Search Results

Search found 9492 results on 380 pages for 'logic unit'.

Page 340/380 | < Previous Page | 336 337 338 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347  | Next Page >

  • Unity framework DependencyAttribute only works for public properties?

    - by rally25rs
    I was trying to clean up some accessability stuff in my code, and inadvertently broke Unity dependency injection. After a while I realized that I marked some public properties that I didn't really want exposed outside my DLLs to internal. Then I started getting exceptions. So it seems that using the [Dependency] attribute in Unity only works for public properties. I suppose that makes sense since the internal and private props wouldnt be visible to the Unity assembly, but feels really dirty to have a bunch of public properties that you never want anyone to set or be able to set, other than Unity. Is there a way to let unity set internal or private properties too? Here is the unit test I'd like to see pass. Currently only the public prop test passes: [TestFixture] public class UnityFixture { [Test] public void UnityCanSetPublicDependency() { UnityContainer container = new UnityContainer(); container.RegisterType<HasPublicDep, HasPublicDep>(); container.RegisterType<TheDep, TheDep>(); var i = container.Resolve<HasPublicDep>(); Assert.IsNotNull(i); Assert.IsNotNull(i.dep); } [Test] public void UnityCanSetInternalDependency() { UnityContainer container = new UnityContainer(); container.RegisterType<HasInternalDep, HasInternalDep>(); container.RegisterType<TheDep, TheDep>(); var i = container.Resolve<HasInternalDep>(); Assert.IsNotNull(i); Assert.IsNotNull(i.dep); } [Test] public void UnityCanSetPrivateDependency() { UnityContainer container = new UnityContainer(); container.RegisterType<HasPrivateDep, HasPrivateDep>(); container.RegisterType<TheDep, TheDep>(); var i = container.Resolve<HasPrivateDep>(); Assert.IsNotNull(i); Assert.IsNotNull(i.depExposed); } } public class HasPublicDep { [Dependency] public TheDep dep { get; set; } } public class HasInternalDep { [Dependency] internal TheDep dep { get; set; } } public class HasPrivateDep { [Dependency] private TheDep dep { get; set; } public TheDep depExposed { get { return this.dep; } } } public class TheDep { } Updated: I noticed the call stack to set the property passed from: UnityCanSetPublicDependency() --> Microsoft.Practices.Unity.dll --> Microsoft.Practices.ObjectBuilder2.dll --> HasPublicDep.TheDep.set() So in an attempt to at least make the internal version work, I added these to my assembly's properties: [assembly: InternalsVisibleTo("Microsoft.Practices.Unity")] [assembly: InternalsVisibleTo("Microsoft.Practices.Unity.Configuration")] [assembly: InternalsVisibleTo("Microsoft.Practices.ObjectBuilder2")] However, no change. Unity/ObjectBuilder still won't set the internal property

    Read the article

  • Is this a good way to do a game loop for an iPhone game?

    - by Danny Tuppeny
    Hi all, I'm new to iPhone dev, but trying to build a 2D game. I was following a book, but the game loop it created basically said: function gameLoop update() render() sleep(1/30th second) gameLoop The reasoning was that this would run at 30fps. However, this seemed a little mental, because if my frame took 1/30th second, then it would run at 15fps (since it'll spend as much time sleeping as updating). So, I did some digging and found the CADisplayLink class which would sync calls to my gameLoop function to the refresh rate (or a fraction of it). I can't find many samples of it, so I'm posting here for a code review :-) It seems to work as expected, and it includes passing the elapsed (frame) time into the Update method so my logic can be framerate-independant (however I can't actually find in the docs what CADisplayLink would do if my frame took more than its allowed time to run - I'm hoping it just does its best to catch up, and doesn't crash!). // // GameAppDelegate.m // // Created by Danny Tuppeny on 10/03/2010. // Copyright Danny Tuppeny 2010. All rights reserved. // #import "GameAppDelegate.h" #import "GameViewController.h" #import "GameStates/gsSplash.h" @implementation GameAppDelegate @synthesize window; @synthesize viewController; - (void) applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { // Create an instance of the first GameState (Splash Screen) [self doStateChange:[gsSplash class]]; // Set up the game loop displayLink = [CADisplayLink displayLinkWithTarget:self selector:@selector(gameLoop)]; [displayLink setFrameInterval:2]; [displayLink addToRunLoop:[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] forMode:NSDefaultRunLoopMode]; } - (void) gameLoop { // Calculate how long has passed since the previous frame CFTimeInterval currentFrameTime = [displayLink timestamp]; CFTimeInterval elapsed = 0; // For the first frame, we want to pass 0 (since we haven't elapsed any time), so only // calculate this in the case where we're not the first frame if (lastFrameTime != 0) { elapsed = currentFrameTime - lastFrameTime; } // Keep track of this frames time (so we can calculate this next time) lastFrameTime = currentFrameTime; NSLog([NSString stringWithFormat:@"%f", elapsed]); // Call update, passing the elapsed time in [((GameState*)viewController.view) Update:elapsed]; } - (void) doStateChange:(Class)state { // Remove the previous GameState if (viewController.view != nil) { [viewController.view removeFromSuperview]; [viewController.view release]; } // Create the new GameState viewController.view = [[state alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, IPHONE_WIDTH, IPHONE_HEIGHT) andManager:self]; // Now set as visible [window addSubview:viewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } - (void) dealloc { [viewController release]; [window release]; [super dealloc]; } @end Any feedback would be appreciated :-) PS. Bonus points if you can tell me why all the books use "viewController.view" but for everything else seem to use "[object name]" format. Why not [viewController view]?

    Read the article

  • Any one like me who still believes in AspNet Web forms? Or has evryone switched to MVC

    - by The_AlienCoder
    After years mastering Aspnet webforms I recently decided to try out ASpnet MVC. Naturally my first action was to google 'Aspnet webforms vs Aspnet MVC'. I hoped to get an honest comparison of the two development techniques and guidelines on when to use which one. ..But I was completely turned off by the MVC proponents. In almost every post on the net comparing the two 'platforms' the MVC camp is simply bashing webform developers like me. They go on and on about how wrong and stupid using webforms is. As if what we have been doing the past decade has been pointless - all those websites built(& still running), all those clever controls, the mighty gridview..ALL POINTLESS ! Karl Seguin especially with his stupid webforms rant really turned me off. If his intention was to convert people like me he did the oposite and made me defensive. If anything I am now convinced that the webforms approach is better. consider the following All the critical shortcomings of aspnet webforms have now been Addressed in visual studio 2010 with Aspnet 4.0.- Cleaner html, cleaner control IDs, friendly urls, leaner viewstate etc Why would any one want to implement the mighty gridview and other wonderful controls from scratch ? In MVC you have to do this yourself because ABSTRACTION IS PLAIN STUPID- Instead of writing loops why not just code using 1s and 0s then? A stateless web is a WEAKNESS so why would anyone want to get rid of viewstate? Everyone would like a better implementation but getting rid of it is a step backwards not forward. Unit testing is great but not a critical requirement for most web projects. I thought inline codes were dead with asp. But now they are back and fashionable - Thanks to MVC. I dont know about you people but codebehind was REVOLUTIONARY. Ive had the Ajax Update panel do so many wonderful things without writing a line of code so why demonise it? Ive succesfully implemented a chat client, IM client and Status bar using nothing but the update panel and script manager.Ofcourse you cant use it for everything but most of the time its appropriate. And finally the last word from JQUERY - 'Write less do more !' - That's what webforms is all about ! So Am I the only who still believes in webforms(and it getting better as Aspnet 4.0 has shown) or will it be dead and gone a few years from now like asp? I mean if inline coding is 'the future' why not just switch to PHP !

    Read the article

  • Is there an algorithm for converting quaternion rotations to Euler angle rotations?

    - by Will Baker
    Is there an existing algorithm for converting a quaternion representation of a rotation to an Euler angle representation? The rotation order for the Euler representation is known and can be any of the six permutations (i.e. xyz, xzy, yxz, yzx, zxy, zyx). I've seen algorithms for a fixed rotation order (usually the NASA heading, bank, roll convention) but not for arbitrary rotation order. Furthermore, because there are multiple Euler angle representations of a single orientation, this result is going to be ambiguous. This is acceptable (because the orientation is still valid, it just may not be the one the user is expecting to see), however it would be even better if there was an algorithm which took rotation limits (i.e. the number of degrees of freedom and the limits on each degree of freedom) into account and yielded the 'most sensible' Euler representation given those constraints. I have a feeling this problem (or something similar) may exist in the IK or rigid body dynamics domains. Solved: I just realised that it might not be clear that I solved this problem by following Ken Shoemake's algorithms from Graphics Gems. I did answer my own question at the time, but it occurs to me it may not be clear that I did so. See the answer, below, for more detail. Just to clarify - I know how to convert from a quaternion to the so-called 'Tait-Bryan' representation - what I was calling the 'NASA' convention. This is a rotation order (assuming the convention that the 'Z' axis is up) of zxy. I need an algorithm for all rotation orders. Possibly the solution, then, is to take the zxy order conversion and derive from it five other conversions for the other rotation orders. I guess I was hoping there was a more 'overarching' solution. In any case, I am surprised that I haven't been able to find existing solutions out there. In addition, and this perhaps should be a separate question altogether, any conversion (assuming a known rotation order, of course) is going to select one Euler representation, but there are in fact many. For example, given a rotation order of yxz, the two representations (0,0,180) and (180,180,0) are equivalent (and would yield the same quaternion). Is there a way to constrain the solution using limits on the degrees of freedom? Like you do in IK and rigid body dynamics? i.e. in the example above if there were only one degree of freedom about the Z axis then the second representation can be disregarded. I have tracked down one paper which could be an algorithm in this pdf but I must confess I find the logic and math a little hard to follow. Surely there are other solutions out there? Is arbitrary rotation order really so rare? Surely every major 3D package that allows skeletal animation together with quaternion interpolation (i.e. Maya, Max, Blender, etc) must have solved exactly this problem?

    Read the article

  • ModalPopup CodeBehind Function Wait For User Response

    - by Snave
    I have set up a function which returns an enum of the button that the user clicked in the ModalPopup. I have a variable of type enum to store which button the user clicks in the button click event. In this function, I call the ModalPopupExtender's Show() method. My problem is, the function finishes out and returns the default enum (which is "none" since no button was clicked yet) before the ModalPopup can be shown and store which button the user clicks. So without changing the function to a method and using a different way to store the user's button click, how can I pause the function after the Show() method of the MPE has been called and wait for the user to click a button? Edit(11/20/2009): Clarification: On the aspx page, I include a ScriptManager, PlaceHolder, and an asp:Button with a codebehind click event. What I want is to click the button, then in the click event handler, I want to call a custom static class function that returns a variable. One of the arguments it takes is the PlaceHolder. The function creates all the necessary controls in the PlaceHolder needed to display a ModalPopup. It calls the created ModalPopupExtender's Show() method. What should happen: At this point is the ModalPopup gets displayed, the user clicks a button, that button's event handler fires, the button sets a variable indicating that it was clicked, it then calls the ModalPopupExtender's .Hide() method, and then the function returns the variable that indicates which button was clicked. We then return to the event handler from the original button that was clicked and the programmer can then perform some logic based on what variable was returned. Crux: When the ModalPopupExtender's .Show() method gets called, it does not display the ModalPopup until AFTER the function returns a default variable (because no button was clicked yet) and after the event handler from the original button that was clicked ends. What I need: After the ModalPopupExtender's .Show() method is called, I need the ModalPopup to get displayed immediately and I need the function to wait for a button click to be made from the ModalPopup. My thoughts: Some PostBack needs to be made to the page telling it to update and display the ModalPopup Panel. Then maybe a while loop can be run in the function that waits for a button to be clicked in the ModalPopup.

    Read the article

  • DataTable identity column not set after DataAdapter.Update/Refresh on table with "instead of"-trigge

    - by Arno
    Within our unit tests we use plain ADO.NET (DataTable, DataAdapter) for preparing the database resp. checking the results, while the tested components themselves run under NHibernate 2.1. .NET version is 3.5, SqlServer version is 2005. The database tables have identity columns as primary keys. Some tables apply instead-of-insert/update triggers (this is due to backward compatibility, nothing I can change). The triggers generally work like this: create trigger dbo.emp_insert on dbo.emp instead of insert as begin set nocount on insert into emp ... select @@identity end The insert statement issued by the ADO.NET DataAdapter (generated on-the-fly by a thin ADO.NET wrapper) tries to retrieve the identity value back into the DataRow: exec sp_executesql N' insert into emp (...) values (...); select id, ... from emp where id = @@identity ' But the DataRow's id-Column is still 0. When I remove the trigger temporarily, it works fine - the id-Column then holds the identity value set by the database. NHibernate on the other hand uses this kind of insert statement: exec sp_executesql N' insert into emp (...) values (...); select scope_identity() ' This works, the NHibernate POCO has its id property correctly set right after flushing. Which seems a little bit counter-intuitive to me, as I expected the trigger to run in a different scope, hence @@identity should be a better fit than scope_identity(). So I thought no problem, I will apply scope_identity() instead of @@identity under ADO.NET as well. But this has no effect, the DataRow value is still not updated accordingly. And now for the best part: When I copy and paste those two statements from SqlServer profiler into a Management Studio query (that is including "exec sp_executesql"), and run them there, the results seem to be inverse! There the ADO.NET version works, and the NHibernate version doesn't (select scope_identity() returns null). I tried several times to verify, but to no avail. Of course this just shows the resultset coming from the database, whatever happens inside NHibernate and ADO.NET is another topic. Also, several session properties defined by T-SQL SET are different in the two scenarios (Management Studio query vs. application at runtime) This is a real puzzle to me. I would be happy about any insights on that. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Another design-related C++ question

    - by Kotti
    Hi! I am trying to find some optimal solutions in C++ coding patterns, and this is one of my game engine - related questions. Take a look at the game object declaration (I removed almost everything, that has no connection with the question). // Abstract representation of a game object class Object : public Entity, IRenderable, ISerializable { // Object parameters // Other not really important stuff public: // @note Rendering template will never change while // the object 'lives' Object(RenderTemplate& render_template, /* params */) : /*...*/ { } private: // Object rendering template RenderTemplate render_template; public: /** * Default object render method * Draws rendering template data at (X, Y) with (Width, Height) dimensions * * @note If no appropriate rendering method overload is specified * for any derived class, this method is called * * @param Backend & b * @return void * @see */ virtual void Render(Backend& backend) const { // Render sprite from object's // rendering template structure backend.RenderFromTemplate( render_template, x, y, width, height ); } }; Here is also the IRenderable interface declaration: // Objects that can be rendered interface IRenderable { /** * Abstract method to render current object * * @param Backend & b * @return void * @see */ virtual void Render(Backend& b) const = 0; } and a sample of a real object that is derived from Object (with severe simplifications :) // Ball object class Ball : public Object { // Ball params public: virtual void Render(Backend& b) const { b.RenderEllipse(/*params*/); } }; What I wanted to get is the ability to have some sort of standard function, that would draw sprite for an object (this is Object::Render) if there is no appropriate overload. So, one can have objects without Render(...) method, and if you try to render them, this default sprite-rendering stuff is invoked. And, one can have specialized objects, that define their own way of being rendered. I think, this way of doing things is quite good, but what I can't figure out - is there any way to split the objects' "normal" methods (like Resize(...) or Rotate(...)) implementation from their rendering implementation? Because if everything is done the way described earlier, a common .cpp file, that implements any type of object would generally mix the Resize(...), etc methods implementation and this virtual Render(...) method and this seems to be a mess. I actually want to have rendering procedures for the objects in one place and their "logic implementation" - in another. Is there a way this can be done (maybe alternative pattern or trick or hint) or this is where all this polymorphic and virtual stuff sucks in terms of code placement?

    Read the article

  • Animating custom-drawn UITableViewCell when entering edit mode

    - by Adam Alexander
    Background First of all, much gratitude to atebits for their very informative blog post Fast Scrolling in Tweetie with UITableView. The post explains in detail how the developers were able to squeeze as much scrolling performance as possible out of the UITableViews in Tweetie. Goals Beginning with the source code linked from the blog post (original) (my github repo): Allow a UITableView using these custom cells to switch to edit mode, exposing the UI for deleting an item from the table. (github commit) Move the cell's text aside as the deletion control slides in from the left. This is complete, although the text jumps back and forth without animation. (github commit) Apply animation to the text movement in goal 2 above for a smooth user experience. This is the step where I became stuck. The Question What is the best way to introduce this animation to complete goal 3? It would be nice if this could be done in a manner that keeps the logic from my last commit because I would love the option to move the conflicting part of the view only, while any non-conflicting portions (such as right-justified text) stay in the same place or move a different number of pixels. If the above is not possible then undoing my last commit and replacing it with an option that slides the entire view to the right would be a workable solution also. I appreciate any help anyone can provide, from quick pointers and ideas all the way to code snippets or github commits. Of course you are welcome to fork my repo if you would like. I will be staying involved with this question to make sure any successful resolution is committed to github and fully documented here. Thanks very much for your time! Updated thoughts I have been thinking about this a lot since my first post and realized that moving some text items relative to others in the view could undo some of the original performance goals solved in the original blog post. So at this point I am thinking a solution where the entire single subview is animated to its new postion may be the best one. Second, if it is done in this way there may be an instance where the subview has a custom color or gradient background. Hopefully this can be done in a way that in its normal position the background extends unseen off to the left enough so that when the view is slid to the right the custom background is still visible across the entire cell.

    Read the article

  • How to make custom WCF error handler return JSON response with non-OK http code?

    - by John
    I'm implementing a RESTful web service using WCF and the WebHttpBinding. Currently I'm working on the error handling logic, implementing a custom error handler (IErrorHandler); the aim is to have it catch any uncaught exceptions thrown by operations and then return a JSON error object (including say an error code and error message - e.g. { "errorCode": 123, "errorMessage": "bla" }) back to the browser user along with an an HTTP code such as BadRequest, InteralServerError or whatever (anything other than 'OK' really). Here is the code I am using inside the ProvideFault method of my error handler: fault = Message.CreateMessage(version, "", errorObject, new DataContractJsonSerializer(typeof(ErrorMessage))); var wbf = new WebBodyFormatMessageProperty(WebContentFormat.Json); fault.Properties.Add(WebBodyFormatMessageProperty.Name, wbf); var rmp = new HttpResponseMessageProperty(); rmp.StatusCode = System.Net.HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; rmp.Headers.Add(HttpRequestHeader.ContentType, "application/json"); fault.Properties.Add(HttpResponseMessageProperty.Name, rmp); -- This returns with Content-Type: application/json, however the status code is 'OK' instead of 'InternalServerError'. fault = Message.CreateMessage(version, "", errorObject, new DataContractJsonSerializer(typeof(ErrorMessage))); var wbf = new WebBodyFormatMessageProperty(WebContentFormat.Json); fault.Properties.Add(WebBodyFormatMessageProperty.Name, wbf); var rmp = new HttpResponseMessageProperty(); rmp.StatusCode = System.Net.HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; //rmp.Headers.Add(HttpRequestHeader.ContentType, "application/json"); fault.Properties.Add(HttpResponseMessageProperty.Name, rmp); -- This returns with the correct status code, however the content-type is now XML. fault = Message.CreateMessage(version, "", errorObject, new DataContractJsonSerializer(typeof(ErrorMessage))); var wbf = new WebBodyFormatMessageProperty(WebContentFormat.Json); fault.Properties.Add(WebBodyFormatMessageProperty.Name, wbf); var response = WebOperationContext.Current.OutgoingResponse; response.ContentType = "application/json"; response.StatusCode = HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; -- This returns with the correct status code and the correct content-type! The problem is that the http body now has the text 'Failed to load source for: http://localhost:7000/bla..' instead of the actual JSON data.. Any ideas? I'm considering using the last approach and just sticking the JSON in the HTTP StatusMessage header field instead of in the body, but this doesn't seem quite as nice?

    Read the article

  • How to avoid using duplicate savepoint names in nested transactions in nested stored procs?

    - by Gary McGill
    I have a pattern that I almost always follow, where if I need to wrap up an operation in a transaction, I do this: BEGIN TRANSACTION SAVE TRANSACTION TX -- Stuff IF @error <> 0 ROLLBACK TRANSACTION TX COMMIT TRANSACTION That's served me well enough in the past, but after years of using this pattern (and copy-pasting the above code), I've suddenly discovered a flaw which comes as a complete shock. Quite often, I'll have a stored procedure calling other stored procedures, all of which use this same pattern. What I've discovered (to my cost) is that because I'm using the same savepoint name everywhere, I can get into a situation where my outer transaction is partially committed - precisely the opposite of the atomicity that I'm trying to achieve. I've put together an example that exhibits the problem. This is a single batch (no nested stored procs), and so it looks a little odd in that you probably wouldn't use the same savepoint name twice in the same batch, but my real-world scenario would be too confusing to post. CREATE TABLE Test (test INTEGER NOT NULL) BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX INSERT INTO Test(test) VALUES (1) COMMIT TRAN TX BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX INSERT INTO Test(test) VALUES (2) COMMIT TRAN TX DELETE FROM Test ROLLBACK TRAN TX COMMIT TRAN TX SELECT * FROM Test DROP TABLE Test When I execute this, it lists one record, with value "1". In other words, even though I rolled back my outer transaction, a record was added to the table. What's happening is that the ROLLBACK TRANSACTION TX at the outer level is rolling back as far as the last SAVE TRANSACTION TX at the inner level. Now that I write this all out, I can see the logic behind it: the server is looking back through the log file, treating it as a linear stream of transactions; it doesn't understand the nesting/hierarchy implied by either the nesting of the transactions (or, in my real-world scenario, by the calls to other stored procedures). So, clearly, I need to start using unique savepoint names instead of blindly using "TX" everywhere. But - and this is where I finally get to the point - is there a way to do this in a copy-pastable way so that I can still use the same code everywhere? Can I auto-generate the savepoint name on the fly somehow? Is there a convention or best-practice for doing this sort of thing? It's not exactly hard to come up with a unique name every time you start a transaction (could base it off the SP name, or somesuch), but I do worry that eventually there would be a conflict - and you wouldn't know about it because rather than causing an error it just silently destroys your data... :-(

    Read the article

  • Setting up NCover for NUnit in FinalBuilder

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I am attempting to set up NCover for usage in my FinalBuilder project, for a .NET 4.0 C# project, but my final coverage output file contains no coverage data. I am using: NCover 3.3.2 NUnit 2.5.4 FinalBuilder 6.3.0.2004 All tools are the latest official as of today. I've finally managed to coax FB into running my unit tests under NCover for the .NET 4.0 project, so I get Tests run: 184, ..., which is correct. However, the final Coverage.xml file output from NCover is almost empty, and looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <!-- saved from NCover 3.0 Export url='http://www.ncover.com/' --> <coverage profilerVersion="3.3.2.6211" driverVersion="3.3.2" exportversion="3" viewdisplayname="" startTime="2010-04-22T08:55:33.7471316Z" measureTime="2010-04-22T08:55:35.3462915Z" projectName="" buildid="27c78ffa-c636-4002-a901-3211a0850b99" coveragenodeid="0" failed="false" satisfactorybranchthreshold="95" satisfactorycoveragethreshold="95" satisfactorycyclomaticcomplexitythreshold="20" satisfactoryfunctionthreshold="80" satisfactoryunvisitedsequencepoints="10" uiviewtype="TreeView" viewguid="C:\Dev\VS.NET\LVK.IoC\LVK.IoC.Tests\bin\Debug\Coverage.xml" viewfilterstyle="None" viewreportstyle="SequencePointCoveragePercentage" viewsortstyle="Name"> <rebasedpaths /> <filters /> <documents> <doc id="0" excluded="false" url="None" cs="" csa="00000000-0000-0000-0000-000000000000" om="0" nid="0" /> </documents> </coverage> The output in FB log is: ... ***************** End Program Output ***************** Execution Time: 1,5992 s Coverage Xml: C:\Dev\VS.NET\LVK.IoC\LVK.IoC.Tests\bin\Debug\Coverage.xml NCover Success My configuration of the FB step for NCover: NCover what?: NUnit test coverage Command: C:\Program Files (x86)\NUnit 2.5.4\bin\net-2.0\nunit-console.exe Command arguments: LVK.IoC.Tests.dll /noshadow /framework:4.0.30319 /process=single /nothread Note: I've tried with and without the /process and /nothread options Working directory: %FBPROJECTDIR%\LVK.IoC.Tests\bin\Debug List of assemblies to profile: %FBPROJECTDIR%\LVK.IoC.Tests\bin\Debug\LVK.IoC.dll Note: I've tried just listing the name of the assembly, both with and without the extension. The documentation for the FB step doesn't help, as it only lists minor sentences for each property, and fails to give examples or troubleshooting hints. Since I want to pull the coverage results into NDepend to run build-time analysis, I want that file to contain the information I need. I am also using TestDriven, and if I right-click the solution file and select "Test with NCover", NCover-explorer opens up with coverage data, and if I ask it to show me the folder with coverage files, in there is an .xml file with the same structure as the one above, just with all the data that should be there, so the tools I have is certainly capable of producing it. Has anyone an idea of what I've configured wrong here?

    Read the article

  • WPF: How to specify units in Dialog Units?

    - by Ian Boyd
    i'm trying to figure out how to layout a simple dialog in WPF using the proper dialog units (DLUs). i spent about two hours dimensioning this sample dialog box from Windows Vista with the various dlu measurements. Can someone please give the corresponding XAML markup that generates this dialog box? (Image Link) Now admittedly i know almost nothing about WPF XAML. Every time i start, i get stymied because i cannot figure out how to place any control. It seems that everything in WPF must be contained on a panel of some kind. There's StackPanels, FlowPanels, DockPanel, Grid, etc. If you don't have one of these then it won't compile. The only XAML i've been able to come up with (uing XAMLPad) so far: <DockPanel xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <Image Width="23" /> <Label>Are you sure you want to move this file to the Recycle Bin?</Label> <Image Width="60" /> <Label>117__6.jpg</Label> <Label>Type: ACDSee JPG Image</Label> <Label>Rating: Unrated</Label> <Label>Dimensions: 1072 × 712</Label> <Button Content="Yes" Width="50" Height="14"/> <Button Content="Cancel" Width="50" Height="14"/> </DockPanel> Which renders as a gaudy monstrosity. None of the controls are placed or sized right. i cannot figure out how to position controls in a window, nor size them properly. Can someone turn that screenshot into XAML? Note: You're not allowed to measure the screenshot. All the Dialog Unit (dlu) widths and heights are specified. Note: 1 horizontal DLU != 1 vertical DLU. Horizontal and vertical DLUs are different sizes. Links Microsoft User Experience Guidelines: Recommended sizing and spacing Microsoft User Experience Guidelines: Layout Metrics Bump: 2011/05/14 (15 months later)

    Read the article

  • VBA - Access 03 - Iterating through a list box, with an if statement to evaluate

    - by Justin
    So I have a one list box with values like DeptA, DeptB, DeptC & DeptD. I have a method that causes these to automatically populate in this list box if they are applicable. So in other words, if they populate in this list box, I want the resulting logic to say they are "Yes" in a boolean field in the table. So to accomplish this I am trying to use this example of iteration to cycle through the list box first of all, and it works great: dim i as integer dim myval as string For i = o to me.lstResults.listcount - 1 myVal = lstResults.itemdata(i) Next i if i debug.print myval, i get the list of data items that i want from the list box. so now i am trying to evaluate that list so that I can have an UPDATE SQL statement to update the table as i need it to be done. so, i know this is a mistake, but this is what i tried to do (giving it as an example so that you can see what i am trying to get to here) dim sql as string dim i as integer dim myval as string dim db as database sql = "UPDATE tblMain SET " for i = 0 to me.lstResults.listcount - 1 myval = lstResults.itemdata(i) If MyVal = "DeptA" Then sql = sql & "DeptA = Yes" ElseIF myval = "DeptB" Then sql = sql & "DeptB = Yes" ElseIf MyVal = "DeptC" Then sql = sql & "DeptC = Yes" ElseIf MyVal = "DeptD" Then sql = sql & "DeptD = Yes" End If Next i debug.print (sql) sql = sql & ";" set db= currentdb db.execute(sql) msgbox "Good Luck!" So you can see why this is going to cause problems because the listbox that these values (DeptA, DeptB, etc) automatically populate in are dynamic....there is rarely one value in the listbox, and the list of values changes per OrderID (what the form I am using this on populates information for in the first place; unique instance). I am looking for something that will evaluate this list one at a time (i.e. iterate through the list of values, and look for "DeptA", and if it is found add yes to the SQL string, and if it not add no to the SQL string, then march on to the next iteration). Even though the listbox populates values dynamically, they are set values, meaning i know what could end up in it. Thanks for any help, Justin

    Read the article

  • Project References DLL version hell

    - by Mr Shoubs
    We're having problems getting visual studio to pick up the latest version of a DLL from one of our projects. We have multiple class library projects (e.g. BusinessLogic, ReportData) and a number of web services, each has a reference to a Connectivity DLL we've written (this ref to the connectivity DLL is the problem). We always point references to the DLL in the bin/debug folder, (which is where we always build to for any given project) and all custom DLL references have CopyLocal = True and SpecificVersion = False ReportData has a reference to business logic (which also has a reference to connectivity - I don't see why this should cause a problem, but thought it is worth mentioning) The weird thing is, when you click "Add Reference" and browse to Connectivity/bin/debug - you hover the mouse over the DLL file, the correct (latest) version is shown (version and file version are always incremented together), but when you click ok, a previous version number is pulled though. Even when I look in the current projects debug folder (where copy local would put the DLL after compiling) that shows the latest version number. - NO WHERE does can I find the previous version of the DLL outside of visual studio, but in that project references it has the old version - even though the path is correct. I'm at a loss as to where it might be getting the old versions from. Or even why it wants that one. This is possibly the most frustraighting problem I have ever come across. Does anyone know how to ensure the latest version is pulled through (preferably automatically or on compile). EDIT: Although not exactly the scenario I'm dealing with I was reading this article and somewhere it mentions about CLR ignoring revision numbers. Understandable (even though this hasn't been a problem before - we're on revision 39), so I thought I would update the build number, still didn't work. In a vain attempt I though I would update the minor version number and see if that made any difference. I'm not saying this is the answer as I have to check quite a few things first, but on the face of it, this seems to have solved my problem... Further edit: In other class libraries this seems to have solved the problem, however in a test windows application it still pulls a previous version through :( If I increment the minor version number again, the same problem come back and I am left with the wrong version being pulled though. Further Edit - I created an entirly new project, added a reference and still had the exact same problem. This suggests the problem is restriced to the project I am referencing. Wish I knew why! Anyone had this problem before and know how to get around it? HELP!

    Read the article

  • C# Nested Property Accessing overloading OR Sequential Operator Overloading

    - by Tim
    Hey, I've been searching around for a solution to a tricky problem we're having with our code base. To start, our code resembles the following: class User { int id; int accountId; Account account { get { return Account.Get(accountId); } } } class Account { int accountId; OnlinePresence Presence { get { return OnlinePresence.Get(accountId); } } public static Account Get(int accountId) { // hits a database and gets back our object. } } class OnlinePresence { int accountId; bool isOnline; public static OnlinePresence Get(int accountId) { // hits a database and gets back our object. } } What we're often doing in our code is trying to access the account Presence of a user by doing var presence = user.Account.Presence; The problem with this is that this is actually making two requests to the database. One to get the Account object, and then one to get the Presence object. We could easily knock this down to one request if we did the following : var presence = UserPresence.Get(user.id); This works, but sort of requires developers to have an understanding of the UserPresence class/methods that would be nice to eliminate. I've thought of a couple of cool ways to be able to handle this problem, and was wondering if anyone knows if these are possible, if there are other ways of handling this, or if we just need to think more as we're coding and do the UserPresence.Get instead of using properties. Overload nested accessors. It would be cool if inside the User class I could write some sort of "extension" that would say "any time a User object's Account property's Presence object is being accessed, do this instead". Overload the . operator with knowledge of what comes after. If I could somehow overload the . operator only in situations where the object on the right is also being "dotted" it would be great. Both of these seem like things that could be handled at compile time, but perhaps I'm missing something (would reflection make this difficult?). Am I looking at things completely incorrectly? Is there a way of enforcing this that removes the burden from the user of the business logic? Thanks! Tim

    Read the article

  • Passing a ManagedObjectContext to a second view

    - by amo
    I'm writing my first iPhone/Cocoa app. It has two table views inside a navigation view. When you touch a row in the first table view, you are taken to the second table view. I would like the second view to display records from the CoreData entities related to the row you touched in the first view. I have the CoreData data showing up fine in the first table view. You can touch a row and go to the second table view. I'm able to pass info from the selected object from the first to the second view. But I cannot get the second view to do its own CoreData fetching. For the life of me I cannot get the managedObjectContext object to pass to the second view controller. I don't want to do the lookups in the first view and pass a dictionary because I want to be able to use a search field to refine results in the second view, as well as insert new entries to the CoreData data from there. Here's the function that transitions from the first to the second view. - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { // Navigation logic may go here -- for example, create and push another view controller. NSManagedObject *selectedObject = [[self fetchedResultsController] objectAtIndexPath:indexPath]; SecondViewController *secondViewController = [[SecondViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SecondView" bundle:nil]; secondViewController.tName = [[selectedObject valueForKey:@"name"] description]; secondViewController.managedObjectContext = [self managedObjectContext]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:secondViewController animated:YES]; [secondViewController release]; } And this is the function inside SecondViewController that crashes: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; self.title = tName; NSError *error; if (![[self fetchedResultsController] performFetch:&error]) { // <-- crashes here // Handle the error... } } - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController { if (fetchedResultsController != nil) { return fetchedResultsController; } /* Set up the fetched results controller. */ // Create the fetch request for the entity. NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; // Edit the entity name as appropriate. // **** crashes on the next line because managedObjectContext == 0x0 NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"SecondEntity" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; // <snip> ... more code here from Apple template, never gets executed because of the crashing return fetchedResultsController; } Any ideas on what I am doing wrong here? managedObjectContext is a retained property. UPDATE: I inserted a NSLog([[managedObjectContext registeredObjects] description]); in viewDidLoad and it appears managedObjectContext is being passed just fine. Still crashing, though. Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: '+entityForName: could not locate an NSManagedObjectModel for entity name 'SecondEntity''

    Read the article

  • iPhone app with tab bar and navigation bar as peers

    - by Mac
    I'm trying to write an application that uses a navigation bar and tab bar in what (I'm gathering) is an unusual manner. Basically, I've got several "pages" ("home", "settings", etc) that each have their own tab. I'd also like to have it so that the "home" page is the root view of the navigation bar, and the other pages are the second-level views of the navigation bar. That is, I should be able to navigate to any page by clicking the appropriate tab bar item, and should be able to navigate to the home page from any other page by clicking the navigation bar's back button. Currently, I have a UINavigationBar (through a UINavigationController) and a UITabBar (through a UITabController) as children of a UIView. The various pages' view controllers are set as the tab controller's viewControllers property, and the home page's controller is also set as the navigation controller's root view. Each page view's tag is set to its index in the tab control. I have the following logic in the tab controller's didSelectViewController delegate method: - (void) tabBarController:(UITabBarController*) tabBarController didSelectViewController:(UIViewController*) viewController { if ([navController.viewControllers count] > 1) [navController popViewControllerAnimated:NO]; [navController pushViewController:viewController animated:YES]; } Also, in the navigation controller's didShowViewController delegate method, I have the following code: - (void) navigationController:(UINavigationController *) navigationController didShowViewController:(UIViewController *)viewController animated:(BOOL)animated { tabController.selectedIndex = viewController.view.tag; } The problem that's occurring is that when I run this, the navigation bar, tab bar and home page all display ok, but the tab bar will not respond to input - I cannot select a different tab. I gather it's more usual to have the tab bar as the child of the navigation control, or vice versa. This doesn't seem to fit my approach, because I don't want to have to individually create the subordinate control each time a change occurs in the parent control - eg: recreate tab bar each time the navigation bar changes. Does anyone have suggestions as to what's wrong and how to fix it? I'm probably missing something obvious, but whatever it is I can't seem to find it. Thanks! EDIT: I'm guessing it has something to do with both controller's trying to have ownership of the page controller, but I can't for the life of me figure out a way around it.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET: Large number of Session_Start with same session id

    - by Jaap
    I'm running a ASP.NET website on my development box (.NET 2.0 on Vista/IIS7). The Session_Start method in global.asax.cs logs every call to a file (log4net). The Session_End method also logs every call. I'm using InProc session state, and set the session timeout to 5 mins (to avoid waiting for 20 mins). I hit the website, wait for 5 minutes unit I see the Session_End logging. Then I F5 the website. The browsers still has the session cookie and sends it to the server. Session_Start is called and a new session is created using the same session id (btw: I need this to be the same session id, because it is used to store data in database). Result: Every time I hit F5 on a previously ended session, the Session_Start method is called. When I open a different browser, the Session_Start method is called just once. Then after 5 minutes the Session_End each F5 causes the Session_Start method to execute. Can anyone explain why this is happening? Update: After the Session timeout, all subsequent requests have a session start & session end. So in the end my question is: why are the sessions on these subsequent request closed immediatly? 2010-02-09 14:49:08,754 INFO Global.asax[7486] [(null)] - Session started. SID=nzponumvf1hbaniverffp4mq host=127.0.0.1 2010-02-09 14:49:08,754 INFO Global.asax[7486] [nzponumvf1hbaniverffp4mq] - Request start: GET http://localhost:80/js/settings.js 2010-02-09 14:49:08,756 INFO Global.asax[7486] [(null)] - Session ended. SID=nzponumvf1hbaniverffp4mq 2010-02-09 14:49:08,760 INFO Global.asax[7486] [(null)] - Session started. SID=nzponumvf1hbaniverffp4mq host=127.0.0.1 2010-02-09 14:49:08,760 INFO Global.asax[7486] [nzponumvf1hbaniverffp4mq] - Request start: GET /css/package.aspx?name=core 2010-02-09 14:49:08,761 INFO Global.asax[7486] [(null)] - Session ended. SID=nzponumvf1hbaniverffp4mq 2010-02-09 14:49:08,762 INFO Global.asax[7486] [(null)] - Session started. SID=nzponumvf1hbaniverffp4mq host=127.0.0.1 2010-02-09 14:49:08,762 INFO Global.asax[7486] [nzponumvf1hbaniverffp4mq] - Request start: GET /js/package.aspx?name=all 2010-02-09 14:49:08,763 INFO Global.asax[7486] [(null)] - Session ended. SID=nzponumvf1hbaniverffp4mq 2010-02-09 14:49:08,763 INFO Global.asax[7486] [(null)] - Session started. SID=nzponumvf1hbaniverffp4mq host=127.0.0.1 2010-02-09 14:49:08,763 INFO Global.asax[7486] [nzponumvf1hbaniverffp4mq] - Request start: GET /css/package.aspx?name=rest 2010-02-09 14:49:08,764 INFO Global.asax[7486] [(null)] - Session ended. SID=nzponumvf1hbaniverffp4mq 2010-02-09 14:49:08,764 INFO Global.asax[7486] [(null)] - Session started. SID=nzponumvf1hbaniverffp4mq host=127.0.0.1 2010-02-09 14:49:08,765 INFO Global.asax[7486] [nzponumvf1hbaniverffp4mq] - Request start: GET /css/package.aspx?name=vacation 2010-02-09 14:49:08,765 INFO Global.asax[7486] [(null)] - Session ended. SID=nzponumvf1hbaniverffp4mq web.config relevant section: <system.web> <compilation debug="true" /> <sessionState timeout="2" regenerateExpiredSessionId="false" /> </system.web>

    Read the article

  • Client-side templating frameworks to streamline using jQuery with REST/JSON

    - by Tauren
    I'm starting to migrate some html generation tasks from a server-side framework to the client. I'm using jQuery on the client. My goal is to get JSON data via a REST api and use this data to populate HTML into the page. Right now, when a user on my site clicks a link to My Projects, the server generates HTML like this: <dl> <dt>Clean Toilet</dt> <dd>Get off your butt and clean this filth!</dd> <dt>Clean Car</dt> <dd>I think there's something growing in there...</dd> <dt>Replace Puked on Baby Sheets</dt> </dl> I'm changing this so that clicking My Projects will now do a GET request that returns something like this: [ { "name":"Clean Car", "description":"I think there's something growing in there..." }, { "name":"Clean Toilets", "description":"Get off your butt and clean this filth!" }, { "name":"Replace Puked on Baby Sheets" } ] I can certainly write custom jQuery code to take that JSON and generate the HTML from it. This is not my question, and I don't need advice on how to do that. What I'd like to do is completely separate the presentation and layout from the logic (jquery code). I don't want to be creating DL, DT, and DD elements via jQuery code. I'd rather use some sort of HTML templates that I can fill the data in to. These templates could simply be HTML snippets that are hidden in the page that the application was loaded from. Or they could be dynamically loaded from the server (to support user specific layouts, i18n, etc.). They could be displayed a single time, as well as allow looping and repeating. Perhaps it should support sub-templates, if/then/else, and so forth. I have LOTS of lists and content on my site that are presented in many different ways. I'm looking to create a simple and consistent way to generate and display content without creating custom jQuery code for every different feature on my site. To me, this means I need to find or build a small framework on top of jQuery (probably as a plugin) that meets these requirements. The only sort of framework that I've found that is anything like this is jTemplates. I don't know how good it is, as I haven't used it yet. At first glance, I'm not thrilled by it's template syntax. Anyone know of other frameworks or plugins that I should look into? Any blog posts or other resources out there that discuss doing this sort of thing? I just want to make sure that I've surveyed everything out there before building it myself. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • DevExpress Reporting Session Issue

    - by LeeHull
    This is pretty complicated so I will explain what is going on. I have created an ASP.NET website for displaying images, the way we use our images is, we have a database table that contains the URL where the images are located, however we recently started moving them from the filesystem, and storing them directly into the database as binary, but since we don't want to break older applications, we currently store them both places till they are all updated. Alright, the website I'm working on, is just a reporting website to display images by a date range, I have created an HTTPHandler to display the image, depending if they exist in the database as binary, if the row is DBNull, I just grab the URL from the other table instead, I just read the image, convert it into a byte[] and write it to the response, so it is interpreted as an image. I have created a page to display the report using DevExpress Reporting, I just query the report, save the dataset into a session, and the report reads the session to bind the report, i also have a picturebox in the report bound to "Handler.ashx?id=ImageID", this is because I am not binding a URL to the image, since it is a byte[] Also since there could be a report with 10000+ images, I am reading the dataset from the session inside the handler and just pulling out the image from the passed in ImageID, I am doing this to prevent connecting to the database each and every row. Now the strange thing is, Report loads fine.. data is loading, I have paging on the devexpress report viewer, it is loading the images fine, however here is the issue. When I print or export, I am not getting any images, I am debugged and found out the Session.Count is 0 when it tries to print or export, which is strange since there is more than just the dataset in the session. I have also added IRequiresSessionState to allow sessions in the handler, but the session count is still 0, I have changing the Handler to an aspx page, same issue. Any ideas or suggestions on logic changes, I'm all ears.. this is a very difficult situation since I have to display the images from database as a string AND byte[] since one can be URL and other be the image bytes, but I also can't slam the database on connection calls each row either. I have also reported the issue to DevExpress and they are clueless as well, since they don't dispose the session in the exporting process.

    Read the article

  • How do I prevent the concurrent execution of a javascript function?

    - by RyanV
    I am making a ticker similar to the "From the AP" one at The Huffington Post, using jQuery. The ticker rotates through a ul, either by user command (clicking an arrow) or by an auto-scroll. Each list-item is display:none by default. It is revealed by the addition of a "showHeadline" class which is display:list-item. HTML for the UL Looks like this: <ul class="news" id="news"> <li class="tickerTitle showHeadline">Test Entry</li> <li class="tickerTitle">Test Entry2</li> <li class="tickerTitle">Test Entry3</li> </ul> When the user clicks the right arrow, or the auto-scroll setTimeout goes off, it runs a tickForward() function: function tickForward(){ var $active = $('#news li.showHeadline'); var $next = $active.next(); if($next.length==0) $next = $('#news li:first'); $active.stop(true, true); $active.fadeOut('slow', function() {$active.removeClass('showHeadline');}); setTimeout(function(){$next.fadeIn('slow', function(){$next.addClass('showHeadline');})}, 1000); if(isPaused == true){ } else{ startScroll() } }; This is heavily inspired by Jon Raasch's A Simple jQuery Slideshow. Basically, find what's visible, what should be visible next, make the visible thing fade and remove the class that marks it as visible, then fade in the next thing and add the class that makes it visible. Now, everything is hunky-dory if the auto-scroll is running, kicking off tickForward() once every three seconds. But if the user clicks the arrow button repeatedly, it creates two negative conditions: Rather than advance quickly through the list for just the number of clicks made, it continues scrolling at a faster-than-normal rate indefinitely. It can produce a situation where two (or more) list items are given the .showHeadline class, so there's overlap on the list. I can see these happening (especially #2) because the tickForward() function can run concurrently with itself, producing different sets of $active and $next. So I think my question is: What would be the best way to prevent concurrent execution of the tickForward() method? Some things I have tried or considered: Setting a Flag: When tickForward() runs, it sets an isRunning flag to true, and sets it back to false right before it ends. The logic for the event handler is set to only call tickForward() if isRunning is false. I tried a simple implementation of this, and isRunning never appeared to be changed. The jQuery queue(): I think it would be useful to queue up the tickForward() commands, so if you clicked it five times quickly, it would still run as commanded but wouldn't run concurrently. However, in my cursory reading on the subject, it appears that a queue has to be attached to the object its queue applies to, and since my tickForward() method affects multiple lis, I don't know where I'd attach it.

    Read the article

  • Delphi: Minimize application to systray

    - by marco92w
    I want to minimize a Delphi application to the systray instead of the task bar. The necessary steps seem to be the following: Create icon which should then be displayed in the systray. When the user clicks the [-] to minimize the application, do the following: Hide the form. Add the icon (step #1) to the systray. Hide/delete the application's entry in the task bar. When the user double-clicks the application's icon in the systray, do the following: Show the form. Un-minimize the application again and bring it to the front. If "WindowState" is "WS_Minimized" set to "WS_Normal". Hide/delete the application's icon in the systray. When the user terminates the application, do the following: Hide/delete the application's icon in the systray. That's it. Right? How could one implement this in Delphi? I've found the following code but I don't know why it works. It doesn't follow my steps described above ... unit uMinimizeToTray; interface uses Windows, Messages, SysUtils, Variants, Classes, Graphics, Controls, Forms, Dialogs, StdCtrls, ShellApi; const WM_NOTIFYICON = WM_USER+333; type TMinimizeToTray = class(TForm) procedure FormCreate(Sender: TObject); procedure FormClose(Sender: TObject; var Action: TCloseAction); procedure CMClickIcon(var msg: TMessage); message WM_NOTIFYICON; private { Private-Deklarationen } public { Public-Deklarationen } end; var MinimizeToTray: TMinimizeToTray; implementation {$R *.dfm} procedure TMinimizeToTray.CMClickIcon(var msg: TMessage); begin if msg.lparam = WM_LBUTTONDBLCLK then Show; end; procedure TMinimizeToTray.FormCreate(Sender: TObject); VAR tnid: TNotifyIconData; HMainIcon: HICON; begin HMainIcon := LoadIcon(MainInstance, 'MAINICON'); Shell_NotifyIcon(NIM_DELETE, @tnid); tnid.cbSize := sizeof(TNotifyIconData); tnid.Wnd := handle; tnid.uID := 123; tnid.uFlags := NIF_MESSAGE or NIF_ICON or NIF_TIP; tnid.uCallbackMessage := WM_NOTIFYICON; tnid.hIcon := HMainIcon; tnid.szTip := 'Tooltip'; Shell_NotifyIcon(NIM_ADD, @tnid); end; procedure TMinimizeToTray.FormClose(Sender: TObject; var Action: TCloseAction); begin Action := caNone; Hide; end; end.

    Read the article

  • ClassCastException when casting custom View subclass

    - by Jens Jacob
    Hi I've run into an early problem with developing for android. I've made my own custom View (which works well). In the beginning i just added it to the layout programmatically, but i figured i could try putting it into the XML layout instead (for consistency). So what i got is this: main.xml: [...] <sailmeter.gui.CompassView android:id="@+id/compassview1" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_below="@id/widget55" android:background="@color/white" /> [...] CompassView.java: public class CompassView extends View { } SailMeter.java (activity class): public class SailMeter extends Activity implements PropertyChangeListener { public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); compassview = (CompassView) findViewById(R.id.compassview1); [...] } } (Theres obviously more, but you get the point) Now, this is the stacktrace: 05-23 16:32:01.991: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): Uncaught handler: thread main exiting due to uncaught exception 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): java.lang.RuntimeException: Unable to start activity ComponentInfo{sailmeter.gui/sailmeter.gui.SailMeter}: java.lang.ClassCastException: android.view.View 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at android.app.ActivityThread.performLaunchActivity(ActivityThread.java:2596) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at android.app.ActivityThread.handleLaunchActivity(ActivityThread.java:2621) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at android.app.ActivityThread.access$2200(ActivityThread.java:126) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at android.app.ActivityThread$H.handleMessage(ActivityThread.java:1932) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:99) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:123) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:4595) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:521) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:860) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:618) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): Caused by: java.lang.ClassCastException: android.view.View 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at sailmeter.gui.SailMeter.onCreate(SailMeter.java:51) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at android.app.Instrumentation.callActivityOnCreate(Instrumentation.java:1047) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at android.app.ActivityThread.performLaunchActivity(ActivityThread.java:2544) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): ... 11 more Why cant i cast my custom view? I need it to be that type since it has a few extra methods in it that i want to access. Should i restructure it and have another class handle the logic, and then just having the view being a view? Thanks for any help.

    Read the article

  • Validate a string in a table in SQL Server - CLR function or T-SQL (Question updated)

    - by Ashish Gupta
    I need to check If a column value (string) in SQL server table starts with a small letter and can only contain '_', '-', numbers and alphabets. I know I can use a SQL server CLR function for that. However, I am trying to implement that validation using a scalar UDF and could make very little here...I can use 'NOT LIKE', but I am not sure how to make sure I validate the string irrespective of the order of characters or in other words write a pattern in SQL for this. Am I better off using a SQL CLR function? Any help will be appreciated.. Thanks in advance Thank you everyone for their comments. This morning, I chose to go CLR function way. For the purpose of what I was trying to achieve, I created one CLR function which does the validation of an input string and have that called from a SQL UDF and It works well. Just to measure the performance of t-SQL UDF using SQL CLR function vs t- SQL UDF, I created a SQL CLR function which will just check if the input string contains only small letters, it should return true else false and have that called from a UDF (IsLowerCaseCLR). After that I also created a regular t-SQL UDF(IsLowerCaseTSQL) which does the same thing using the 'NOT LIKE'. Then I created a table (Person) with columns Name(varchar) and IsValid(bit) columns and populate that with names to test. Data :- 1000 records with 'Ashish' as value for Name column 1000 records with 'ashish' as value for Name column then I ran the following :- UPDATE Person Set IsValid=1 WHERE dbo.IsLowerCaseTSQL (Name) Above updated 1000 records (with Isvalid=1) and took less than a second. I deleted all the data in the table and repopulated the same with same data. Then updated the same table using Sql CLR UDF (with Isvalid=1) and this took 3 seconds! If update happens for 5000 records, regular UDF takes 0 seconds compared to CLR UDF which takes 16 seconds! I am very less knowledgeable on t-SQL regular expression or I could have tested my actual more complex validation criteria. But I just wanted to know, even I could have written that, would that have been faster than the SQL CLR function considering the example above. Are we using SQL CLR because we can implement we can implement lot richer logic which would have been difficult otherwise If we write in regular SQL. Sorry for this long post. I just want to know from the experts. Please feel free to ask if you could not understand anything here. Thank you again for your time.

    Read the article

  • Java JMS Messaging

    - by London
    Hello, I have a working example of sending message to server and server receiving it via qpid messaging. Here is simple hello world to send to server : http://pastebin.com/M7mSECJn And here is server which receives requests and sends response(the current client doesn't receive response) : http://pastebin.com/2mEeuzrV Here is my property file : http://pastebin.com/TLEFdpXG They all work perfectly, I can see the messages in the qpid queue via Qpid JMX management console. These examples are downloaded from https://svn.apache.org/repos/asf/qpid/trunk/qpid/java/client/example (someone may need it also). I've done Jboss messaging using spring before, but I can't manage to do the same with qpid. With jboss inside applicationsContext I had beans jndiTemplate, conectionFactory, destinationQueue, and jmscontainer like this : <!-- Queue configuration --> <bean id="jndiTemplate" class="org.springframework.jndi.JndiTemplate"> <property name="environment"> <props> <prop key="java.naming.factory.initial">org.jnp.interfaces.NamingContextFactory</prop> <prop key="java.naming.provider.url">jnp://localhost:1099</prop> <prop key="java.naming.factory.url.pkgs">org.jboss.naming:org.jnp.interfaces</prop> <prop key="java.naming.security.principal">admin</prop> <prop key="java.naming.security.credentials">admin</prop> </props> </property> </bean> <bean id="connectionFactory" class="org.springframework.jndi.JndiObjectFactoryBean"> <property name="jndiTemplate" ref="jndiTemplate" /> <property name="jndiName" value="ConnectionFactory" /> </bean> <bean id="queueDestination" class="org.springframework.jndi.JndiObjectFactoryBean"> <property name="jndiTemplate" ref="jndiTemplate" /> <property name="jndiName"> <value>queue/testQueue</value> </property> </bean> <bean id="jmsContainer" class="org.springframework.jms.listener.DefaultMessageListenerContainer"> <property name="connectionFactory" ref="connectionFactory" /> <property name="destination" ref="queueDestination" /> <property name="messageListener" ref="listener" /> </bean> and of course sender and listener : Now I'd like to rewrite this qpid example using spring context logic. Can anyone help me?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 336 337 338 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347  | Next Page >