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  • mysql query not running correctly from inside the application

    - by Mala
    I am completely stumped. Here is my php (CodeIgniter) code: function mod() { $uid = $this->session->userdata('uid'); $pid = $this->input->post('pid'); if ($this->_verify($uid,$pid)) { $name = $this->input->post('name'); $price = $this->input->post('price'); $curr = $this->input->post('curr'); $url = $this->input->post('url'); $query = $this->db->query("UPDATE items SET name=".$this->db->escape($name).", price=".$this->db->escape($price).", currency=".$this->db->escape($curr),", url=".$this->db->escape($url)." WHERE pid=".$this->db->escape($pid)." LIMIT 1"); } header('location: '.$this->session->userdata('current')); } The purpose of this code is to modify the properties (name, price, currency, url) of a row in the 'items' table (priary key is pid). However, for some reason, allowing this function to run once modifies the name, price, currency and url of ALL entries in the table, regardless of their pid and of the LIMIT 1 thing I tacked on the end of the query. It's as if the last line of the query is being completely ignored. As if this wasn't strance enough, I replaced "$query = $this->db->query(" with an "echo" to see the SQL query being run, and it outputs a query much like I would expect: UPDATE items SET name='newname', price='newprice', currency='newcurrency', url='newurl' WHERE pid='10' LIMIT 1 Copy-pasting this into a MySQL window acts exactly as I want: it modifies the row with the selected pid. What is going on here???

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  • SharePoint Lists.asmx's UpdateListItems() returns too much data

    - by Philipp Schmid
    Is there a way to prevent the UpdateListItems() web service call in SharePoint's Lists.asmx endpoint from returning all of the fields of the newly created or updated list item? In our case an event handler attached to our custom list is adding some rather large field values which are turned to the client unnecessarily. Is there a way to tell it to only return the ID of the newly created (or updated) list item? For example, currently the web service returns something like this: <Results xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/"> <Result ID="1,Update"> <ErrorCode>0x00000000</ErrorCode> <z:row ows_ID="4" ows_Title="Title" ows_Modified="2003-06-19 20:31:21" ows_Created="2003-06-18 10:15:58" ows_Author="3;#User1_Display_Name" ows_Editor="7;#User2_Display_Name" ows_owshiddenversion="3" ows_Attachments="-1" ows__ModerationStatus="0" ows_LinkTitleNoMenu="Title" ows_LinkTitle="Title" ows_SelectTitle="4" ows_Order="400.000000000000" ows_GUID="{4962F024-BBA5-4A0B-9EC1-641B731ABFED}" ows_DateColumn="2003-09-04 00:00:00" ows_NumberColumn="791.00000000000000" xmlns:z="#RowsetSchema" /> </Result> ... </Results> where as I am looking for a trimmed response only containing for example the ows_ID attribute: <Results xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/"> <Result ID="1,Update"> <ErrorCode>0x00000000</ErrorCode> <z:row ows_ID="4" /> </Result> ... </Results> I have unsuccessfully looked for a resource that documents all of the valid attributes for both the <Batch> and <Method> tags in he updates XmlNode parameter of UpdateListItems() in the hope that I will find a way to specify the fields to return. A solution for WSS 3.0 would be preferable over an SP 2010-only solution.

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  • How to extend an existing Ruby on Rails CMS to host multiple sites?

    - by Andrew
    I am trying to build a CMS I can use to host multiple sites. I know I'm going to end up reinventing the wheel a million times with this project, so I'm thinking about extending an existing open source Ruby on Rails CMS to meet my needs. One of those needs is to be able to run multiple sites, while using only one code-base. That way, when there's an update I want to make, I can update it in one place, and the change is reflected on all of the sites. I think that this will be able to scale by running multiple instances of the application. I think that I can use the domain/subdomain to determine which data to display. For example, someone goes to subdomain1.mysite.com and the application looks in the database for the content for subdomain1. The problem I see is with most pre-built CMS solutions, they are only designed to host one site, including the one I want to use. So the database is structured to work with one site. However, I had the idea that I could overcome this by "creating a new database" for each site, then specifying which database to connect to based on the domain/subdomain as I mentioned above. I'm thinking of hosting this on Heroku, so I'm wondering what my options for this might be. I'm not very familiar with Amazon S3, or Amazon SimpleDB, but I feel like there's some sort of "cloud database" that would make this solution a lot more realistic, than creating a new MySQL database for each site. What do you think? Am I thinking about this the wrong way? What advice do you have to offer in this area?

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  • Why can't I create an abstract constructor on an abstract C# class?

    - by Anthony D
    I am creating an abstract class. I want each of my derived classes to be forced to implement a specific signature of constructor. As such, I did what I would have done has I wanted to force them to implement a method, I made an abstract one. public abstract class A { abstract A(int a, int b); } However I get a message saying the abstract modifier is invalid on this item. My goal was to force some code like this. public class B : A { public B(int a, int b) : base(a, b) { //Some other awesome code. } } This is all C# .NET code. Can anyone help me out? Update 1 I wanted to add some things. What I ended up with was this. private A() { } protected A(int a, int b) { //Code } That does what some folks are saying, default is private, and the class needs to implement a constructor. However that doesn't FORCE a constructor with the signature A(int a, int b). public abstract class A { protected abstract A(int a, int b) { } } Update 2 I should be clear, to work around this I made my default constructor private, and my other constructor protected. I am not really looking for a way to make my code work. I took care of that. I am looking to understand why C# does not let you do this.

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  • Sql Alchemy Duplicated Commit

    - by PythonWolf
    Good Morning i'm currently facing a problem in my Cherrypy application. Im my own custom session module , anyway when performing session.add() The exact same object gets updated Twice. cherrypy.request.SessionManager.user_data = user try: db_session.add(cherrypy.request.SessionManager) db_session.commit() Will Return 2011-06-21 09:16:48,991 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL BEGIN (implicit) 2011-06-21 09:16:49,015 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL SELECT ..... FROM "Clients_Users" WHERE "Clients_Users".username = %(username_1)s AND "Clients_Users".password = %(password_1)s LIMIT 1 OFFSET 0 2011-06-21 09:16:49,015 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL {'password_1': '123', 'username_1': u'1'} 2011-06-21 09:16:49,047 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL UPDATE "SYS_Sessions" SET user_data=%(user_data)s WHERE "SYS_Sessions".id = %(SYS_Sessions_id)s 2011-06-21 09:16:49,067 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL {'SYS_Sessions_id': 92L, 'user_data': } 2011-06-21 09:16:49,071 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL COMMIT 2011-06-21 09:16:49,093 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL BEGIN (implicit) 2011-06-21 09:16:49,095 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL UPDATE "SYS_Sessions" SET user_data=%(user_data)s WHERE "SYS_Sessions".id = %(SYS_Sessions_id)s 2011-06-21 09:16:49,095 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL {'SYS_Sessions_id': 92L, 'user_data': } 2011-06-21 09:16:49,108 INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...04cL COMMIT As Anyone seen this before ? P.S This doesn't happen in the rest of the modules i have made.

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  • Response time increasing (worsening) over time with consistent load

    - by NJ
    Ok. I know I don't have a lot of information. That is, essentially, the reason for my question. I am building a game using Flash/Flex and Rails on the back-end. Communication between the two is via WebORB. Here is what is happening. When I start the client an operation calls the server every 60 seconds (not much, right?) which results in two database SELECTS and an UPDATE and a resulting response to the client. This repeats every 60 seconds. I deployed a test version on heroku and NewRelic's RPM told me that response time degraded over time. One client with one task every 60 seconds. Over several hours the response time drifted from 150ms to over 900ms in response time. I have been able to reproduce this in my development environment (my Macbook Pro) so it isn't a problem on Heroku's side. I am not doing anything sophisticated (by design) in the server app. An action gets called, gets some data from the database, performs an AR update and then returns a response. No caching, etc. Any thoughts? Anyone? I'd really appreciate it.

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  • Consequent attribute calculations with a queuing system

    - by vrinek
    For all of the following assume these: rails v3.0 ruby v1.9 resque We have 3 models: Product belongs_to :sku, belongs_to :category Sku has_many :products, belongs_to :category Category has_many :products, has_many :skus When we update the product (let's say we disable it) we need to have some things happen to the relevant sku and category. The same is true for when a sku is updated. The proper way of achieving this is have an after_save on each model that triggers the other models' update events. example: products.each(&:disable!) # after_save triggers self.sku.products_updated # and self.category.products_updated (self is product) Now if we have 5000 products we are in for a treat. The same category might get updated hundreds of times and hog the database while doing so. We also have a nice queueing system, so the more realisting way of updating products would be products.each(&:queue_disable!) which would simply toss 5000 new tasks to the working queue. The problem of 5000 category updates still exists though. Is there a way to avoid all those updates on the db? How can we concatenate all the category.products_updated for each category in the queue?

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  • Symfony 2 - Updating a table based on newly inserted record in another table

    - by W00d5t0ck
    I'm trying to create a small forum application using Symfony 2 and Doctrine 2. My ForumTopic entity has a last_post field (oneToOne mapping). Now when I persist my new post with $em->persist($post); I want to update my ForumTopic entity so its last_post field would reference this new post. I have just realised that it cannot be done with a Doctrine postPersist Listener, so I decided to use a small hack, and tried: $em->persist($post); $em->flush(); $topic->setLastPost($post); $em->persist($post); $em->flush(); but it doesn't seem to update my topics table. I also took a look at http://docs.doctrine-project.org/projects/doctrine-orm/en/2.1/reference/working-with-associations.html#transitive-persistence-cascade-operations hoping it will solve the problem by adding cascade: [ 'persist' ] to my Topic.orm.yml file, but it didn't help, either. Could anyone point me to a solution or an example class? My ForumTopic is: FrontBundle\Entity\ForumTopic: type: entity table: forum_topics id: id: type: integer generator: strategy: AUTO fields: title: type: string(100) nullable: false slug: type: string(100) nullable: false created_at: type: datetime nullable: false updated_at: type: datetime nullable: true update_reason: type: text nullable: true oneToMany: posts: targetEntity: ForumPost mappedBy: topic manyToOne: created_by: targetEntity: User inversedBy: articles nullable: false updated_by: targetEntity: User nullable: true default: null topic_group: targetEntity: ForumTopicGroup inversedBy: topics nullable: false oneToOne: last_post: targetEntity: ForumPost nullable: true default: null cascade: [ persist ] uniqueConstraint: uniqueSlugByGroup: columns: [ topic_group, slug ] And my ForumPost is: FrontBundle\Entity\ForumPost: type: entity table: forum_posts id: id: type: integer generator: strategy: AUTO fields: created_at: type: datetime nullable: false updated_at: type: datetime nullable: true update_reason: type: string nullable: true text: type: text nullable: false manyToOne: created_by: targetEntity: User inversedBy: forum_posts nullable: false updated_by: targetEntity: User nullable: true default: null topic: targetEntity: ForumTopic inversedBy: posts

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  • PHP: Three item validation comparison

    - by DavidYell
    I have 3 featured product panels on the homepage, and I'm writing a CMS page for it. I'm trying to validate the items. They are selected via three <select> elements, featured1, featured2 and featured3. The default is <option value="0" selected>Select an element</option> I need to validate the $_POST to ensure that the user hasn't selected the same product for more than one of the panels. I have worked out that each $_POST needs to be $_POST['featuredN'] > 0 but I can't seem to find a logical way of processing the 7 potential outcomes. Using a logic table, where 1 is a set value. 1 2 3 ------- 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 If an item is 0, then I will not update it, but I want the user to be able to update a single item if needs be. I cannot find a logical way to see if the item is not 0, and then compare it to another item if that also is not 0. So far my colleague suggested, adding up the values. Which works to see if condition 1 0 0 0 is not met. I have a vague feeling that some form of recursive function might be in order, but I can't quite get my brain to help me on this one! So to the collective brain! :)

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  • How to get notified about changes of the history via history.pushState?

    - by Felix Kling
    So now that HTML5 introduces history.pushState to change the browsers history, websites start using this in combination with Ajax instead of changing the fragment identifier of the URL. Sadly that means that those calls cannot be detect anymore by onhashchange. My question is: Is there a reliable way (hack? ;)) to detect when a website uses history.pushState? The specification does not state anything about events that are raised (at least I couldn't find anything). I tried to create a facade and replaced window.history with my own JavaScript object, but it didn't have any effect at all. Further explanation: I'm developing a Firefox add-on that needs to detect these changes and act accordingly. I know there was a similar question a few days ago that asked whether listening to some DOM events would be efficient but I would rather not rely on that because these events can be generated for a lot of different reasons. Update: Here is a jsfiddle (use Firefox 4 or Chrome 8) that shows that onpopstate is not triggered when pushState is called (or am I doing something wrong? Feel free to improve it!). Update 2: Another (side) problem is that window.location is not updated when using pushState (but I read about this already here on SO I think).

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  • What's the best practice for handling system-specific information under version control?

    - by Joe
    I'm new to version control, so I apologize if there is a well-known solution to this. For this problem in particular, I'm using git, but I'm curious about how to deal with this for all version control systems. I'm developing a web application on a development server. I have defined the absolute path name to the web application (not the document root) in two places. On the production server, this path is different. I'm confused about how to deal with this. I could either: Reconfigure the development server to share the same path as the production Edit the two occurrences each time production is updated. I don't like #1 because I'd rather keep the application flexible for any future changes. I don't like #2 because if I start developing on a second development server with a third path, I would have to change this for every commit and update. What is the best way to handle this? I thought of: Using custom keywords and variable expansion (such as setting the property $PATH$ in the version control properties and having it expanded in all the files). Git doesn't support this because it would be a huge performance hit. Using post-update and pre-commit hooks. Possibly the likely solution for git, but every time I looked at the status, it would report the two files as being changed. Not really clean. Pulling the path from a config file outside of version control. Then I would have to have the config file in the same location on all servers. Might as well just have the same path to begin with. Is there an easy way to deal with this? Am I over thinking it?

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  • Logic: Best way to sample & count bytes of a 100MB+ file

    - by Jami
    Let's say I have this 170mb file (roughly 180 million bytes). What I need to do is to create a table that lists: all 4096 byte combinations found [column 'bytes'], and the number of times each byte combination appeared in it [column 'occurrences'] Assume two things: I can save data very fast, but I can update my saved data very slow. How should I sample the file and save the needed information? Here're some suggestions that are (extremely) slow: Go through each 4096 byte combinations in the file, save each data, but search the table first for existing combinations and update it's values. this is unbelievably slow Go through each 4096 byte combinations in the file, save until 1 million rows of data in a temporary table. Go through that table and fix the entries (combine repeating byte combinations), then copy to the big table. Repeat going through another 1 million rows of data and repeat the process. this is faster by a bit, but still unbelievably slow This is kind of like taking the statistics of the file. NOTE: I know that sampling the file can generate tons of data (around 22Gb from experience), and I know that any solution posted would take a bit of time to finish. I need the most efficient saving process

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  • One-to-many Associations Empty Columns Issue (Ext on Rails)

    - by Joe
    I'm playing with rewriting part of a web application in Rails + Ext. However, I'm having trouble getting an associated models' name to display in the grid view. I've been able to successfully convert several models and arrange the views nicely using tabs and Ext's layout helpers. However, I'm in the middle of setting up an association -- I've followed along with Jon Barket's tutorial on how to do this using Ext -- and I've made all the Rails and JS changes suggested (with appropriate name changes for my models,) the result being that the combo box is now being correctly populated with the names of the associated models, and changes are actually written correctly to database, BUT the data doesn't show up in the column, it's just empty. However, the correct data is there in the 'detail' view. Really just wondering if anyone else ran into this, or had any thoughts on what could be happening. Definitely willing to post code if requested; just note that (AFAIK) my changes follow the tutorial pretty closely. Thanks in advance! UPDATE: Alright, slight progress - kind of. I can get the associated model id # displaying properly -- just by modifying the column model slightly. But I can't get the virtual attribute displayed in the main table (in Jon's example it's country_name.) It still goes blank when I change the data source for that column from dataIndex: 'model[associated_model_id]' to dataIndex: 'virtual_attributes[associated_model_name]' ANOTHER UPDATE: Bump. Has NOBODY here tried integrating Ext with Rails?

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  • i got sql syntax error when i debug my application..

    - by newBie
    hi..i want to update my database using formatsqlparam..but when i debug it, it has error saying "Incorrect syntax near ','." this is my code: Dim sql2 As String = "update infoHotel set nameHotel = N" & FormatSqlParam(hotel) & _ ", knownAs1 = N" & FormatSqlParam(KnownAs(0)) & _ ", knownAs2 = N" & FormatSqlParam(KnownAs(1)) & _ ", knownAs3 = N" & FormatSqlParam(KnownAs(2)) & _ ", knownAs4 = N" & FormatSqlParam(KnownAs(3)) & _ ", streetAddress = N" & FormatSqlParam(StreetAddress) & _ ", locality = N" & FormatSqlParam(Locality) & _ ", postalCode = N" & FormatSqlParam(PostalCode) & _ ", country = N" & FormatSqlParam(Country) & _ ", addressFull = N" & FormatSqlParam(address) & _ ", tel = N" & FormatSqlParam(contact) & "," Dim objCommand3 As New SqlCommand(sql2, conn) objCommand3.ExecuteNonQuery() maybe i missing some syntax..but couldnt find where it is..hope somebody can help..thnks in advance..im using vb.net and sql

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  • how to seamlessly integrate subversion and git?

    - by mattv
    I'm looking for tips on how to seamlessly integrate subversion and git, for deploying web sites by a small team of web developers. We each have our own development versions of our sites on our local machines. We also have dev, staging, and live servers. As our team has grown, we haven't updated our revision control and deployment strategies accordingly. We had all been checking into the trunk of a shared Subversion repository. Both the dev & staging servers ran from a checkout of the trunk, so updating them involved running "svn update" while the live server ran as an export from trunk which required an "svn export" to get the latest code. In either case, we would often update just certain files by updating or exporting just those files or directories. That worked okay when there was just one or two developers. However, a big downside was that we couldn't point to an individual tag that represented what was currently on live at any given time. In keeping with corporate policy, we'd like to continue to use Subversion to store what we're now calling our "production branch," which will be what goes onto staging and live. However, we would like to use Git on our local and development sites. We especially like the idea of easier merges and being able to "cherry pick" updates that need to go live. We had initially planned on using git-svn, but it doesn't seem to work well in a shared environment such as our dev or staging servers. Anyone else doing something like this? What's the best way to make it work? Or are we making it more difficult than it should be?

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  • WPF: issue updating UI from background thread

    - by Ted Shaffer
    My code launches a background thread. The background thread makes changes and wants the UI in the main thread to update. The code that launches the thread then waits looks something like: Thread fThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(PerformSync)); fThread.IsBackground = true; fThread.Start(); fThread.Join(); MessageBox.Show("Synchronization complete"); When the background wants to update the UI, it sets a StatusMessage and calls the code below: static StatusMessage _statusMessage; public delegate void AddStatusDelegate(); private void AddStatus() { AddStatusDelegate methodForUIThread = delegate { _statusMessageList.Add(_statusMessage); }; this.Dispatcher.BeginInvoke(methodForUIThread, System.Windows.Threading.DispatcherPriority.Send); } _statusMessageList is an ObservableCollection that is the source for a ListBox. The AddStatus method is called but the code on the main thread never executes - that is, _statusMessage is not added to _statusMessageList while the thread is executing. However, once it is complete (fThread.Join() returns), all the stacked up calls on the main thread are executed. But, if I display a message box between the calls to fThread.Start() and fThread.Join(), then the status messages are updated properly. What do I need to change so that the code in the main thread executes (UI updates) while waiting for the thread to terminate? Thanks.

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  • Asynchronous SQL Operations

    - by Paul Hatcherian
    I've got a problem I'm not sure how best to solve. I have an application which updates a database in response to ad hoc requests. One request in particular is quite common. The request is an update that by itself is quite simple, but has some complex preconditions. For this request the business layer first requests a set of data from the data layer. The business logic layer evaluated the data from the database and parameters from the request, from this the action to be performed is determined, and the request's response message(s) are created. The business layer now executes the actual update command that is the purpose of the request. This last step is the problem, this command is dependent on the state of the database, which might have changed since the business logic ran. Locking down the data read in this operation across several round-trips to the database doesn't seem like a good idea either. Is there a 'best-practice' way to accomplish something like this? Thanks!

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  • Android lifecycle: Fill in data in activity in onStart() or onResume()?

    - by pjv
    Should you get data via a cursor and fill in the data on the screen, such as setting the window title, in onStart() or onResume()? onStart() would seem the logical place because after onStart() the Activity can already be displayed, albeit in the background. Notably I was having a problem with a managed dialog that made me rethink this. If the user rotates the screen while the dialog is still open, onCreateDialog() and onPrepareDialog() are called between onStart() and onResume(). If the dialog needs to be based on the data you need to have the data before onResume(). If I'm correct about onStart() then why does the Notepad example give a bad example by doing it in onResume()? See http://developer.android.com/resources/samples/NotePad/src/com/example/android/notepad/NoteEditor.html NoteEditor.java line 176 (title = mCursor.getString...). Also, what if my Activity launches another Actvity/Dialog that changes the data my cursor is tracking. Even in the simplest case, does that mean that I have to manually update my previous screen (a listener for a dialog in the main activity), or alternatively that I have to register a ContentObserver, since I'm no longer updating the data in onResume() (though I could update it twice of course)? I know it's a basic question but the dialog only recently, to my surprise, made me realize this.

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  • MySQL Datefields: duplicate or calculate?

    - by Konerak
    We are using a table with a structure imposed upon us more than 10 years ago. We are allowed to add columns, but urged not to change existing columns. Certain columns are meant to represent dates, but are put in different format. Amongst others: * CHAR(6): YYMMDD * CHAR(6): DDMMYY * CHAR(8): YYYYMMDD * CHAR(8): DDMMYYYY * DATE * DATETIME Since we now would like to do some more complex queries, using advanced date functions, my manager proposed to d*uplicate those problem columns* to a proper FORMATTED_OLDCOLUMNNAME column using a DATE or DATETIME format. Is this the way to go? Couldn't we just use the STR_TO_DATE function each time we accessed the columns? To avoid every query having to copy-paste the function, I could still work with a view or a stored procedure, but duplicating data to avoid recalculation sounds wrong. Solutions I see (I guess I prefer 2.2.1) 1. Physically duplicate columns 1.1 In the same table 1.1.1 Added by each script that does a modification (INSERT/UPDATE/REPLACE/...) 1.1.2 Maintained by a trigger on each modification 1.2 In a separate table 1.2.1 Added by each script that does a modification (INSERT/UPDATE/REPLACE/...) 1.2.2 Maintained by a trigger on each modification 2. On-demand transformation 2.1 Each query has to perform the transformation 2.1.1 Using copy-paste in the source code 2.1.2 Using a library 2.1.3 Using a STORED PROCEDURE 2.2 A view performs the transformation 2.2.1 A separate table replacing the entire table 2.2.2 A separate table just adding the date-fields for the primary keys Am I right to say it's better to recalculate than to store? And would a view be a good solution?

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  • WordPress update_post_meta values. Delete when empty or just test for ""?

    - by Scott B
    My function below, will take the values from my custom meta fields (after a post has been edited, and save or publish has been clicked) and update or insert the posted meta values. However, if the user leaves this field blank, I believe I want to delete the meta altogether (so I can test for its presence and display accordingly vs just checking for ""). For example, one of my meta options gives the user the ability to add a Custom title to their post, which when present, will populate the page's tag. However, if the field is left empty, I want to default the tag to the_title(), which is simply the Post title used to identify the page/post. Since I'm not deleting the meta on save, its always present after the first time a user enters something in there, get_post_meta($post-ID,'MyCustomTitle', true) is always true. Further, they cannot blank it out by clearing the title field and hitting publish. What am I missing in the save in order to clear the value to "" when the user clears the field? if ($_POST['MyCustomTitle']) { update_custom_meta($postID, $_POST['MyCustomTitle'], 'MyCustomTitle'); } function update_custom_meta($postID, $newvalue, $field_name) { // To create new meta if(!get_post_meta($postID, $field_name)){ add_post_meta($postID, $field_name, $newvalue); }else{ // or to update existing meta update_post_meta($postID, $field_name, $newvalue); } }

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  • Telerik ASP.NET MVC2 Grid Delete Function with compound key.

    - by Dani
    I have a grid with a compound key: OrderId, ItemID. When I update the grid - the public ActionResult UpdateItemGridAjax(int OrderID, string ItemID) Gets both values from the grid. When I delete a row I get only the first one: public ActionResult DeleteItemGridAjax(int OrderID, string ItemID) Why is it happens and how can I get the ItemId value of the deleted row ? Grid Definition: <%= Html.Telerik().Grid<ItemsInOrderPOCO>() .Name("ItemsInOrderGrid") .DataKeys(dataKeys => { dataKeys.Add(e => e.OrderID); dataKeys.Add(e => e.ItemID); }) .ToolBar(commands => commands.Insert()) .DataBinding(dataBinding => { dataBinding.Ajax() //Ajax binding .Select("SelectItemGridAjax", "Orders", new { OrderID = Model.myOrder.OrderID }) .Insert("InsertItemGridAjax", "Orders", new { OrderID = Model.myOrder.OrderID }) .Update("UpdateItemGridAjax", "Orders") .Delete("DeleteItemGridAjax", "Orders"); }) .Columns(c => { c.Bound(o => o.ItemID); c.Bound(o => o.OrderID).Column.Visible = false; c.Bound(o => o.ItemDescription); c.Bound(o => o.NumOfItems); c.Bound(o => o.CostOfItem); c.Bound(o => o.TotalCost); c.Bound(o => o.SupplyDate); c.Command(commands => { commands.Edit(); commands.Delete(); }).Width(180).Title("Upadte"); })

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  • Using "margin: 0 auto;" in Internet Explorer 8

    - by stusmith
    I'm in the process of doing some advance IE8 testing, and it seems that the old technique of using "margin: 0 auto;" doesn't work in all cases in IE8. The following piece of HTML gives a centered button in FF3, Opera, Safari, Chrome, IE7, and IE8 compat, but NOT in IE8 standard: <div style="height: 500px; width: 500px; background-color: Yellow;"> <input type="submit" style="display: block; margin: 0 auto;" /> </div> (As a work-around I can add an explicit width to the button). So the question is: which browsers are correct? Or is this one of those cases where the behaviour is undefined? (My thinking is that all the browsers are incorrect - shouldn't the button be 100% width if it's "display: block"?) UPDATE: I'm being a dunce. Since input isn't a block-level element, I should have just contained it within a div with "text-align: center". Having said that, for curiosity's sake, I'd still like to know whether the button should or shouldn't be centered in the example above. FOR THE BOUNTY: I know I'm doing odd things in the example, and as I point out in the update, I should have just aligned it center. For the bounty, I'd like references to the specs that answer: If I set "display: block", should the button be width 100%? Or is this undefined? Since the display is block, should "margin: 0 auto;" center the button, or not, or undefined?

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  • Too many columns to index - use mySQL Partitions?

    - by Christopher Padfield
    We have an application with a table with 20+ columns that are all searchable. Building indexes for all these columns would make write queries very slow; and any really useful index would often have to be across multiple columns increasing the number of indexes needed. However, for 95% of these searches, only a small subset of those rows need to be searched upon, and quite a small number - say 50,000 rows. So, we have considered using mySQL Partition tables - having a column that is basically isActive which is what we divide the two partitions by. Most search queries would be run with isActive=1. Most queries would then be run against the small 50,000 row partition and be quick without other indexes. Only issue is the rows where isActive=1 is not fixed; i.e. it's not based on the date of the row or anything fixed like that; we will need to update isActive based on use of the data in that row. As I understand it that is no problem though; the data would just be moved from one partition to another during the UPDATE query. We do have a PK on id for the row though; and I am not sure if this is a problem; the manual seemed to suggest the partition had to be based on any primary keys. This would be a huge problem for us because the primary key ID has no basis on whether the row isActive.

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  • Why is my long polling code for a notification system not updating in real time? PHP MYSQL

    - by tjones
    I am making a notification system similar to the red notification on facebook. It should update the number of messages sent to a user in real time. When the message MYSQL table is updated, it should instantly notify the user, but it does not. There does not seem to be an error inserting into MYSQL because on page refresh the notifications update just fine. I am essentially using code from this video tutorial: http://www.screenr.com/SNH (which updates in realtime if a data.txt file is changed, but it is not written for MYSQL like I am trying to do) Is there something wrong with the below code: **Javascript** <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ var timestamp = null; function waitForMsg(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "getData.php", data: "userid=" + userid, async: true, cache: false, success: function(data){ var json = eval('(' + data + ')'); if (json['msg'] != "") { $('.notification').fadeIn().html(json['msg']); } setTimeout('waitForMsg()',30000); }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown){ setTimeout('waitForMsg()',30000); } }); } waitForMsg(); </script> <body> <div class="notification"></div> **PHP*** <?php if ($_SERVER['REQUEST_METHOD'] == 'GET' ) { $userid = $_GET['userid']; include("config.php"); $sql="SELECT MAX(time) FROM notification WHERE userid='$userid'"; $result = mysql_query($sql); $row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result); $currentmodif = $row['MAX(time)']; $s="SELECT MAX(lasttimeread) FROM notificationsRead WHERE submittedby='$userid'"; $r = mysql_query($s); $rows = mysql_fetch_assoc($r); $lasttimeread = $rows['MAX(lasttimeread)']; while ($currentmodif <= $lasttimeread) { usleep(10000); clearstatcache(); $currentmodif = $row['MAX(time)']; } $response = array(); $response['msg'] = You have new messages; echo json_encode($response); } ?>

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  • Migrating Ajax web application to web socket

    - by Bastan
    Hi, I think i'm just missing a little detail that is preventing me from seeing the whole picture. I have a web application which use ajax request every x time to update client with new information or tasks. I also have a long running process on the server which is a java computation engine. I would like this engine to send update to the client. I am wondering how to migrate my web app to using websocket. Probably phpwebsocket or similar. Can my server 'decide' to send information to a specific client? It seems possible looking at the php-websocket. Can my java backend long process use the websocket server to send notification to a specific client. How? well I can say that my java app could use a class that could send over websocket instead of http. But how the websocket server knows to which client to send the 'info'. I am puzzle by all this. Any document that explain this in more details? It seems that the websocket could create an instance of my web application. Thanks

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