Search Results

Search found 10101 results on 405 pages for 'temporary tables'.

Page 340/405 | < Previous Page | 336 337 338 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347  | Next Page >

  • using jquery growl with php/mysql

    - by jeansymolanza
    on my database i am planning to create a table storing messages to alert users of anything they need to do. i am looking at using a jQuery growl like notification method but im confused at how i would begin building it. the data would be added into the database using the standard MYSQL insert method from a form but how would i select messages from the database to display using the jQuery growl. would this require the use of ajax? this is the javascript code i have so far, i was wondering how i would implement the php code alongside it so that i can pull out data from my tables to display as notifications: <script type="text/javascript"> // In case you don't have firebug... if (!window.console || !console.firebug) { var names = ["log", "debug", "info", "warn", "error", "assert", "dir", "dirxml", "group", "groupEnd", "time", "timeEnd", "count", "trace", "profile", "profileEnd"]; window.console = {}; for (var i = 0; i < names.length; ++i) window.console[names[i]] = function() {}; } (function($){ $(document).ready(function(){ // This specifies how many messages can be pooled out at any given time. // If there are more notifications raised then the pool, the others are // placed into queue and rendered after the other have disapeared. $.jGrowl.defaults.pool = 5; var i = 1; var y = 1; setInterval( function() { if ( i < 3 ) { $.jGrowl("Message " + i, { sticky: true, log: function() { console.log("Creating message " + i + "..."); }, beforeOpen: function() { console.log("Rendering message " + y + "..."); y++; } }); } i++; } , 1000 ); }); })(jQuery); </script> <p> thanking you in advance and God bless

    Read the article

  • Top 10 collection completion - a monster in-query formula in MySQL?

    - by Andrew Heath
    I've got the following tables: User Basic Data (unique) [userid] [name] [etc] User Collection (one to one) [userid] [game] User Recorded Plays (many to many) [userid] [game] [scenario] [etc] Game Basic Data (unique) [game] [total_scenarios] I would like to output a table that shows the collection play completion percentage for the Top 10 users in descending order of %: Output Table [userid] [collection_completion] 3 95% 1 81% 24 68% etc etc In my mind, the calculation sequence for ONE USER is: grab user's total owned scenarios from User Collection joined with Game Basic Data and COUNT(gbd.total_scenarios) grab all recorded plays by COUNT(DISTINCT scenario) for that user Divide all recorded plays by total owned scenarios So that's 2 queries and a little PHP massage at the end. For a list of users sorted by completion percentage things get a little more complicated. I figure I could grab all users' collection totals in one query, and all users recorded plays in another, and then do the calcs and sort the final array in PHP, but it seems like overkill to potentially be doing all that for 1000+ users when I only ever want the Top 10. Is there a wicked monster query in MySQL that could do all that and LIMIT 10? Or is sticking with PHP handling the bulk of the work the way to go in this case?

    Read the article

  • Building a many-to-many db schema using only an unpredictable number of foreign keys

    - by user1449855
    Good afternoon (at least around here), I have a many-to-many relationship schema that I'm having trouble building. The main problem is that I'm only working with primary and foreign keys (no varchars or enums to simplify things) and the number of many-to-many relationships is not predictable and can increase at any time. I looked around at various questions and couldn't find something that directly addressed this issue. I split the problem in half, so I now have two one-to-many schemas. One is solved but the other is giving me fits. Let's assume table FOO is a standard, boring table that has a simple primary key. It's the one in the one-to-many relationship. Table BAR can relate to multiple keys of FOO. The number of related keys is not known beforehand. An example: From a query FOO returns ids 3, 4, 5. BAR needs a unique key that relates to 3, 4, 5 (though there could be any number of ids returned) The usual join table does not work: Table FOO_BAR primary_key | foo_id | bar_id | Since FOO returns 3 unique keys and here bar_id has a one-to-one relationship with foo_id. Having two join tables does not seem to work either, as it still can't map foo_ids 3, 4, 5 to a single bar_id. Table FOO_TO_BAR primary_key | foo_id | bar_to_foo_id | Table BAR_TO_FOO primary_key | foo_to_bar_id | bar_id | What am I doing wrong? Am I making things more complicated than they are? How should I approach the problem? Thanks a lot for the help.

    Read the article

  • Require help in Writing Query

    - by harigm
    The following image have been uploaded to show what I am trying to do and what I wanted out of it Can any one help me write the Query to get the results what I want Please check the following SELECT * FROM KPT WHERE PROPERTY_ID IN (SELECT PROPERTY_ID FROM khata_header WHERE DIV_ID = 3 and RECORD_STATUS = 0) and CHALLAN_NO > 42646 The above is the query I have written and I have got the following result set ID CHALLAN_NO PROPERTY_ID SITE_NO TOTAL_AMOUNT ----- ------------- -------------- ------------------- --------------- 1242 42757 3103010141 296 595 1243 63743 3204190257 483 594 1244 63743 3204190257 483 594 1334 43395 3217010223 1088 576 1421 524210 3320050416 (null) (null) 1422 524210 3320050416 (null) (null) 1560 564355 3320021408 (null) (null) 1870 516292 3320040420 (null) (null) 1940 68357 3217100104 139 1153 1941 68357 3217100104 139 1153 2002 56256 3320100733 511 4430 2003 56256 3320100733 511 4430 2004 66488 3217040869 293 3094 2005 66488 3217040869 293 3094 2016 64571 3217040374 (null) (null) 2036 523122 3320020352 (null) (null) 2039 65682 3217040021 273 919 In my resultset, I am getting the PropertyId repeated, since there are multilple entries, How Can I know How many have been repeated What are those Property Id which have repeated more than 2 times. Little Back ground about the tables are PROPERTY_ID is the FK in the KPT PROPERTY_ID is the PK in KH I am writing a subquery to get the Result, so I am stuck I dont know how to get my results Please help

    Read the article

  • Optimizing MySQL update query

    - by Jernej Jerin
    This is currently my MySQL UPDATE query, which is called from program written in Java: String query = "UPDATE maxday SET DatePressureREL = (SELECT Date FROM ws3600 WHERE PressureREL = (SELECT MAX" + "(PressureREL) FROM ws3600 WHERE Date >= '" + Date + "') AND Date >= '" + Date + "' ORDER BY Date DESC LIMIT 1), " + "PressureREL = (SELECT PressureREL FROM ws3600 WHERE PressureREL = (SELECT MAX(PressureREL) FROM ws3600 " + "WHERE Date >= '" + Date + "') AND Date >= '" + Date + "' ORDER BY Date DESC LIMIT 1), ..."; try { s.execute(query); } catch (SQLException e) { System.out.println("SQL error"); } catch(Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } Let me explain first, what does it do. I have two tables, first is ws3600, which holds columns (Date, PressureREL, TemperatureOUT, Dewpoint, ...). Then I have second table, called maxday, which holds columns like DatePressureREL, PressureREL, DateTemperatureOUT, TemperatureOUT,... Now as you can see from an example, I update each column, the question is, is there a faster way? I am asking this, because I am calling MAX twice, first to find the Date for that value and secondly to find the actual value. Now I know that I could write like that: SELECT Date, PressureREL FROM ws3600 WHERE PressureREL = (SELECT MAX(PressureREL) FROM ws3600 WHERE Date >= '" + Date + "') AND Date >= '" + Date + "' ORDER BY Date DESC LIMIT 1 That way I get the Date of the max and the max value at the same time and then update with those values the data in maxday table. But the problem of this solution is, that I have to execute many queries, which as I understand takes alot more time compared to executing one long mysql query because of overhead in sending each query to the server. If there is no better way, which solution beetwen this two should I choose. The first, which only takes one query but is very unoptimized or the second which is beter in terms of optimization, but needs alot more queries which probably means that the preformance gain is lost because of overhead in sending each query to the server?

    Read the article

  • Making one table equal to another without a delete *

    - by Joshua Atkins
    Hey, I know this is bit of a strange one but if anyone had any help that would be greatly appreciated. The scenario is that we have a production database at a remote site and a developer database in our local office. Developers make changes directly to the developer db and as part of the deployment process a C# application runs and produces a series of .sql scripts that we can execute on the remote side (essentially delete *, insert) but we are looking for something a bit more elaborate as the downtime from the delete * is unacceptable. This is all reference data that controls menu items, functionality etc of a major website. I have a sproc that essentially returns a diff of two tables. My thinking is that I can insert all the expected data in to a tmp table, execute the diff, and drop anything from the destination table that is not in the source and then upsert everything else. The question is that is there an easy way to do this without using a cursor? To illustrate the sproc returns a recordset structured like this: TableName Col1 Col2 Col3 Dest Src Anything in the recordset with TableName = Dest should be deleted (as it does not exist in src) and anything in Src should be upserted in to dest. I cannot think of a way to do this purely set based but my DB-fu is weak. Any help would be appreciated. Apologies if the explanation is sketchy; let me know if you need anymore details.

    Read the article

  • T-SQL Table Joins - Unique Situation

    - by Dimitri
    Hello Everyone. This is my first time encountering the case like this and don't quite know how to handle. Situation: I have one table tblSettingsDefinition, with fields: ID, GroupID, Name, typeID, DefaultValue. Then I have tblSettingtypes with fields TypeID, Name. And I have final table, tblUserSettings with fields SettingID, SettingDefinitionID, UserID, Value. The whole point of this is to have customizable settings. Setting can be defined for a Group or as global setting (if GroupID is NULL). It will have a default value, but if user modifies the setting, an entry is added to tblUserSettings that stores new value. I want to have a query that grabs user settings by first looking at the tblUserSettings, and if it has records for the given user, grabs them, if not retrieves default settings. But the trick is that no matter if user has settings or not, I need to have fields from other two table retrieved to know the setting's Type, Name etc... (which are stored in those other tables). I'm writing query something like this: SELECT * FROM tblSettingDefinition SD LEFT JOIN tblUserSettings US ON SD.SettingID = US.SettingDefinitionID JOIN tblSettingTypes ST ON SD.TypeID=ST.ID WHERE US.UserID=@UserID OR ((SD.GroupID IS NULL) OR (SD.GroupID=(SELECT GroupID FROM tblUser WHERE ID=@UserID))) but it retrieves settings for all users from tblUserSettings instead of just ones that match current @UserID. And if @UserID has no records in tblUserSettings, still, all user settings are retrieved instead of the defaults from tblSettingDefinition. Hope I made myself clear. Any help would be highly appreciated. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to update old database from dbml file ? (C#, .Net 4, Linq, SQL Server)

    - by Emil
    Hi all, I began recently a new job, a very interesting project (C#,.Net 4, Linq, VS 2010 and SQL Server). And immediately I got a very exciting challenge: I must implement either a new tool or integrate the logic when program start, or whatever, but what must happen is the following: the customers have previous application and database (full with their specific data). Now a new version is ready and the customer gets the update. In the mean time we made some modification on DB (new table, columns, maybe an old column deleted, or whatever). I’m pretty new in Linq and also SQL databases and my first solution can be: I check the applications/databases version and implement all the changes step by step comparing all tables, columns, keys, constrains, etc. (all this new information I have in my dbml and the old I asked from the existing DB). And I’ll do this each time the version changed. But somehow I feel, this is NOT a smart solution so I look for a general solution of this problem. Is there a way to update customers DB from the dbml file? To create a new one is not a problem (CreateDatabase with DataContext), is there any update/alter database methods? I guess I’m not the only one who search for such a solution (I found nothing in internet – or I looked for bad keywords). How did you solve this problem? I look also for an external tool, but first for a solution with C#, Linq or something similar. For any idea thank you in advance! Best regards, Emil

    Read the article

  • Convert query with system objects from SQL 2000 to 2005/2008

    - by Dan
    I have some SQL I need to get working on SQL 2005/2008. The SQL is from SQL 2000 and uses some system objects to make it work. master.dbo.spt_provider_types master.dbo.syscharsets systypes syscolumns sysobjects I know SQL 2005 does no longer use system tables and I can get the same information from views, but I am looking for a solution that will work for both SQL 2000 and 2005/2008. Any ideas? select top 100 percent TABLE_CATALOG = db_name(), TABLE_SCHEMA = user_name(o.uid), TABLE_NAME = o.name, COLUMN_NAME = c.name, ORDINAL_POSITION = convert(int, ( select count(*) from syscolumns sc where sc.id = c.id AND sc.number = c.number AND sc.colid <= c.colid )), IS_COMPUTED = convert(bit, c.iscomputed) from syscolumns c left join syscomments m on c.cdefault = m.id and m.colid = 1, sysobjects o, master.dbo.spt_provider_types d, systypes t, master.dbo.syscharsets a_cha /* charset/1001, not sortorder.*/ where o.name = @table_name and permissions(o.id, c.name) <> 0 and (o.type in ('U','V','S') OR (o.type in ('TF', 'IF') and c.number = 0)) and o.id = c.id and t.xtype = d.ss_dtype and c.length = case when d.fixlen > 0 then d.fixlen else c.length end and c.xusertype = t.xusertype and a_cha.type = 1001 /* type is charset */ and a_cha.id = isnull(convert(tinyint, CollationPropertyFromID(c.collationid, 'sqlcharset')), convert(tinyint, ServerProperty('sqlcharset'))) -- make sure there's one and only one row selected for each column order by 2, 3, c.colorder ) tbl where IS_COMPUTED = 0

    Read the article

  • Toggle row visibility one at a time

    - by kuswantin
    I have a couple of tables with similar structures like this: <table> <tbody> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> ..etc --- The fake button is added here <div class="addrow">Add another</div> </tbody> </table> Since this is a long list, I have a need to toggle the rows one at a time. I just need to show the first row, of course, the rest should be toggled. The action is when I click a dynamic fake button, it will show row no. 2, and clicking again will show another next row. This is what I have done so far: $("table#field_fruit_values tr.draggable").not(':first').hide(); $("table#field_vegetables_values tr.draggable").not(':first').hide(); $("body.form table.content-multiple-table tbody").append('<div class="addrow">Add</div>'); $(".addrow").click(function() { var hiddenRow = $(this).prev('tr.draggable'); $(this).prev(hiddenRow + 1).show(); //if (hiddenRow + ':last').length) { // <= silly logic // $(this).hide(); //} }); The button only works for one row. I must have done something wrong :) When the final is reached, I also want the button to disappear. Sorry if this question sound silly. Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Linq to SQL generates StackOverflowException in tight Insert loop

    - by ChrisW
    I'm parsing an XML file and inserting the rows into a table (and related tables) using LinqToSQL. I parse the XML file using LinqToXml into IEnumerable. Then, I create a foreach loop, where I build my LinqToSQL objects and call InsertOnSubmit and SubmitChanges at the end of each loop. Nothing special here. Usually, I make it through around 4,100 records before receiving a StackOverflowException from LinqToSql, right as I call SubmitChanges. It's not always on 4,100... sometimes it's 4102, sometimes, less, etc. I've tried inserting the records that generate the failure individually, but putting them in their own Xml file, but that inserts fine... so it's not the data. I'm running the whole process from an MVC2 app that is uploading the Xml file to the server. I've adjusted my WebRequest timeouts to appropriate values, and again, I'm not getting timeout errors, just StackOverflowExceptions. So is there some pattern that I should follow for times when I have to do many insertions into the database? I never encounter this exception on smaller Xml files, just larger ones.

    Read the article

  • NSFetchedResultsController: changing predicate not working?

    - by icerelic
    Hi, I'm writing an app with two tables on one screen. The left table is a list of folders and the right table shows a list of files. When tapped on a row on the left, the right table will display the files belonging to that folder. I'm using Core Data for storage. When the selection of folder changes, the fetch predicate of the right table's NSFetchedResultsController will change and perform a new fetch, then reload the table data. I used the following code snippet: NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"list = %@",self.list]; [fetchedResultsController.fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; NSError *error = nil; if (![[self fetchedResultsController] performFetch:&error]) { NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } [table reloadData]; However the fetch results are still the same. I've NSLog'ed "predicate" before and after the fetch, and they were correct with updated information. The fetch results stay the same as initial fetch (when view is loaded). I'm not very familiar with the way Core Data fetches objects (is there a caching system?), but I've done similar things before(changing predicates, re-fetching data, and refreshing table) with single table views and everything went well. If someone could gave me a hint I would be very appreciated. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Integer Surrogate Key?

    - by CitadelCSAlum
    I need something real simple, that for some reason I am unable to accomplish to this point. I have also been unable to Google the answer surprisingly. I need to number the entries in different tables uniquely. I am aware of AUTO INCREMENT in MySQL and that it will be involved. My situation would be as follows If I had a table like Table EXAMPLE ID - INTEGER FIRST_NAME - VARCHAR(45) LAST_NAME - VARCHAR(45) PHONE - VARCHAR(45) CITY - VARCHAR(45) STATE - VARCHAR(45) ZIP - VARCHAR(45) This would be the setup for the table where ID is an integer that is auto-incremented every time an entry is inserted into the table. The thing I need is that I do not want to have to account for this field when inserting data into the database. From my understanding this would be a surrogate key, that I can tell the database to automatically increment and I do not have to include it in the INSERT STATEMENT so instead of INSERT INTO EXAMPLE VALUES (2,'JOHN','SMITH',333-333-3333,'NORTH POLE'.... I can leave out the first ID column and just write something like INSERT INTO EXAMPLE VALUES ('JOHN','SMITH'.....etc) Notice I Wouldnt have to define the ID column... I know this is a very common task to do, but for some reason I cant get to the bottom of it. I am using MySQL, just to clarify. Thanks alot

    Read the article

  • Optimize GROUP BY&ORDER BY query

    - by Jan Hancic
    I have a web page where users upload&watch videos. Last week I asked what is the best way to track video views so that I could display the most viewed videos this week (videos from all dates). Now I need some help optimizing a query with which I get the videos from the database. The relevant tables are this: video (~239371 rows) VID(int), UID(int), title(varchar), status(enum), type(varchar), is_duplicate(enum), is_adult(enum), channel_id(tinyint) signup (~115440 rows) UID(int), username(varchar) videos_views (~359202 rows after 6 days of collecting data, so this table will grow rapidly) videos_id(int), views_date(date), num_of_views(int) The table video holds the videos, signup hodls users and videos_views holds data about video views (each video can have one row per day in that table). I have this query that does the trick, but takes ~10s to execute, and I imagine this will only get worse over time as the videos_views table grows in size. SELECT v.VID, v.title, v.vkey, v.duration, v.addtime, v.UID, v.viewnumber, v.com_num, v.rate, v.THB, s.username, SUM(vvt.num_of_views) AS tmp_num FROM video v LEFT JOIN videos_views vvt ON v.VID = vvt.videos_id LEFT JOIN signup s on v.UID = s.UID WHERE v.status = 'Converted' AND v.type = 'public' AND v.is_duplicate = '0' AND v.is_adult = '0' AND v.channel_id <> 10 AND vvt.views_date >= '2001-05-11' GROUP BY vvt.videos_id ORDER BY tmp_num DESC LIMIT 8 And here is a screenshot of the EXPLAIN result: So, how can I optimize this?

    Read the article

  • Building an extension framework for a Rails app

    - by obvio171
    I'm starting research on what I'd need in order to build a user-level plugin system (like Wordpress plugins) for a Rails app, so I'd appreciate some general pointers/advice. By user-level plugin I mean a package a user can extract into a folder and have it show up on an admin interface, allowing them to add some extra configuration and then activate it. What is the best way to go about doing this? Is there any other opensource project that does this already? What does Rails itself already offer for programmer-level plugins that could be leveraged? Any Rails plugins that could help me with this? A plugin would have to be able to: run its own migrations (with this? it's undocumented) have access to my models (plugins already do) have entry points for adding content to views (can be done with content_for and yield) replace entire views or partials (how?) provide its own admin and user-facing views (how?) create its own routes (or maybe just announce its presence and let me create the routes for it, to avoid plugins stepping on each other's toes) Anything else I'm missing? Also, is there a way to limit which tables/actions the plugin has access to concerning migrations and models, and also limit their access to routes (maybe letting them include, but not remove routes)? P.S.: I'll try to keep this updated, compiling stuff I figure out and relevant answers so as to have a sort of guide for others.

    Read the article

  • TableAdapter.Update not working

    - by Wesley
    Here is my function: private void btnSave_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { wO_FlangeMillBundlesTableAdapter.Update(invClerkDataDataSet.WO_FlangeMillBundles); wO_HeadMillBundlesTableAdapter.Update(invClerkDataDataSet.WO_HeadMillBundles); wO_WebMillBundlesTableAdapter.Update(invClerkDataDataSet.WO_WebMillBundles); int rowsaffected = wO_MillTableAdapter.Update(invClerkDataDataSet.WO_Mill); MessageBox.Show(invClerkDataDataSet.WO_Mill.Rows[0]["GasReading"].ToString()); MessageBox.Show(rowsaffected.ToString()); } You can see the fourth update in the function uses the same functionality as the rest, I just have some debugging stuff added. The first three tables are bound to DataGridViews and work fine. The fourth table has it's members bound to various text boxes. When I change the value in the text box bound to the GasReading column and click save the first MessageBox does in fact show the new value, so it's making it into the dataset correctly. However, the rowsaffected is always showing 0 and the value in the actual database is not being updated. Can anyone see my problem? I understand that the problem must be elsewhere in my code since the four update methods are the same, but I just don't know where to start.

    Read the article

  • Match entities fulfilling filter (strict superset of search)

    - by Jon
    I have an entity (let's say Person) with a set of arbitrary attributes with a known subset of values. I need to search for all of these entities that match all my filter conditions. That is, given a set of Attributes A, I need to find all people that have a set of Attributes that are a superset of A. For example, my table structures look like this: Person: id | name 1 | John Doe 2 | Jane Roe 3 | John Smith Attribute: id | attr_name 1 | Sex 2 | Eye Color ValidValue: id | attr_id | value_name 1 | 1 | Male 2 | 1 | Female 3 | 2 | Blue 4 | 2 | Green 5 | 2 | Brown PersonAttributes id | person_id | attr_id | value_id 1 | 1 | 1 | 1 2 | 1 | 2 | 3 3 | 2 | 1 | 2 4 | 2 | 2 | 4 5 | 3 | 1 | 1 6 | 3 | 2 | 4 In JPA, I have entities built for all of these tables. What I'd like to do is perform a search for all entities matching a given set of attribute-value pairs. For instance, I'd like to be able to find all males (John Doe and John Smith), all people with green eyes (Jane Roe or John Smith), or all females with green eyes (Jane Roe). I see that I can already take advantage of the fact that I only really need to match on value_id, since that's already unique and tied to the attr_id. But where can I go from there? I've been trying to do something like the following, given that the ValidValue is unique in all cases: select distinct p from Person p join p.personAttributes a where a.value IN (:values) Then I've tried putting my set of required values in as "values", but that gives me errors no matter how I try to structure that. I also have to get a little more complicated, as follows, but at this point I'd be happy with solving the first problem cleanly. However, if it's possible, the Attribute table actually has a field for default value: id | attr_name | default_value 1 | Sex | 1 2 | Eye Color | 5 If the value you're searching on happens to be the default value, I want it to return any people that have no explicit value set for that attribute, because in the application logic, that means they inherit the default value. Again, I'm more concerned about the primary question, but if someone who can help with that also has some idea of how to do this one, I'd be extremely grateful.

    Read the article

  • HTML Agility Pack

    - by Harikrishna
    I have html tables in one webpage like <table border=1> <tr><td>sno</td><td>sname</td></tr> <tr><td>111</td><td>abcde</td></tr> <tr><td>213</td><td>ejkll</td></tr> </table> <table border=1> <tr><td>adress</td><td>phoneno</td><td>note</td></tr> <tr><td>asdlkj</td><td>121510</td><td>none</td></tr> <tr><td>asdlkj</td><td>214545</td><td>none</td></tr> </table> Now from this webpage using html agility pack I want to extract the data of the column address and phone no only. It means for that I have find first in which table there is column address and phoneno.After finding that table I want to extract the data of that column address and phoneno what should I do ? I can get the table. But after that what should I do don't understand.

    Read the article

  • Planning management slots/sessions

    - by Glide
    I have a planning structure on two tables to store available slots by day, and sessions. A slot is defined by a range of time in the day. CREATE TABLE slot ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `date` date , `start` time , `end` time ); Sessions can't overlap themselves and must be wrapped in a slot. CREATE TABLE session ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `date` date , `start` time , `end` time ); I need to generate a list of available blocks of time of a certain duration, in order to create sessions. Example: INSERT INTO slot (date, start, end) VALUES ("2010-01-01", "10:00", "19:00") , ("2010-01-02", "10:00", "15:00") , ("2010-01-02", "16:00", "20:30") ; INSERT INTO slot (date, start, end) VALUES ("2010-01-01", "10:00", "19:00") , ("2010-01-02", "10:00", "15:00") , ("2010-01-02", "16:00", "20:30") ; 2010-01-01 <##><####> <- Sessions ------------------------------------ <- Slots 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 2010-01-02 <##########> <########> <- Sessions -------------------- ------------------ <- Slots 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 I need to know which spaces of 1 hour I can use: +------------+-------+-------+ | date | start | end | +------------+-------+-------+ | 2010-01-01 | 13:00 | 14:00 | | 2010-01-01 | 14:00 | 15:00 | | 2010-01-01 | 15:00 | 16:00 | | 2010-01-01 | 16:00 | 17:00 | | 2010-01-01 | 17:00 | 18:00 | | 2010-01-01 | 18:00 | 19:00 | | 2010-01-02 | 10:00 | 11:00 | | 2010-01-02 | 11:00 | 12:00 | | 2010-01-02 | 16:00 | 17:00 | +------------+-------+-------+

    Read the article

  • Autocomplete Error Question - Ruby on Rails

    - by bgadoci
    I have built a very simple blog application using Ruby on Rails. New to both Ruby and Rails so excuse the stupid questions. I currently have two tables that relate to this question. I have a Post table and a Tag table. Basically I set it up such that Post has_many :tags and Tag belongs_to :post. I am using AJAX to process and display the tags in the show view of the post. I installed the auto_complete plugin and I am getting an error when I enter the letters in the text_field_with_auto_complete for tag creation. My suspicion is this is because the form is a remote_form_for or something I am doing wrong in the routes.rb. Here is the error and code: Error Processing PostsController#show (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-04-13 23:25:46) [GET] Parameters: {"tag"=>{"tag_name"=>"f"}, "id"=>"auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name"} Post Load (0.1ms) SELECT * FROM "posts" WHERE ("posts"."id" = 0) ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound (Couldn't find Post with ID=auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name): app/controllers/posts_controller.rb:22:in `show' Rendered rescues/_trace (26.0ms) Rendered rescues/_request_and_response (0.2ms) Rendering rescues/layout (not_found) remote_form_for located in /views/posts/show.html.erb <% remote_form_for [@post, Tag.new] do |f| %> <p> <%= f.label :tag_name, "Tag" %><br/> <%= text_field_with_auto_complete :tag, :tag_name, {}, {:method => :get} %> </p> <p><%= f.submit "Add Comment" %></p> <% end %> tags_controller.rb (I'll spare you all the actions but added the following here) auto_complete_for :tag, :tag_name routes.rb map.resources :posts, :has_many => :comments map.resources :posts, :has_many => :tags map.resources :tags, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get }

    Read the article

  • exec problem in sql 2005

    - by IordanTanev
    Hi, i have the situation where i have two databases whith same structure. The first have some data in its datatables. I need to create a script that will transfer the data from the first database to the second. I have created this script. DECLARE @table_name nvarchar(MAX), @query nvarchar(MAX) DECLARE @table_cursor CURSOR SET @table_cursor = CURSOR FAST_FORWARD FOR Select TABLE_NAME FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES OPEN @table_cursor FETCH NEXT FROM @table_cursor INTO @table_name WHILE @@FETCH_STATUS = 0 BEGIN SET @query = 'INSERT INTO ' + @table_name + ' SELECT * FROM MyDataBase.dbo.' + @table_name print @query exec @query FETCH NEXT FROM @table_cursor INTO @table_name END CLOSE @table_cursor DEALLOCATE @table_cursor The problem is that when i run th script the "print @query" statement prints statement like this INSERT INTO table SELECT * FROM MyDataBase.dbo.table When i copy this and run it from Management studio it works fine. But when the script trys to run it with exec i get this error Msg 911, Level 16, State 1, Line 21 Could not locate entry in sysdatabases for database 'INSERT INTO table SELECT * FROM MPDEV090314'. No entry found with that name. Make sure that the name is entered correctly. Hope someone can tell me whot is wront with this. Best Regards, Iordan Tanev

    Read the article

  • Mapping composite foreign keys in a many-many relationship in Entity Framework

    - by Kirk Broadhurst
    I have a Page table and a View table. There is a many-many relationship between these two via a PageView table. Unfortunately all of these tables need to have composite keys (for business reasons). Page has a primary key of (PageCode, Version), View has a primary key of (ViewCode, Version). PageView obviously enough has PageCode, ViewCode, and Version. The FK to Page is (PageCode, Version) and the FK to View is (ViewCode, Version) Makes sense and works, but when I try to map this in Entity framework I get Error 3021: Problem in mapping fragments...: Each of the following columns in table PageView is mapped to multiple conceptual side properties: PageView.Version is mapped to (PageView_Association.View.Version, PageView_Association.Page.Version) So clearly enough, EF is having a complain about the Version column being a common component of the two foreign keys. Obviously I could create a PageVersion and ViewVersion column in the join table, but that kind of defeats the point of the constraint, i.e. the Page and View must have the same Version value. Has anyone encountered this, and is there anything I can do get around it? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How would I go about sharing variables in a class with Lua?

    - by Nicholas Flynt
    I'm fairly new to Lua, I've been working on trying to implement Lua scripting for logic in a Game Engine I'm putting together. I've had no trouble so far getting Lua up and running through the engine, and I'm able to call Lua functions from C and C functions from Lua. The way the engine works now, each Object class contains a set of variables that the engine can quickly iterate over to draw or process for physics. While game objects all need to access and manipulate these variables in order for the Game Engine itself to see any changes, they are free to create their own variables, a Lua is exceedingly flexible about this so I don't forsee any issues. Anyway, currently the Game Engine side of things are sitting in C land, and I really want them to stay there for performance reasons. So in an ideal world, when spawning a new game object, I'd need to be able to give Lua read/write access to this standard set of variables as part of the Lua object's base class, which its game logic could then proceed to run wild with. So far, I'm keeping two separate tables of objects in place-- Lua spawns a new game object which adds itself to a numerically indexed global table of objects, and then proceeds to call a C++ function, which creates a new GameObject class and registers the Lua index (an int) with the class. So far so good, C++ functions can now see the Lua object and easily perform operations or call functions in Lua land using dostring. What I need to do now is take the C++ variables, part of the GameObject class, and expose them to Lua, and this is where google is failing me. I've encountered a very nice method here which details the process using tags, but I've read that this method is deprecated in favor of metatables. What is the ideal way to accomplish this? Is it worth the hassle of learning how to pass class definitions around using libBind or some equivalent method, or is there a simple way I can just register each variable (once, at spawn time) with the global lua object? What's the "current" best way to do this, as of Lua 5.1.4?

    Read the article

  • Newbie T-SQL dynamic stored procedure -- how can I improve it?

    - by Andy Jones
    I'm new to T-SQL; all my experience is in a completely different database environment (Openedge). I've learned enough to write the procedure below -- but also enough to know that I don't know enough! This routine will have to go into a live environment soon, and it works, but I'm quite certain there are a number of c**k-ups and gotchas in it that I know nothing about. The routine copies data from table A to table B, replacing the data in table B. The tables could be in any database. I plan to call this routine multiple times from another stored procedure. Permissions aren't a problem: the routine will be run by the dba as a timed job. Could I have your suggestions as to how to make it fit best-practice? To bullet-proof it? ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[copyTable2Table] @sdb varchar(30), @stable varchar(30), @tdb varchar(30), @ttable varchar(30), @raiseerror bit = 1, @debug bit = 0 as begin set nocount on declare @source varchar(65) declare @target varchar(65) declare @dropstmt varchar(100) declare @insstmt varchar(100) declare @ErrMsg nvarchar(4000) declare @ErrSeverity int set @source = '[' + @sdb + '].[dbo].[' + @stable + ']' set @target = '[' + @tdb + '].[dbo].[' + @ttable + ']' set @dropStmt = 'drop table ' + @target set @insStmt = 'select * into ' + @target + ' from ' + @source set @errMsg = '' set @errSeverity = 0 if @debug = 1 print('Drop:' + @dropStmt + ' Insert:' + @insStmt) -- drop the target table, copy the source table to the target begin try begin transaction exec(@dropStmt) exec(@insStmt) commit end try begin catch if @@trancount > 0 rollback select @errMsg = error_message(), @errSeverity = error_severity() end catch -- update the log table insert into HHG_system.dbo.copyaudit (copytime, copyuser, source, target, errmsg, errseverity) values( getdate(), user_name(user_id()), @source, @target, @errMsg, @errSeverity) if @debug = 1 print ( 'Message:' + @errMsg + ' Severity:' + convert(Char, @errSeverity) ) -- handle errors, return value if @errMsg <> '' begin if @raiseError = 1 raiserror(@errMsg, @errSeverity, 1) return 1 end return 0 END Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Query MySQL data from Excel (or vice-versa)

    - by Charles
    I'm trying to automate a tedious problem. I get large Excel (.xls or .csv, whatever's more convenient) files with lists of people. I want to compare these against my MySQL database.* At the moment I'm exporting MySQL tables and reading them from an Excel spreadsheet. At that point it's not difficult to use =LOOKUP() and such commands to do the work I need, and of course the various text processing I need to do is easy enough to do in Excel. But I can't help but think that this is more work than it needs to be. Is there some way to get at the MySQL data directly from Excel? Alternately, is there a way I could access a reasonably large (~10k records) csv file in a sql script? This seems to be rather basic, but I haven't managed to make it work so far. I found an ODBC connection for MySQL but that doesn't seem to do what I need. In particular, I'm testing whether the name matches or whether any of four email addresses match. I also return information on what matched for the benefit of the next person to use the data, something like "Name 'Bob Smith' not found, but 'Robert Smith' matches on email address robert.smith@foo".

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 336 337 338 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347  | Next Page >