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• Perform Push Segue From a Tab View Controller

  - by user1416492

  I have a Tab Bar Controller App, the tab bar controller is forked into several "tab" view controller, in one of the view controller I want to redirect the user to an other view controller. I create a segue from that tab view controller to the destination view controller and given it an Identifer. And I call "performSegueWithIdentifier" in "viewDidAppear" to redirect the user. It works fine when the segue is "Modal", however since I want to retain the tabs, I want to call the segue through "Push". However, once I change the segue to "Push", it is not working anymore (it does not try to go to the destination view controller). The app did not crash on the simulator but just staying on the origin tab view controller.

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• VB.Net List.Find. Pass values to predicate

  - by Beta033

  Having a bit of trouble using the List.Find with a custom predicate i have a function that does this private function test () Dim test As Integer = keys.Find(AddressOf FindByOldKeyAndName).NewKey here's the function for the predicate Private Shared Function FindByOldKeyAndName(ByVal k As KeyObj) As Boolean If k.OldKey = currentKey.OldKey And k.KeyName = currentKey.KeyName Then Return True Else Return False End If End Function by doing it this way means i have to have a shared "currentKey" object in the class, and i know there has to be a way to pass in the values i'm interested in of CurrentKey (namely, keyname, and oldkey) ideally i'd like to call it by something like keys.Find(AddressOf FindByOldKeyAndName(Name,OldVal)) however when i do this i get compiler errors. How do i call this method and pass in the values?

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• Is there a way to animate on a Home Widget?

  - by David

  Hi All, I want to use an animation on a Home page Widget, i.e. an AppWidgetProvider. I was hoping to use the "Frame Animation" technique: http://developer.android.com/guide/topics/graphics/2d-graphics.html#frame-animation which I've used successfully in an activity. But I can't translate that code to an AppWidgetProvider. Basically, in an AppWidgetProvider, I create and work with a RemoteViews object, which AFAIK doesn't provide me with a method to get a reference to an ImageView in the layout for me to call start() on the animation. There is also not a handler or a callback for when the widget displays so I can make the start() call. Is there another way this can be done? I suppose that I can probably do the animation on my own with very fast onUpdate() calls on the widget, but that seems awfully expensive.

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• Is this casting safe?

  - by Itsik

  I need to write a Util function (in my c++cli app) that converts a String to a Double or Float or Int. template<typename T> static T MyConvert(String^ str) { return static_cast<T>(System::Convert::ToDouble(str)); } Is this safe? Can it somehow convert 2 to 1.999 and then to 1 if I call MyConvert<int>("2") ? I was wondering why the Convert class isn't templated in the first place? (That would let me call Convert<T> instead of Convert.ToDouble() for all types) This is C++/Cli so I can use any convert methods in c++ or .net, but I only know Convert.ToDouble()|ToString()|ToInt32()) Thanks

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• jquery and codeigniter

  - by rabidmachine9

  Hello people, and sorry if that question is stupid I'm trying to use javascript with codeigniter and I can't get it right what I'm actually doing is placing jQuery inside the views folder and call it from one of my view files like that: <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> I get no response no errors it just doesn't work, I could also display more code but my first assumption is that there something wrong with the way I call it... maybe something with the paths? any workarounds? thanks in advance

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• Windows Phone 7 HttpRequest Unable to see true Error Code and response details

  - by Bob

  I have to call a somewhat broken API from a Windows Phone 7 application. The API returns a 302 error and a cookie to the authentication request. I've tried every way I've been able to find in the MSDN documentation for using ClientHTTP instead of BrowserHTTP (registering the prefix, using the call to explicitly create a ClientHTTP using Request), but the 302 is getting translated to a 404 and I'm not seeing the cookies on the response. I've tried a WebClient, I've tried an HttpRequest and it is always the translated error message. If I allocate a CookieContainer for the HttpRequest, I get a null argument exception when the client stack is parsing the returned message. I can see that the response is coming back as expected via Fiddler.

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• user notification while waiting

  - by user315445

  I am writing a simple win forms app in C#. There is a method call in my method which loads files but is taking a while to respond. Below is the method call Directory.GetFiles(selectedFolder, "*.xml", SearchOption.AllDirectories); I want to notify this to users. Is there a way to show them that file loading is in progress? I want a simplest way. I suppose Splash screen is too costly for my app.

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• Client-side session timeout redirect in ASP.Net

  - by Mercury821

  I want to build a way to automatically redirect users to Timeout.aspx when their session expires due to inactivity. My application uses forms authentication and relies heavily on update panels within the same aspx page for user interaction, so I don't want to simply redirect after a page-level timer expires. For the same reason, I can't use '<meta http-equiv="refresh"/>' What I want to do is create a simple ajax web service with a method called IsSessionTimedOut(), that simply returns a boolean. I will use a javascript timer to periodically call the method, and if it returns true, then redirect to Timeout.aspx. However, I don't want calling this method to reset the session timeout timer, or the session would never time out because of the service call. Is there a clean way to avoid this catch-22? Hopefully there is an easy solution that has so far eluded me.

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• How can I consolidate deferred/delayed calls in Objective-C ?

  - by thrusty

  I'd like to ensure that certain maintenance tasks are executed "eventually". For example, after I detect that some resources might no longer be used in a cache, I might call: [self performSelector:@selector(cleanupCache) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.5]; However, there might be numerous places where I detect this, and I don't want to be calling cleanupCache continuously. I'd like to consolidate multiple calls to cleanupCache so that we only periodically get ONE call to cleanupCache. Here's what I've come up with do to this-- is this the best way? [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(cleanupCache) object:nil]; [self performSelector:@selector(cleanupCache) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.5];

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• Why first arg to execve() must be path to executable

  - by EBM

  I understand that execve() and family require the first argument of its argument array to be the same as the executable that is also pointed to by its first argument. That is, in this: execve(prog, args, env); args[0] will usually be the same as prog. But I can't seem to find information as to why this is. I also understand that executables (er, at least shell scripts) always have their calling path as the first argument when running, but I would think that the shell would do the work to put it there, and execve() would just call the executable using the path given in its first argument ("prog" from above), then passing the argument array ("args" from above) as one would on the command line.... i.e., I don't call scripts on the command line with a duplicate executable path in the args list.... /bin/ls /bin/ls /home/john Can someone explain?

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• how have defined connection within function for pdo communication with DB

  - by Scarface

  hey guys I just started trying to convert my query structure to PDO and I have come across a weird problem. When I call a pdo query connection within a function and the connection is included outside the function, the connection becomes undefined. Anyone know what I am doing wrong here? I was just playing with it, my example is below. include("includes/connection.php"); function query(){ $user='user'; $id='100'; $sql = 'SELECT * FROM users'; $stmt = $conn->prepare($sql); $result=$stmt->execute(array($user, $id)); echo $count=$stmt->rowCount(); if (!$result || $stmt->rowCount()>=1){ echo 'balls'; } // now iterate over the result as if we obtained // the $stmt in a call to PDO::query() while($r = $stmt->fetch(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC)) { echo "$r[username] $r[id] \n"; } } query();

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• Can I destroy a class instance even if there are still references?

  - by DR

  For debugging reasons I want to destroy a class instance which still as references. Is that possible? It doesn't have to be elegant or stable, because this'll never end up in production code. To clarify: Public Sub Main Dim o as MyClass Set o = New MyClass //o is created, one reference DestroyObject o //Class_Terminate is called and the object destroyed //Further code, not using o End Sub //Possible runtime error here (don't care) Is that possible? One way would be to call IUnknown::Release to manually decrease the reference count, but how do I now how often I must call it?

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• How to programatically set cell.textLabel.text from a different view?

  - by Andy

  I've got a view controller, call it VC1, that's a table view. When I tap a cell in the table view, I am presented with a new view controller, call it VC2, which is a short list of choices. After making a choice, I want to dismiss VC2 and set the cell.textLabel.text property of the VC1 cell I originally tapped to the value I selected in VC2. Conceptually speaking, what is the proper way to do this? I've tried a handful of different approaches, but all of them seem wonky at best, and only one of them actually worked - although it was the most cumbersome of all, passing references to both view controllers and table view cells and all kinds of things. It just feels like I'm making a mountain out of what is probably a mole hill. This is such a common paradigm that I find it hard to believe there's not a simple method for doing it. Thanks in advance for any input you can offer.

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• Calling Graphviz dot from Java

  - by garsh0p

  What's the best way to call an external program (graphviz's dot in this case) from a Java program and grab the output?

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• How to manage db connections on server?

  - by simpatico

  I have a severe problem with my database connection in my web application. Since I use a single database connection for the whole application from singleton Database class, if i try concurrent db operations (two users) the database rollsback the transactions. This is my static method used: All threads/servlets call static Database.doSomething(...) methods, which in turn call the the below method. private static /* synchronized*/ Connection getConnection(final boolean autoCommit) throws SQLException { if (con == null) { con = new MyRegistrationBean().getConnection(); } con.setAutoCommit(true); //TODO return con; } What's the recommended way to manage this db connection/s I have, so that I don't incurr in the same problem.

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• How to "serialize" and "deserialize" command line arguments to string in bash?

  - by Vi

  I call my script: $ ./script 'a!#*`*& ^$' "sdf sdf\"qw sdsdf" 1 -- 2 3 It gets arguments: 1: a!#*`*& ^$ 2: sdf sdf"qw sdsdf 3: 1 4: -- 5: 2 6: 3 If I need to call something with the same arguments locally, I do this: someprogram "$@" But how can I put all that array to a string (to store in file or in environment variable or pass over TCP eaisly) and then turn it back to command line arguments somewhere? I want it to be simple, short and secure. export CMDLINE="$@" # What is in CMDLINE now? Escaped or not? sh -c "someprogram $CMDLINE" # Will it do what I mean? Ideally I want two bash subroutines: the first turns turns any Bash array into a [a-zA-Z0-9_]* string, the other turns it back to Bash array I can use.

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• How to store and access ajax data in javascript without using global variables ?

  - by mike_t2e

  I may be missing something obvious here, but how could I rewrite this code so that it doesn't need the theVariable to be a global variable ? <script language="javascript"> theVariable = ""; function setValue() /* called on page load */ { /* make ajax call to the server here */ theVariable = "a string of json data waiting to be eval()'d"; } function getValue() { alert(theVariable); } </script> <input type="button" onClick="javascript:getValue()" value="Get the value"> In my actual situation, the setValue function makes an ajax call to the server, receives a json string and the data from that is accessed when you mouseover various parts of the page. I end up using several global variables which works fine, but is messy and I'd like to know if there's a better and more elegant way of doing it ?

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• RAII: Initializing data member in const method

  - by Thomas Matthews

  In RAII, resources are not initialized until they are accessed. However, many access methods are declared constant. I need to call a mutable (non-const) function to initialize a data member. Example: Loading from a data base struct MyClass { int get_value(void) const; private: void load_from_database(void); // Loads the data member from database. int m_value; }; int MyClass :: get_value(void) const { static bool value_initialized(false); if (!value_initialized) { // The compiler complains about this call because // the method is non-const and called from a const // method. load_from_database(); } return m_value; } My primitive solution is to declare the data member as mutable. I would rather not do this, because it suggests that other methods can change the member. How would I cast the load_from_database() statement to get rid of the compiler errors?

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• GTKMM/C++ Window Event on loosing/regaining focus?

  - by ace

  How can i call a function whenever my gtkmm app looses or regains focus? Thanks.

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• [R] multiple functions in one R script

  - by Philipp

  Hi, I guess it's a stupid question, but I don't get it :-( I wrote an R script, which creates heatmaps out of xls files. I am calling this R script with a Perl system call and pass over all the arguments. This all works fine. Now I wanted to make the R script less confusing by writing different functions in the R script, for example: args <- commandArgs(TRUE) parsexls <- function(filepath) { data <- read.xls(...) assign("data", data, globalenv()) } reorder <- function(var) { data <- data[order...] assign("data", data, globalenv()) } When I want to call the functions with parsexls(args[1]) reorder(args[2]) nothing happens. But when I place the parsexls(args[1]) in the script between the two functions shown above, the file is parsed correctly! The reorder(args[2]) seems never to be read. Any ideas what I am doing wrong? Phil

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• php and javascript?

  - by anitabehal

  how to call php variables or queries in javascript?

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• How should I generate HTML to represent class and its properties?

  - by Mike

  Currently I have a class that represents a document. This document needs to be displayed as HTML. I would like to have a method to call such as GetHTML() that would then call GetHTML() on any properties/sections of the document that needed to be rendered. I was initially thinking about using linq and XElement but am wondering if that may cause issues with certain tags in HTML. Would I better off using an HtmlTextWriter? I am open to any suggestions or best practives for this situation. Thanks!

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• jQuery get value from checked element with a given name

  - by Travis Leleu

  I've got an input like so: I'd like to use jQuery to grab that element, and add the function call foo() to the change event. Currently I can get it done, but there are two hacks involved. My (working) code: $(":input[name*=myfield]").change( function( $(":input[name*=myfield]") ) { foo(); }); )}; There are two hacks in there I'd like to eliminate. Keeping in mind that the input names are multidimensional arrays, how can I use the :input[name=somename], versus [name*=someone]? I'd imagine it's faster using an exact name rather than *=, but I can't get the escape sequence correct for the brackets on the multidimensional arrays. Can I chain the call together so that I don't have to select the element twice? Is the standard practice for that to select the HTML element into a var, then use that var? Or can I chain it together? Thanks for the help. Still working on getting my footing in JS/JQ.

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• How bad is opening and closing a SQL connection for several times? What is the exact effect?

  - by Eren

  For example, I need to fill lots of DataTables with SQLDataAdapter's Fill() method: DataAdapter1.Fill(DataTable1); DataAdapter2.Fill(DataTable2); DataAdapter3.Fill(DataTable3); DataAdapter4.Fill(DataTable4); DataAdapter5.Fill(DataTable5); .... .... Even all the dataadapter objects use the same SQLConnection, each Fill method will open and close the connection unless the connection state is already open before the method call. What I want to know is how does unnecessarily opening and closing SQLConnections affect the performance of the application. How much does it need to scale to see the bad effects of this problem (100,000s of concurrent users?). In a mid-size website (daily 50000 users) does it worth bothering and searching for all the Fill() calls, keeping them together in the code and opening the connection before any Fill() call and closing afterwards?

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• Autorelease for CGMutablePathRef?

  - by huggie

  Hi, I am developing for iphone. I want to creating a mutable path via CGPathCreateMutable(), and I want to return it out of the function which creates it. I'm suppose to call a CGPathRelease() when I'm done with it. But since I'm returning it I wish to autorelease it. Since Quartz path is a C code (and doesn't look like an objective C object), is it correct that I cannot call autorelease on it? Edit: For others who stumble upon this question, the below advise is for C functions returning Core foundation objects only. For objective C methods returning Core foundation objects, see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2901942/ownership-regarding-to-returned-quartz-objects

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