Search Results

Search found 9186 results on 368 pages for 'sort'.

Page 343/368 | < Previous Page | 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350  | Next Page >

  • Basic Custom String Class for C++

    - by wdow88
    Hey all, I'm working on building my own string class with very basic functionality. I am having difficulty understand what is going on with the basic class that I have define, and believe there is some sort of error dealing with the scope occurring. When I try to view the objects I created, all the fields are described as (obviously bad pointer). Also, if I make the data fields public or build an accessor method, the program crashes. For some reason the pointer for the object is 0xccccccccc which points to no where. How can a I fix this? Any help/comments are much appreciated. //This is a custom string class, so far the only functions are //constructing and appending #include<iostream> using namespace std; class MyString1 { public: MyString1() { //no arg constructor char *string; string = new char[0]; string[0] ='\0'; std::cout << string; size = 1; } //constructor receives pointer to character array MyString1(char* chars) { int index = 0; //Determine the length of the array while (chars[index] != NULL) index++; //Allocate dynamic memory on the heap char *string; string = new char[index+1]; //Copy the contents of the array pointed by chars into string, the char array of the object for (int ii = 0; ii < index; ii++) string[ii] = chars[ii]; string[index+1] = '\0'; size = index+1; } MyString1 append(MyString1 s) { //determine new size of the appended array and allocate memory int newsize = s.size + size; MyString1 MyString2; char *newstring; newstring = new char[newsize+1]; int index = 0; //load the first string into the array while (string[index] != NULL) { newstring[index] = string[index]; index++; } //load the second string while (s.string[index] != NULL) { newstring[index] = s.string[index]; index++; } //null terminate newstring[newsize+1] = '\0'; delete string; //generate the object for return MyString2.string=newstring; MyString2.size=newsize; return MyString2; } private: char *string; int size; }; int main() { MyString1 string1; MyString1 string2("Hello There"); MyString1 string3("Buddy"); string2.append(string3); return 0; }

    Read the article

  • highlight query string in more than one field using solr search feature

    - by Romi
    i am using solr indexes for showing my search results. to show serch results i am parsing json data received from solr. i am able to highlight a query string in search result but only in a single field. for this i set hl=true and hl.fl="field1". i did it as $.getJSON("http://192.168.1.9:8983/solr/db/select/?wt=json&&start=0&rows=100&q="+lowerCaseQuery+"&hl=true&hl.fl=description,name&hl.usePhraseHighlighter=true&sort=price asc&json.wrf=?", function(result){ var n=result.response.numFound var highlight = new Array(n); $.each(result.highlighting, function(i, hitem){ var match = hitem.text[0].match(/<em>(.*?)<\/em>/); highlight[i]=match[1]; }); $.each(newresult.response.docs, function(i,item){ var word=highlight[item["UID_PK"]]; var result = item.text[0].replace(new RegExp(word,'g'), '<em>' + word + '</em>'); }); for this json object is as : { "responseHeader": { "status": 0, "QTime": 32 }, "response": { "numFound": 21, "start": 0, "docs": [ { "description": "The matte finish waves on this wedding band contrast with the high polish borders. This sharp and elegant design was finely crafted in Japan.", "UID_PK": "8252", }, { "description": "This elegant ring has an Akoya cultured pearl with a band of bezel-set round diamonds making it perfect for her to wear to work or the night out.", "UID_PK": "8142", }, ] }, "highlighting": { "8252": { "description": [ " and <em>elegant</em> design was finely crafted in Japan." ] }, "8142": { "description": [ "This <em>elegant</em> ring has an Akoya cultured pearl with a band of bezel-set round diamonds making" ] }, } } Now if i want to highlight query string in two fields i did as hl=true hl.fl=descrption, name my json is as: { "responseHeader":{ "status":0, "QTime":16 }, "response":{ "numFound":1904, "start":0, "docs":[ { "description":"", "UID_PK":"7780", "name":[ "Diamond bracelet with Milgrain Bezel1" ] }, { "description":"This pendant is sure to win hearts. Round diamonds form a simple and graceful line.", "UID_PK":"8121", "name":[ "Heartline Diamond Pendant" ] }, "highlighting":{ "7780":{ "name":[ "<em>Diamond</em> bracelet with Milgrain Bezel1" ] }, "8121":{ "description":[ "This pendant is sure to win hearts. Round <em>diamonds</em> form a simple and graceful line." ], "name":[ "Heartline <em>Diamond</em> Pendant" ] } } } Now how should i parse it to get the result. suggest me some general technique, so if i want to highlight query in more fields then i could do so. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Mocking methods that call other methods Still hit database.Can I avoid it?

    - by devnet247
    Hi, It has been decided to write some unit tests using moq etc..It's lots of legacy code c# (this is beyond my control so cannot answer the whys of this) Now how do you cope with a scenario when you dont want to hit the database but you indirectly still hit the database? This is something I put together it's not the real code but gives you an idea. How would you deal with this sort of scenario? Basically calling a method on a mocked interface still makes a dal call as inside that method there are other methods not part of that interface?Hope it's clear [TestFixture] public class Can_Test_this_legacy_code { [Test] public void Should_be_able_to_mock_login() { var mock = new Mock<ILoginDal>(); User user; var userName = "Jo"; var password = "password"; mock.Setup(x => x.login(It.IsAny<string>(), It.IsAny<string>(),out user)); var bizLogin = new BizLogin(mock.Object); bizLogin.Login(userName, password, out user); } } public class BizLogin { private readonly ILoginDal _login; public BizLogin(ILoginDal login) { _login = login; } public void Login(string userName, string password, out User user) { //Even if I dont want to this will call the DAL!!!!! var bizPermission = new BizPermission(); var permissionList = bizPermission.GetPermissions(userName); //Method I am actually testing _login.login(userName,password,out user); } } public class BizPermission { public List<Permission>GetPermissions(string userName) { var dal=new PermissionDal(); var permissionlist= dal.GetPermissions(userName); return permissionlist; } } public class PermissionDal { public List<Permission> GetPermissions(string userName) { //I SHOULD NOT BE GETTING HERE!!!!!! return new List<Permission>(); } } public interface ILoginDal { void login(string userName, string password,out User user); } public interface IOtherStuffDal { List<Permission> GetPermissions(); } public class Permission { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } Any suggestions? Am I missing the obvious? Is this Untestable code? Very very grateful for any suggestions.

    Read the article

  • C++: Templates for static functions?

    - by Rosarch
    I have a static Utils class. I want certain methods to be templated, but not the entire class. How do I do this? This fails: #pragma once #include <string> using std::string; class Utils { private: template<class InputIterator, class Predicate> static set<char> findAll_if_rec(InputIterator begin, InputIterator end, Predicate pred, set<char> result); public: static void PrintLine(const string& line, int tabLevel = 0); static string getTabs(int tabLevel); template<class InputIterator, class Predicate> static set<char> Utils::findAll_if(InputIterator begin, InputIterator end, Predicate pred); }; Error: utils.h(10): error C2143: syntax error : missing ';' before '<' utils.h(10): error C4430: missing type specifier - int assumed. Note: C++ does not support default-int utils.h(10): error C4430: missing type specifier - int assumed. Note: C++ does not support default-int utils.h(10): error C2238: unexpected token(s) preceding ';' utils.h(10): error C2988: unrecognizable template declaration/definition utils.h(10): error C2059: syntax error : '<' What am I doing wrong? What is the correct syntax for this? Incidentally, I'd like to templatize the return value, too. So instead of: template<class InputIterator, class Predicate> static set<char> findAll_if_rec(InputIterator begin, InputIterator end, Predicate pred, set<char> result); I'd have: template<class return_t, class InputIterator, class Predicate> static return_t findAll_if_rec(InputIterator begin, InputIterator end, Predicate pred, set<char> result); How would I specify that: 1) return_t must be a set of some sort 2) InputIterator must be an iterator 3) InputIterator's type must work with return_t's type. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Debugging a basic OpenGL texture fail? (iphone)

    - by Ben
    Hey all, I have a very basic texture map problem in GL on iPhone, and I'm wondering what strategies there are for debugging this kind of thing. (Frankly, just staring at state machine calls and wondering if any of them is wrong or misordered is no way to live-- are there tools for this?) I have a 512x512 PNG file that I'm loading up from disk (not specially packed), creating a CGBitmapContext, then calling CGContextDrawImage to get bytes out of it. (This code is essentially stolen from an Apple sample.) I'm trying to map the texture to a "quad", with code that looks essentially like this-- all flat 2D stuff, nothing fancy: glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glTexEnvf(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_TEXTURE_ENV_MODE, GL_MODULATE); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_S, GL_REPEAT); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_T, GL_REPEAT); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glEnableClientState(GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); GLfloat vertices[8] = { viewRect.origin.x, viewRect.size.height, viewRect.origin.x, viewRect.origin.y, viewRect.size.width, viewRect.origin.y, viewRect.size.width, viewRect.size.height }; GLfloat texCoords[8] = { 0, 1.0, 0, 0, 1.0, 0, 1.0, 1.0 }; glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, myTextureRef); // This was previously bound to glVertexPointer(2, GL_FLOAT , 0, vertices); glTexCoordPointer(2, GL_FLOAT, 0, texCoords); glDrawArrays(GL_TRIANGLE_FAN, 0, 4); glDisableClientState(GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); glDisable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); My supposedly textured area comes out just black. I see no debug output from the CG calls to set up the texture. glGetError reports nothing. If I simplify this code block to just draw the verts, but set up a pure color, the quad area lights up exactly as expected. If I clear the whole context immediately beforehand to red, I don't see the red-- which means something is being rendered there, but not the contents of my PNG. What could I be doing wrong? And more importantly, what are the right tools and techniques for debugging this sort of thing, because running into this kind of problem and not being able to "step through it" in a debugger in any meaningful way is a bummer. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • jQuery to hide and show divs with an indicator

    - by songdogtech
    Using the jQuery below to toggle the hiding and showing of divs of text: how would I add some sort of indicator - like an up and down arrow as a graphic - to the titles when the divs are either open and closed? What's the best way to do that? Two images? A CSS sprite? And most importantly: how would that be integrated into the JS? I've looked at other jQuery that assigns a random number to each div and then determines which are open and which are closed and toggles one of two images. But I'm using php in a WordPress loop to show a posts, and that gives problems with incrementing in the loop, so there must be an easier way that doesn't require changes in the name of the title div. Thanks.... This JS fires the showing and hiding. Each div can be expanded and collapsed independently. $(document).ready(function() { $('div.demo-show:eq(0)> div').hide(); $('div.demo-show:eq(0)> h3').click(function() { $(this).next().slideToggle('fast'); }); }); This is the HTML it works with: <div class="collapser"> <p class="title">Header-1 </p> <div class="contents">Lorem ipsum</div> <p class="title">Header-2</p> <div class="contents">Lorem ipsum </div> <p class="title">Header-3</p> <div class="contents">Lorem ipsum</div> </div> The CSS is arbitrary: .collapser { margin: 0; padding: 0; width: 500px; } .title { margin: 1px; color: #fff; padding: 3px 10px; cursor: pointer; position: relative; background-color:#c30; } .contents { padding: 5px 10px; background-color:#fafafa; }

    Read the article

  • get renamed file names of multiple upload form [js array] in codeigniter

    - by artmania
    Hi friends, I use codeigniter. I have a multiple image upload form. The code below is working well for uploading, but I also need to save file names to database. How can I get the names in here? I spent hours & hours :/ but could not sort it :/ Appreciate helps!!! uploadform.php echo form_open_multipart('gallery/upload'); <input type="file" name="photo" size="50" /> <input type="file" name="thumb" size="50" /> <input type="submit" value="Upload" /> </form> I have a controller between form view and model load model (of course : )) but didnt post here because of no need. gallery_model.php function multiple_upload($upload_dir = 'uploads/', $config = array()) { /* Upload */ $CI =& get_instance(); $files = array(); if(empty($config)) { $config['upload_path'] = realpath($upload_dir); $config['allowed_types'] = 'gif|jpg|jpeg|jpe|png'; $config['max_size'] = '2048'; } $CI->load->library('upload', $config); $errors = FALSE; foreach($_FILES as $key => $value) { if( ! empty($value['name'])) { if( ! $CI->upload->do_upload($key)) { $data['upload_message'] = $CI->upload->display_errors(ERR_OPEN, ERR_CLOSE); // ERR_OPEN and ERR_CLOSE are error delimiters defined in a config file $CI->load->vars($data); $errors = TRUE; } else { // Build a file array from all uploaded files $files[] = $CI->upload->data(); } } } // There was errors, we have to delete the uploaded files if($errors) { foreach($files as $key => $file) { @unlink($file['full_path']); } } elseif(empty($files) AND empty($data['upload_message'])) { $CI->lang->load('upload'); $data['upload_message'] = ERR_OPEN.$CI->lang->line('upload_no_file_selected').ERR_CLOSE; $CI->load->vars($data); } else { return $files; } /* ------------------------------- Insert to database */ // problem is here, i need file names to add db. // if there is already same names file at the folder, it rename file itself. so in such case, I need renamed file name :/ } }

    Read the article

  • Makefile issue with compiling a C++ program

    - by Steve
    I recently got MySQL compiled and working on Cygwin, and got a simple test example from online to verify that it worked. The test example compiled and ran successfully. However, when incorporating MySQL in a hobby project of mine it isn't compiling which I believe is due to how the Makefile is setup, I have no experience with Makefiles and after reading tutorials about them, I have a better grasp but still can't get it working correctly. When I try and compile my hobby project I recieve errors such as: Obj/Database.o:Database.cpp:(.text+0x492): undefined reference to `_mysql_insert_id' Obj/Database.o:Database.cpp:(.text+0x4c1): undefined reference to `_mysql_affected_rows' collect2: ld returned 1 exit status make[1]: *** [build] Error 1 make: *** [all] Error 2 Here is my Makefile, it worked with compiling and building the source before I attempted to put in MySQL support into the project. The LIBMYSQL paths are correct, verified by 'mysql_config'. COMPILER = g++ WARNING1 = -Wall -Werror -Wformat-security -Winline -Wshadow -Wpointer-arith WARNING2 = -Wcast-align -Wcast-qual -Wredundant-decls LIBMYSQL = -I/usr/local/include/mysql -L/usr/local/lib/mysql -lmysqlclient DEBUGGER = -g3 OPTIMISE = -O C_FLAGS = $(OPTIMISE) $(DEBUGGER) $(WARNING1) $(WARNING2) -export-dynamic $(LIBMYSQL) L_FLAGS = -lz -lm -lpthread -lcrypt $(LIBMYSQL) OBJ_DIR = Obj/ SRC_DIR = Source/ MUD_EXE = project MUD_DIR = TestP/ LOG_DIR = $(MUD_DIR)Files/Logs/ ECHOCMD = echo -e L_GREEN = \e[1;32m L_WHITE = \e[1;37m L_BLUE = \e[1;34m L_RED = \e[1;31m L_NRM = \e[0;00m DATE = `date +%d-%m-%Y` FILES = $(wildcard $(SRC_DIR)*.cpp) C_FILES = $(sort $(FILES)) O_FILES = $(patsubst $(SRC_DIR)%.cpp, $(OBJ_DIR)%.o, $(C_FILES)) all: @$(ECHOCMD) " Compiling $(L_RED)$(MUD_EXE)$(L_NRM)."; @$(MAKE) -s build build: $(O_FILES) @rm -f $(MUD_EXE) $(COMPILER) -o $(MUD_EXE) $(L_FLAGS) $(O_FILES) @echo " Finished Compiling $(MUD_EXE)."; @chmod g+w $(MUD_EXE) @chmod a+x $(MUD_EXE) @chmod g+w $(O_FILES) $(OBJ_DIR)%.o: $(SRC_DIR)%.cpp @echo " Compiling $@"; $(COMPILER) -c $(C_FLAGS) $< -o $@ .cpp.o: $(COMPILER) -c $(C_FLAGS) $< clean: @echo " Complete compile on $(MUD_EXE)."; @rm -f $(OBJ_DIR)*.o $(MUD_EXE) @$(MAKE) -s build I like the functionality of the Makefile, instead of spitting out all the arguments etc, it just spits out the "Compiling [Filename]" etc. If I add -c to the L_FLAGS then it compiles (I think) but instead spits out stuff like: g++: Obj/Database.o: linker input file unused because linking not done After a full day of trying and research on google, I'm no closer to solving my problem, so I come to you guys to see if you can explain to me why all this is happening and if possible, steps to solve. Regards, Steve

    Read the article

  • Throwing cats out of windows

    - by AndrewF
    Imagine you're in a tall building with a cat. The cat can survive a fall out of a low story window, but will die if thrown from a high floor. How can you figure out the longest drop that the cat can survive, using the least number of attempts? Obviously, if you only have one cat, then you can only search linearly. First throw the cat from the first floor. If it survives, throw it from the second. Eventually, after being thrown from floor f, the cat will die. You then know that floor f-1 was the maximal safe floor. But what if you have more than one cat? You can now try some sort of logarithmic search. Let's say that the build has 100 floors and you have two identical cats. If you throw the first cat out of the 50th floor and it dies, then you only have to search 50 floors linearly. You can do even better if you choose a lower floor for your first attempt. Let's say that you choose to tackle the problem 20 floors at a time and that the first fatal floor is #50. In that case, your first cat will survive flights from floors 20 and 40 before dying from floor 60. You just have to check floors 41 through 49 individually. That's a total of 12 attempts, which is much better than the 50 you would need had you attempted to use binary elimination. In general, what's the best strategy and it's worst-case complexity for an n-storied building with 2 cats? What about for n floors and m cats? Assume that all cats are equivalent: they will all survive or die from a fall from a given window. Also, every attempt is independent: if a cat survives a fall, it is completely unharmed. This isn't homework, although I may have solved it for school assignment once. It's just a whimsical problem that popped into my head today and I don't remember the solution. Bonus points if anyone knows the name of this problem or of the solution algorithm.

    Read the article

  • Where are the function literals in c++?

    - by academicRobot
    First of all, maybe literals is not the right term for this concept, but its the closest I could think of (not literals in the sense of functions as first class citizens). The idea is that when you make a conventional function call, it compiles to something like this: callq <immediate address> But if you make a function call using a function pointer, it compiles to something like this: mov <memory location>,%rax callq *%rax Which is all well and good. However, what if I'm writing a template library that requires a callback of some sort with a specified argument list and the user of the library is expected to know what function they want to call at compile time? Then I would like to write my template to accept a function literal as a template parameter. So, similar to template <int int_literal> struct my_template {...};` I'd like to write template <func_literal_t func_literal> struct my_template {...}; and have calls to func_literal within my_template compile to callq <immediate address>. Is there a facility in C++ for this, or a work around to achieve the same effect? If not, why not (e.g. some cataclysmic side effects)? How about C++0x or another language? Solutions that are not portable are fine. Solutions that include the use of member function pointers would be ideal. I'm not particularly interested in being told "You are a <socially unacceptable term for a person of low IQ>, just use function pointers/functors." This is a curiosity based question, and it seems that it might be useful in some (albeit limited) applications. It seems like this should be possible since function names are just placeholders for a (relative) memory address, so why not allow more liberal use (e.g. aliasing) of this placeholder. p.s. I use function pointers and functions objects all the the time and they are great. But this post got me thinking about the don't pay for what you don't use principle in relation to function calls, and it seems like forcing the use of function pointers or similar facility when the function is known at compile time is a violation of this principle, though a small one.

    Read the article

  • Java Best Practice for type resolution at runtime.

    - by Brian
    I'm trying to define a class (or set of classes which implement the same interface) that will behave as a loosely typed object (like JavaScript). They can hold any sort of data and operations on them depend on the underlying type. I have it working in three different ways but none seem ideal. These test versions only allow strings and integers and the only operation is add. Adding integers results in the sum of the integer values, adding strings concatenates the strings and adding an integer to a string converts the integer to a string and concatenates it with the string. The final version will have more types (Doubles, Arrays, JavaScript-like objects where new properties can be added dynamically) and more operations. Way 1: public interface DynObject1 { @Override public String toString(); public DynObject1 add(DynObject1 d); public DynObject1 addTo(DynInteger1 d); public DynObject1 addTo(DynString1 d); } public class DynInteger1 implements DynObject1 { private int value; public DynInteger1(int v) { value = v; } @Override public String toString() { return Integer.toString(value); } public DynObject1 add(DynObject1 d) { return d.addTo(this); } public DynObject1 addTo(DynInteger1 d) { return new DynInteger1(d.value + value); } public DynObject1 addTo(DynString1 d) { return new DynString1(d.toString()+Integer.toString(value)); } } ...and similar for DynString1 Way 2: public interface DynObject2 { @Override public String toString(); public DynObject2 add(DynObject2 d); } public class DynInteger2 implements DynObject2 { private int value; public DynInteger2(int v) { value = v; } @Override public String toString() { return Integer.toString(value); } public DynObject2 add(DynObject2 d) { Class c = d.getClass(); if(c==DynInteger2.class) { return new DynInteger2(value + ((DynInteger2)d).value); } else { return new DynString2(toString() + d.toString()); } } } ...and similar for DynString2 Way 3: public class DynObject3 { private enum ObjectType { Integer, String }; Object value; ObjectType type; public DynObject3(Integer v) { value = v; type = ObjectType.Integer; } public DynObject3(String v) { value = v; type = ObjectType.String; } @Override public String toString() { return value.toString(); } public DynObject3 add(DynObject3 d) { if(type==ObjectType.Integer && d.type==ObjectType.Integer) { return new DynObject3(Integer.valueOf(((Integer)value).intValue()+((Integer)value).intValue())); } else { return new DynObject3(value.toString()+d.value.toString()); } } } With the if-else logic I could use value.getClass()==Integer.class instead of storing the type but with more types I'd change this to use a switch statement and Java doesn't allow switch to use Classes. Anyway... My question is what is the best way to go about something thike this?

    Read the article

  • dynamic module creation

    - by intuited
    I'd like to dynamically create a module from a dictionary, and I'm wondering if adding an element to sys.modules is really the best way to do this. EG context = { a: 1, b: 2 } import types test_context_module = types.ModuleType('TestContext', 'Module created to provide a context for tests') test_context_module.__dict__.update(context) import sys sys.modules['TestContext'] = test_context_module My immediate goal in this regard is to be able to provide a context for timing test execution: import timeit timeit.Timer('a + b', 'from TestContext import *') It seems that there are other ways to do this, since the Timer constructor takes objects as well as strings. I'm still interested in learning how to do this though, since a) it has other potential applications; and b) I'm not sure exactly how to use objects with the Timer constructor; doing so may prove to be less appropriate than this approach in some circumstances. EDITS/REVELATIONS/PHOOEYS/EUREKAE: I've realized that the example code relating to running timing tests won't actually work, because import * only works at the module level, and the context in which that statement is executed is that of a function in the testit module. In other words, the globals dictionary used when executing that code is that of main, since that's where I was when I wrote the code in the interactive shell. So that rationale for figuring this out is a bit botched, but it's still a valid question. I've discovered that the code run in the first set of examples has the undesirable effect that the namespace in which the newly created module's code executes is that of the module in which it was declared, not its own module. This is like way weird, and could lead to all sorts of unexpected rattlesnakeic sketchiness. So I'm pretty sure that this is not how this sort of thing is meant to be done, if it is in fact something that the Guido doth shine upon. The similar-but-subtly-different case of dynamically loading a module from a file that is not in python's include path is quite easily accomplished using imp.load_source('NewModuleName', 'path/to/module/module_to_load.py'). This does load the module into sys.modules. However this doesn't really answer my question, because really, what if you're running python on an embedded platform with no filesystem? I'm battling a considerable case of information overload at the moment, so I could be mistaken, but there doesn't seem to be anything in the imp module that's capable of this. But the question, essentially, at this point is how to set the global (ie module) context for an object. Maybe I should ask that more specifically? And at a larger scope, how to get Python to do this while shoehorning objects into a given module?

    Read the article

  • How to handle environment-specific application configuration organization-wide?

    - by Stuart Lange
    Problem Your organization has many separate applications, some of which interact with each other (to form "systems"). You need to deploy these applications to separate environments to facilitate staged testing (for example, DEV, QA, UAT, PROD). A given application needs to be configured slightly differently in each environment (each environment has a separate database, for example). You want this re-configuration to be handled by some sort of automated mechanism so that your release managers don't have to manually configure each application every time it is deployed to a different environment. Desired Features I would like to design an organization-wide configuration solution with the following properties (ideally): Supports "one click" deployments (only the environment needs to be specified, and no manual re-configuration during/after deployment should be necessary). There should be a single "system of record" where a shared environment-dependent property is specified (such as a database connection string that is shared by many applications). Supports re-configuration of deployed applications (in the event that an environment-specific property needs to change), ideally without requiring a re-deployment of the application. Allows an application to be run on the same machine, but in different environments (run a PROD instance and a DEV instance simultaneously). Possible Solutions I see two basic directions in which a solution could go: Make all applications "environment aware". You would pass the environment name (DEV, QA, etc) at the command line to the app, and then the app is "smart" enough to figure out the environment-specific configuration values at run-time. The app could fetch the values from flat files deployed along with the app, or from a central configuration service. Applications are not "smart" as they are in #1, and simply fetch configuration by property name from config files deployed with the app. The values of these properties are injected into the config files at deploy-time by the install program/script. That install script takes the environment name and fetches all relevant configuration values from a central configuration service. Question How would/have you achieved a configuration solution that solves these problems and supports these desired features? Am I on target with the two possible solutions? Do you have a preference between those solutions? Also, please feel free to tell me that I'm thinking about the problem all wrong. Any feedback would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to create a service like Feed My Inbox on my own server?

    - by Mark Bowen
    I was just wondering if it's at all possible to create a service like Feed My Inbox on my own server using PHP? Basically I have a site which has RSS feeds which are dynamic in nature and can search from thousands of posts based on many different criteria. I have the RSS feed working fine and bringing back data dynamically for whatever criteria I want so that bits fine. I am using the ExpressionEngine CMS to handle the site and there will be thousands of users on the site (currently there are around 2,0000) but that number is exponentially growing every single day. What I want to be able to do is allow the users to choose from certain criteria which will then build a dynamic RSS URL which will then be stored in a database table (one row for each user). This bit I will be able to do myself but then I want to be able to send out new RSS feed items via e-mail to each user. This is the part I'm a little stuck on. I'm guessing I would somehow need to run a cron job to hit a page which would check each users RSS feed and then if there are new items to send them to the user via e-mail. That's where I am totally stuck though and I'm just wondering what the best way to go about it would be? That or any software in PHP that already does this sort of thing would be great. I tried out phpList but it has severe problems working with RSS and I only ever got it to work once and now never again and I've read that lots of people have had this same problem so unfortunately it's not just me :-( I know there are services such as Feed My Inbox which I could easily set up so that users click a link and their RSS feed URL is added to go and use that service but I want to keep users from seeing the dynamic nature of the feed or they will easily be able to modify it to get at other items in the feed. I need this so that I can charge for access to the feeds but if people can see the URL of the feed then I will be totally unstuck as they will be able to get at whatever they want very easily. Therefore I'd like to be able to send the items out to them. Would really love to hear if anyone knows if this kind of thing is possible at all and what would be involved?

    Read the article

  • HTML-like GUI Framework in Java

    - by wintermute
    I was recently brought onto a project where we are developing a lot GUI elements for BlackBerry devices. The standard RIM APIs are pretty basic, almost never do what is required and are difficult or impossible to extend, so we end up re-implementing chunks of it. Currently the code we have isn't super organized and factored so there are lots of little tricks that get implemented over and over again. I had a thought about how to aid development efforts on this platform and wanted to see if the community could tell me if I'm still sane or if I've gone totally nuts. By far, the biggest organizational problem I've run into is making sure that each screen is laid out properly with proper padding and such. The current approach is to manually keep track of padding like so: protected void sublayout(int width, int height) { final int padding = 5; int y = padding; int x = padding; layoutChild(_someChild, width - padding * 2, height / 3 - padding * 2); setPositionChild(_someChild, x, y); y += _someChild.getHeight() + padding; // Calculate where to start drawing next. /* ... snipped ... */ } As you can see, positioning elements on a screen is a nightmare due to the tedium. I have investigated other GUI frameworks but, for a variety of reasons, it is difficult to find one that suites our purposes. One potential solution that came to me is to create a GUI framework who's API resembles HTML/CSS. This would allow for things like padding, margins, borders and colours to be handled through a sort of CSS API while the content would be organized using the HTML part of the API. It might look something like this: public class OptionsScreen extends Document { public OptionsScreen() { // You would set the style (like CSS style) through the constructor. Div content = new Div(new Style(new Padding(5), Color.BLACK)); // Then build up a tree of elements which can each have their own style's. // Each element knows how to draw itself, but it doesn't have to worry about // manually handling things like padding. // content.addChild(new P("This is a paragraph", new Style(new Padding(), Color.RED))); Ul list = new Ul(); list.addChild(new Li("item 1")); list.addChild(new Li("item 2")); content.addChild(list); addChild(content); } } I can imagine this making it easier to customize the UI of our app (which is very important) with different fonts, colours and layouts. Does this idea belong on The Daily WTF or do you think there is some promise?

    Read the article

  • [CakePHP] I am so confused. What should I write in the default.ctp

    - by kwokwai
    Hi all, I am learning cakePHP, everything seems alright except that I am very confused of how to make use of the default.ctp and what should be put inside the Elements folder. Here is the default.ctp file that I have been using since my very first lesson on learning cakePHP: (I copied from this URL http://book.cakephp.org/view/96/Layouts) <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title><?php echo $title_for_layout?></title> <link rel="shortcut icon" href="favicon.ico" type="image/x-icon"> <!-- Include external files and scripts here (See HTML helper for more info.) --> <?php echo $scripts_for_layout ?> </head> <body> <!-- If you'd like some sort of menu to show up on all of your views, include it here --> <div id="header"> <div id="menu">...</div> </div> <!-- Here's where I want my views to be displayed --> <?php echo $content_for_layout ?> <!-- Add a footer to each displayed page --> <div id="footer">...</div> </body> </html> But the problem is that the layout will take effect to all web pages that I have created. Let's see the case that I have recently encountered. In one of the .ctp files, I need to use JQuery function and I need to ass some and tags in the .ctp file. Here are the and tags I used: <Script language="javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { // some functions here }); </Script> <style type="text/css"> { #toppage{ width:800px; } But when I followed the default.ctp file, I noticed that these tags (i.e. and ) happened to appear below the tag. As far as I know, the and self-defined Javascript functions should be put inside the tag of the HTML instead. I have considered to add the and in the default.ctp file, but then these codes would appear in every web pages instead of just a particular web page. Please help.

    Read the article

  • jquery show hidden div

    - by Fahad
    Firstly, I'm sort of embarrassed asking about this, so many people have already asked this question but even after having gone through so many posts, I'm unable to achieve what I want. Basically, a div, initially hidden, has to be displayed on a button click. I tried hiding the div using display:none and hide() and then displaying it using show(), toggle(), and css("display","block"). Using all sorts of combinations of the above, I was still unable to get the result. Code: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> <link href="css/smoothness/jquery-ui-1.9.2.custom.min.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script src="jQuery/jquery-1.8.3.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="jQuery/jquery-ui-1.9.2.custom.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('#one').hide(); $('#Button1').click(function () { $('#one').toggle(500); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div id="one" style="height: 20px;width:200px; background-color: Red; "> </div> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Show" /> </form> </body> </html> On button click, the div is shown for a brief second before it disappears again. The same thing happens if I use show() instead of toggle() in the above code. Again the same thing if I set style="display:none" to the div instead of using hide() and then use show() or toggle(). I also tried using $('#one').css("display","block"); but again, the same result. Can anyone please tell me where I'm going wrong. Just started learning jQuery and it is really frustrating when something apparently so simple will not work. Thanks in advance. :)

    Read the article

  • Specializating a template function that takes a universal reference parameter

    - by David Stone
    How do I specialize a template function that takes a universal reference parameter? foo.hpp: template<typename T> void foo(T && t) // universal reference parameter foo.cpp template<> void foo<Class>(Class && class) { // do something complicated } Here, Class is no longer a deduced type and thus is Class exactly; it cannot possibly be Class &, so reference collapsing rules will not help me here. I could perhaps create another specialization that takes a Class & parameter (I'm not sure), but that implies duplicating all of the code contained within foo for every possible combination of rvalue / lvalue references for all parameters, which is what universal references are supposed to avoid. Is there some way to accomplish this? To be more specific about my problem in case there is a better way to solve it: I have a program that can connect to multiple game servers, and each server, for the most part, calls everything by the same name. However, they have slightly different versions for a few things. There are a few different categories that these things can be: a move, an item, etc. I have written a generic sort of "move string to move enum" set of functions for internal code to call, and my server interface code has similar functions. However, some servers have their own internal ID that they communicate with, some use strings, and some use both in different situations. Now what I want to do is make this a little more generic. I want to be able to call something like ServerNamespace::server_cast<Destination>(source). This would allow me to cast from a Move to a std::string or ServerMoveID. Internally, I may need to make a copy (or move from) because some servers require that I keep a history of messages sent. Universal references seem to be the obvious solution to this problem. The header file I'm thinking of right now would expose simply this: namespace ServerNamespace { template<typename Destination, typename Source> Destination server_cast(Source && source); } And the implementation file would define all legal conversions as template specializations.

    Read the article

  • Using Core Data Concurrently and Reliably

    - by John Topley
    I'm building my first iOS app, which in theory should be pretty straightforward but I'm having difficulty making it sufficiently bulletproof for me to feel confident submitting it to the App Store. Briefly, the main screen has a table view, upon selecting a row it segues to another table view that displays information relevant for the selected row in a master-detail fashion. The underlying data is retrieved as JSON data from a web service once a day and then cached in a Core Data store. The data previous to that day is deleted to stop the SQLite database file from growing indefinitely. All data persistence operations are performed using Core Data, with an NSFetchedResultsController underpinning the detail table view. The problem I am seeing is that if you switch quickly between the master and detail screens several times whilst fresh data is being retrieved, parsed and saved, the app freezes or crashes completely. There seems to be some sort of race condition, maybe due to Core Data importing data in the background whilst the main thread is trying to perform a fetch, but I'm speculating. I've had trouble capturing any meaningful crash information, usually it's a SIGSEGV deep in the Core Data stack. The table below shows the actual order of events that happen when the detail table view controller is loaded: Main Thread Background Thread viewDidLoad Get JSON data (using AFNetworking) Create child NSManagedObjectContext (MOC) Parse JSON data Insert managed objects in child MOC Save child MOC Post import completion notification Receive import completion notification Save parent MOC Perform fetch and reload table view Delete old managed objects in child MOC Save child MOC Post deletion completion notification Receive deletion completion notification Save parent MOC Once the AFNetworking completion block is triggered when the JSON data has arrived, a nested NSManagedObjectContext is created and passed to an "importer" object that parses the JSON data and saves the objects to the Core Data store. The importer executes using the new performBlock method introduced in iOS 5: NSManagedObjectContext *child = [[NSManagedObjectContext alloc] initWithConcurrencyType:NSPrivateQueueConcurrencyType]; [child setParentContext:self.managedObjectContext]; [child performBlock:^{ // Create importer instance, passing it the child MOC... }]; The importer object observes its own MOC's NSManagedObjectContextDidSaveNotification and then posts its own notification which is observed by the detail table view controller. When this notification is posted the table view controller performs a save on its own (parent) MOC. I use the same basic pattern with a "deleter" object for deleting the old data after the new data for the day has been imported. This occurs asynchronously after the new data has been fetched by the fetched results controller and the detail table view has been reloaded. One thing I am not doing is observing any merge notifications or locking any of the managed object contexts or the persistent store coordinator. Is this something I should be doing? I'm a bit unsure how to architect this all correctly so would appreciate any advice.

    Read the article

  • [Reloaded] Error while sorting filtered data from a GridView

    - by Bogdan M
    Hello guys, I have an error I cannot solve, on a ASP.NET website. One of its pages - Countries.aspx, has the following controls: a CheckBox called "CheckBoxNAME": < asp:CheckBox ID="CheckBoxNAME" runat="server" Text="Name" /> a TextBox called "TextBoxName": < asp:TextBox ID="TextBoxNAME" runat="server" Width="100%" Wrap="False"> < /asp:TextBox> a SQLDataSource called "SqlDataSourceCOUNTRIES", that selects all records from a Table with 3 columns - ID (Number, PK), NAME (Varchar2(1000)), and POPULATION (Number) called COUNTRIES < asp:SqlDataSource ID="SqlDataSourceCOUNTRIES" runat="server" ConnectionString="< %$ ConnectionStrings:myDB %> " ProviderName="< %$ ConnectionStrings:myDB.ProviderName %> " SelectCommand="SELECT COUNTRIES.ID, COUNTRIES.NAME, COUNTRIES.POPULATION FROM COUNTRIES ORDER BY COUNTRIES.NAME, COUNTRIES.ID"> < /asp:SqlDataSource> a GridView called GridViewCOUNTRIES: < asp:GridView ID="GridViewCOUNTRIES" runat="server" AllowPaging="True" AllowSorting="True" AutoGenerateColumns="False" DataSourceID="SqlDataSourceCOUNTRIES" DataKeyNames="ID" DataMember="DefaultView"> < Columns> < asp:CommandField ShowSelectButton="True" /> < asp:BoundField DataField="ID" HeaderText="Id" SortExpression="ID" /> < asp:BoundField DataField="NAME" HeaderText="Name" SortExpression="NAME" /> < asp:BoundField DataField="POPULATION" HeaderText="Population" SortExpression="POPULATION" /> < /Columns> < /asp:GridView> a Button called ButtonFilter: < asp:Button ID="ButtonFilter" runat="server" Text="Filter" onclick="ButtonFilter_Click"/> This is the onclick event: protected void ButtonFilter_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Redirect("Countries.aspx?" + (this.CheckBoxNAME.Checked ? string.Format("NAME={0}", this.TextBoxNAME.Text) : string.Empty)); } Also, this is the main onload event of the page: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Page.IsPostBack == false) { if (Request.QueryString.Count != 0) { Dictionary parameters = new Dictionary(); string commandTextFormat = string.Empty; if (Request.QueryString["NAME"] != null) { if (commandTextFormat != string.Empty && commandTextFormat.EndsWith("AND") == false) { commandTextFormat += "AND"; } commandTextFormat += " (UPPER(COUNTRIES.NAME) LIKE '%' || :NAME || '%') "; parameters.Add("NAME", Request.QueryString["NAME"].ToString()); } this.SqlDataSourceCOUNTRIES.SelectCommand = string.Format("SELECT COUNTRIES.ID, COUNTRIES.NAME, COUNTRIES.POPULATION FROM COUNTRIES WHERE {0} ORDER BY COUNTRIES.NAME, COUNTRIES.ID", commandTextFormat); foreach (KeyValuePair parameter in parameters) { this.SqlDataSourceCOUNTRIES.SelectParameters.Add(parameter.Key, parameter.Value.ToUpper()); } } } } Basicly, the page displays in the GridViewCOUNTRIES all the records of table COUNTRIES. The scenario is the following: - the user checks the CheckBox; - the user types a value in the TextBox (let's say "ch"); - the user presses the Button; - the page loads displaying only the records that match the filter criteria (in this case, all the countries that have names containing "Ch"); - the user clicks on the header of the column called "Name" in order to sort the data in the GridView Then, I get the following error: ORA-01036: illegal variable name/number. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Data.OracleClient.OracleException: ORA-01036: illegal variable name/number Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Any help is greatly appreciated, tnks. PS: I'm using ASP.NET 3.5, under Visual Studio 2008, with an OracleXE database.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC 4/Web API Single Page App for Mobile Devices ... Needs Authentication

    - by lmttag
    We have developed an ASP.NET MVC 4/Web API single page, mobile website (also using jQuery Mobile) that is intended to be accessed only from mobile devices (e.g., iPads, iPhones, Android tables and phones, etc.), not desktop browsers. This mobile website will be hosted internally, like an intranet site. However, since we’re accessing it from mobile devices, we can’t use Windows authentication. We still need to know which user (and their role) is logging in to the mobile website app. We tried simply using ASP.NET’s forms authentication and membership provider, but couldn’t get it working exactly the way we wanted. What we need is for the user to be prompted for a user name and password only on the first time they access the site on their mobile device. After they enter a correct user name and password and have been authenticated once, each subsequent time they access the site they should just go right in. They shouldn’t have to re-enter their credentials (i.e., something needs to be saved locally to each device to identify the user after the first time). This is where we had troubles. Everything worked as expected the first time. That is, the user was prompted to enter a user name and password, and, after doing that, was authenticated and allowed into the site. The problem is every time after the browser was closed on the mobile device, the device and user were not know and the user had to re-enter user name and password. We tried lots of things too. We tried setting persistent cookies in JavaScript. No good. The cookies weren’t there to be read the second time. We tried manually setting persistent cookies from ASP.NET. No good. We, of course, used FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(model.UserName, true); as part of the form authentication framework. No good. We tried using HTML5 local storage. No good. No matter what we tried, if the user was on a mobile device, they would have to log in every single time. (Note: we’ve tried on an iPad and iPhone running both iOS 5.1 and 6.0, with Safari configure to allow cookies, and we’ve tried on Android 2.3.4.) Is there some trick to getting a scenario like this working? Or, do we have to write some sort of custom authentication mechanism? If so, how? And, what? Or, should we use something like claims-based authentication and WIF? Or??? Any help is appreciated. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • C++ game designing & polymorphism question

    - by Kotti
    Hi! I'm trying to implement some sort of 'just-for-me' game engine and the problem's plot goes the following way: Suppose I have some abstract interface for a renderable entity, e.g. IRenderable. And it's declared the following way: interface IRenderable { // (...) // Suppose that Backend is some abstract backend used // for rendering, and it's implementation is not important virtual void Render(Backend& backend) = 0; }; What I'm doing right now is something like declaring different classes like class Ball : public IRenderable { virtual void Render(Backend& backend) { // Rendering implementation, that is specific for // the Ball object // (...) } }; And then everything looks fine. I can easily do something like std::vector<IRenderable*> items, push some items like new Ball() in this vector and then make a call similiar to foreach (IRenderable* in items) { item->Render(backend); } Ok, I guess it is the 'polymorphic' way, but what if I want to have different types of objects in my game and an ability to manipulate their state, where every object can be manipulated via it's own interface? I could do something like struct GameState { Ball ball; Bonus bonus; // (...) }; and then easily change objects state via their own methods, like ball.Move(...) or bonus.Activate(...), where Move(...) is specific for only Ball and Activate(...) - for only Bonus instances. But in this case I lose the opportunity to write foreach IRenderable* simply because I store these balls and bonuses as instances of their derived, not base classes. And in this case the rendering procedure turns into a mess like ball.Render(backend); bonus.Render(backend); // (...) and it is bad because we actually lose our polymorphism this way (no actual need for making Render function virtual, etc. The other approach means invoking downcasting via dynamic_cast or something with typeid to determine the type of object you want to manipulate and this looks even worse to me and this also breaks this 'polymorphic' idea. So, my question is - is there some kind of (probably) alternative approach to what I want to do or can my current pattern be somehow modified so that I would actually store IRenderable* for my game objects (so that I can invoke virtual Render method on each of them) while preserving the ability to easily change the state of these objects? Maybe I'm doing something absolutely wrong from the beginning, if so, please point it out :) Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • What database table structure should I use for versions, codebases, deployables?

    - by Zac Thompson
    I'm having doubts about my table structure, and I wonder if there is a better approach. I've got a little database for version control repositories (e.g. SVN), the packages (e.g. Linux RPMs) built therefrom, and the versions (e.g. 1.2.3-4) thereof. A given repository might produce no packages, or several, but if there are more than one for a given repository then a particular version for that repository will indicate a single "tag" of the codebase. A particular version "string" might be used to tag a version of the source code in more than one repository, but there may be no relationship between "1.0" for two different repos. So if packages P and Q both come from repo R, then P 1.0 and Q 1.0 are both built from the 1.0 tag of repo R. But if package X comes from repo Y, then X 1.0 has no relationship to P 1.0. In my (simplified) model, I have the following tables (the x_id columns are auto-incrementing surrogate keys; you can pretend I'm using a different primary key if you wish, it's not really important): repository - repository_id - repository_name (unique) ... version - version_id - version_string (unique for a particular repository) - repository_id ... package - package_id - package_name (unique) - repository_id ... This makes it easy for me to see, for example, what are valid versions of a given package: I can join with the version table using the repository_id. However, suppose I would like to add some information to this database, e.g., to indicate which package versions have been approved for release. I certainly need a new table: package_version - version_id - package_id - package_version_released ... Again, the nature of the keys that I use are not really important to my problem, and you can imagine that the data column is "promotion_level" or something if that helps. My doubts arise when I realize that there's really a very close relationship between the version_id and the package_id in my new table ... they must share the same repository_id. Only a small subset of package/version combinations are valid. So I should have some kind of constraint on those columns, enforcing that ... ... I don't know, it just feels off, somehow. Like I'm including somehow more information than I really need? I don't know how to explain my hesitance here. I can't figure out which (if any) normal form I'm violating, but I also can't find an example of a schema with this sort of structure ... not being a DBA by profession I'm not sure where to look. So I'm asking: am I just being overly sensitive?

    Read the article

  • small scale web site - global javascript file style/format/pattern - improving maintainability

    - by yaya3
    I frequently create (and inherit) small to medium websites where I have the following sort of code in a single file (normally named global.js or application.js or projectname.js). If functions get big, I normally put them in a seperate file, and call them at the bottom of the file below in the $(document).ready() section. If I have a few functions that are unique to certain pages, I normally have another switch statement for the body class inside the $(document).ready() section. How could I restructure this code to make it more maintainable? Note: I am less interested in the functions innards, more so the structure, and how different types of functions should be dealt with. I've also posted the code here - http://pastie.org/999932 in case it makes it any easier var ProjectNameEnvironment = {}; function someFunctionUniqueToTheHomepageNotWorthMakingConfigurable () { $('.foo').hide(); $('.bar').click(function(){ $('.foo').show(); }); } function functionThatIsWorthMakingConfigurable(config) { var foo = config.foo || 700; var bar = 200; return foo * bar; } function globallyRequiredJqueryPluginTrigger (tooltip_string) { var tooltipTrigger = $(tooltip_string); tooltipTrigger.tooltip({ showURL: false ... }); } function minorUtilityOneLiner (selector) { $(selector).find('li:even').not('li ul li').addClass('even'); } var Lightbox = {}; Lightbox.setup = function(){ $('li#foo a').attr('href','#alpha'); $('li#bar a').attr('href','#beta'); } Lightbox.init = function (config){ if (typeof $.fn.fancybox =='function') { Lightbox.setup(); var fade_in_speed = config.fade_in_speed || 1000; var frame_height = config.frame_height || 1700; $(config.selector).fancybox({ frameHeight : frame_height, callbackOnShow: function() { var content_to_load = config.content_to_load; ... }, callbackOnClose : function(){ $('body').height($('body').height()); } }); } else { if (ProjectNameEnvironment.debug) { alert('the fancybox plugin has not been loaded'); } } } // ---------- order of execution ----------- $(document).ready(function () { urls = urlConfig(); (function globalFunctions() { $('.tooltip-trigger').each(function(){ globallyRequiredJqueryPluginTrigger(this); }); minorUtilityOneLiner('ul.foo') Lightbox.init({ selector : 'a#a-lightbox-trigger-js', ... }); Lightbox.init({ selector : 'a#another-lightbox-trigger-js', ... }); })(); if ( $('body').attr('id') == 'home-page' ) { (function homeFunctions() { someFunctionUniqueToTheHomepageNotWorthMakingConfigurable (); })(); } });

    Read the article

  • Java DriverManager Always Assigns My Driver

    - by JGB146
    I am writing a driver to act as a wrapper around two separate MySQL connections (to distributed databases). Basically, the goal is to enable interaction with my driver for all applications instead of requiring the application to sort out which database holds the desired data. Most of the code for this is in place, but I'm having a problem in that when I attempt to create connections via the MySQL Driver, the DriverManager is returning an instance of my driver instead of the MySQL Driver. I'd appreciate any tips on what could be causing this and what could be done to fix it! Below is a few relevant snippets of code. I can provide more, but there's a lot, so I'd need to know what else you want to see. First, from MyDriver.java: public MyDriver() throws SQLException { DriverManager.registerDriver(this); } public Connection connect(String url, Properties info) throws SQLException { try { return new MyConnection(info); } catch (Exception e) { return null; } } public boolean acceptsURL(String url) throws SQLException { if (url.contains("jdbc:jgb://")) { return true; } return false; } It is my understanding that this acceptsURL function will dictate whether or not the DriverManager deems my driver a suitable fit for a given URL. Hence it should only be passing connections from my driver if the URL contains "jdbc:jgb://" right? Here's code from MyConnection.java: Connection c1 = null; Connection c2 = null; /** *Constructors */ public DDBSConnection (Properties info) throws SQLException, Exception { info.list(System.out); //included for testing Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); String url1 = "jdbc:mysql://server1.com/jgb"; String url2 = "jdbc:mysql://server2.com/jgb"; this.c1 = DriverManager.getConnection( url1, info.getProperty("username"), info.getProperty("password")); this.c2 = DriverManager.getConnection( url2, info.getProperty("username"), info.getProperty("password")); } And this tells me two things. First, the info.list() call confirms that the correct user and password are being sent. Second, because we enter an infinite loop, we see that the DriverManager is providing new instances of my connection as matches for the mysql URLs instead of the desired mysql driver/connection. FWIW, I have separately tested implementations that go straight to the mysql driver using this exact syntax (al beit only one at a time), and was able to successfully interact with each database individually from a test application outside of my driver.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350  | Next Page >