both the hardware and the software confused me. The assertion is that something called something called Long LBA addressing (LLBA) is needed in the Command Descriptor Block as a way to get around the current limits to access a hard drive bigger than ~2.1 (or ~2.2?) TB. OK, fine. But I thought the last time this problem came up it was solved by extending the length of the LBA field from 28 to 48 bits. (Remember this website? www.48bitlba.com) A 6 byte LBA is clearly large enough, so what's up with this LLBA talk. I thought this was all fixed back by Win XP SP2, if not sooner? And certainly all the hardware should be up to the task, shouldn't it? The real problem as I understand it with drives much bigger than 2 TB are the 4 byte LBA fields in the Master Boot Record (MBR) used to partition just about all hard drives at the moment. The most likely solution is to migrate to Intel's GUID Partition Table (GPT). A GPT uses 8 byte fields for the LBA. What I don't understand in this context is what is the problem with booting say Windows from a 3TB drive that uses a GPT. Granted, the current PC BIOS wouldn't know how to recognize or work with a GPT. But every GPT comes with a so-called "Safety" or "Guarding" MBR in sector 0.Apple already uses a hybrid version of the MBR to allow them to boot Windows on their Intel Macs (aka Boot Camp). Couldn't something similar be done to allow the PC BIOS to recognize and boot from a partition in, say, the first 1 GB of a 3GB or larger drive? I've got more questions such as where do 4K sectors fit into all of this. But it's probably time I just shut up and posted this. ;-) -irrational john

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  • Airport Express chokes Wi-Fi for a few seconds, several times per hour. Any idea why?

    - by user13727
    I'm using a MacBookPro connected to an AiportExpress' Wi-FI network. Every once in a while, the Wi-Fi will choke up and either drop some packets, or lag horribly for several seconds. I'm losing hair over this because every time I chat on Skype, the call hangs randomly due to this problem. Any idea what's wrong? Some more details: two networks are set up: 2.4Ghz and 5Ghz, and the issue happens on both the network uses WPA2 Personal for security the Airport is in the same room with my computer the Airport is fairly new, bought this summer, model number off the back: A1392 tried connecting to a neighbours wifi to see if it's a problem with my computer, or interference. It's not, it doesn't happen on their network. tried resetting it several times tried changing channels manually Ping results are below, so you can see what I'm talking about. EDIT: 10.0.1.1 is the Airport's IP 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1795 ttl=255 time=0.813 ms 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1796 ttl=255 time=3.335 ms 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1797 ttl=255 time=3.403 ms 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1798 ttl=255 time=3.414 ms 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1799 ttl=255 time=3.227 ms 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1800 ttl=255 time=3.274 ms 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1801 ttl=255 time=3.253 ms 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1802 ttl=255 time=3.292 ms >>>> choke starts <<< 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1803 ttl=255 time=53.977 ms 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1804 ttl=255 time=35.049 ms 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1805 ttl=255 time=19.820 ms >>>> choke ends <<< 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1806 ttl=255 time=0.716 ms 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1807 ttl=255 time=0.705 ms 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1808 ttl=255 time=0.919 ms 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1809 ttl=255 time=0.659 ms 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1810 ttl=255 time=0.877 ms 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1811 ttl=255 time=0.679 ms 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1812 ttl=255 time=0.854 ms 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1813 ttl=255 time=0.644 ms 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1814 ttl=255 time=3.779 ms ... time passes .. 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1599 ttl=255 time=0.674 ms 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1600 ttl=255 time=0.930 ms 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1601 ttl=255 time=0.665 ms 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1602 ttl=255 time=1.085 ms Request timeout for icmp_seq 1603 Request timeout for icmp_seq 1604 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1605 ttl=255 time=104.969 ms 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1606 ttl=255 time=11.521 ms 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1607 ttl=255 time=0.926 ms 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1608 ttl=255 time=0.993 ms 64 bytes from 10.0.1.1: icmp_seq=1609 ttl=255 time=0.745 ms And the Signal-Noise ratio:

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  • TFS2010 Hangs “Waiting for Build Agent”

    - by Qpirate
    I have asked this question over on SO the link to the question is here but i am hoping this is a better place to ask it. I have 3 VM's each running the TFS Build Host Service 1 has 1 controller and 1 agent 2 have 2 Build Agents each. Most of the time (7\10 builds) it comes back with the following error message TF215097: An error occurred while initializing a build for build definition BUILD_DEFINITION: There was no endpoint listening at http://MACHINE1:9191/Build/v3.0/Services/Controller/14 that could accept the message. This is often caused by an incorrect address or SOAP action. See InnerException, if present, for more details. and there is no errors when i do get this message. the following is the config file that i have created <configuration> <appSettings> <add key="traceWriter" value="true"/> </appSettings> <system.diagnostics> <switches> <add name="BuildServiceTraceLevel" value="4"/> <add name="API" value="4"/> <add name="Authentication" value="4"/> <add name="Authorization" value="4"/> <add name="Database" value="4"/> <add name="General" value="4"/> <add name="traceLevel" value="4"/> </switches> <trace autoflush="true" indentsize="4"> <listeners> <add name="myListener" type="Microsoft.TeamFoundation.TeamFoundationTextWriterTraceListener,Microsoft.TeamFoundation.Common, Version=10.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a" initializeData="c:\logs\TFSBuildServiceHost.exe.log" /> <remove name="Default" /> </listeners> </trace> </system.diagnostics> </configuration> I do have my own custom activities in my build process but this does not seem to be a problem as sometimes the build actually does go. I have tried refreshing the template as some sites suggest. Has anyone come across a solution for this problem? or can anyone tell me how to catch these errors when they happen?

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  • Unable to load type error in ASP.NET 4 application on Windows Server 2003 / IIS6 -- only happens after first worker process recycle

    - by Daniel Coffman
    I'm running an ASP.NET 4.0 web application on IIS6 (Windows Server 2003 x64). This app is one of many running on this server under the Default Web Site -- but is alone on it's own application pool because the other sites are all running ASP.NET 2.0 still. When I deploy my application, it works just fine until the application pool recycles or kills its worker process (by default 2 hours or 20 minutes with no activity). After this, I get the error: "Unable to load one or more of the requested types. Retrieve the LoaderExceptions property for more information. System.Reflection.ReflectionTypeLoadException: Unable to load one or more of the requested types. Retrieve the LoaderExceptions property for more information." Refreshing the page, recycling the application pool, and iisreset do nothing. But, I can bring the site back online again for a little while by simply redeploying it. The stack trace seems to start at an EntityDataSource -- see below: [ReflectionTypeLoadException: Unable to load one or more of the requested types. Retrieve the LoaderExceptions property for more information.] System.Reflection.RuntimeModule.GetTypes(RuntimeModule module) +0 System.Reflection.Assembly.GetTypes() +144 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.ObjectItemConventionAssemblyLoader.LoadTypesFromAssembly() +45 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.ObjectItemAssemblyLoader.Load() +34 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.AssemblyCache.LoadAssembly(Assembly assembly, Boolean loadReferencedAssemblies, ObjectItemLoadingSessionData loadingData) +130 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.AssemblyCache.LoadAssembly(Assembly assembly, Boolean loadReferencedAssemblies, KnownAssembliesSet knownAssemblies, EdmItemCollection edmItemCollection, Action`1 logLoadMessage, Object& loaderCookie, Dictionary`2& typesInLoading, List`1& errors) +248 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.ObjectItemCollection.LoadAssemblyFromCache(ObjectItemCollection objectItemCollection, Assembly assembly, Boolean loadReferencedAssemblies, EdmItemCollection edmItemCollection, Action`1 logLoadMessage) +580 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.ObjectItemCollection.ExplicitLoadFromAssembly(Assembly assembly, EdmItemCollection edmItemCollection, Action`1 logLoadMessage) +193 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.MetadataWorkspace.ExplicitLoadFromAssembly(Assembly assembly, ObjectItemCollection collection, Action`1 logLoadMessage) +140 System.Web.UI.WebControls.EntityDataSourceView.ConstructContext() +756 System.Web.UI.WebControls.EntityDataSourceView.ExecuteSelect(DataSourceSelectArguments arguments) +147 This is a bug filed for the same (or similar) problem: http://connect.microsoft.com/VisualStudio/feedback/details/541962/unable-to-load-one-or-more-of-the-requested-types-connected-with-entitydatasource Question: Has anyone seen this and have advice? I've tried copy-local on all the references... Works just fine on my dev machine. Works on the server until the application pool worker process recycles. I'm building in release mode, but experience the same result when I build for debug. I'm stumped.

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  • long access times and errors in iis application

    - by Jens Olsson
    Hi, I am having an issue with an IIS application (details of environment at the end of the message). The web site works great most of the time and I cannot reproduce any error in our test system. On the live system however with on averare of 5-15 requests per second I have a problem with that some requests (about 0.05%) will take over 300 seconds to complete. The other requests complete withing 5-10 seconds. It seem like if all the errornous requests end up with a Timer_EntityBody error in the error log. I have never seen this as an end user but I guess that they will receive some kind of error message. I am trying to find out what can be causing this errornous behaviour. Any ideas are welcome. I have read something about that there can be an MTU issue if ICMP and MTU protocols are blocked in the firewall. Does that sound reasonable? I have also read about updating to IIS 7 should do the trick. Does it sound reasonable? I think that the problem has another cause but I have no idea of what. I have tried running hte perormance monitor, monitoring for database locks and active transaction counts. I can see some of these in the perfmon log for the MSSQL server (another machine) for example: Active transactions is sometimes peaking and sometimes for long periods Lock waits per seconds is sometimes peaking Transactions per second is sometimes peaking Page IO Latch wait is sometimes peaking Lock wait time (ms) is sometimes peaking But I cannot see that any of these correlate to the errors in the IIS error log. On the IIS server machine I can also see with perfmon that some values peak a few times during a day: Request execution time Avg disk queue length I can neither see that any of these correlate to the errors in the IIS error log. In the below code I have anonymized by replacing some parts with HIDDEN The following can be seen in the access log 2010-10-01 08:35:05 W3SVC1301873091 **HIDDEN** POST /**HIDDEN**/Modules/BalanceModule.aspx - 80 - **HIDDEN** Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+7.0;+Windows+NT+5.1;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727;+.NET+CLR+3.0.4506.2152;+.NET+CLR+3.5.30729;+.NET4.0C;+.NET4.0E) ASP.NET_SessionId=**HIDDEN** 400 0 64 0 2241 127799 At the same time the following can be seen in the error log: 2010-10-01 08:35:05 **HIDDEN** 1999 **HIDDEN** 80 HTTP/1.0 POST /**HIDDEN**/Modules/BalanceModule.aspx - 1301873091 Timer_EntityBody Test+Pool I can tell the following about the environment: Server: Windows Server 2003 x64 SP2 running on VMWare HTTP Server: IIS v6.0 with ASP.NET 2.0.50727 Antivirus: Trend Micro OfficeScan (Is it a good idea to have this on a server?)

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  • How to keep group-writeable shares on Samba with OSX clients?

    - by Oliver Salzburg
    I have a FreeNAS server on a network with OSX and Windows clients. When the OSX clients interact with SMB/CIFS shares on the server, they are causing permission problems for all other clients. Update: I can no longer verify any answers because we abandoned the project, but feel free to post any help for future visitors. The details of this behavior seem to also be dependent on the version of OSX the client is running. For this question, let's assume a client running 10.8.2. When I mount the CIFS share on an OSX client and create a new directory on it, the directory will be created with drwxr-x-rx permissions. This is undesirable because it will not allow anyone but me to write to the directory. There are other users in my group which should have write permissions as well. This behavior happens even though the following settings are present in smb.conf on the server: [global] create mask= 0666 directory mask= 0777 [share] force directory mode= 0775 force create mode= 0660 I was under the impression that these settings should make sure that directories are at least created with rwxrwxr-x permissions. But, I guess, that doesn't stop the client from changing the permissions after creating the directory. When I create a folder on the same share from a Windows client, the new folder will have the desired access permissions (rwxrwxrwx), so I'm currently assuming that the problem lies with the OSX client. I guess this wouldn't be such an issue if you could easily change the permissions of the directories you've created, but you can't. When opening the directory info in Finder, I get the old "You have custom access" notice with no ability to make any changes. I'm assuming that this is caused because we're using Windows ACLs on the share, but that's just a wild guess. Changing the write permissions for the group through the terminal works fine, but this is unpractical for the deployment and unreasonable to expect from anyone to do. This is the complete smb.conf: [global] encrypt passwords = yes dns proxy = no strict locking = no read raw = yes write raw = yes oplocks = yes max xmit = 65535 deadtime = 15 display charset = LOCALE max log size = 10 syslog only = yes syslog = 1 load printers = no printing = bsd printcap name = /dev/null disable spoolss = yes smb passwd file = /var/etc/private/smbpasswd private dir = /var/etc/private getwd cache = yes guest account = nobody map to guest = Bad Password obey pam restrictions = Yes # NOTE: read smb.conf. directory name cache size = 0 max protocol = SMB2 netbios name = freenas workgroup = COMPANY server string = FreeNAS Server store dos attributes = yes hostname lookups = yes security = user passdb backend = ldapsam:ldap://ldap.company.local ldap admin dn = cn=admin,dc=company,dc=local ldap suffix = dc=company,dc=local ldap user suffix = ou=Users ldap group suffix = ou=Groups ldap machine suffix = ou=Computers ldap ssl = off ldap replication sleep = 1000 ldap passwd sync = yes #ldap debug level = 1 #ldap debug threshold = 1 ldapsam:trusted = yes idmap uid = 10000-39999 idmap gid = 10000-39999 create mask = 0666 directory mask = 0777 client ntlmv2 auth = yes dos charset = CP437 unix charset = UTF-8 log level = 1 [share] path = /mnt/zfs0 printable = no veto files = /.snap/.windows/.zfs/ writeable = yes browseable = yes inherit owner = no inherit permissions = no vfs objects = zfsacl guest ok = no inherit acls = Yes map archive = No map readonly = no nfs4:mode = special nfs4:acedup = merge nfs4:chown = yes hide dot files force directory mode = 0775 force create mode = 0660

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  • Why can't I connect to remote Microsoft SQL Server through SSH tunnel?

    - by Alexander
    I have at home a D-Link DIR-615 C1 router with DD-WRT. I set up the SSH server on the router, and log on through an SSH2-RSA passphrase-protected key. That router is the gateway between the local network and the internet. One of the computers on that network has Microsoft SQL Server 2008 installed, with TCP/IP protocol enabled through port 1433. I've set up port forwarding on the router, so that remote connections are possible and are, in fact, working (some developers log on remotely without problems). I am part of another network, that has internet access through a proxy server, which only has ports 80 and 443 opened. I can't connect to that MSSQL server on that remote server because 1433 port is closed on this network. I connected (using Putty) through 443 port to my router's SSH server, and set up 2 tunnels. One is for RDP (3389), and it's working. The other is for 1433 port, to connect to the server. I can't connect through the SSH tunnel to the MS SQL Server, neither through telnet, or through GUI clients. Am I missing something? Additional details: on connect, I get this error from SQL Server Management Studio: TITLE: Connect to Server Cannot connect to localhost:14330. ADDITIONAL INFORMATION: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) (Microsoft SQL Server, Error: 3) For help, click: http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink?ProdName=Microsoft+SQL+Server&EvtSrc=MSSQLServer&EvtID=3&LinkId=20476 BUTTONS: OK The tunnel is configured like this: L14330 192.168.0.103:1433 192.168.0.103 is the permanent address of the SQL Server on the LAN. I also successfully forwarded TCP traffic of 3389 port to that IP, so tunneling is working to that IP address. When connecting without tunnel, through Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio, using the same method the connection establishes. Too bad my proxy doesn't allow 1433 port traffic, I wouldn't have this headache.

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  • Operative systems on SD cards

    - by HisDudeness
    I was getting some wild ideas the last days, like putting some operative systems into SD cards rather than on my hard drive. I'll go further into details now and explain what lead me to consider this probably abominable decision. I am on a laptop (that means I have a native SD-card reader) which is currently running a cross-distro setup, with a bunch of Linux systems (placed in dedicated ext4 logical partitions into a huge extended one) regulated by an unique GRUB. Since today, my laptop haven't even seen any Windows system with binoculars. I was thinking about placing all the os part of my setup into a Secure Digital to save all my 500 Gb Hard Drive for documents, music, videos and so on, and being able to just remove the SD and boot my system into another computer too, as well as having the possibility of booting other systems into mine by just plugging in another SD, without having to keep it constantly placed in my PC. Also, in the remote case in the near future I just wanted to boot Windows 8 in it, I read it causes major boot incompatibility issues with other systems by needing a digital signature in order for them to start. By having it in a removable drive, I could just get rid of it when I'm needing him and switch its card with Linux one, and so not having any obstacles to their boot. Now, my questions are: I know unlikely traditional rotating disk drives, integrated circuits ones have a limited lifespan in terms of cluster rewriting. Is it an obstacle to that kind of usage? I mean, some Ultrabooks are using SSD now, is it the same issue, or there are some differences between Solid State Drives and Secure Digitals in that sense? Maybe having them to store system files which are in fixed positions (making the even-usage of cluster technology useless) constantly being re-read and updated and similar things just gets them soon unserviceable, do it? Second question: are all motherboards and BIOSes able to boot from SDs just like they are from USB pen drives (I mean, provided card reader is USB-connected, isn't it)? Or can't bootloaders like GRUB be installed on SDs working? If they can't, is it a solution installing GRUB to MBR and making boot option pointing to SD? Will it work? Are there any other problems to installing OSs on a Secure Digital?

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  • Can't save screen resolution setting.

    - by Searock
    Hi, My screen resolution in windows and previous version of Ubuntu (9.04) was 1152 x 864. But in Ubuntu 10.04 it gives me an option of 1024 x 786 and 1360 x 786. I have some how managed to add 1152x684 resolution by using xrandr command. searock@searock-desktop:~$ cvt 1152 864 1152x864 59.96 Hz (CVT 1.00M3) hsync: 53.78 kHz; pclk: 81.75 MHz Modeline "1152x864_60.00" 81.75 1152 1216 1336 1520 864 867 871 897 -hsync +vsync searock@searock-desktop:~$ xrandr --newmode "1152x864_60.00" 81.75 1152 1216 1336 1520 864 867 871 897 -hsync +vsync searock@searock-desktop:~$ xrandr --addmode S-video 1152x864 xrandr: cannot find output "S-video" searock@searock-desktop:~$ xrandr Screen 0: minimum 320 x 200, current 1024 x 768, maximum 4096 x 4096 VGA1 connected 1024x768+0+0 (normal left inverted right x axis y axis) 0mm x 0mm 1360x768 59.8 1024x768 60.0* 800x600 60.3 56.2 848x480 60.0 640x480 59.9 59.9 1152x864_60.00 (0x124) 81.0MHz h: width 1152 start 1216 end 1336 total 1520 skew 0 clock 53.3KHz v: height 864 start 867 end 871 total 897 clock 59.4Hz searock@searock-desktop:~$ xrandr --addmode VGA1 1152x864_60.00 But the problem is when ever I restart my computer I get this message. Could not apply the stored configuration for the monitors. Could not find a suitable configuration of screens. And then it comes back to 1024 x 786 My graphic card details : Intel(R) 82945G Express Chipset Family. Is there any way I can fix this once for all ? Thanks. Edit 1 : rumtscho has suggested me to modify xorg.conf file. But I am not sure what HorizSync means? is it Horizontal frequency ? My monitor model is Acer v173. Here's my specification. So what should be HorizSync and VertRefresh ? Edit 2 : I have edited my Xorg.conf file as follows : Section "Monitor" Identifier "Configured Monitor" HorizSync 30-80 VertRefresh 55-75 EndSection then I added the resolution and restarted my computer and still I am facing the same problem. Is there something that I am missing? Edit 3 : For now I have edited /etc/gdm/Init/Default(gdm startup scripts) to include following xrandr commands, just below line initctl -q emit login-session-start DISPLAY_MANAGER=gdm xrandr --newmode "1152x864_60.00" 81.75 1152 1216 1336 1520 864 867 871 897 -hsync +vsync xrandr --addmode VGA1 1152x864_60.00<br/> xrandr -s 1152x864_60.00 This has solved my problem, but this commands have increased my computer's boot time. I think I will have to edit xorg file properly. Edit 4 : Instead of adding this files to gdm startup scripts I have created a shell script and added it to startup (System - Preference - Startup Applications) #!/bin/bash xrandr --newmode "1152x864_60.00" 81.75 1152 1216 1336 1520 864 867 871 897 -hsync +vsync xrandr --addmode VGA1 1152x864_60.00 xrandr -s 1152x864_60.00 And don't forget to add execution rights. (Right Click - Properties - Permission - Allow executing file as program)

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  • Asus M4A79XTD-EVO / AMD Phenom II X4 965 Crashes / BSOD / Hangs / Restarts

    - by Tiby
    I'll try to be as concise as possible because I have a lot to say about my problem, but I'd rather say it when asked or when I feel it's necessary, just to make this initial reading clearer. For about a year and a half I have periods when my system has all the problems in the title (I'll use the word 'crash' for either one). I'll list some patterns and what I tried to do and what were the results, but the list is not exclusive: usually it crashes when a CPU-intensive operation is in progress, like a game or video encoding or HD movie rendering, but also sometimes crashes when I'm doing nothing after a first crash the system is very unstable and sometimes it crashes even during POST, or doesn't boot at all Some months ago I went to a local service (one that you just put your computer on the table and sit there with a guy and trying to figure out the problem, very rare these days) and they used OCCT and it crashed every time he changed some part to test it out (PSU, RAM, video card, HDD). The last one was the CPU. They changed the CPU and it didn't crash any more. Then when they put my CPU back, it also didn't crash. We figured that the trouble was the thermal paste (probably some 2 years old) because it was the only thing changed while testing. Up until 2 weeks ago, I haven't had any more problems. 2 weeks ago the problems reappeared. I changed again the thermal paste, put some Arctic Silver 5, and for about a week everything worked perfect (tried some games, video encoding, no more crashes). But again it started crashing in the same fashion as the first time. But now, instead, I figured out a very odd behaviour: when I start some of the apps above, in most cases it crashes if I start OCCT and turn on the CPU test, and run any of the programs above, it doesn't crash, even if the CPU is on 100% load (and 65-70 degrees Celsius temperature) if I shut down OCCT and continue using the programs, it crashes in a very short period of time (even if the CPU is on 5-10% load and 40 degrees) There are so many patterns and temporary solutions that I figured out in this year and a half period of time, that I can't include them all because I don't know which one are more relevant, but I'll happily provide any details you ask. My system is: CPU: AMD Phenom II X4 965 (3400 MHz - 125W) MB: ASUS M4A79XTD - EVO RAM: Corsair Vengeance 8 GB (2 x 4GB) CL8 1600MHz Video: HIS Radeon HD5770 1GB PSU: Corsair 750W HDD: Western Digital 1TB OS: Win 7 Enterprise 64 BIT (also tried with Windows Server 2008 R2 Trial and Win XP)

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  • Routing and Remote Access Service won't start after full disk

    - by NKCSS
    The HDD of the server was out of disk space, and after a reboot, RRAS won't start anymore on my 2008 R2 server. Error Details: Log Name: System Source: RemoteAccess Date: 2/5/2012 9:39:52 PM Event ID: 20153 Task Category: None Level: Error Keywords: Classic User: N/A Computer: Windows14111.<snip> Description: The currently configured accounting provider failed to load and initialize successfully. The connection was prevented because of a policy configured on your RAS/VPN server. Specifically, the authentication method used by the server to verify your username and password may not match the authentication method configured in your connection profile. Please contact the Administrator of the RAS server and notify them of this error. Event Xml: <Event xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/win/2004/08/events/event"> <System> <Provider Name="RemoteAccess" /> <EventID Qualifiers="0">20153</EventID> <Level>2</Level> <Task>0</Task> <Keywords>0x80000000000000</Keywords> <TimeCreated SystemTime="2012-02-05T20:39:52.000Z" /> <EventRecordID>12148869</EventRecordID> <Channel>System</Channel> <Computer>Windows14111.<snip></Computer> <Security /> </System> <EventData> <Data>The connection was prevented because of a policy configured on your RAS/VPN server. Specifically, the authentication method used by the server to verify your username and password may not match the authentication method configured in your connection profile. Please contact the Administrator of the RAS server and notify them of this error.</Data> <Binary>2C030000</Binary> </EventData> </Event> I think it has something to do with a corrupt config file, but I am unsure of what to do. I Removed the RRAS role, rebooted, and re-added, but it keeps failing with the same error. Thanks in advance. [UPDATE] If i set the accounting provider from 'Windows' to '' the service starts but VPN won't work. Any ideas how this can be repaired?

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  • Why can't I connect to remote Microsoft SQL Server through SSH tunnel?

    - by Alexander
    I have at home a D-Link DIR-615 C1 router with DD-WRT. I set up the SSH server on the router, and log on through an SSH2-RSA passphrase-protected key. That router is the gateway between the local network and the internet. One of the computers on that network has Microsoft SQL Server 2008 installed, with TCP/IP protocol enabled through port 1433. I've set up port forwarding on the router, so that remote connections are possible and are, in fact, working (some developers log on remotely without problems). I am part of another network, that has internet access through a proxy server, which only has ports 80 and 443 opened. I can't connect to that MSSQL server on that remote server because 1433 port is closed on this network. I connected (using Putty) through 443 port to my router's SSH server, and set up 2 tunnels. One is for RDP (3389), and it's working. The other is for 1433 port, to connect to the server. I can't connect through the SSH tunnel to the MS SQL Server, neither through telnet, or through GUI clients. Am I missing something? Additional details: on connect, I get this error from SQL Server Management Studio: TITLE: Connect to Server Cannot connect to localhost:14330. ADDITIONAL INFORMATION: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) (Microsoft SQL Server, Error: 3) For help, click: http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink?ProdName=Microsoft+SQL+Server&EvtSrc=MSSQLServer&EvtID=3&LinkId=20476 BUTTONS: OK The tunnel is configured like this: L14330 192.168.0.103:1433 192.168.0.103 is the permanent address of the SQL Server on the LAN. I also successfully forwarded TCP traffic of 3389 port to that IP, so tunneling is working to that IP address. When connecting without tunnel, through Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio, using the same method the connection establishes. Too bad my proxy doesn't allow 1433 port traffic, I wouldn't have this headache.

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  • How to get the best LINPACK result and conquer the Top500?

    - by knweiss
    Given a large Linux HPC cluster with hundreds/thousands of nodes. What are your best practices to get the best possible LINPACK benchmark (HPL) result to submit for the Top500 supercomputer list? To give you an idea what kind of answers I would appreciate here are some sub-questions (with links): How to you tune the parameters (N, NB, P, Q, memory-alignment, etc) for the HPL.dat file (without spending too much time trying each possible permutation - esp with large problem sizes N)? Are there any Top500 submission rules to be aware of? What is allowed, what isn't? Which MPI product, which version? Does it make a difference? Any special host order in your MPI machine file? Do you use CPU pinning? How to you configure your interconnect? Which interconnect? Which BLAS package do you use for which CPU model? (Intel MKL, AMD ACML, GotoBLAS2, etc.) How do you prepare for the big run (on all nodes)? Start with small runs on a subset of nodes and then scale up? Is it really necessary to run LINPACK with a big run on all of the nodes (or is extrapolation allowed)? How do you optimize for the latest Intel/AMD CPUs? Hyperthreading? NUMA? Is it worth it to recompile the software stack or do you use precompiled binaries? Which settings? Which compiler optimizations, which compiler? (What about profile-based compilation?) How to get the best result given only a limited amount of time to do the benchmark run? (You can block a huge cluster forever) How do you prepare the individual nodes (stopping system daemons, freeing memory, etc)? How do you deal with hardware faults (ruining a huge run)? Are there any must-read documents or websites about this topic? E.g. I would love to hear about some background stories of some of the current Top500 systems and how they did their LINPACK benchmark. I deliberately don't want to mention concrete hardware details or discuss hardware recommendations because I don't want to limit the answers. However, feel free to mention hints e.g. for specific CPU models.

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  • 2nd Year College - Learning - Microsoft Server Products

    - by Ryan
    As the title says, I just finished my first year of college (majoring in Software Engineering). Fortunately my school likes Microsoft enough, and I can get pretty much anything I want that Microsoft sells. I also can get IBM Websphere and the like for free as well. Earlier this year, I set up an oldish computer (2.6 Pentium D, x64) to run ubuntu server headless. I'm predominately a Java developer, so Apache, Maven, Nexus, Sonar, SVN, etc made it onto the machine. It worked really well for personal and school projects, especially team projects (quick ramp up). Anyways, I started to pick up C# to complement my Java knowledge (don't judge me :P), and am interested in working with some of the associated Microsoft equivalents. The machine currently has the Ubuntu install, as well as Windows 7 Ultimate. I do all of my actual development work off my laptop, also running Windows 7 Ultimate. I was wondering what software you would recommend putting on the machine. I’m not actually serving anything off the machine itself, but in Ubuntu I had it doing integration tests with Hudson on every commit, and profiling my applications, etc, etc. The machine would be running headless, and I would remote into it. Here is what I am currently leaning towards / wondering about: Windows 7 Ultimate vs Windows Server 2008 (R2) (no one is really clear why I should go with one over the other) Windows Team Foundation Sharepoint (Never used it before, kind of meh about it) IBM Websphere or Glassfish (Some Java EE web server) SQL Server 2008 A DVCS In order to better control product conflicts / limit resource use, I’m wondering if I should install things into virtual machines (I can get VmWare or Microsoft Virtualization Products) I also plan on installing everything I had running under Linux (it’s almost entirely Java based development software, so it’ll run on both, only reason I went with ubuntu during the year was because the apache build seemed better). I’m primarily looking to become familiar with enterprise software development tools, as well as get something functional that will help my development process. (IE, I’ll still use project and assign tasks even though I might be the only one to assign tasks to, just to practice doing so). Is there any other software / configuration details I should explore? Opinions on my current list? I primarily use C#, Java, and PHP. I'm familiar with ruby, and python as well. Thanks!

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  • How to generate build no with SVN revision no & Maven buildNumber plugin

    - by Binit jha
    I am using mvn buildNumber plugin to generate build no with latest svn revision no. But, our version is not resolve to ${buildNumber} in the duration of installing in .m2 local reposotry. here is the our pom details: <modelVersion>4.0.0</modelVersion> <groupId>com.hp.cloudprint</groupId> <artifactId>testutils</artifactId> <name>testutils</name> <version>6.3.rel.${buildNumber}</version> <description>This jar contains some helper classes which can simplify the writing of JUnit test cases.</description> <dependencies> <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.mojo</groupId> <artifactId>buildnumber-maven-plugin</artifactId> <executions> <execution> <id>useLastCommittedRevision</id> <phase>validate</phase> <goals> <goal>create</goal> </goals> </execution> </executions> <configuration> <doCheck>false</doCheck> <doUpdate>true</doUpdate> <getRevisionOnlyOnce>true</getRevisionOnlyOnce> </configuration> </plugin> <scm> <connection>scm:svn:https://acn-platform</connection> <developerConnection>scm:svn:https://abc-platform/trunk</developerConnection> </scm>. </project> Building jar: C:\Documents and Settings\hpadmin\workspace\testutils\target\testutils-6.3.rel.2930.jar [INFO] [install:install] [INFO] Installing C:\Documents and Settings\hpadmin\workspace\testutils\target\testutils-6.3.rel.2930.jar to C:\Documents and Settings\jhab.m2*\repository\com\hp\cloudprint\testutils\6.3.rel.${buildNumber}\testutils-6.3.rel.${buildNumber}.jar** [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] BUILD SUCCESSFUL Target generated correct jar. testutil-6.3.rel.2297.jar* Thanks in advance Binit

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  • ISPconfig3 + CentOS 6.2 , confused on how to move forward after initial install?

    - by Damainman
    I installed ISPCONFIG3 on centos 6.2 using the great guide on howtoforge.com. Everything is up and running and I can access ISPCONFIG via a browser. However I am not sure how to move forward with the initial setup so I can setup the very first account and get my website live. Details: Only have 1 server, the centos+ispconfig is running on a virtual machine of XEN XCP. I setup the server name to be server1.mydomain.com. I only have 2 usable ips. I plan to use them as follows: xx.xx.xx.01 : For my website and the websites of all accounts I add. xx.xx.xx.02 : For ns1.mydomain.com and ns2.mydomain.com (Yea I know they should be different ips at different locations, but this is what I have to work with at the moment.... ) I registered the nameservers at my registrar with the .02 ip. I want to use bind and ISPconfig to run the DNS on my server itself and not via my registrar. Right now if I go to the .01 IP it shows the centos+apache successful install page. So to break it down basically I am not sure where to start when it comes to: (What to consider and what to do to setup the first domain on the server) Telling bind to use the name server domains with .02. Setting up my First website(which will be my main website) in ISPconfig so mydomain.com resolves properly to my server. Make it so when you go to the .01 IP, it either redirects or shows the contents of my main website. (If this can't be done, then any advice is appreciated) Making sure that when I add a new domain, it automatically puts in the proper information for the domain so it points to the right mail, database, dns, entry. If I overlooked a tutorial then please feel free to let me know, and any advice would be greatly appreciated. Some of the tutorials I found were not specific to doing everything on only one server with Centos+Apache+Bind. Right now all I did was install centos and install ISPconfig3. Trying to move forward correctly so I don't mess up everything I did by not knowing what to do. Thank you in advance!!

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  • How to generate build no with SVN revision no & Maven buildNumber plugin.

    - by Binit jha
    Hi, I am using mvn buildNumber plugin to generate build no with latest svn revision no. But, our version is not resolve to ${buildNumber} in the duration of installing in .m2 local reposotry. here is the our pom details: <modelVersion>4.0.0</modelVersion> <groupId>com.hp.cloudprint</groupId> <artifactId>testutils</artifactId> <name>testutils</name> <version>6.3.rel.${buildNumber}</version> <description>This jar contains some helper classes which can simplify the writing of JUnit test cases.</description> <dependencies> <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.mojo</groupId> <artifactId>buildnumber-maven-plugin</artifactId> <executions> <execution> <id>useLastCommittedRevision</id> <phase>validate</phase> <goals> <goal>create</goal> </goals> </execution> </executions> <configuration> <doCheck>false</doCheck> <doUpdate>true</doUpdate> <getRevisionOnlyOnce>true</getRevisionOnlyOnce> </configuration> </plugin> <scm> <connection>scm:svn:https://acn-platform</connection> <developerConnection>scm:svn:https://abc-platform/trunk</developerConnection> </scm>. </project> Building jar: C:\Documents and Settings\hpadmin\workspace\testutils\target\testutils-6.3.rel.2930.jar [INFO] [install:install] [INFO] Installing C:\Documents and Settings\hpadmin\workspace\testutils\target\testutils-6.3.rel.2930.jar to C:\Documents and Settings\jhab.m2*\repository\com\hp\cloudprint\testutils\6.3.rel.${buildNumber}\testutils-6.3.rel.${buildNumber}.jar** [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] BUILD SUCCESSFUL Target generated correct jar. testutil-6.3.rel.2297.jar* Thanks in advance Binit

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  • Moving default web site to another drive

    - by Chadworthington
    I set the default location from c:\inetpub\wwwroot to d:\inetpub\wwwroot but when I access my .NET 4.0 site get this error: Description: An error occurred during the processing of a configuration file required to service this request. Please review the specific error details below and modify your configuration file appropriately. Parser Error Message: Unrecognized attribute 'targetFramework'. Note that attribute names are case-sensitive. Source Error: Line 105: Set explicit="true" to force declaration of all variables. Line 106: --> Line 107: <compilation debug="true" strict="true" explicit="true" targetFramework="4.0"> Line 108: <assemblies> Line 109: <add assembly="System.Web.Extensions.Design, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> When I try to Manage the Basic Settings on the Site and click the "Test Settings" button, I see that I have a problem under "authorization:" The server is configured to use pass-through authentication with a built-in account to access the specified physical path. However, IIS Manager cannot verify whether the built-in account has access. Make sure that the application pool identity has Read access to the physical path. If this server is joined to a domain, and the application pool identity is NetworkService or LocalSystem, verify that <domain>\<computer_name>$ has Read access to the physical path. Then test these settings again. 1) Do I need to grant rights to IIS to the new folder? Which user? I thought it was something like IIS_USER or something similar but I cannot determine the correct name of the user. 2) Also, do I need to set the default version of the framework somewhere at the Default Site level or at the Virtual folder level? How is this done in IIS6, I am used to IIS5 or whatever came with XP Pro. 3) My original site had a subfolder under wwwroot called "aspnet_client." How was this cleated? I manually copied it to the corresponding new location. My app was using seperate ASP specific databases for storing session state and role info, if that is relevant. Thanks

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  • What's the best scenario for using a wireless router with Comcast Business Class

    - by Buck
    Just had Comcast Business Class internet installed (usage details at bottom of post). During the call to order I asked about the hardware they'd be providing and was told it was a docsis 3 modem that I'd have to pay $7.00/month for. Figuring I'd have to buy a router anyway, I decided to get my own modem - a Surfboard SB6121 Docsis 3. I called in to tech support to ask some questions and learned that the modem they would have provided DID have a router built in. It's an SMCD3G-CCR. It's not wireless (we need wireless). The guy explained that it was better to have their hardware here because if there's a problem with our service and we're using our own hardware, chances are they'll blame it on our hardware and do nothing since they don't support it. He explained that I could still hang my own wireless router off their modem/router and if we ever had any service problems, we'd be able to plug directly into their hardware and they'd be able to tell where the problem is and they wouldn't be able to pawn it off onto "customer provided equipment". That all said, a few questions: 1. Am I better off returning my Surfboard modem and getting the Comcast one? If I get a wireless router and plug into one of the ethernet ports of the Comcast device, should I NOT plug anything else into the Comcast device since it would be a different network from anything connecting via the wireless router? Is that correct? Given that I know VERY LITTLE about networking and setting up hardware like this... since I need wireless and will HAVE to get a wireless router to work with this Comcast device, do I need to do anything with the settings of the Comcast device? Do I use security on the Comcast device or the wireless router or both? Any suggestions or anything I need to think about, given this scenario, in order to use a business-type voip service like RingCentral or Jive or Nextiva? Any recommendations on a wireless router for this scenario? We are running 2 PCs (possibly 3-4 in the future) - could be wired for the time being if needed but would prefer wireless; would like to have a networked hard drive and a networked printer; NEED business-type VOIP service asap for 2 phone lines. Would like to hook up some IP cameras at some point (but not the kind that require static IPs since I don't have one nor do I plan to pay Comcast another $15/month for one). I don't have or plan to have any type of web servers or anything like that. Want to use WPA or WPA2 security and take advantage of the NAT feature of the router for additional protection (that's the extent of my networking knowledge).

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  • Some domain names not resolving on local network

    - by Solignis
    I am not really sure where to start with this one... I have a small network setup with some linux servers (Ubuntu 11.04 Server). 2 servers are running BIND 9 (NS01, NS02), they are configured as master and slave respectively. 1 server is running Zimbra ZCS 7.1.1 (MX01), it has a private BIND 9 server running to achieve a split DNS configuration. This DNS server does not interact with the other two, it forwards queries it can resolve to the other 2 that is it. No zone transfers. Zimbra is hosting 3 domains at the moment, solignis.local, solignis.com, campbellsurvey.net. The problem From with in my network I cannot connect to mail.campbellsurvey.net. When I mean I cannot connect, I mean if I open firefox and type https://mail.campbellsurvey.net I go nowhere, the address is supposed to connect to my Zimbra webmail. But it goes nowhere, the odd thing is if I try the same task from outside of the network it brings the website up like normal. If I try to create an account in thunderbird to connect to the same server using IMAP4 or POP3 I get an error saying that thunderbird cannot find the domain name. Even the zimbra client fails too. It is like from with in my own walls that campbellsurvey.net does not exist. But if step outside I can get it work with no problem at all. I had thought maybe the problem was with the DNS server (BIND 9), so just to eliminate it as a possibility I configured a windows server I use for VMware VCenter as a DNS server to see what would happen. The result was the same, its like something is preventing connections to those domains, but I have checked various firewalls and such. I checked port forwards, etc. So I am running out of ideas I know this is not a lot of information to work from and I can give more details about certain things as needed. I am just trying to figure out what could be going wrong. Any help you could offer would be much appreciated.

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  • Error sending email to alias with Postfix

    - by Burning the Codeigniter
    I'm on Ubuntu 11.04 64bit. I'm trying to set up Postfix on my VPS, which has been configured but when I send an email to an alias e.g. [email protected] it will send it to [email protected]. Now when I sent the email from my GMail account, I got this returned: Delivery to the following recipient failed permanently: [email protected] Technical details of permanent failure: Google tried to deliver your message, but it was rejected by the recipient domain. We recommend contacting the other email provider for further information about the cause of this error. The error that the other server returned was: 550 550 #5.1.0 Address rejected [email protected] (state 14). ----- Original message ----- DKIM-Signature: v=1; a=rsa-sha256; c=relaxed/relaxed; d=gmail.com; s=20120113; h=mime-version:date:message-id:subject:from:to:content-type; bh=R1WtjVRWywfkWCR2g4QKbSjAfUaU9DAAMKbg9UAWqvs=; b=FiSfdhEaV4pEq/76ENlH4tvOgm35Ow3ulRg06kDYrIQTaDf3eOEgfSEgH25PjZuAj/ 7Hg1CL++o6Rt/tl80ZiR2AWekhA0zIn2JkqE7KssMG7WbBmMmbf8V9KDo2jOw+mZv+C/ KDKsQ65AudBZ/NYLDDpTT7MkKf8DzqeGCKj9MAct6sHDoC0wCciXYxNfTf+MKxrZvRHQ oICTkH5LOugKW9wEjPF2AoO8X0qgYmTLYeSUtXxu46VeNKRBGmdRkkpPOoJlQN9ank7i SW6kU6M9bk2bYOgKwV/YPsaantmYlu1XdmYx+kWeJkNJAyYOfXfZZ8WUJhbbFFD9bZCi m/hw== MIME-Version: 1.0 Received: by 10.101.3.5 with SMTP id f5mr783908ani.86.1334247306547; Thu, 12 Apr 2012 09:15:06 -0700 (PDT) Received: by 10.236.73.136 with HTTP; Thu, 12 Apr 2012 09:15:06 -0700 (PDT) Date: Thu, 12 Apr 2012 17:15:06 +0100 Message-ID: <CAN+9S2aB=xjiDxVZx3qYZoBMFD4XuadUyR_3OYWaxw1ecrZmOQ@mail.gmail.com> Subject: Test Email From: My Name <[email protected]> To: [email protected] Content-Type: multipart/alternative; boundary=001636c597eabfd21504bd7da8fd Now that I don't understand why it isn't working, my aliases are set up correctly - I see no error messages being produced in /var/log/mail.log or any other mail logs, which makes it harder for me to debug. This is my postfix configuration (postconf -n): alias_database = hash:/etc/aliases alias_maps = hash:/etc/aliases append_dot_mydomain = no biff = no config_directory = /etc/postfix inet_interfaces = all mailbox_command = procmail -a "$EXTENSION" mailbox_size_limit = 0 mydestination = $mydomain, $myhostname, localhost, localhost.localdomain, localhost mydomain = domain.com myhostname = localhost mynetworks = 192.168.1.0/24 127.0.0.0/8 readme_directory = no recipient_delimiter = + smtp_tls_session_cache_database = btree:${data_directory}/smtp_scache smtpd_banner = $myhostname ESMTP $mail_name (Ubuntu) smtpd_tls_cert_file = /etc/ssl/certs/ssl-cert-snakeoil.pem smtpd_tls_key_file = /etc/ssl/private/ssl-cert-snakeoil.key smtpd_tls_session_cache_database = btree:${data_directory}/smtpd_scache smtpd_use_tls = yes Does anyone know how to solve this specific issue?

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  • SQL Server database filled the hard drive and freeing up space isn't possible

    - by Jon
    I have a database in SQL Server 2008 on a 1Tb hard drive and it filled the drive, there is only 4Kb free. The MDF file is 323Gb and the LDF is 653Gb. The hard disk this DB is on has no other files on it other than the MDF and LDF so it's impossible to free up any space on the drive. The main hard disk is smaller but there is enough room to transfer the MDF to that drive, in case that helps. This server is overseas at a customer site and it's not possible at the moment to add more disk space to the server. It's also not possible to delete any records because the DB is in a failed mode (due to no disk space) and it doesn't respond to most commands. The Db is currently in full recovery mode which is why the LDF file is so large. This DB really doesn't need to be in full recovery so going forward we plan on switching it to simple mode which will save us a lot of space. I also don't care about losing the LDF file, but I need all of the data. I've spent a lot of time looking for a way out of this problem but everything I've found first involves either freeing up disk space or adding more disk space, neither of which is an option at this time. I'm stuck and any help would be greatly appreciated. I get the following log when trying to switch the DB to online mode. Msg 945, Level 14, State 2, Line 3 Database 'DBNAME' cannot be opened due to inaccessible files or insufficient memory or disk space. See the SQL Server errorlog for details. Msg 5069, Level 16, State 1, Line 3 ALTER DATABASE statement failed. Msg 1101, Level 17, State 12, Line 3 Could not allocate a new page for database 'DBNAME' because of insufficient disk space in filegroup 'DEFAULT'. Create the necessary space by dropping objects in the filegroup, adding additional files to the filegroup, or setting autogrowth on for existing files in the filegroup. I've found the following solutions but none work due to having no disk space on that drive, and since the DB is in a failed state I can't run most commmands. - DBCC SHRINKFILE - can't be run because doing a 'use DBNAME' fails - Detaching the DB and then changing the location of the MDF/LDF files, this fails because the DB is in an offline mode so you can't run detach. I'm at a loss about what else to try. Thanks.

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