Search Results

Search found 11674 results on 467 pages for 'adding'.

Page 343/467 | < Previous Page | 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350  | Next Page >

• improve my code for collapsing a list of data.frames

  - by romunov

  Dear StackOverFlowers (flowers in short), I have a list of data.frames (walk.sample) that I would like to collapse into a single (giant) data.frame. While collapsing, I would like to mark (adding another column) which rows have came from which element of the list. This is what I've got so far. This is the data.frame that needs to be collapsed/stacked. > walk.sample [[1]] walker x y 1073 3 228.8756 -726.9198 1086 3 226.7393 -722.5561 1081 3 219.8005 -728.3990 1089 3 225.2239 -727.7422 1032 3 233.1753 -731.5526 [[2]] walker x y 1008 3 205.9104 -775.7488 1022 3 208.3638 -723.8616 1072 3 233.8807 -718.0974 1064 3 217.0028 -689.7917 1026 3 234.1824 -723.7423 [[3]] [1] 3 [[4]] walker x y 546 2 629.9041 831.0852 524 2 627.8698 873.3774 578 2 572.3312 838.7587 513 2 633.0598 871.7559 538 2 636.3088 836.6325 1079 3 206.3683 -729.6257 1095 3 239.9884 -748.2637 1005 3 197.2960 -780.4704 1045 3 245.1900 -694.3566 1026 3 234.1824 -723.7423 I have written a function to add a column that denote from which element the rows came followed by appending it to an existing data.frame. collapseToDataFrame <- function(x) { # collapse list to a dataframe with a twist walk.df <- data.frame() for (i in 1:length(x)) { n.rows <- nrow(x[[i]]) if (length(x[[i]])>1) { temp.df <- cbind(x[[i]], rep(i, n.rows)) names(temp.df) <- c("walker", "x", "y", "session") walk.df <- rbind(walk.df, temp.df) } else { cat("Empty list", "\n") } } return(walk.df) } > collapseToDataFrame(walk.sample) Empty list Empty list walker x y session 3 1 -604.5055 -123.18759 1 60 1 -562.0078 -61.24912 1 84 1 -594.4661 -57.20730 1 9 1 -604.2893 -110.09168 1 43 1 -632.2491 -54.52548 1 1028 3 240.3905 -724.67284 1 1040 3 232.5545 -681.61225 1 1073 3 228.8756 -726.91980 1 1091 3 209.0373 -740.96173 1 1036 3 248.7123 -694.47380 1 I'm curious whether this can be done more elegantly, with perhaps do.call() or some other more generic function?

  Read the article

• Why is the ASP Repeater.Items collection empty, when controls are on the screen?

  - by Ryan

  I have an ASP page with the following repeater: <asp:Repeater runat="server" ID="RegionRepeater" DataSourceID="SqlDataSourceRegions" EnableViewState="true"> <ItemTemplate> <tr> <td valign="top"> <b><%#Eval("description")%></b> <asp:HiddenField runat="server" ID="RegionID" Value='<%#Eval("region_id")%>'/> </td> <td> <asp:FileUpload ID="FileUpload" runat="server" Width="368px" /> </td> </tr> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> (The repeater is inside a Wizard, inside a content pane). The code behind is connected to the protected void Wizard1_NextButtonClick(object sender, WizardNavigationEventArgs e) event. There are two items on the screen (two rows inside the table). However, when the code tries to read those items, the Items collection is empty! foreach(RepeaterItem region in RegionRepeater.Items) { // Never runs - the RegionRepeater.Items.Count = 0 FileUpload fileUpload = (FileUpload) region.FindControl("FileUpload"); String regionID = ((HiddenField)region.FindControl("RegionID")).Value; ... Why is the collection empty, when there are controls drawn on the screen? Thanks a lot for any help; this is starting to drive me nuts. (BTW: I tried adding/removing the EnableViewState="true" tag)

  Read the article

• jQuery AJAX Character Encoding Problem

  - by Salty

  Hi everyone, I'm currently coding a French website. There's a schedule page, where a link on the side can be used to load another day's schedule. http://aquate.us/film/horaire.html (At the moment, only the links for November 13th and November 14th work) Here's the JS I'm using to do this: <script type="text/javascript"> function load(y) { $.get(y,function(d) { $("#replace").html(d); mod(); }); } function mod() { $("#dates a").click(function() { y = $(this).attr("href"); load(y); return false; }); } mod(); </script> The actual AJAX works like a charm. My problem lies with the response to the request. Because it is a French website, there are many accented letters. I'm using the ISO-8859-15 charset for that very reason. However, in the response to my AJAX request, the accents are becoming ?'s because the character encoding seems to be changed back to UTF-8. How do I avoid this? I've already tried adding some PHP at the top of the requested documents to set the character set: <?php header('Content-Type: text/html; charset=ISO-8859-15'); ?> But that doesn't seem to work either. Any thoughts? Also, while any of you are looking here...why does the rightmost column seem to become smaller when a new page is loaded, causing the table to distort and each <li> within the <td> to wrap to the next line? Cheers

  Read the article

• Silverlight 3 - How to "refresh" a DataGrid content?

  - by Josimari Martarelli

  I have the following scenery: 1 using System; 2 using System.Windows; 3 using System.Windows.Controls; 4 using System.Windows.Documents; 5 using System.Windows.Ink; 6 using System.Windows.Input; 7 using System.Windows.Media; 8 using System.Windows.Media.Animation; 9 using System.Windows.Shapes; 10 using System.Collections.Generic; 11 12 namespace refresh 13 { 14 public partial class MainPage : UserControl 15 { 16 17 List c = new List(); 18 19 public MainPage() 20 { 21 // Required to initialize variables 22 InitializeComponent(); 23 c.Add(new Customer{ _nome = "Josimari", _idade = "29"}); 24 c.Add(new Customer{_nome = "Wesley", _idade = "26"}); 25 c.Add(new Customer{_nome = "Renato",_idade = "31"}); 26 27 this.dtGrid.ItemsSource = c; 28 } 29 30 private void Button_Click(object sender, System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs e) 31 { 32 c.Add(new Customer{_nome = "Maiara",_idade = "18"}); 33 } 34 35 } 36 37 public class Customer 38 { 39 public string _nome{get; set;} 40 public string _idade{get; set;} 41 } 42 } Where, dtGrid is my DataGrid control... The Question is: How to get the UI Updated after adding one more register to my list. I get to solve it setting the DataGrid's Item Source to "" and then setting to the list of Customer objects again, like that: 1 private void Button_Click(object sender, System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs e) 2 3 { 4 5 c.Add(new Customer{_nome = "Maiara",_idade = "18"}); 6 7 this.dtGrid.ItemsSource=""; 8 9 this.dtGrid.ItemsSource=c; 10 11 } 12 Is there a way to get the UI updated or the datagrid's itemsSource refreshed automatically after updating, altering or deleting an item from the list c ? Thank you, Josimari Martarelli

  Read the article

• Salesforce/PHP - outbound messages (SOAP) - memory limit issue

  - by Phill Pafford

  I'm using Salesforce to send outbound messages (via SOAP) to another server. The server can process about 8 messages at a time, but will not send back the ACK file if the SOAP request contains more than 8 messages. SF can send up to 100 outbound messages in 1 SOAP request and I think this is causing a memory issue with PHP. If I process the outbound messages 1 by 1 they all go through fine, I can even do 8 at a time with no issues. But larger sets are not working. ERROR in SF: org.xml.sax.SAXParseException: Premature end of file Looking in the HTTP error logs I see that the incoming SOAP message looks to be getting cut of which throws a PHP warning stating: Premature end of data in tag ... PHP Fatal error: Call to a member function getAttribute() on a non-object This leads me to believe that PHP is having a memory issue and can not parse the incoming message due to it's size. I was thinking I could just set: ini_set('memory_limit', '64M'); But would this be the correct approach? Is there a way I could set this to increase with the incoming SOAP request dynamically? UPDATE: Adding some code $data = fopen('php://input','rb'); $headers = getallheaders(); $content_length = $headers['Content-Length']; $buffer_length = 1000; $fread_length = $content_length + $buffer_length; $content = fread($data,$fread_length); /** * Parse values from soap string into DOM XML */ $dom = new DOMDocument(); $dom->loadXML($content); ....

  Read the article

• Update a single field from a single entity with ria-services

  - by TimothyP

  There are situations where I only want to update a specific field of a single entity in the database. I loaded the entities of that type into my silverlight application, and I know they are constantly changing on the server... but there is one field which has to be set by the silverlight client... the server will only read it. How can I just send the new data for that field to the server? Example an Entity called "TextField". I have a list of TextFields loaded in the silverlight application and every now and then the user will update the Preload (string) property of an entity and that has to go back to the server without changing anything else on the server. I tried adding a simple SetPreloadText(...) method to the DomainService but that just makes Silverlight crash with some odd error code. Is there a way to this? Am I working against the idea of Silverlight here? I really don't want to send the entire object back because know that at any given time the version on the client will most likely be out of date. (which is ok for this specific application)

  Read the article

• Issues with cross-domain uploading

  - by meder

  I'm using a django plugin called django-filebrowser which utilizes uploadify. The issue I'm having is that I'm hosting uploadify.swf on a remote static media server, whereas my admin area is on my django server. At first, the browse button wouldn't invoke my browser's upload. I fixed this by modifying the sameScriptAccess to always instead of sameDomain. Now the progress bar doesn't move at all, I probably have to enable some server setting for cross domain file uploading, or most likely actually host a separate upload script on my media server. I thought I could solve this by adding a crossdomain.xml to enable any site at the root of both servers, but that doesn't seem to solve it. $(document).ready(function() { $('#id_file').uploadify({ 'uploader' : 'http://media.site.com:8080/admin/filebrowser/uploadify/uploadify.swf', 'script' : '/admin/filebrowser/upload_file/', 'scriptData' : {'session_key': '...'}, 'checkScript' : '/admin/filebrowser/check_file/', 'cancelImg' : 'http://media.site.com:8080/admin/filebrowser/uploadify/cancel.png', 'auto' : false, 'folder' : '', 'multi' : true, 'fileDesc' : '*.html;*.py;*.js;*.css;*.jpg;*.jpeg;*.gif;*.png;*.tif;*.tiff;*.mp3;*.mp4;*.wav;*.aiff;*.midi;*.m4p;*.mov;*.wmv;*.mpeg;*.mpg;*.avi;*.rm;*.pdf;*.doc;*.rtf;*.txt;*.xls;*.csv;', 'fileExt' : '*.html;*.py;*.js;*.css;*.jpg;*.jpeg;*.gif;*.png;*.tif;*.tiff;*.mp3;*.mp4;*.wav;*.aiff;*.midi;*.m4p;*.mov;*.wmv;*.mpeg;*.mpg;*.avi;*.rm;*.pdf;*.doc;*.rtf;*.txt;*.xls;*.csv;', 'sizeLimit' : 10485760, 'scriptAccess' : 'always', //'scriptAccess' : 'sameDomain', 'queueSizeLimit' : 50, 'simUploadLimit' : 1, 'width' : 300, 'height' : 30, 'hideButton' : false, 'wmode' : 'transparent', translations : { browseButton: 'BROWSE', error: 'An Error occured', completed: 'Completed', replaceFile: 'Do you want to replace the file', unitKb: 'KB', unitMb: 'MB' } }); $('input:submit').click(function(){ $('#id_file').uploadifyUpload(); return false; }); }); The page I'm viewing this on is http://site.com/admin/filebrowser/browse on port 80.

  Read the article

• Hooking into comment_text() to add surrounding tag

  - by Stefan Glase

  Trying to hook into the function comment_text() supplied by Wordpress API to wrap the output of every comment into a <div>...</div> container I am running into the following problem: Without my added filter the output of comment_text() looks like this: <p>Hello User!</p> <p>Thank you for your comment.</p> <p>Stefan</p> Thats fine but as I said I would like to have it wrapped into a <div class="comment-text">...</div>. As far as I know the correct way doing this would be in adding a filter to functions.php of my theme and so I did: function stefan_wrap_comment_text($content) { return "<div class=\"comment-text\">". $content ."</div>"; } add_filter('comment_text', 'stefan_wrap_comment_text'); As I can see from the output the given filter works but it has a negative sideeffect to the first paragraph of the content as you can see in the following example. The first paragraph should be <p>Hello User!</p> but looks like this: Hello User!. <div class="comment-text"> Hello User! <p>Thank you for your comment.</p> <p>Stefan</p> </div> Any ideas or hints what I am doing wrong?

  Read the article

• Jquery and XML - How to add the value of nodes

  - by Matias

  Hi Experts, This may be a simple question though can´t figure out how to do it. I am parsing an XML with Jquery Ajax. It contains dates and rates The XML looks something like <rate> <date>Today</date> <price>66</price> </rate> <rate> <date>Tomorrow</date> <price>99</price> </rate> I simply want to figure out how to calculate the total price of both days Today and Tomorrow. Thought that by using Javascript Number it will simply return the total value of the nodes.. $(xml).find("rate").each(function() { $(this).find("price").each(function() { $("#TOTALPRICE").append(Number($(this).text())); } } //output is: 6699 However, it´s just concatenating the values both not adding them. //output is: 6699 I greatly appreciate your help !! Thanks

  Read the article

• Checking if a RoutedEvent has any handlers

  - by AK

  I've got a custom Button class, that always performs the same action when it gets clicked (opening a specific window). I'm adding a Click event that can be assigned in the button's XAML, like a regular button. When it gets clicked, I want to execute the Click event handler if one has been assigned, otherwise I want to execute the default action. The problem is that there's apparently no way to check if any handlers have been added to an event. I thought a null check on the event would do it: if (Click == null) { DefaultClickAction(); } else { RaiseEvent(new RoutedEventArgs(ClickEvent, this));; } ...but that doesn't compile. The compiler tells me that I can't do anything other than += or -= to an event outside of the defining class, event though I'm trying to do this check INSIDE the defining class. I've implemented the correct behavior myself, but it's ugly and verbose and I can't believe there isn't a built-in way to do this. I must be missing something. Here's the relevant code: public class MyButtonClass : Control { //... public static readonly RoutedEvent ClickEvent = EventManager.RegisterRoutedEvent("Click", RoutingStrategy.Bubble, typeof(RoutedEventHandler), typeof(MyButtonClass)); public event RoutedEventHandler Click { add { ClickHandlerCount++; AddHandler(ClickEvent, value); } remove { ClickHandlerCount--; RemoveHandler(ClickEvent, value); } } private int ClickHandlerCount = 0; private Boolean ClickHandlerExists { get { return ClickHandlerCount > 0; } } //... }

  Read the article

• Accessing type-parameter of a type-parameter

  - by itemState

  i would like to access, in a trait, the type-parameter of a type-parameter of that trait. without adding this "second-order" type-parameter as another "first-order" parameter to the trait. the following illustrates this problem: sealed trait A; sealed trait A1 extends A; sealed trait A2 extends A trait B[ ASpecific <: A ] { type ASpec = ASpecific } trait D[ ASpecific <: A ] extends B[ ASpecific ] trait C[ +BSpecific <: B[ _ <: A ]] { def unaryOp : C[ D[ BSpecific#ASpec ]] } def test( c: C[ B[ A1 ]]) : C[ D[ A1 ]] = c.unaryOp the test fails to compile because apparently, the c.unaryOp has a result of type C[D[A]] and not C[D[A1]], indicating that ASpec is merely a shortcut for _ <: A and does not refer to the specific type parameter. the two-type-parameter solution is simple: sealed trait A; sealed trait A1 extends A; sealed trait A2 extends A trait B[ ASpecific <: A ] trait D[ ASpecific <: A ] extends B[ ASpecific ] trait C[ ASpecific <: A, +BSpecific <: B[ ASpecific ]] { def unaryOp : C[ ASpecific, D[ ASpecific ]] } def test( c: C[ A1, B[ A1 ]]) : C[ A1, D[ A1 ]] = c.unaryOp but i don't understand why i need to clutter my source with this second, obviously redundant, parameter. is there no way to retrieve it from trait B?

  Read the article

• jQuery fn.extend ({bla: function(){}} vs. jQuery.fn.bla

  - by tixrus

  OK I think I get http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1991126/difference-jquery-extend-and-jquery-fn-extend in that the general extend can extend any object, and that fn.extend is for plugin functions that can be invoked straight off the jquery object with some internal jquery voodoo. So it appears one would invoke them differently. If you use general extend to extend object obj by adding function y, then the method would attach to that object, obj.y() but if you use fn.extend then they are attach straight to the jquery object $.y().... Have I got that correct yes or no and if no what do I have wrong in my understanding? Now MY question: The book I am reading advocates using jQuery.fn.extend ({a: function(){}, b: function(){}}); syntax but in the docs it says jQuery.fn.a (function(){}); and I guess if you wanted b as well it would be jQuery.fn.b (function(){}); Are these functionally and performance-wise equivalent and if not what is the difference? Thank you very much. I am digging jQuery!

  Read the article

• Advice using leaks in instruments for noobs

  - by Gyozo Kudor

  Hello I am pretty new to iphone development. I have run my app for the first time using the "Leaks" from "Instruments". It shows me several leaks around 20 the smallest is 32 bytes and there is one with 1KB. I have followed the memory management guidelines, (i (think i) understand how and when to use release, not to use it when adding to autorelease pools, for every copy, retain, init there should be a release,... etc). I don't think I understand the output of the Leaks in instruments. What does "Responsible library" and "Responsible frame" mean. Because there are some classes and methods i never used directly. Are there any good tutorials for debugging memory leaks in instruments or other advice you can give me regarding leaks. Thanks in advance. Here are the largest 2 leaks. Leaked Object # Address Size Responsible Library Responsible Frame Malloc 1.00 KB 0x4827400 1024 CFNetwork std::vector *, std::allocator * ::reserve(unsigned long) // i have no idea what this is. Leaked Object # Address Size Responsible Library Responsible Frame Malloc 128 Bytes 5 640 UIKit UIImagePickerLoadPhotoLibraryIfNecessary // so this means UIImagePicker is leaking memory? The first leak i get Leaked Object # Address Size Responsible Library Responsible Frame Malloc 128 Bytes 0x442dfd0 128 UIKit UIKeyboardInputManagerClassForInputMode I don't understand any of those.

  Read the article

• Django inlineformset validation and delete

  - by Andrew Gee

  Hi, Can someone tell me if a form in an inlineformset should go through validation if the DELETE field is checked. I have a form that uses an inlineformset and when I check the DELETE box it fails because the required fields are blank. If I put data in the fields it will pass validation and then be deleted. Is that how it is supposed to work, I would have thought that if it is marked for delete it would bypass the validation for that form. Regards Andrew Follow up - but I would still appreciate some others opinions/help What I have figured out is that for validation to work the a formset form must either be empty or complete(valid) otherwise it will have errors when it is created and will not be deleted. As I have a couple of hidden fields in my formset forms and they are pre-populated when the page loads via javascript the form fails validation on the other required fields which might still be blank. The way I have gotten around this by adding in a check in the add_fields that tests if the DELETE input is True and if it is it makes all fields on the form not required, which means it passes validation and will then delete. def add_fields(self, form, index) #add other fields that are required.... deleteValue = form.fields['DELETE'].widget.value_from datadict(form.data, form.files, form.add_prefix('DELETE')) if bool(deleteValue) or deleteValue == '': for name, field in form.fields.items(): form.fields[name].required= False This seems to be an odd way to do things but I cannot figure out another way. Is there a simpler way that I am missing? I have also noticed that when I add the new form to my page and check the Delete box, there is no value passed back via the request, however an existing form (one loaded from the database) has a value of on when the Delete box is checked. If the box is not checked then the input is not in the request at all. Thanks Andrew

  Read the article

• Android media thumbnails. Serious issues?

  - by Ralphleon

  I've been playing with android's thumbnails for a while now, and I've seen some inconsistencies that make me want to scream. My goal is to have a simple list of all Images (and a separate list for video) with the thumbnail and filename. Device: HTC Evo (fresh from Google I/o) First off: http://androidsamples.blogspot.com/2009/06/how-to-display-thumbnails-of-images.html That code doesn't seem to work at all, thumbnails are duplicated... some with the "mirror" effect and some without. Also some won't load and just display a black square. I've tried rebuilding the thumbnails by deleting the "alblum thumbs" directory from the SD card. HTC's gallery application seem to show everything fine. This approach seems to work: Bitmap thumb = MediaStore.Images.Thumbnails.getThumbnail( getContentResolver(), id, MediaStore.Video.Thumbnails.MICRO_KIND, null); imageView.setImageBitmap(curThumb); where id is the original images id and imageView is some image view. This is great! But, strangely, way too slow to be used inside a SimpleViewBinder. Next approach: String [] proj = {MediaStore.Images.Thumbnails._ID}; Cursor c = managedQuery(MediaStore.Images.Thumbnails.EXTERNAL_CONTENT_URI, proj, MediaStore.Images.Thumbnails.IMAGE_ID + "=" +id , null, null); if (c != null && c.moveToFirst()) { Uri thumb = Uri.withAppendedPath(mThumbUri,c.getLong(0)+""); imageView.setImageURI(thumb); } I should explain that I feel the needed WHERE condition is required because there doesn't seem to be any guarantee that your uri will have the same ID for both a thumbnail and its parent image. This works for all of the current images, but as soon as I start adding pictures with the camera they show up as blank! Debugging shows a dreaded: SkImageDecoder::Factory returned null error and the URI is returned as invalid. These are the same images that work with the previous call. Can anyone either catch my logical failure or point me to some working code?

  Read the article

• x86 opcode alignment references and guidelines

  - by mrjoltcola

  I'm generating some opcodes dynamically in a JIT compiler and I'm looking for guidelines for opcode alignment. 1) I've read comments that briefly "recommend" alignment by adding nops after calls 2) I've also read about using nop for optimizing sequences for parallelism. 3) I've read that alignment of ops is good for "cache" performance Usually these comments don't give any supporting references. Its one thing to read a blog or a comment that says, "its a good idea to do such and such", but its another to actually write a compiler that implements specific op sequences and realize most material online, especially blogs, are not useful for practical application. So I'm a believer in finding things out myself (disassembly, etc. to see what real world apps do). This is one case where I need some outside info. I notice compilers will usually start an odd byte instruction immediately after whatever previous instruction sequence there was. So the compiler is not taking any special care in most cases. I see "nop" here or there, but usually it seems nop is used sparingly, if at all. How critical is opcode alignment? Can you provide references for cases that I can actually use for implementation? Thanks.

  Read the article

• How can I inject an object into an WCF IErrorHandler implementation with Castle Windsor?

  - by Michael Johnson

  I'm developing a set of services using WCF. The application is doing dependency injection with Castle Windsor. I've added an IErrorHandler implementation that is added to services via an attribute. Everything is working thus far. The IErrorHandler object (of a class called FaultHandler is being applied properly and invoked. Now I'm adding logging. Castle Windsor is set up to inject the logger object (an instance of IOurLogger). This is working. But when I try to add it to FaultHandler my logger is null. The code for FaultHandler looks something like this: class FaultHandler : IErrorHandler { public IOurLogger logger { get; set; } public bool HandleError(Exception error) { logger.Write("Exception type {0}. Message: {1}", error.GetType(), error.Message); // Let WCF handle things its way. We only want to log. return false; } public void ProvideFault(Exception error, MessageVersion version, Message fault) { } } This throws it's own exception, since logger is null when HandleError() is called. The logger is being successfully injected into the service itself and is usable there, but for some reason I can't use it in FaultHandler. Update: Here is the relevant part of the Windsor configuration file (edited to protect the innocent): <configuration> <components> <component id="Logger" service="Our.Namespace.IOurLogger, Our.Namespace" type="Our.Namespace.OurLogger, Our.Namespace" /> </components> </configuration>

  Read the article

• MySQL stored procedure, handling multiple cursors and query results

  - by Tirithen

  How can I use two cursors in the same routine? If I remove the second cursor declaration and fetch loop everthing works fine. The routine is used for adding a friend in my webapp. It takes the id of the current user and the email of the friend we want to add as a friend, then it checks if the email has a corresponding user id and if no friend relation exists it will create one. Any other routine solution than this one would be great as well. DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS addNewFriend; DELIMITER // CREATE PROCEDURE addNewFriend(IN inUserId INT UNSIGNED, IN inFriendEmail VARCHAR(80)) BEGIN DECLARE tempFriendId INT UNSIGNED DEFAULT 0; DECLARE tempId INT UNSIGNED DEFAULT 0; DECLARE done INT DEFAULT 0; DECLARE cur CURSOR FOR SELECT id FROM users WHERE email = inFriendEmail; DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR NOT FOUND SET done = 1; OPEN cur; REPEAT FETCH cur INTO tempFriendId; UNTIL done = 1 END REPEAT; CLOSE cur; DECLARE cur CURSOR FOR SELECT user_id FROM users_friends WHERE user_id = tempFriendId OR friend_id = tempFriendId; DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR NOT FOUND SET done = 1; OPEN cur; REPEAT FETCH cur INTO tempId; UNTIL done = 1 END REPEAT; CLOSE cur; IF tempFriendId != 0 AND tempId != 0 THEN INSERT INTO users_friends (user_id, friend_id) VALUES(inUserId, tempFriendId); END IF; SELECT tempFriendId as friendId; END // DELIMITER ;

  Read the article

• Administrator's shortcut to batch file with double quoted parameters

  - by XXB

  Take an excruciatingly simple batch file: echo hi pause Save that as test.bat. Now, make a shortcut to test.bat. The shortcut runs the batch file, which prints "hi" and then waits for a keypress as expected. Now, add some argument to the target of the shortcut. Now you have a shortcut to: %path%\test.bat some args The shortcut runs the batch file as before. Now, run the shortcut as administrator. (This is on Windows 7 by the way.) You can use either right-click - Run as Administrator, or go to the shortcut's properties and check the box in the advanced section. Tell UAC that it's okay and once again the shortcut runs the batch file as expected. Now, change the arguments in the target of the shortcut to add double quotes: %path%\test.bat "some args" Now try the shortcut as administrator. It doesn't work this time! A command window pops up and and disappears too fast to see any error. I tried adding test.log 2&1 to the shortcut, but no log is created in this case. Try running the same shortcut (with the double quotes) but not as Administrator. It runs the batch file fine. So, it seems the behavior is not because of the double quoted parameters, and it's not because it's run as Administrator. It's some weird combination of the two. I also tried running the same command from an administrator's command window. This ran the batch file as expected without error. Running the shortcut from the command window spawned a new command window which flashed and went away. So apparently the issue is caused by a combination of administrator, the shortcut, and the double quotes. I'm totally stumped, does anyone have any idea what's going on?

  Read the article

• Big and Little endian question

  - by Bobby

  I have the following code: // Incrementer datastores.cmtDatastores.u32Region[0] += 1; // Decrementer datastores.cmtDatastores.u32Region[1] = (datastores.cmtDatastores.u32Region[1] == 0) ? 10 : datastores.cmtDatastores.u32Region[1] - 1; // Toggler datastores.cmtDatastores.u32Region[2] = (datastores.cmtDatastores.u32Region[2] == 0x0000) ? 0xFFFF : 0x0000; The u32Region array is an unsigned int array that is part of a struct. Later in the code I convert this array to Big endian format: unsigned long *swapL = (unsigned long*)&datastores.cmtDatastores.u32Region[50]; for (int i=0;i<50;i++) { swapL[i] = _byteswap_ulong(swapL[i]); } This entire code snippet is part of a loop that repeats indefinitely. It is a contrived program that increments one element, decrements another and toggles a third element. The array is then sent via TCP to another machine that unpacks this data. The first loop works fine. After that, since the data is in big endian format, when I "increment", "decrement", and "toggle", the values are incorrect. Obviously, if in the first loop datastores.cmtDatastores.u32Region[0] += 1; results in 1, the second loop it should be 2, but it's not. It is adding the number 1(little endian) to the number in datastores.cmtDatastores.u32Region[0](big endian). I guess I have to revert back to little endian at the start of every loop, but it appears there should be an easier way to do this. Any thoughts? Thanks, Bobby

  Read the article

• Displaying single-instance business object data on SSRS

  - by Lachlan

  I have a SQL Server Reporting Services local (i.e. RDLC) report displayed in a ReportViewer, with two subreports. I am using business objects to populate the datasets. What is the best way to populate single-instance data on my report, e.g. a dynamic title, or a text box that lists a calculated value, not based on the report data? I am currently displaying data using the following style: public class MyRecordList { string Name { get; set; } List<MyRecord> Records { get; set;} } public MyRecord { string Description { get; set;} string Value { get; set;} } I set the datasource to the Records in an instance of MyRecordsList, and they print out find in a table. But adding a textbox and and referring to Name displays nothing. I also tried turning Name into a List, and referring to the first in the list, using: =First(Fields!Name.Value, "Report1_MyRecordList") but still nothing is printed on the report.

  Read the article

• SVN Workflow - Chicken Before the Egg - Before merging V1 with V2, I need code from V1 to work on V2

  - by Jake

  Hi, Our distributed team (3 internal devs and 3+ external devs) use SVN to manage our codebase for a web site. We have a branch for each minor version (4.1.0, 4.1.1, 4.1.2, etc...). We have a trunk which we merge each version into when we do a release and publish to our site. An example of the problem we are having is thus: A new feature is added, lets call it "Ability to Create A Project" to 4.1.1. Another feature which depends on the one in 4.1.1 is scheduled to go in 4.1.2, called "Ability to Add Tasks to Projects". So, on Monday, we say 4.1.1 is 'closed' and needs to be tested. Our remote developers usually will start working on features/tickets for 4.1.2 at this point. Throughout the week we will test 4.1.1 and fix any bugs and commit them back to 4.1.1. Then, on Friday or so, we will tag 4.1.1, merge it with trunk, and finally, merge it with 4.1.2. But, for the 4-5 days we are testing, 4.1.2 doesn't have the code from 4.1.1 that some of the new features for 4.1.2 depend on. So a dev who is adding the "Ability to Add Tasks To Projects" feature, doesn't have the "Ability to Create a Project" feature to build upon, and has to do some file copy shenanigans to be able to keep working on it. What could/should we do to smooth out this process? P.S. Apologies if this question has been asked before - I did search but couldn't find what I'm looking for.

  Read the article

• Advice moving from Eclipse to xCode

  - by Gloin the Dark

  To xCode xPerts: I have been doing Java in Eclipse for about 9 years now and I have really gotten used to the power of the refactoring tools. There are a few operations I do all the time. I am looking for equivalents in xCode since it has better support for objective-c than eclipse. (I'm not at my Mac as I write this. So some of this is from memory. I am still very new to xCode.) 1 "rename". It seems that the xCode equivalent for variables is "edit all in scope". Does this work for files/classes/methods too? 2 "extract local variable" select an expression it creates a local var initialized to that expression. It even creates a usable name for the variable. 3 "extract method" select some code and it will create a method with that code and appropriate parameters/return value. 4 "inline" (variable or method) opposite of extract, inlines all or just the selected occurrence of the selected var or method. 5 "find next" occurrence of selected text. In eclipse I can select some text and hit ctrl-k to go to the next occurrence of that in the file. likewise shift-ctrl-k finds backwards. IIRC the xCode "find next" ignores the selection and only uses what is in the find box. 6 "change method signature" This would be very useful with ocjective-c's named parameter messaging syntax. This is great for adding parameters to a method. 7 "pull-up/push-down" for moving methods up or down the class hierarchy. 8 "move" for moving elements around to other classes etc. Those are the ones that I use all of the time. I have estimated that these tools cut my coding time in half. Are any of these supported in xCode? Thanks in advance for any advice.

  Read the article

• Collision Attacks, Message Digests and a Possible solution

  - by Dominar

  I've been doing some preliminary research in the area of message digests. Specifically collision attacks of cryptographic hash functions such as MD5 and SHA-1, such as the Postscript example and X.509 certificate duplicate. From what I can tell in the case of the postscript attack, specific data was generated and embedded within the header of the postscript (which is ignored during rendering) which brought about the internal state of the md5 to a state such that the modified wording of the document would lead to a final MD equivalent to the original. The X.509 took a similar approach where by data was injected within the comment/whitespace of the certificate. Ok so here is my question, and I can't seem to find anyone asking this question: Why isn't the length of ONLY the data being consumed added as a final block to the MD calculation? In the case of X.509 - Why is the whitespace and comments being taken into account as part of the MD? Wouldn't a simple processes such as one of the following be enough to resolve the proposed collision attacks: MD(M + |M|) = xyz MD(M + |M| + |M| * magicseed_0 +...+ |M| * magicseed_n) = xyz where : M : is the message |M| : size of the message MD : is the message digest function (eg: md5, sha, whirlpool etc) xyz : is the acutal message digest value for the message M magicseed_{i}: Is a set random values generated with seed based on the internal-state prior to the size being added. This technqiue should work, as to date all such collision attacks rely on adding more data to the original message. In short, the level of difficulty involved in generating a collision message such that: It not only generates the same MD But is also comprehensible/parsible/compliant and is also the same size as the original message, is immensely difficult if not near impossible. Has this approach ever been discussed? Any links to papers etc would be nice.

  Read the article

• WCF Http Bindings, Require SSL

  - by JoshKraker

  I have the following binding I'm using with my wsHttpBinding webservice. <binding name="wsHttpConfig"> <security> <transport clientCredentialType="None"/> </security> </binding> The issue is that it allows for the client to connect using either Http or Https. I would like to require them to use SSL. I tried adding the following: <system.web.extensions> <scripting> <webServices> <authenticationService enabled="true" requireSSL = "true"/> </webServices> </scripting> </system.web.extensions> But it had no effect; client could still connect with Http. I then tried checking the "Require SSL" in the IIS7 SSL Settings and had client certificates radio set to Accept. Now, when I try to view the service I am getting the error "Could not find a base address that matches scheme http for the endpoint with binding WSHttpBinding. Registered base address schemes are [https]." Anyone know exactly how to fix this error? I have been googling for the last 3 hours trying 500 different combinations (not 500, but too many to list) and could not get anything to run.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350  | Next Page >