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  • Is it not possible to make a C++ application "Crash Proof"?

    - by Enno Shioji
    Let's say we have an SDK in C++ that accepts some binary data (like a picture) and does something. Is it not possible to make this SDK "crash-proof"? By crash I primarily mean forceful termination by the OS upon memory access violation, due to invalid input passed by the user (like an abnormally short junk data). I have no experience with C++, but when I googled, I found several means that sounded like a solution (use a vector instead of an array, configure the compiler so that automatic bounds check is performed, etc.). When I presented this to the developer, he said it is still not possible.. Not that I don't believe him, but if so, how is language like Java handling this? I thought the JVM performs everytime a bounds check. If so, why can't one do the same thing in C++ manually? UPDATE By "Crash proof" I don't mean that the application does not terminate. I mean it should not abruptly terminate without information of what happened (I mean it will dump core etc., but is it not possible to display a message like "Argument x was not valid" etc.?)

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  • C# Automatic Properties - Still null after +=?

    - by Sam Schutte
    This seems like a bug to me... I accept that automatic properties, defined as such: public decimal? Total { get; set; } Will be null when they are first accessed. They haven't been initialized, so of course they are null. But, even after setting their value through +=, this decimal? still remains null. So after: Total += 8; Total is still null. How can this be correct? I understand that it's doing a (null + 8), but seems strange that it doesn't pick up that it means it should just be set to 8... Addendums: I made the "null + 8" point in my question - but notice that it works with strings. So, it does null + "hello" just fine, and returns "hello". Therefore, behind the scenes, it is initializing the string to a string object with the value of "hello". The behavior should be the same for the other types, IMO. It might be because a string can accept a null as a value, but still, a null string is not an initialized object, correct? Perhaps it's just because a string isn't a nullable...

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  • Button inside a repeater with dropdownlist

    - by TheAlbear
    I have a repeater with a literal, a dropdown list, and a button. <asp:Repeater ID="Repeater1" runat="server" OnItemDataBound="rep_ItemDataBound" onitemcommand="Repeater1_ItemCommand"> <ItemTemplate> <div class="buypanel"> <ul> <li>Choose finish <asp:DropDownList ID="ddlFinish" runat="server"></asp:DropDownList></li> <li>Qty <asp:Literal ID="ltQty" runat="server"></asp:Literal></li> <li><asp:Button ID="butBuy" runat="server" Text="Button" /></li> </ul> </div> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> I am binding all the information in the code behind like protected void rep_ItemDataBound(object sender, RepeaterItemEventArgs e) { if (e.Item.ItemType == ListItemType.Item || e.Item.ItemType == ListItemType.AlternatingItem) { Products product = (Products) e.Item.DataItem; //Dropdownlist to be bound. //Set Buy Button var butBuy = (Button) e.Item.FindControl("butBuy"); butBuy.CommandName = "Buy"; butBuy.CommandArgument = product.Id.ToString(); } } and i have my itemcommand to pick up on the button click protected void Repeater1_ItemCommand(object source, RepeaterCommandEventArgs e) { if(e.CommandName == "Buy") { } } I am not sure how, with a given button click, to pickup the right information from the text box and dropdown list which is along side it?

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  • Page_Load or Page_Init

    - by balexandre
    Let's take a really simple example on using jQuery to ajaxify our page... $.load("getOrders.aspx", {limit: 25}, function(data) { // info as JSON is available in the data variable }); and in the ASP.NET (HTML part) page (only one line) <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="getOrders.aspx.cs" Inherits="getOrders" %> and in the ASP.NET (Code Behind) page public partial class getOrders : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string lmt = Request["limit"]; List<Orders> ords = dll.GetOrders(limit); WriteOutput( Newtonsoft.Json.JsonConvert.SerializeObject(ords) ); } private void WriteOutput(string s) { Response.Clear(); Response.Write(s); Response.Flush(); Response.End(); } } my question is Should it be protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) or protected void Page_Init(object sender, EventArgs e) So we can save some milliseconds as we don't actually need to process the events for the page, or will Page_Init lack of some sorting of a method by the time it is called? P.S. Currently works fine in both methods, but I just want to understand the ins and outs of choosing one method over the other

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  • Very simple code for number search gives me infinite loop

    - by Joshua
    Hello, I am a newbie Computer Science high school student and I have trouble with a small snippet of code. Basically, my code should perform a basic CLI search in an array of integers. However, what happens is I get what appears to be an infinite loop (BlueJ, the compiler I'm using, gets stuck and I have to reset the machine). I have set break points but I still don't quite get the problem...(I don't even understand most of the things that it tells me) Here's the offending code (assume that "ArrayUtil" works, because it does): import java.util.Scanner; public class intSearch { public static void main(String[] args) { search(); } public static void search() { int[] randomArray = ArrayUtil.randomIntArray(20, 100); Scanner searchInput = new Scanner(System.in); int searchInt = searchInput.nextInt(); if (findNumber(randomArray, searchInt) == -1) { System.out.println("Error"); }else System.out.println("Searched Number: " + findNumber(randomArray, searchInt)); } private static int findNumber(int[] searchedArray, int searchTerm) { for (int i = 0; searchedArray[i] == searchTerm && i < searchedArray.length; i++) { return i; } return -1; } } This has been bugging me for some time now...please help me identify the problem!

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  • please help me for performing serch in my program

    - by Abid
    i want to perform searching in my programe.. i have my class in which i have made a function i.e. public DataTable Search() { string SQL = "Select * from Customer where " + mField + " like '%" + mValue + "%'"; DataTable dt = new DataTable(); dt = dm.GetData(SQL); return (dt); } in which i have made setters and getters for mField and mValue.. where dm is the object of class Datamanagement in which i have made a function GetData i.e. public DataTable GetData(string SQL) { SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(); SqlDataAdapter dbAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter(); DataTable DataTable = new DataTable(); command.Connection = clsConnection.GetConnection(); command.CommandText = SQL; dbAdapter.SelectCommand = command; dbAdapter.Fill(DataTable); return (DataTable); } and behind the search button, i have written.. private void btnfind_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //cust is the object of class customer// if (tbCustName.Text != "") { cust.Field="CustName"; cust.Value = tbCustName.Text; } else if (tbAddress.Text != "") { cust.Value = tbAddress.Text; cust.Field="Address"; } else if (tbEmail.Text != "") { cust.Value = tbEmail.Text; cust.Field="Email"; } else if (tbCell.Text != "") { cust.Value = tbCell.Text; cust.Field = "Cell"; } DataTable dt = new DataTable(); dt = cust.Search(); dgCustomer.DataSource = dt; RefreshGrid(); } where my referesh grid fuction does that : private void RefreshGrid() { DataTable dt = new DataTable(); dt = cust.GetCustomers(); dgCustomer.DataSource = dt; } but this is not working.. i dont knw y.. please help..

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  • How to find unmapped properties in a NHibernate mapped class?

    - by haarrrgh
    I just had a NHibernate related problem where I forgot to map one property of a class. A very simplified example: public class MyClass { public virtual int ID { get; set; } public virtual string SomeText { get; set; } public virtual int SomeNumber { get; set; } } ...and the mapping file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="MyAssembly" namespace="MyAssembly.MyNamespace"> <class name="MyClass" table="SomeTable"> <property name="ID" /> <property name="SomeText" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping> In this simple example, you can see the problem at once: there is a property named "SomeNumber" in the class, but not in the mapping file. So NHibernate will not map it and it will always be zero. The real class had a lot more properties, so the problem was not as easy to see and it took me quite some time to figure out why SomeNumber always returned zero even though I was 100% sure that the value in the database was != zero. So, here is my question: Is there some simple way to find this out via NHibernate? Like a compiler warning when a class is mapped, but some of its properties are not. Or some query that I can run that shows me unmapped properties in mapped classes...you get the idea. (Plus, it would be nice if I could exclude some legacy columns that I really don't want mapped.)

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  • Why can a public class not inherit from a less visible one?

    - by Dan Tao
    I apologize if this question has been asked before. I've searched SO somewhat and wasn't able to find it. I'm just curious what the rationale behind this design was/is. Obviously I understand that private/internal members of a base type cannot, nor should they, be exposed through a derived public type. But it seems to my naive thinking that the "hidden" parts could easily remain hidden while some base functionality is still shared and a new interface is exposed publicly. I'm thinking of something along these lines: Assembly X internal class InternalClass { protected virtual void DoSomethingProtected() { // Let's say this method provides some useful functionality. // Its visibility is quite limited (only to derived types in // the same assembly), but at least it's there. } } public class PublicClass : InternalClass { public void DoSomethingPublic() { // Now let's say this method is useful enough that this type // should be public. What's keeping us from leveraging the // base functionality laid out in InternalClass's implementation, // without exposing anything that shouldn't be exposed? } } Assembly Y public class OtherPublicClass : PublicClass { // It seems (again, to my naive mind) that this could work. This class // simply wouldn't be able to "see" any of the methods of InternalClass // from AssemblyX directly. But it could still access the public and // protected members of PublicClass that weren't inherited from // InternalClass. Does this make sense? What am I missing? }

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  • Generics in a bidirectional association

    - by Verhoevenv
    Let's say I have two classes A and B, with B a subtype of A. This is only part of a richer type hierarchy, obviously, but I don't think that's relevant. Assume A is the root of the hierarchy. There is a collection class C that keeps track of a list of A's. However, I want to make C generic, so that it is possible to make an instance that only keeps B's and won't accept A's. class A(val c: C[A]) { c.addEntry(this) } class B(c: C[A]) extends A(c) class C[T <: A]{ val entries = new ArrayBuffer[T]() def addEntry(e: T) { entries += e } } object Generic { def main(args : Array[String]) { val c = new C[B]() new B(c) } } The code above obviously give the error 'type mismatch: found C[B], required C[A]' on the new B(c) line. I'm not sure how this can be fixed. It's not possible to make C covariant in T (like C[+T <: A]) because the ArrayBuffer is non-variantly typed in T. It's not possible to make the constructor of B require a C[B] because C can't be covariant. Am I barking up the wrong tree here? I'm a complete Scala newbie, so any ideas and tips might be helpful. Thank you! EDIT: Basically, what I'd like to have is that the compiler accepts both val c = new C[B]() new B(c) and val c = new C[A]() new B(c) but would reject val c = new C[B]() new A(c) It's probably possible to relax the typing of the ArrayBuffer in C to be A instead of T, and thus in the addEntry method as well, if that helps.

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  • IE8, XHTML, position: fixed; and z-index.

    - by Joel
    I have an XHTML 1.0 transitional Doctype. I have a <div> that is position: fixed; bottom: 0px; left: 0px; width: 100%; z-index: 200;. Inside that <div> I have two buttons which are position relative, aligned right, with a set z-index of 201; In Firefox the bar at the bottom and the two buttons are correctly located at the bottom. In IE8 however, the bar is visible and the z-index appears to be overlaying the other content, but the buttons are hidden behind the main div, despite being children and having their z-index set. I'm using the following meta tag; <meta http-equiv="X-UA-Compatible" content="IE=edge" /> to force the document into IE8 mode. If I emulate IE7 (put on compatability mode), the bar and buttons work just fine. I don't understand how IE7's rendering is better than IE8. I don't want to have to force compatability mode due to other things that IE7 cannot render and IE8 can. Is there another solution, or have I missed something? Thanks.

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  • CSS Heart with Text within

    - by user3696456
    I would like to put a name into a heart made with CSS. And I can't seem to figure out how to do it. I have this code already: #heart { position:relative; width:100px; height:100px; } #heart:before,#heart:after { position:absolute; content:""; left:50px; top:0; width:50px; height:80px; background:#F00000; -moz-border-radius:50px 50px 0 0; border-radius:50px 50px 0 0; -webkit-transform:rotate(-45deg); -moz-transform:rotate(-45deg); -ms-transform:rotate(-45deg); -o-transform:rotate(-45deg); transform:rotate(-45deg); -webkit-transform-origin:0 100%; -moz-transform-origin:0 100%; -ms-transform-origin:0 100%; -o-transform-origin:0 100%; transform-origin:0 100%; } #heart:after { left: 0; -webkit-transform:rotate(45deg); -moz-transform:rotate(45deg); -ms-transform:rotate(45deg); -o-transform:rotate(45deg); transform:rotate(45deg); -webkit-transform-origin:100% 100%; -moz-transform-origin:100% 100%; -ms-transform-origin:100% 100%; -o-transform-origin:100% 100%; transform-origin:100% 100%; } When I try to write the name directly into the div: "#heart", it just puts the text behind. Thanks in advance for any help!

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  • Detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed on Windows Phone 7

    - by David_001
    Simple question: How do I detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed on windows mobile 7? Is there an event I can add a listener to? It takes up about half the screen and I want to scroll the view up when it gets displayed... EDIT: A comment below indicates more clearly what I'm trying to do: I have a textbox input, and as the user types into it an autocomplete dropdown appears below it (like google suggest). By default, the active control (the textbox) scrolls into view when focussed, and the onscreen keyboard is directly below it. The onscreen keyboard appears in front of my autocomplete dropdown - what I want to do is make the screen scroll a little further up, so there's some room for my dropdown to be shown. The windows phone UI design guidelines say: "When the keyboard is deployed, the application should scroll to ensure the active edit control and the caret are in view". This happens fine, it's just the non-active dropdown gets hidden behind the onscreen keyboard. The guidelines also say that an application can choose to show the onscreen keyboard, and can also choose to close it. At the moment i'm stuck, and I don't think (based on my research and the replies to this question) that it's possible to detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed. I'm moving my investigation to see if it's possible to determine the "visible area" of the page (width & height in pixels for example), and combine this with an onfocus for the textbox... not sure if this will prove fruitful though.

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  • C++: Weird Segmentation fault.

    - by Kleas
    I am trying to print something using C++. However, I am running into a strange bug that has left me clueless, I use the following code: PRINTDLG pd; ZeroMemory(&pd, sizeof(pd)); pd.lStructSize = sizeof(pd); pd.Flags = PD_RETURNDEFAULT; PrintDlg(&pd); // Set landscape DEVMODE* pDevMode = (DEVMODE*)GlobalLock(pd.hDevMode); pDevMode->dmOrientation = DMORIENT_LANDSCAPE; pd.hwndOwner = mainWindow; pd.Flags = PD_RETURNDC | PD_NOSELECTION; GlobalUnlock(pd.hDevMode); if (PrintDlg(&pd)) { DOCINFO di; di.cbSize = sizeof(DOCINFO); di.lpszDocName = "Test Print"; di.lpszOutput = (LPTSTR)NULL; di.fwType = 0; //start printing StartDoc(pd.hDC, &di); int a; int b; int c; int d; int e; int f; // int g; // Uncomment this -> CRASH EndDoc(pd.hDC); DeleteDC(pd.hDC); } else { cout << "Did not print: " << CommDlgExtendedError() << endl; } The moment I uncomment 'int g;' I get a: "Program received signal SIGSEGV, Segmentation fault." I use codeblocks and the mingw compiler, both up to date. What could be causing this?

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  • C++ Type error with Object versus Object reference

    - by muddybruin
    I have the following function (which worked in Visual Studio): bool Plane::contains(Vector& point){ return normalVector.dotProduct(point - position) < -doubleResolution; } When I compile it using g++ version 4.1.2 , I get the following error: Plane.cpp: In member function âvirtual bool Plane::contains(Vector&)â: Plane.cpp:36: error: no matching function for call to âVector::dotProduct(Vector)â Vector.h:19: note: candidates are: double Vector::dotProduct(Vector&) So as you can see, the compiler thinks (point-position) is a Vector but it's expecting Vector&. What's the best way to fix this? I verified that this works: Vector temp = point-position; return normalVector.dotProduct(temp) < -doubleResolution; But I was hoping for something a little bit cleaner. I heard a suggestion that adding a copy constructor might help. So I added a copy constructor to Vector (see below), but it didn't help. Vector.h: Vector(const Vector& other); Vector.cpp: Vector::Vector(const Vector& other) :x(other.x), y(other.y), z(other.z), homogenous(other.homogenous) { }

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  • Polling a web URL until event

    - by Jaxo
    I'm really sorry about the crappy title - if anybody has a better way of wording it, please edit it! I basically need to have a C# application run a function if the output of a URL is a certain value. For example, if the website says blue the background colour will be blue, red to make it red, etc. The problem is I don't want to spam my webserver with checks. The 4 bytes it downloads each time is negligible, but if I were to deploy this type of system on multiple computers, it would get slower and slower and the bandwidth would add up quickly. So my question is: How can my desktop application run a piece of code only when a web URL has a different output without checking each time? I can't use sockets, and any sort of LAN protocol won't end up working. My reasoning behind this potentially nefarious code is to be able to mute computers by updating a file on the website (as you may have seen in my previous question today, sorry!). I'd like it to be rather quick, and not have the refresh time minutes apart, a few seconds at the most would be ideal. How can I accomplish this? The website's code is easy, but getting the C# application to check when it changes is the part I'm stuck on. Nothing shows up on the website other than the command. Thanks!

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  • Any workarounds for non-static member array initialization?

    - by TomiJ
    In C++, it's not possible to initialize array members in the initialization list, thus member objects should have default constructors and they should be properly initialized in the constructor. Is there any (reasonable) workaround for this apart from not using arrays? [Anything that can be initialized using only the initialization list is in our application far preferable to using the constructor, as that data can be allocated and initialized by the compiler and linker, and every CPU clock cycle counts, even before main. However, it is not always possible to have a default constructor for every class, and besides, reinitializing the data again in the constructor rather defeats the purpose anyway.] E.g. I'd like to have something like this (but this one doesn't work): class OtherClass { private: int data; public: OtherClass(int i) : data(i) {}; // No default constructor! }; class Foo { private: OtherClass inst[3]; // Array size fixed and known ahead of time. public: Foo(...) : inst[0](0), inst[1](1), inst[2](2) {}; }; The only workaround I'm aware of is the non-array one: class Foo { private: OtherClass inst0; OtherClass inst1; OtherClass inst2; OtherClass *inst[3]; public: Foo(...) : inst0(0), inst1(1), inst2(2) { inst[0]=&inst0; inst[1]=&inst1; inst[2]=&inst2; }; }; Edit: It should be stressed that OtherClass has no default constructor, and that it is very desirable to have the linker be able to allocate any memory needed (one or more static instances of Foo will be created), using the heap is essentially verboten. I've updated the examples above to highlight the first point.

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  • OCR combined with font recognition?

    - by Adam
    I have a bold idea where a user could take an image like the following and in a few seconds of processing, be able to edit a document which looks roughly the same. The software would use WhatTheFont (or something similar) to recognize the fonts used, and OCR and other software to handle the font size, color, line-spacing, and of course the text content itself. In the case of the example image, there would be three separate "textboxes" produced, each starting at the upper left corner of the text, and extending as far to the bottom right as it could before running into another text box. So the user would then see something like this: (The rectangles are just used to show the boundaries of each textbox.) From here, the user would be able to edit the text in each of these boxes to create a new document. Of course there are tons of obvious uses for such an application, especially on a mobile phone with a built in camera. So my questions are the following: I doubt the answer is yes, but does anything do this already? If I'm going to try to build this, what should I write it in? Can I use Python? What would be the best OCR libraries to start with? Is there a service other than WhatTheFont for font recognition that has better API support? Anybody want to help me build it? :) etc. etc. Update: One thing I wanted to mention (but forgot) is I would also like the background to be preserved. In other words, if the example above had an image behind the text, I'd like the document to use that image with text removed. I know this complicates things a lot because that would require some image editing techniques too (something akin to Photoshop CS5' "content-aware fill"). But if we can solve diminished reality on iPhones, I think we can figure this out!

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  • Automating Excel through the PIA makes VBA go squiffy.

    - by Jon Artus
    I have absolutely no idea how to start diagnosing this, and just wondered if anyone had any suggestions. I'm generating an Excel spreadsheet by calling some Macros from a C# application, and during the generation process it somehow breaks. I've got a VBA class containing all of my logging/error-handling logic, which I instantiate using a singleton-esque accessor, shown here: Private mcAppFramework As csys_ApplicationFramework Public Function AppFramework() As csys_ApplicationFramework If mcAppFramework Is Nothing Then Set mcAppFramework = New csys_ApplicationFramework Call mcAppFramework.bInitialise End If Set AppFramework = mcAppFramework End Function The above code works fine before I've generated the spreadsheet, but afterwards fails. The problem seems to be the following line; Set mcAppFramework = New csys_ApplicationFramework which I've never seen fail before. If I add a watch to the variable being assigned here, the type shows as csys_ApplicationFramework/wksFoo, where wksFoo is a random worksheet in the same workbook. What seems to be happening is that while the variable is of the right type, rather than filling that slot with a new instance of my framework class, it's making it point to an existing worksheet instead, the equivalent of Set mcAppFramework = wksFoo which is a compiler error, as one might expect. Even more bizarrely, if I put a breakpoint on the offending line, edit the line, and then resume execution, it works. For example, I delete the word 'New' move off the line, move back, re-type 'New' and resume execution. This somehow 'fixes' the workbook and it works happily ever after, with the type of the variable in my watch window showing as csys_ApplicationFramework/csys_ApplicationFramework as I'd expect. This implies that manipulating the workbook through the PIA is somehow breaking it temporarily. All I'm doing in the PIA is opening the workbook, calling several macros using Excel.Application.Run(), and saving it again. I can post a few more details if anyone thinks that it's relevant. I don't know how VBA creates objects behind the scenes or how to debug this. I also don't know how the way the code executes can change without the code itself changing. As previously mentioned, VBA has frankly gone a bit squiffy on me... Any thoughts?

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  • Force screen size when testing embedded DOS app in Windows 7 command window

    - by tomlogic
    I'm doing some embedded DOS development with OpenWatcom (great Windows-hosted compiler for targeting 16-bit DOS applications). The target hardware has a 24x16 character screen (that supposedly emulates CGA to some degree), and I'm trying to get the CMD.EXE window on my Windows 7 machine to stay at a fixed 24x16 without any scroll bars. I've used both the window properties and MODE CON: COLS=24 LINES=16 to get the screen size that I wanted, but as soon as my application uses an INT10 BIOS calls to clear the screen, the mode jumps back to 80x24. Here's what I'm using to clear the screen: void cls(void) { // Clear screen and reset cursor position to (0,0) union REGS regs; regs.w.cx = 0; // Upper left regs.w.dx = 0x1018; // Lower right (of 16x24) regs.h.bh = 7; // Blank lines attribute (white text on black) regs.w.ax = 0x0600; // 06 = scroll up, AL=00 to clear int86( 0x10, &regs, &regs ); } Any ideas? I can still do my testing at 80x24 (or 80x25), but it doesn't entirely behave like the 24x16 mode.

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  • switch namespace by if condtion

    - by pascal
    Hi, in my C++ program I have several namespaces that contain several pointers with identical names. I then want a function to choose a namespace according to a parameter. I.e. something like: #include <iostream> namespace ns1{ double x[5]={1,2,3,4,5}; } namespace ns2{ double x[5]={6,7,8,9,10}; } int main(){ int b=1; if(b==1){ using namespace ns1; } if(b==2){ using namespace ns2; } std::cout << x[3] << std::endl; } However, this doesn't work since the compiler complains that x isn't known in that scope. I guess the problem is that "using namespace ..." is only valid within the if-statement. I think that it should be possible to switch namespaces somehow, but cannot find out how... Do you know how to do this without casting all variable separately? int main(){ int b=1; double *x; if(b==1){ x = ns1::x; } if(b==2){ x = ns2::x; } std::cout << x[3] << std::endl; } Cheers, Pascal

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  • wpautop() - when shortcode attributes are on new lines -breaks args array

    - by Luca
    I have a custom shortcode tag with a few attributes, and I would like to be able to display its attributes on new lines - to make it more readable to content editors: [component attr1 ="value1" attr2 ="value of the second one" attr3 ="another" attr4 ="value" ... attrN ="valueN"] The reason behind this requirement is that a few attributes might be quite verbose in content. Unfortunately, wpautop() adds some nasty extra markup that breaks the args array like this (using php print_r($args)): Array ( [0] => attr1 [1] => ="value1" /> [3] => attr2 = [4] => "value [5] => of [6] => the [7] => second [8] => one" /> [10] => "" //...and more like this) I've tried with the attributes inline: [component attr1 ="value1" attr2 ="value of the second one" ="value"... attrN ="valueN"] and the output is as expected: Array ( [attr1] => value1 [attr2] => value of the second one [attr3] => //...and so on) is there any way to have the attributes intented and avoid that extra markup that breaks the $args array?

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  • LINQ to SQL Queries odd Materialization

    - by ptoinson
    I ran across an interesting Linq to SQL, uh, feature, the other day. Perhaps someone can give me a logical explanation for the reasoning behind the results. Take the code below as my example which utilizes the AdventureWorks database setup in a Linq to SQL DataContext. This is a clip from my unit test. The resulting customer returned from a call to both CustomerQuery_Test_01() and CustomerQuery_Test_02() is the same. However, the query executed on the SQLServer are different is a major way. The method CustomerQuery_Test_01 us causing the entire Customer table to be materialized, which the call to CustomerQuery_Test_02 is only causing the single customer to be materialized. The resulting SQL Queries are at the bottom of this post. Anyone have a good reason for this? To me, it was highly non-intuitive. protected virtual Customer GetByPrimaryKey(Func<Customer, bool> keySelection) { AdventureWorksDataContext context = new AdventureWorksDataContext(); return (from r in context.Customers select r).SingleOrDefault(keySelection); } [TestMethod] public void CustomerQuery_Test_01() { Customer customer = GetByPrimaryKey(c => c.CustomerID == 2); } [TestMethod] public void CustomerQuery_Test_02() { AdventureWorksDataContext context = new AdventureWorksDataContext(); Customer customer = (from r in context.Customers select r).SingleOrDefault(c => c.CustomerID == 2); } Query for CustomerQuery_Test_01 (notice the lack of a where clause) SELECT [t0].[CustomerID], [t0].[NameStyle], [t0].[Title], [t0].[FirstName], [t0].[MiddleName], [t0].[LastName], [t0].[Suffix], [t0].[CompanyName], [t0].[SalesPerson], [t0].[EmailAddress], [t0].[Phone], [t0].[PasswordHash], [t0].[PasswordSalt], [t0].[rowguid], [t0].[ModifiedDate] FROM [SalesLT].[Customer] AS [t0] Query for CustomerQuery_Test_02 (notice the where clause) SELECT [t0].[CustomerID], [t0].[NameStyle], [t0].[Title], [t0].[FirstName], [t0].[MiddleName], [t0].[LastName], [t0].[Suffix], [t0].[CompanyName], [t0].[SalesPerson], [t0].[EmailAddress], [t0].[Phone], [t0].[PasswordHash], [t0].[PasswordSalt], [t0].[rowguid], [t0].[ModifiedDate] FROM [SalesLT].[Customer] AS [t0] WHERE [t0].[CustomerID] = @p0

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  • Holding variables in memory, C++

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Today something strange came to my mind. When I want to hold some string in C (C++) the old way, without using string header, I just create array and store that string into it. But, I read that any variable definition in C in local scope of function ends up in pushing these values onto the stack. So, the string is actually 2* bigger than needed. Because first, the push instructions are located in memory, but then when they are executed (pushed onto the stack) another "copy" of the string is created. First the push instructions, than the stack space is used for one string. So, why is it this way? Why doesn't compiler just add the string (or other variables) to the program instead of creating them once again when executed? Yes, I know you cannot just have some data inside program block, but it could just be attached to the end of the program, with some jump instruction before. And than, we would just point to these data? Because they are stored in RAM when the program is executed. Thanks.

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  • C++ privately contructed class

    - by Nona Urbiz
    How can I call a function and keep my constructor private? If I make the class static, I need to declare an object name which the compiler uses to call the constructor, which it cannot if the constructor is private (also the object would be extraneous). Here is the code I am attempting to use (it is not compilable): I want to keep the constructor private because I will later be doing a lot of checks before adding an object, modifying previous objects when all submitted variables are not unique rather than creating new objects. #include <iostream> #include <fstream> #include <regex> #include <string> #include <list> #include <map> using namespace std; using namespace tr1; class Referral { public: string url; map<string, int> keywords; static bool submit(string url, string keyword, int occurrences) { //if(Referrals.all.size == 0){ // Referral(url, keyword, occurrences); //} } private: list<string> urls; Referral(string url, string keyword, int occurrences) { url = url; keywords[keyword] = occurrences; Referrals.all.push_back(this); } }; struct All { list<Referral> all; }Referrals; int main() { Referral.submit("url", "keyword", 1); }

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  • how to create an object using self?

    - by Nick
    I thought I understood the use of self while referring to anything in the current class. After encountering this warning and subsequent run failure, I have googled many variants of "define self" or "usage of self" and gotten nowhere. This problem is how to create an object without the warning, and understand why. #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface Foo : NSObject { Foo *obj; } -(void)beta; @end #import "Foo.h" @implementation Foo -(void)beta{ obj = [self new]; // 'Foo' may not respond to '-new' } @end Note, if I substitute Foo for self, there's no problem. I thought the class name and self were equivalent, but obviously the compiler doesn't think so. Perhaps an explanation of what's wrong here will not only solve my problem but also enlighten my understanding of the usage of self. Are there any tutorials about proper usage of self? I couldn't find anything beyond something like "self is the receiver of the message," which I didn't help me at all.

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