Search Results

Search found 9889 results on 396 pages for 'behind the compiler'.

Page 344/396 | < Previous Page | 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350 351  | Next Page >

  • Generics in a bidirectional association

    - by Verhoevenv
    Let's say I have two classes A and B, with B a subtype of A. This is only part of a richer type hierarchy, obviously, but I don't think that's relevant. Assume A is the root of the hierarchy. There is a collection class C that keeps track of a list of A's. However, I want to make C generic, so that it is possible to make an instance that only keeps B's and won't accept A's. class A(val c: C[A]) { c.addEntry(this) } class B(c: C[A]) extends A(c) class C[T <: A]{ val entries = new ArrayBuffer[T]() def addEntry(e: T) { entries += e } } object Generic { def main(args : Array[String]) { val c = new C[B]() new B(c) } } The code above obviously give the error 'type mismatch: found C[B], required C[A]' on the new B(c) line. I'm not sure how this can be fixed. It's not possible to make C covariant in T (like C[+T <: A]) because the ArrayBuffer is non-variantly typed in T. It's not possible to make the constructor of B require a C[B] because C can't be covariant. Am I barking up the wrong tree here? I'm a complete Scala newbie, so any ideas and tips might be helpful. Thank you! EDIT: Basically, what I'd like to have is that the compiler accepts both val c = new C[B]() new B(c) and val c = new C[A]() new B(c) but would reject val c = new C[B]() new A(c) It's probably possible to relax the typing of the ArrayBuffer in C to be A instead of T, and thus in the addEntry method as well, if that helps.

    Read the article

  • Can a member struct be zero-init from the constructor initializer list without calling memset?

    - by selbie
    Let's say I have the following structure declaration (simple struct with no constructor). struct Foo { int x; int y; int z; char szData[DATA_SIZE]; }; Now let's say this struct is a member of a C++ class as follows: class CFoobar { Foo _foo; public: CFoobar(); }; If I declare CFoobar's constructor as follows: CFoobar::CFoobar() { printf("_foo = {%d, %d, %d}\n", _foo.x, _foo.y,_foo.z); for (int x = 0; x < 100; x++) printf("%d\n", _foo.szData[x]); } As you would expect, when CFoobar's constructor runs, garbage data gets printed out Obviously, the easy fix is to memset or ZeroMemory &_foo. It's what I've always done... However, I did notice that if add _foo to the constructor's initialization list with no parameters as follows: CFoobar::CFoobar() : _foo() { That this appears to zero-out the member variables of _foo. At least that was the case with g++ on linux. Now here's my question: Is this standard C++, or is this compiler specific behavior? If it's standard behavior, can someone quote me a reference from an official source? Any "gotchas" in regards to implicit zero-init behavior with more complicated structs and classes?

    Read the article

  • Polling a web URL until event

    - by Jaxo
    I'm really sorry about the crappy title - if anybody has a better way of wording it, please edit it! I basically need to have a C# application run a function if the output of a URL is a certain value. For example, if the website says blue the background colour will be blue, red to make it red, etc. The problem is I don't want to spam my webserver with checks. The 4 bytes it downloads each time is negligible, but if I were to deploy this type of system on multiple computers, it would get slower and slower and the bandwidth would add up quickly. So my question is: How can my desktop application run a piece of code only when a web URL has a different output without checking each time? I can't use sockets, and any sort of LAN protocol won't end up working. My reasoning behind this potentially nefarious code is to be able to mute computers by updating a file on the website (as you may have seen in my previous question today, sorry!). I'd like it to be rather quick, and not have the refresh time minutes apart, a few seconds at the most would be ideal. How can I accomplish this? The website's code is easy, but getting the C# application to check when it changes is the part I'm stuck on. Nothing shows up on the website other than the command. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Any workarounds for non-static member array initialization?

    - by TomiJ
    In C++, it's not possible to initialize array members in the initialization list, thus member objects should have default constructors and they should be properly initialized in the constructor. Is there any (reasonable) workaround for this apart from not using arrays? [Anything that can be initialized using only the initialization list is in our application far preferable to using the constructor, as that data can be allocated and initialized by the compiler and linker, and every CPU clock cycle counts, even before main. However, it is not always possible to have a default constructor for every class, and besides, reinitializing the data again in the constructor rather defeats the purpose anyway.] E.g. I'd like to have something like this (but this one doesn't work): class OtherClass { private: int data; public: OtherClass(int i) : data(i) {}; // No default constructor! }; class Foo { private: OtherClass inst[3]; // Array size fixed and known ahead of time. public: Foo(...) : inst[0](0), inst[1](1), inst[2](2) {}; }; The only workaround I'm aware of is the non-array one: class Foo { private: OtherClass inst0; OtherClass inst1; OtherClass inst2; OtherClass *inst[3]; public: Foo(...) : inst0(0), inst1(1), inst2(2) { inst[0]=&inst0; inst[1]=&inst1; inst[2]=&inst2; }; }; Edit: It should be stressed that OtherClass has no default constructor, and that it is very desirable to have the linker be able to allocate any memory needed (one or more static instances of Foo will be created), using the heap is essentially verboten. I've updated the examples above to highlight the first point.

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to make sure classes implementing an Interface implement static methods?

    - by Tobias Kienzler
    Frist of all, I read erickson's usefull reply to "Why can’t I define a static method in a Java interface?". This question is not about the "why" but about the "how then?". So basically I want one Interface to provide both usual methods and e.g. a getSimilarObject method. For (a made up) example public interface ParametricFunction { /** @return f(x) using the parameters */ static abstract public double getValue(double x, double[] parameters); /** @return The function's name */ static abstract public String getName(); } and then public class Parabola implements ParametricFunction { /** @return f(x) = parameters[0] * x² + parameters[1] * x + parameters[2] */ static public double getValue(double x, double[] parameters) { return ( parameters[2] + x*(parameters[1] + x*parameters[0])); } static public String getName() { return "Parabola"; } } Since this is not allowed in the current Java standard, what is the closest thing to this? The idea behind this is putting several ParametricFunction's in a package and use Reflection to list them all, allowing the user to pick e.g. which one to plot. Obviously one could provide a loader class containing an array of the available ParametricFunction's, but every time a new one is implemented one has to remember adding it there, too.

    Read the article

  • How to synchronize two (or n) replication processes for SQL Server databases?

    - by Yauheni Sivukha
    There are two master databases and two read-only copies updated by standard transactional replication. It is needed to map some entity from both read-only databases, lets say that A databases contains orders and B databases contains lines. The problem is that replication to one database can lag behind replication of second database, and at the moment of mapping R-databases will have inconsistent data. For example. We stored 2 orders with lines at 19:00 and 19:03. Mapping process started at 19:05, but to the moment of mapping A database replication processed all changes up to 19:03, but B database replication processed only changes up to 19:00. After mapping we will have order entity with order as of 19:03 and lines as of 19:00. The troubles are guaranteed:) In my particular case both databases have temporal model, so it is possible to fetch data for every time slice, but the problem is to identify time of latest replication. Question: How to synchronize replication processes for several databases to avoid situation described above? Or, in other words, how to compare last time of replication in each database? UPD: The only way I see to synchronize is to continuously write timestamps into service tables in each database and to check these timestamps on replicated servers. Is that acceptable solution?

    Read the article

  • Structuring iPhone/iPad application views

    - by Mark
    I have an idea about an application that I want to build and Im new to iPhone/iPad development (but not new to development in other languages/frameworks such as .NET and Java). I want to layout some views on the screen so that they animate (slide in) from different directions into their places. The question is about the strucuture of the application, if I have say 4 rectanglular areas on the screen that contain business data, such as contacts (name, photo, etc...) and they all take up different widths of the screen (say the first contact takes up one row of the screen, but the next 2 take up half the width of the next row each, and so on). Should I create a custom view for the different sized contact views, (i.e. LargeCustomView and SmallCustomView, and any other special type that I make) or should it all be one type, say, CustomerDetailsView which could be stretched to fit at design time? Also, if there were, say, 3 different instances of the same custom view on the one screen, are there 3 instances of the view controller also? Im a little confused about powering the data behind a view, can someone shed some light on this for me? Do I just set the properties (say an instance variable ContactForView) on the view controller for each instance? Thanks for any help you can give Cheers, Mark

    Read the article

  • Coding style in .NET: whether to refactor into new method or not?

    - by Dione
    Hi As you aware, in .NET code-behind style, we already use a lot of function to accommodate those _Click function, _SelectedIndexChanged function etc etc. In our team there are some developer that make a function in the middle of .NET function, for example: public void Button_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) {     some logic here..     some logic there..     DoSomething();     DoSomethingThere();     another logic here..     DoOtherSomething(); } private void DoSomething() { } private void DoSomethingThere() { } private void DoOtherSomething() { } public void DropDown_SelectedIndexChanged() { } public void OtherButton_Click() { } and the function listed above is only used once in that function and not used anywhere else in the page, or called from other part of the solution. They said it make the code more tidier by grouping them and extract them into additional sub-function. I can understand if the sub-function is use over and over again in the code, but if it is only use once, then I think it is not really a good idea to extract them into sub-function, as the code getting bigger and bigger, when you look into the page and trying to understand the logic or to debug by skimming through line by line, it will make you confused by jumping from main function to the sub-function then to main function and to sub-function again. I know this kind of grouping by method is better when you writing old ASP or Cold fusion style, but I am not sure if this kind of style is better for .NET or not. Question is: which is better when you developing .NET, is grouping similar logic into a sub-method better (although they only use once), or just put them together inside main function and add //explanation here on the start of the logic is better? Hope my question is clear enough. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • LINQ to SQL Queries odd Materialization

    - by ptoinson
    I ran across an interesting Linq to SQL, uh, feature, the other day. Perhaps someone can give me a logical explanation for the reasoning behind the results. Take the code below as my example which utilizes the AdventureWorks database setup in a Linq to SQL DataContext. This is a clip from my unit test. The resulting customer returned from a call to both CustomerQuery_Test_01() and CustomerQuery_Test_02() is the same. However, the query executed on the SQLServer are different is a major way. The method CustomerQuery_Test_01 us causing the entire Customer table to be materialized, which the call to CustomerQuery_Test_02 is only causing the single customer to be materialized. The resulting SQL Queries are at the bottom of this post. Anyone have a good reason for this? To me, it was highly non-intuitive. protected virtual Customer GetByPrimaryKey(Func<Customer, bool> keySelection) { AdventureWorksDataContext context = new AdventureWorksDataContext(); return (from r in context.Customers select r).SingleOrDefault(keySelection); } [TestMethod] public void CustomerQuery_Test_01() { Customer customer = GetByPrimaryKey(c => c.CustomerID == 2); } [TestMethod] public void CustomerQuery_Test_02() { AdventureWorksDataContext context = new AdventureWorksDataContext(); Customer customer = (from r in context.Customers select r).SingleOrDefault(c => c.CustomerID == 2); } Query for CustomerQuery_Test_01 (notice the lack of a where clause) SELECT [t0].[CustomerID], [t0].[NameStyle], [t0].[Title], [t0].[FirstName], [t0].[MiddleName], [t0].[LastName], [t0].[Suffix], [t0].[CompanyName], [t0].[SalesPerson], [t0].[EmailAddress], [t0].[Phone], [t0].[PasswordHash], [t0].[PasswordSalt], [t0].[rowguid], [t0].[ModifiedDate] FROM [SalesLT].[Customer] AS [t0] Query for CustomerQuery_Test_02 (notice the where clause) SELECT [t0].[CustomerID], [t0].[NameStyle], [t0].[Title], [t0].[FirstName], [t0].[MiddleName], [t0].[LastName], [t0].[Suffix], [t0].[CompanyName], [t0].[SalesPerson], [t0].[EmailAddress], [t0].[Phone], [t0].[PasswordHash], [t0].[PasswordSalt], [t0].[rowguid], [t0].[ModifiedDate] FROM [SalesLT].[Customer] AS [t0] WHERE [t0].[CustomerID] = @p0

    Read the article

  • wpautop() - when shortcode attributes are on new lines -breaks args array

    - by Luca
    I have a custom shortcode tag with a few attributes, and I would like to be able to display its attributes on new lines - to make it more readable to content editors: [component attr1 ="value1" attr2 ="value of the second one" attr3 ="another" attr4 ="value" ... attrN ="valueN"] The reason behind this requirement is that a few attributes might be quite verbose in content. Unfortunately, wpautop() adds some nasty extra markup that breaks the args array like this (using php print_r($args)): Array ( [0] => attr1 [1] => ="value1" /> [3] => attr2 = [4] => "value [5] => of [6] => the [7] => second [8] => one" /> [10] => "" //...and more like this) I've tried with the attributes inline: [component attr1 ="value1" attr2 ="value of the second one" ="value"... attrN ="valueN"] and the output is as expected: Array ( [attr1] => value1 [attr2] => value of the second one [attr3] => //...and so on) is there any way to have the attributes intented and avoid that extra markup that breaks the $args array?

    Read the article

  • Array Assignment

    - by Mahesh
    Let me explain with an example - #include <iostream> void foo( int a[2], int b[2] ) // I understand that, compiler doesn't bother about the // array index and converts them to int *a, int *b { a = b ; // At this point, how ever assignment operation is valid. } int main() { int a[] = { 1,2 }; int b[] = { 3,4 }; foo( a, b ); a = b; // Why is this invalid here. return 0; } Is it because, array decays to a pointer when passed to a function foo(..), assignment operation is possible. And in main, is it because they are of type int[] which invalidates the assignment operation. Doesn't a,b in both the cases mean the same ? Thanks. Edit 1: When I do it in a function foo, it's assigning the b's starting element location to a. So, thinking in terms of it, what made the language developers not do the same in main(). Want to know the reason.

    Read the article

  • Template access of symbol in unnamed namespace

    - by Fred Larson
    We are upgrading our XL C/C++ compiler from V8.0 to V10.1 and found some code that is now giving us an error, even though it compiled under V8.0. Here's a minimal example: test.h: #include <iostream> #include <string> template <class T> void f() { std::cout << TEST << std::endl; } test.cpp: #include <string> #include "test.h" namespace { std::string TEST = "test"; } int main() { f<int>(); return 0; } Under V10.1, we get the following error: "test.h", line 7.16: 1540-0274 (S) The name lookup for "TEST" did not find a declaration. "test.cpp", line 6.15: 1540-1303 (I) "std::string TEST" is not visible. "test.h", line 5.6: 1540-0700 (I) The previous message was produced while processing "f<int>()". "test.cpp", line 11.3: 1540-0700 (I) The previous message was produced while processing "main()". We found a similar difference between g++ 3.3.2 and 4.3.2. I also found in g++, if I move the #include "test.h" to be after the unnamed namespace declaration, the compile error goes away. So here's my question: what does the Standard say about this? When a template is instantiated, is that instance considered to be declared at the point where the template itself was declared, or is the standard not that clear on this point? I did some looking though the n2461.pdf draft, but didn't really come up with anything definitive.

    Read the article

  • How to display in a form the next object of a collection?

    - by user359706
    I have a list of objects produced. after click on next I want to display the next product in the form my products list: Private List listProduct; listProduits = new List<Product>(); Product objProduit_1 = new Produit; objProduct_1.ref = "001"; objProduct_1.article = "G900"; objProduct_1.quantity = 30; listProducts.Add(objProduct_1); ProductobjProduit_2 = new Product; objProduct_2.ref = "002"; objProduct_2.article = "G900"; objProduct_2.quantity = 35; listProduits.Add(objProduct_2); in my asp page I have the following form: <form id="formNF" runat="server"> <asp:TextBox ID="txtRef" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:TextBox ID="txtArticle" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:TextBox ID="txtQauntity" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Button ID="ButtonNext" runat="server" Text="Next product" OnClick="ButtonNext_Click"/> </form> In my code-behind: protected void ButtonNext_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // I do not know how to retrieve the following product // How to stop and continue after click on next button? foreach (Product prd in listProduct){ txtRef.Text = prd.ref; txtRef.Text = prd.article; txtRef.Text = prd.quantity; } } Thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • Properly handling NSURLConnection errors

    - by Cal S
    Hi, I have a simple form interface set up that send username and password information to a server: (working) NSString *postData = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"user=%@&pass=%@",[self urlEncodeValue:sysUsername],[self urlEncodeValue:password]]; NSLog(@"Post data -> %@", postData); /// NSData* postVariables = [postData dataUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding allowLossyConversion:YES]; NSMutableURLRequest* request = [[[NSMutableURLRequest alloc] init] autorelease]; NSString* postLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", [postVariables length]]; NSURL* postUrl = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://localhost/~csmith/cocoa/test.php"]; [request setURL:postUrl]; [request setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [request setValue:postLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [request setValue:@"application/x-www-form-urlencoded" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [request setHTTPBody: postVariables]; NSData *returnData = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:NULL error:NULL]; NSLog(@"Post data SENT & returned -> %@", returnData); How do I handle connection errors such as no internet connection, firewall, etc. Also, does this method use the system-wide proxy settings? Many of my users are behind a proxy. Thanks a lot!

    Read the article

  • Hide / Show menu code not working after postback

    - by WraithNath
    I have a button on my web page that toggles the menu, After a postback the menu comes back despite me updating a hidden field value to store its state. Am I doing something wrong here? If there is a better way of doing it, let me know! Markup: <asp:Button ID="btnMenu" runat="server" Text="Hide Menu" UseSubmitBehavior="False" OnClientClick="return toggleMenu(this);" /> <asp:Panel runat="server" ID="pnlMenuToggle"> //Main Menu </asp:Panel> <asp:Panel runat="server" ID="pnlSubMenuToggle"> //Sub Menu </asp:Panel> <asp:HiddenField ID="hfMenuState" runat="server" Value="true" /> <script> //Toggles menu visibility function toggleMenu(menuButton) { var menuVisible = $('#<%=hfMenuState.ClientID%>').val() == 'true' ? true : false; $('#<%=pnlMenuToggle.ClientID%>').slideToggleWidth(); $('#<%=pnlSubMenuToggle.ClientID%>').slideToggle('slow'); //Update whether the menu is visible menuVisible = !menuVisible; //Update menu button text $(menuButton).val(menuVisible ? 'Hide Menu' : 'Show Menu'); $('#<%=hfMenuState.ClientID%>').val(menuVisible) return false; } </script> Code Behind: (Page Load) bool menu = Convert.ToBoolean( hfMenuState.Value ); pnlMenuToggle.Visible = menu; pnlSubMenuToggle.Visible = menu; The javascripts updates the hidden field value but it looks like this is never posted back to the server. What can I do to make sure the menu stays hidden after postbacks. I have also tried putting the hidden field in an Update Panel with Update Mode set to Always

    Read the article

  • C++ traits question

    - by duli
    I have a templated class template <typename Data> class C { ..... } In most situations, I depend on the compiler to let me substitute types for Data. I call methods foo(), goo() on objects of type Data, so what I substitute needs to provide that. I now need to substitute int and string for my Data type. I do not want to specialize because the class is already too big and would require specializing each method (with only small code change). My options (please tell me if there are more) 1) I can provide wrapper classes around int and string which implement the methods foo(), goo() etc 2) provide a traits class traits that calls foo() or goo() on objects of classes that provide foo(),goo() (these are my present substitutable classes) and specialize these classes for int and string. Questions 1) what are the relative merits of 1 vs 2? 2) My traits classes will have static methods. Can a traits class have non-static methods as well? I see most traits classes define constants in the STL. 3) Do I make the traits classes global or should I pass them in as a template parameter for class C?

    Read the article

  • mvn clean install using java 1.5 or 1.6

    - by bruce
    When I do mvn clean install, I get this error: annotations are not supported in -source 1.3 (try -source 1.5 to enable annotations) But where do I put this -source 1.5 command? I tried all permutations with mvn clean install and couldn't get it to work. So I tried putting compilation in my pom, like this: <build> <plugins> <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-compiler-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.0.2</version> <configuration> <source>1.6</source> <target>1.6</target> </configuration> </plugin> </plugins> But that didn't work either.. What am I missing? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How do I remove an old JPanel and add a new one?

    - by Roman
    I would like to remove an old JPanel from the Window (JFrame) and add a new one. How should I do it? I tried the following: public static void showGUI() { JFrame frame = new JFrame("Colored Trails"); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); frame.add(partnerSelectionPanel); frame.setSize(600,400); frame.setVisible(true); } private static void updateGUI(final int i, final JLabel label, final JPanel partnerSelectionPanel) { SwingUtilities.invokeLater( new Runnable() { public void run() { label.setText(i + " seconds left."); } partnerSelectionPanel.setVisible(false); \\ <------------ } ); } So, my code update the "old" JPanel and them it makes the whole JPanel invisible. It was the idea. But it does not work. The compiler complains about the line indicated with "<------------". It writes: <identifier> expected, illegal start of type.

    Read the article

  • Force screen size when testing embedded DOS app in Windows 7 command window

    - by tomlogic
    I'm doing some embedded DOS development with OpenWatcom (great Windows-hosted compiler for targeting 16-bit DOS applications). The target hardware has a 24x16 character screen (that supposedly emulates CGA to some degree), and I'm trying to get the CMD.EXE window on my Windows 7 machine to stay at a fixed 24x16 without any scroll bars. I've used both the window properties and MODE CON: COLS=24 LINES=16 to get the screen size that I wanted, but as soon as my application uses an INT10 BIOS calls to clear the screen, the mode jumps back to 80x24. Here's what I'm using to clear the screen: void cls(void) { // Clear screen and reset cursor position to (0,0) union REGS regs; regs.w.cx = 0; // Upper left regs.w.dx = 0x1018; // Lower right (of 16x24) regs.h.bh = 7; // Blank lines attribute (white text on black) regs.w.ax = 0x0600; // 06 = scroll up, AL=00 to clear int86( 0x10, &regs, &regs ); } Any ideas? I can still do my testing at 80x24 (or 80x25), but it doesn't entirely behave like the 24x16 mode.

    Read the article

  • GDI+ not clearing my window on repaint for vista

    - by Michael
    on WM_PAINT i do the following: //RectF mNameRect; //WCHAR* mName; //HWND mWin; // this is the window handle { PAINTSTRUCT ps; HDC hdc = BeginPaint(mWin, &ps); Graphics g(hdc); g.Clear(Color::White); StringFormat stringForm; stringForm.SetLineAlignment(StringAlignmentCenter); stringForm.SetAlignment(StringAlignmentCenter); // set the rectangle to the size of the whole window mNameRect.Width = static_cast<float>(size.cx); mNameRect.Height = static_cast<float>(size.cy); g.DrawString(mName, -1, &mNameFont, mNameRect, &stringForm, &mNameBrush); EndPaint(mWin, &ps); } In XP this works fine, the mName is displayed in the middle of the window. However on Vista the text doesn't move, it stays in its location no matter how I resize the window. the g.Clear(Color::White) doesn't seem to do any difference. The text doesn't even change position when the window is hidden behind another window and on focus needs to be repainted again. How do I make mName change position in Vista?

    Read the article

  • onKeypress Enter Key event on textfield not working in Chrome

    - by rlcrews
    I have a question along the same vein as the one asked here regarding how the enter key is handled in chrome. The effect I am trying to accomplish is to allow the enter key to call a click event of one a button while focus in within the current field. To accomplish this I am using the following code: javascript: <script type="text/javascript"> //attempting to capture keypress for chrome here but this is not working $("#txtContainer").keypress(function (e) { if (e.keyCode == '13') { e.preventDefault(); doClick(buttonname, e); return false; } }); function doClick(buttonName, e) { var key; if (window.event) key = window.event.keyCode; //IE else key = e.which; //firefox if (key == 13) { var btn = document.getElementById(buttonName); if (btn != null) { btn.click(); event.keyCode = 0 } } } </script> within the aspx <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:LinkButton ID="newBtn" runat="server" OnClick="btnLogin_Click" Text="ASP Link" /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtContainer" runat="server" Width="100" /> <asp:Label ID="time_lbl" runat="server" /> </div> </form> and within the code behind aspx.cs protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { txtContainer.Attributes.Add("onKeyPress", "doClick('" + newBtn.ClientID + "',event)"); } } public void btnLogin_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { time_lbl.Text = txtContainer.Text; } The above code works fine in FF and IE however chrome continues to submit the entire form vs. capturing the keypress on the enterkey. Thank you for any suggestions.

    Read the article

  • How to optimize this simple function which translates input bits into words?

    - by psihodelia
    I have written a function which reads an input buffer of bytes and produces an output buffer of words where every word can be either 0x0081 for each ON bit of the input buffer or 0x007F for each OFF bit. The length of the input buffer is given. Both arrays have enough physical place. I also have about 2Kbyte free RAM which I can use for lookup tables or so. Now, I found that this function is my bottleneck in a real time application. It will be called very frequently. Can you please suggest a way how to optimize this function? I see one possibility could be to use only one buffer and do in-place substitution. void inline BitsToWords(int8 *pc_BufIn, int16 *pw_BufOut, int32 BufInLen) { int32 i,j,z=0; for(i=0; i<BufInLen; i++) { for(j=0; j<8; j++, z++) { pw_BufOut[z] = ( ((pc_BufIn[i] >> (7-j))&0x01) == 1? 0x0081: 0x007f ); } } } Please do not offer any compiler specific or CPU/Hardware specific optimization, because it is a multi-platform project.

    Read the article

  • Overhead of calling tiny functions from a tight inner loop? [C++]

    - by John
    Say you see a loop like this one: for(int i=0; i<thing.getParent().getObjectModel().getElements(SOME_TYPE).count(); ++i) { thing.getData().insert( thing.GetData().Count(), thing.getParent().getObjectModel().getElements(SOME_TYPE)[i].getName() ); } if this was Java I'd probably not think twice. But in performance-critical sections of C++, it makes me want to tinker with it... however I don't know if the compiler is smart enough to make it futile. This is a made up example but all it's doing is inserting strings into a container. Please don't assume any of these are STL types, think in general terms about the following: Is having a messy condition in the for loop going to get evaluated each time, or only once? If those get methods are simply returning references to member variables on the objects, will they be inlined away? Would you expect custom [] operators to get optimized at all? In other words is it worth the time (in performance only, not readability) to convert it to something like: ElementContainer &source = thing.getParent().getObjectModel().getElements(SOME_TYPE); int num = source.count(); Store &destination = thing.getData(); for(int i=0;i<num;++i) { destination.insert(thing.GetData().Count(), source[i].getName(); } Remember, this is a tight loop, called millions of times a second. What I wonder is if all this will shave a couple of cycles per loop or something more substantial? Yes I know the quote about "premature optimisation". And I know that profiling is important. But this is a more general question about modern compilers, Visual Studio in particular.

    Read the article

  • How can I generate a list of #define values from C code?

    - by djs
    I have code that has a lot of complicated #define error codes that are not easy to decode since they are nested through several levels. Is there any elegant way I can get a list of #defines with their final numerical values (or whatever else they may be)? As an example: <header1.h> #define CREATE_ERROR_CODE(class, sc, code) ((class << 16) & (sc << 8) & code)) #define EMI_MAX 16 <header2.h> #define MI_1 EMI_MAX <header3.h> #define MODULE_ERROR_CLASS MI_1 #define MODULE_ERROR_SUBCLASS 1 #define ERROR_FOO CREATE_ERROR_CODE(MODULE_ERROR_CLASS, MODULE_ERROR_SUBCLASS, 1) I would have a large number of similar #defines matching ERROR_[\w_]+ that I'd like to enumerate so that I always have a current list of error codes that the program can output. I need the numerical value because that's all the program will print out (and no, it's not an option to print out a string instead). Suggestions for gcc or any other compiler would be helpful.

    Read the article

  • What's the point of indicating AllowMultiple=false on an abstract Attribute class?

    - by tvanfosson
    On a recent question about MVC attributes, someone asked whether using HttpPost and HttpDelete attributes on an action method would result in either request type being allowed or no requests being allowed (since it can't be both a Post and a Delete at the same time). I noticed that ActionMethodSelectorAttribute, from which HttpPostAttribute and HttpDeleteAttribute both derive is decorated with [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Method, AllowMultiple = false, Inherited = true)] I had expected it to not allow both HttpPost and HttpDelete on the same method because of this, but the compiler doesn't complain. My limited testing tells me that the attribute usage on the base class is simply ignored. AllowMultiple seemingly only disallows two of the same attribute from being applied to a method/class and doesn't seem to consider whether those attributes derive from the same class which is configured to not allow multiples. Moreover, the attribute usage on the base class doesn't even preclude your from changing the attribute usage on a derived class. That being the case, what's the point of even setting the values on the base attribute class? Is it just advisory or am I missing something fundamental in how they work? FYI - it turns out that using both basically precludes that method from ever being considered. The attributes are evaluated independently and one of them will always indicate that the method is not valid for the request since it can't simultaneously be both a Post and a Delete.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350 351  | Next Page >