Search Results

Search found 9889 results on 396 pages for 'behind the compiler'.

Page 343/396 | < Previous Page | 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350  | Next Page >

  • Why can a public class not inherit from a less visible one?

    - by Dan Tao
    I apologize if this question has been asked before. I've searched SO somewhat and wasn't able to find it. I'm just curious what the rationale behind this design was/is. Obviously I understand that private/internal members of a base type cannot, nor should they, be exposed through a derived public type. But it seems to my naive thinking that the "hidden" parts could easily remain hidden while some base functionality is still shared and a new interface is exposed publicly. I'm thinking of something along these lines: Assembly X internal class InternalClass { protected virtual void DoSomethingProtected() { // Let's say this method provides some useful functionality. // Its visibility is quite limited (only to derived types in // the same assembly), but at least it's there. } } public class PublicClass : InternalClass { public void DoSomethingPublic() { // Now let's say this method is useful enough that this type // should be public. What's keeping us from leveraging the // base functionality laid out in InternalClass's implementation, // without exposing anything that shouldn't be exposed? } } Assembly Y public class OtherPublicClass : PublicClass { // It seems (again, to my naive mind) that this could work. This class // simply wouldn't be able to "see" any of the methods of InternalClass // from AssemblyX directly. But it could still access the public and // protected members of PublicClass that weren't inherited from // InternalClass. Does this make sense? What am I missing? }

    Read the article

  • DataTrigger not reevaluating after property changes

    - by frozen
    I have a listbox which has its itemssource (this is done in the code behind on as the window is created) databound to an observable collection. The List box then has the following data template assigned against the items: usercontrol.xaml ... <ListBox x:Name="communicatorListPhoneControls" ItemContainerStyle="{StaticResource templateForCalls}"/> ... app.xaml ... <Style x:Key="templateForCalls" TargetType="{x:Type ListBoxItem}"> <Setter Property="ContentTemplate" Value="{StaticResource templateRinging}"/> <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=hasBeenAnswered}" Value="True"> <Setter Property="ContentTemplate" Value="{StaticResource templateAnswered}"/> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> ... When the observable collection is updated with an object, this appears in the listbox with the correct initial datatemplate, however when the "hasBeenAnswered" property is set to true (when debugging i can see the collection is correct) the datatrigger does not re-evaluate and then update the listbox to use the correct data template. I have implemented the INotifyPropertyChanged Event in my object, and if in the template i bind to a value, i can see the value update. Its just that the datatrigger will not re-evaluate and change to the correct template. I know the datatrigger binding is correct because if i close the window and open it again, it will correctly apply the second datatemplate, because the "hasBeenAnswered" is set to True.

    Read the article

  • escape exactly what in javascript

    - by Emin
    Hi all, Being a newbie in javascript I came to a situation where I need more information on escaping characters in a string. Basically I know that in order to escape " I need to replace it with \" but what I don't know is for which characters I need to escape a particular string for. Is there a list of these "characters to escape"? or is it any character that is not a-zA-Z0-9 ? In my situation, I don't have control over the content that is being displayed on my page. Users enter some text and save it. I then use a webservice to extract them from the database, build a json array of objects, then iterate the array when I need to display them. In this case, I have - naturally - no idea of what the text the user has entered and therefore for what characters I need to escape. I also use jQuery for this specific project (just in case it has a function I am not aware of, to do what I need) Providing examples would be appreciated but I also want to learn the theory and logic behind it. Hope someone can be of any help.

    Read the article

  • Button inside a repeater with dropdownlist

    - by TheAlbear
    I have a repeater with a literal, a dropdown list, and a button. <asp:Repeater ID="Repeater1" runat="server" OnItemDataBound="rep_ItemDataBound" onitemcommand="Repeater1_ItemCommand"> <ItemTemplate> <div class="buypanel"> <ul> <li>Choose finish <asp:DropDownList ID="ddlFinish" runat="server"></asp:DropDownList></li> <li>Qty <asp:Literal ID="ltQty" runat="server"></asp:Literal></li> <li><asp:Button ID="butBuy" runat="server" Text="Button" /></li> </ul> </div> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> I am binding all the information in the code behind like protected void rep_ItemDataBound(object sender, RepeaterItemEventArgs e) { if (e.Item.ItemType == ListItemType.Item || e.Item.ItemType == ListItemType.AlternatingItem) { Products product = (Products) e.Item.DataItem; //Dropdownlist to be bound. //Set Buy Button var butBuy = (Button) e.Item.FindControl("butBuy"); butBuy.CommandName = "Buy"; butBuy.CommandArgument = product.Id.ToString(); } } and i have my itemcommand to pick up on the button click protected void Repeater1_ItemCommand(object source, RepeaterCommandEventArgs e) { if(e.CommandName == "Buy") { } } I am not sure how, with a given button click, to pickup the right information from the text box and dropdown list which is along side it?

    Read the article

  • How to find unmapped properties in a NHibernate mapped class?

    - by haarrrgh
    I just had a NHibernate related problem where I forgot to map one property of a class. A very simplified example: public class MyClass { public virtual int ID { get; set; } public virtual string SomeText { get; set; } public virtual int SomeNumber { get; set; } } ...and the mapping file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="MyAssembly" namespace="MyAssembly.MyNamespace"> <class name="MyClass" table="SomeTable"> <property name="ID" /> <property name="SomeText" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping> In this simple example, you can see the problem at once: there is a property named "SomeNumber" in the class, but not in the mapping file. So NHibernate will not map it and it will always be zero. The real class had a lot more properties, so the problem was not as easy to see and it took me quite some time to figure out why SomeNumber always returned zero even though I was 100% sure that the value in the database was != zero. So, here is my question: Is there some simple way to find this out via NHibernate? Like a compiler warning when a class is mapped, but some of its properties are not. Or some query that I can run that shows me unmapped properties in mapped classes...you get the idea. (Plus, it would be nice if I could exclude some legacy columns that I really don't want mapped.)

    Read the article

  • Page_Load or Page_Init

    - by balexandre
    Let's take a really simple example on using jQuery to ajaxify our page... $.load("getOrders.aspx", {limit: 25}, function(data) { // info as JSON is available in the data variable }); and in the ASP.NET (HTML part) page (only one line) <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="getOrders.aspx.cs" Inherits="getOrders" %> and in the ASP.NET (Code Behind) page public partial class getOrders : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string lmt = Request["limit"]; List<Orders> ords = dll.GetOrders(limit); WriteOutput( Newtonsoft.Json.JsonConvert.SerializeObject(ords) ); } private void WriteOutput(string s) { Response.Clear(); Response.Write(s); Response.Flush(); Response.End(); } } my question is Should it be protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) or protected void Page_Init(object sender, EventArgs e) So we can save some milliseconds as we don't actually need to process the events for the page, or will Page_Init lack of some sorting of a method by the time it is called? P.S. Currently works fine in both methods, but I just want to understand the ins and outs of choosing one method over the other

    Read the article

  • C++: Simple data type for a variable in IF statement?

    - by Jason
    I am new to C++ and am making a simple text RPG, anyway, The scenario is I have a "welcome" screen with choices 1-3, and have a simple IF statement to check them, here: int choice; std::cout << "--> "; std::cin >> choice; if(choice == 1) { //.. That works fine, but if someone enters a letter as selection (instead of 1, 2 or 3) it'll become "-392493492"or something and crash the program. So I came up with: char choice; std::cout << "--> "; std::cin >> choice; if(choice == 1) { //.. This works kinda fine, but when I enter a number it seems to skip the IF statements completely.. Is the char "1" the same as the number 1? I get a compiler errro with this (ISO-CPP or something): if(choice == "1") So how on earth do I see if they entered 1-3 correctly!?

    Read the article

  • C++ templates error: instantiated from 'void TestClass::testMethod(T, std::map) [with T = SomeClass]

    - by pureconsciousness
    Hello there, I've some problem in my code I cannot deal with: #ifndef TESTCLASS_H_ #define TESTCLASS_H_' #include <map> using namespace std; template <typename T> class TestClass { public: TestClass(){}; virtual ~TestClass(){}; void testMethod(T b,std::map<T,int> m); }; template <typename T> void TestClass`<T`>::testMethod(T b,std::map<T,int> m){ m[b]=0; } #endif /*TESTCLASS_H_*/ int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { SomeClass s; TestClass<SomeClass> t; map<SomeClass,int> m; t.testMethod(s,m); } Compiler gives me following error in line m[b]=0; : instantiated from 'void TestClass::testMethod(T, std::map) [with T = SomeClass] Could you help find the problem?? Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • LINQ to SQL Queries odd Materialization

    - by ptoinson
    I ran across an interesting Linq to SQL, uh, feature, the other day. Perhaps someone can give me a logical explanation for the reasoning behind the results. Take the code below as my example which utilizes the AdventureWorks database setup in a Linq to SQL DataContext. This is a clip from my unit test. The resulting customer returned from a call to both CustomerQuery_Test_01() and CustomerQuery_Test_02() is the same. However, the query executed on the SQLServer are different is a major way. The method CustomerQuery_Test_01 us causing the entire Customer table to be materialized, which the call to CustomerQuery_Test_02 is only causing the single customer to be materialized. The resulting SQL Queries are at the bottom of this post. Anyone have a good reason for this? To me, it was highly non-intuitive. protected virtual Customer GetByPrimaryKey(Func<Customer, bool> keySelection) { AdventureWorksDataContext context = new AdventureWorksDataContext(); return (from r in context.Customers select r).SingleOrDefault(keySelection); } [TestMethod] public void CustomerQuery_Test_01() { Customer customer = GetByPrimaryKey(c => c.CustomerID == 2); } [TestMethod] public void CustomerQuery_Test_02() { AdventureWorksDataContext context = new AdventureWorksDataContext(); Customer customer = (from r in context.Customers select r).SingleOrDefault(c => c.CustomerID == 2); } Query for CustomerQuery_Test_01 (notice the lack of a where clause) SELECT [t0].[CustomerID], [t0].[NameStyle], [t0].[Title], [t0].[FirstName], [t0].[MiddleName], [t0].[LastName], [t0].[Suffix], [t0].[CompanyName], [t0].[SalesPerson], [t0].[EmailAddress], [t0].[Phone], [t0].[PasswordHash], [t0].[PasswordSalt], [t0].[rowguid], [t0].[ModifiedDate] FROM [SalesLT].[Customer] AS [t0] Query for CustomerQuery_Test_02 (notice the where clause) SELECT [t0].[CustomerID], [t0].[NameStyle], [t0].[Title], [t0].[FirstName], [t0].[MiddleName], [t0].[LastName], [t0].[Suffix], [t0].[CompanyName], [t0].[SalesPerson], [t0].[EmailAddress], [t0].[Phone], [t0].[PasswordHash], [t0].[PasswordSalt], [t0].[rowguid], [t0].[ModifiedDate] FROM [SalesLT].[Customer] AS [t0] WHERE [t0].[CustomerID] = @p0

    Read the article

  • Any workarounds for non-static member array initialization?

    - by TomiJ
    In C++, it's not possible to initialize array members in the initialization list, thus member objects should have default constructors and they should be properly initialized in the constructor. Is there any (reasonable) workaround for this apart from not using arrays? [Anything that can be initialized using only the initialization list is in our application far preferable to using the constructor, as that data can be allocated and initialized by the compiler and linker, and every CPU clock cycle counts, even before main. However, it is not always possible to have a default constructor for every class, and besides, reinitializing the data again in the constructor rather defeats the purpose anyway.] E.g. I'd like to have something like this (but this one doesn't work): class OtherClass { private: int data; public: OtherClass(int i) : data(i) {}; // No default constructor! }; class Foo { private: OtherClass inst[3]; // Array size fixed and known ahead of time. public: Foo(...) : inst[0](0), inst[1](1), inst[2](2) {}; }; The only workaround I'm aware of is the non-array one: class Foo { private: OtherClass inst0; OtherClass inst1; OtherClass inst2; OtherClass *inst[3]; public: Foo(...) : inst0(0), inst1(1), inst2(2) { inst[0]=&inst0; inst[1]=&inst1; inst[2]=&inst2; }; }; Edit: It should be stressed that OtherClass has no default constructor, and that it is very desirable to have the linker be able to allocate any memory needed (one or more static instances of Foo will be created), using the heap is essentially verboten. I've updated the examples above to highlight the first point.

    Read the article

  • Ruby & ActiveRecord: referring to integer fields by (uniquely mapped) strings

    - by JP
    While its not my application a simple way to explain my problem is to assume I'm running a URL shortener. Rather than attempt to try and figure out what the next string I should use as the unique section of the URL, I just index all my URLs by integer and map the numbers to strings behind the scenes, essentially just changing the base of the number to, let's say, 62: a-z + A-Z + 0-9. In ActiveRecord I can easily alter the reader for the url_id field so that it returns my base 62 string instead of the number being stored in the database: class Short < ActiveRecord::Base def url_id i = read_attribute(:convo) return '0' if i == 0 s = '' while i > 0 s << CHARS[i.modulo(62)] i /= 62 end s end end but is there a way to tell ActiveRecord to accept Short.find(:first,:conditions=>{:url_id=>'Ab7'}), ie. putting the 'decoding' logic into my Short ActiveRecord class? I guess I could define my own def self.find_by_unique_string(string), but that feels like cheating somehow! Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed on Windows Phone 7

    - by David_001
    Simple question: How do I detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed on windows mobile 7? Is there an event I can add a listener to? It takes up about half the screen and I want to scroll the view up when it gets displayed... EDIT: A comment below indicates more clearly what I'm trying to do: I have a textbox input, and as the user types into it an autocomplete dropdown appears below it (like google suggest). By default, the active control (the textbox) scrolls into view when focussed, and the onscreen keyboard is directly below it. The onscreen keyboard appears in front of my autocomplete dropdown - what I want to do is make the screen scroll a little further up, so there's some room for my dropdown to be shown. The windows phone UI design guidelines say: "When the keyboard is deployed, the application should scroll to ensure the active edit control and the caret are in view". This happens fine, it's just the non-active dropdown gets hidden behind the onscreen keyboard. The guidelines also say that an application can choose to show the onscreen keyboard, and can also choose to close it. At the moment i'm stuck, and I don't think (based on my research and the replies to this question) that it's possible to detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed. I'm moving my investigation to see if it's possible to determine the "visible area" of the page (width & height in pixels for example), and combine this with an onfocus for the textbox... not sure if this will prove fruitful though.

    Read the article

  • GetLongPathName Undeclared

    - by iwizardpro
    When I try to compile my code with the function GetLongPathName(), the compiler tells me that the function is undeclared. I have already read the MSDN documentation located @ http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa364980%28VS.85%29.aspx. But, even though I included those header files, I am still getting the undeclared function error. Which header file(s) am I supposed to include when using the function? #include <Windows.h> #include <WinBase.h> #define DLLEXPORT extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) DLLEXPORT char* file_get_long(char* path_original) { long length = 0; TCHAR* buffer = NULL; if(!path_original) { return "-10"; } length = GetLongPathName(path_original, NULL, 0); if(length == 0) { return "-10"; } buffer = new TCHAR[length]; length = GetLongPathName(path_original, buffer, length); if(length == 0) { return "-10"; } return buffer; } And, if it makes a difference, I am currently compiling using Dev-C++ on a Windows Vista 64-bit.

    Read the article

  • C++ template type deduction problem

    - by hamishmcn
    motivation: I would like to create a utility class so that instead of having to write: if( someVal == val1 || someVal == val2 || someVal == val3 ) I could instead write: if( is(someVal).in(val1, val2, val3) ) which is much closer to the mathematical 'a is an element of (b,c,d)' and also would save on a lot of typing when the variable name 'someVal' is long. Here is the code I have so far (for 2 and 3 values): template<class T> class is { private: T t_; public: is(T t) : t_(t) { } bool in(const T& v1, const T& v2) { return t_ == v1 || t_ == v2; } bool in(const T& v1, const T& v2, const T& v3) { return t_ == v1 || t_ == v2 || t_ == v3; } }; However it fails to compile if I write: is(1).in(3,4,5); instead I have to write is<int>(1).in(3,4,5); Which isn't too bad, but it would be better if somehow the compiler could figure out that the type is int with out me having to explicitly specify it. Is there anyway to do this or I am stuck with specifying it explicitly?

    Read the article

  • [c++] accessing the hidden 'this' pointer

    - by Kyle
    I have a GUI architecture wherein elements fire events like so: guiManager->fireEvent(BUTTON_CLICKED, this); Every single event fired passes 'this' as the caller of the event. There is never a time I dont want to pass 'this', and further, no pointer except for 'this' should ever be passed. This brings me to a problem: How can I assert that fireEvent is never given a pointer other than 'this', and how can I simplify (and homogenize) calls to fireEvent to just: guiManager->fireEvent(BUTTON_CLICKED); At this point, I'm reminded of a fairly common compiler error when you write something like this: class A { public: void foo() {} }; class B { void oops() { const A* a = new A; a->foo(); } }; int main() { return 0; } Compiling this will give you ../src/sandbox.cpp: In member function ‘void B::oops()’: ../src/sandbox.cpp:7: error: passing ‘const A’ as ‘this’ argument of ‘void A::foo()’ discards qualifiers because member functions pass 'this' as a hidden parameter. "Aha!" I say. This (no pun intended) is exactly what I want. If I could somehow access the hidden 'this' pointer, it would solve both issues I mentioned earlier. The problem is, as far as I know you can't (can you?) and if you could, there would be outcries of "but it would break encapsulation!" Except I'm already passing 'this' every time, so what more could it break. So, is there a way to access the hidden 'this', and if not are there any idioms or alternative approaches that are more elegant than passing 'this' every time?

    Read the article

  • how to create an object using self?

    - by Nick
    I thought I understood the use of self while referring to anything in the current class. After encountering this warning and subsequent run failure, I have googled many variants of "define self" or "usage of self" and gotten nowhere. This problem is how to create an object without the warning, and understand why. #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface Foo : NSObject { Foo *obj; } -(void)beta; @end #import "Foo.h" @implementation Foo -(void)beta{ obj = [self new]; // 'Foo' may not respond to '-new' } @end Note, if I substitute Foo for self, there's no problem. I thought the class name and self were equivalent, but obviously the compiler doesn't think so. Perhaps an explanation of what's wrong here will not only solve my problem but also enlighten my understanding of the usage of self. Are there any tutorials about proper usage of self? I couldn't find anything beyond something like "self is the receiver of the message," which I didn't help me at all.

    Read the article

  • How to display in a form the next object of a collection?

    - by user359706
    I have a list of objects produced. after click on next I want to display the next product in the form my products list: Private List listProduct; listProduits = new List<Product>(); Product objProduit_1 = new Produit; objProduct_1.ref = "001"; objProduct_1.article = "G900"; objProduct_1.quantity = 30; listProducts.Add(objProduct_1); ProductobjProduit_2 = new Product; objProduct_2.ref = "002"; objProduct_2.article = "G900"; objProduct_2.quantity = 35; listProduits.Add(objProduct_2); in my asp page I have the following form: <form id="formNF" runat="server"> <asp:TextBox ID="txtRef" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:TextBox ID="txtArticle" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:TextBox ID="txtQauntity" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Button ID="ButtonNext" runat="server" Text="Next product" OnClick="ButtonNext_Click"/> </form> In my code-behind: protected void ButtonNext_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // I do not know how to retrieve the following product // How to stop and continue after click on next button? foreach (Product prd in listProduct){ txtRef.Text = prd.ref; txtRef.Text = prd.article; txtRef.Text = prd.quantity; } } Thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • variables in abstract classes C++

    - by wyatt
    I have an abstract class CommandPath, and a number of derived classes as below: class CommandPath { public: virtual CommandResponse handleCommand(std::string) = 0; virtual CommandResponse execute() = 0; virtual ~CommandPath() {} }; class GetTimeCommandPath : public CommandPath { int stage; public: GetTimeCommandPath() : stage(0) {} CommandResponse handleCommand(std::string); CommandResponse execute(); }; All of the derived classes have the member variable 'stage'. I want to build a function into all of them which manipulates 'stage' in the same way, so rather than defining it many times I thought I'd build it into the parent class. I moved 'stage' from the private sections of all of the derived classes into the protected section of CommandPath, and added the function as follows: class CommandPath { protected: int stage; public: virtual CommandResponse handleCommand(std::string) = 0; virtual CommandResponse execute() = 0; std::string confirmCommand(std::string, int, int, std::string, std::string); virtual ~CommandPath() {} }; class GetTimeCommandPath : public CommandPath { public: GetTimeCommandPath() : stage(0) {} CommandResponse handleCommand(std::string); CommandResponse execute(); }; Now my compiler tells me for the constructor lines that none of the derived classes have a member 'stage'. I was under the impression that protected members are visible to derived classes? The constructor is the same in all classes, so I suppose I could move it to the parent class, but I'm more concerned about finding out why the derived classes aren't able to access the variable. Also, since previously I've only used the parent class for pure virtual functions, I wanted to confirm that this is the way to go about adding a function to be inherited by all derived classes.

    Read the article

  • C# Automatic Properties - Still null after +=?

    - by Sam Schutte
    This seems like a bug to me... I accept that automatic properties, defined as such: public decimal? Total { get; set; } Will be null when they are first accessed. They haven't been initialized, so of course they are null. But, even after setting their value through +=, this decimal? still remains null. So after: Total += 8; Total is still null. How can this be correct? I understand that it's doing a (null + 8), but seems strange that it doesn't pick up that it means it should just be set to 8... Addendums: I made the "null + 8" point in my question - but notice that it works with strings. So, it does null + "hello" just fine, and returns "hello". Therefore, behind the scenes, it is initializing the string to a string object with the value of "hello". The behavior should be the same for the other types, IMO. It might be because a string can accept a null as a value, but still, a null string is not an initialized object, correct? Perhaps it's just because a string isn't a nullable...

    Read the article

  • onKeypress Enter Key event on textfield not working in Chrome

    - by rlcrews
    I have a question along the same vein as the one asked here regarding how the enter key is handled in chrome. The effect I am trying to accomplish is to allow the enter key to call a click event of one a button while focus in within the current field. To accomplish this I am using the following code: javascript: <script type="text/javascript"> //attempting to capture keypress for chrome here but this is not working $("#txtContainer").keypress(function (e) { if (e.keyCode == '13') { e.preventDefault(); doClick(buttonname, e); return false; } }); function doClick(buttonName, e) { var key; if (window.event) key = window.event.keyCode; //IE else key = e.which; //firefox if (key == 13) { var btn = document.getElementById(buttonName); if (btn != null) { btn.click(); event.keyCode = 0 } } } </script> within the aspx <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:LinkButton ID="newBtn" runat="server" OnClick="btnLogin_Click" Text="ASP Link" /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtContainer" runat="server" Width="100" /> <asp:Label ID="time_lbl" runat="server" /> </div> </form> and within the code behind aspx.cs protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { txtContainer.Attributes.Add("onKeyPress", "doClick('" + newBtn.ClientID + "',event)"); } } public void btnLogin_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { time_lbl.Text = txtContainer.Text; } The above code works fine in FF and IE however chrome continues to submit the entire form vs. capturing the keypress on the enterkey. Thank you for any suggestions.

    Read the article

  • Very simple code for number search gives me infinite loop

    - by Joshua
    Hello, I am a newbie Computer Science high school student and I have trouble with a small snippet of code. Basically, my code should perform a basic CLI search in an array of integers. However, what happens is I get what appears to be an infinite loop (BlueJ, the compiler I'm using, gets stuck and I have to reset the machine). I have set break points but I still don't quite get the problem...(I don't even understand most of the things that it tells me) Here's the offending code (assume that "ArrayUtil" works, because it does): import java.util.Scanner; public class intSearch { public static void main(String[] args) { search(); } public static void search() { int[] randomArray = ArrayUtil.randomIntArray(20, 100); Scanner searchInput = new Scanner(System.in); int searchInt = searchInput.nextInt(); if (findNumber(randomArray, searchInt) == -1) { System.out.println("Error"); }else System.out.println("Searched Number: " + findNumber(randomArray, searchInt)); } private static int findNumber(int[] searchedArray, int searchTerm) { for (int i = 0; searchedArray[i] == searchTerm && i < searchedArray.length; i++) { return i; } return -1; } } This has been bugging me for some time now...please help me identify the problem!

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to make sure classes implementing an Interface implement static methods?

    - by Tobias Kienzler
    Frist of all, I read erickson's usefull reply to "Why can’t I define a static method in a Java interface?". This question is not about the "why" but about the "how then?". So basically I want one Interface to provide both usual methods and e.g. a getSimilarObject method. For (a made up) example public interface ParametricFunction { /** @return f(x) using the parameters */ static abstract public double getValue(double x, double[] parameters); /** @return The function's name */ static abstract public String getName(); } and then public class Parabola implements ParametricFunction { /** @return f(x) = parameters[0] * x² + parameters[1] * x + parameters[2] */ static public double getValue(double x, double[] parameters) { return ( parameters[2] + x*(parameters[1] + x*parameters[0])); } static public String getName() { return "Parabola"; } } Since this is not allowed in the current Java standard, what is the closest thing to this? The idea behind this is putting several ParametricFunction's in a package and use Reflection to list them all, allowing the user to pick e.g. which one to plot. Obviously one could provide a loader class containing an array of the available ParametricFunction's, but every time a new one is implemented one has to remember adding it there, too.

    Read the article

  • IE8, XHTML, position: fixed; and z-index.

    - by Joel
    I have an XHTML 1.0 transitional Doctype. I have a <div> that is position: fixed; bottom: 0px; left: 0px; width: 100%; z-index: 200;. Inside that <div> I have two buttons which are position relative, aligned right, with a set z-index of 201; In Firefox the bar at the bottom and the two buttons are correctly located at the bottom. In IE8 however, the bar is visible and the z-index appears to be overlaying the other content, but the buttons are hidden behind the main div, despite being children and having their z-index set. I'm using the following meta tag; <meta http-equiv="X-UA-Compatible" content="IE=edge" /> to force the document into IE8 mode. If I emulate IE7 (put on compatability mode), the bar and buttons work just fine. I don't understand how IE7's rendering is better than IE8. I don't want to have to force compatability mode due to other things that IE7 cannot render and IE8 can. Is there another solution, or have I missed something? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • I want a function to return a type of the subclass its invoked from

    - by Jay
    I want to have a function defined in a superclass that returns a value of the type of the subclass that is used to invoke the function. That is, say I have class A with a function plugh. Then I create subclasses B and C that extend A. I want B.plugh to return a B and C.plugh to return a C. Yes, they could return an A, but then the caller would have to either cast it to the right subtype, which is a pain when used a lot, or declare the receiving variable to be of the supertype, which loses type safety. So I was trying to do this with generics, writing something like this: class A<T extends A> { private T foo; public T getFoo() { return foo; } } class B extends A<B> { public void calcFoo() { foo=... whatever ... } } class C extends A<C> { public void calcFoo() { foo=... whatever ... } } This appears to work but it looks pretty ugly. For one thing, I get warnings on "class A". The compiler says that A is generic and I should specify the type. I guess it wants me to say "class A". But what would I put in for x? I think I could get stuck in an infinite loop here. It seems weird to write "class B extends A", but this causes no complaints, so maybe that's just fine. Is this the right way to do it? Is there a better way?

    Read the article

  • .net web service annoying issue

    - by JL
    Excuse the title, but it's best I just explain the problem. I have 2 projects in my solution A Class Library A Web Application, which consists of a web service (asmx). the web service has code sitting in the app_code folder, with a file [webservicename].cs Inside the webservice code behind class, I have a web method here is a sample example (its simplified): [WebMethod] public EnumTaskExportState ProcessTask() { var tm = new UploadTaskManager(); return tm.ProcessTask(); } Now at design time, in visual studio (2010 or 2008), when I right click on UploadTaskMananger, and then select "Go to definition". I get taken to AppData\Temp[some folder structure]...etc.... and it displays the public class definition. Instead I would like to have complete integration, so that I get taken directly to the actual class in the class library project. My guess is, this is happening because I am using the app_code route, and not a compiled file for the web service class. But I don't know any other way to do this. How can I fix this? Possibly do away with the need for the app_code directory?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350  | Next Page >