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• Eclipse PDE - Plug-in, Feature, and Product Versioning

  - by Michael

  I am having much confusion over the process of upgrading version numbers in dependent plug-ins, features, and products in a fairly large eclipse workspace. I have made API changes to java code residing in an existing plug-in and thus requires an increase of the Major part of the version identifier. This plug-in serves as a dependency to a given feature, where the feature is later included in a product. From the documentation at http://wiki.eclipse.org/Version_Numbering, I understand (for the most part) when the proper number should be increased on the containing plug-in itself. However, how would this Major version number change on the plug-in affect dependent, "down-the-line" items (e.g., features, products)? For example, assume we have the typical "Hello World" setup as follows: Plug-in: com.example.helloworld, version 1.0.0 Feature: com.example.helloworld.feature, version 1.0.0 Product: com.example.helloworld.product, version 1.0.0 If I were to make an API change in the plug-in, this would require a version update to be that of 2.0.0. What would then be the version of the feature, 1.1.0? The same question can be applied for the product level as well (e.g., if the feature is 1.1.0 OR 2.0.0, what is the product version number)? I'm sure this is quite the newbie question so I apologize for wasting anyone's time and effort. I have searched for this type of content but all I am finding is are examples showing how to develop a plug-in, feature, product, and update site for the first time. The only other content related to my search has been developing feature patches and have not touched on the versioning aspect as much as I would prefer. I am having difficulty coming into (for the first time) an Eclipse RCP / PDE environment and need to learn the proper way and / or best practices for making such versioning updates and how to best reflect this throughout other dependent projects in the workspace.

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• Wildcard subdomain .htaccess and Codeigniter

  - by Gautam

  Hi All, I am trying to create the proper .htaccess that would allow me to map as such: http://domain.com/ --> http://domain.com/home http://domain.com/whatever --> http://domain.com/home/whatever http://user.domain.com/ --> http://domain.com/user http://user.domain.com/whatever --> http://domain.com/user/whatever/ Here, someone would type in the above URLs, however internally, it would be redirecting as if it were the URL on the right. Also the subdomain would be dynamic (that is, http://user.domain.com isn't an actual subdomain but would be a .htaccess rewrite) Also /home is my default controller so no subdomain would internally force it to /home controller and any paths following it (as shown in #2 example above) would be the (catch-all) function within that controller. Like wise if a subdomain is passed it would get passed as a (catch-all) controller along with any (catch-all) functions for it (as shown in #4 example above) Hopefully I'm not asking much here but I can't seem to figure out the proper .htaccess or routing rules (in Codeigniter) for this. httpd.conf and hosts are setup just fine. EDIT #1 Here's my .htaccess that is coming close but is messing up at some point: RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([a-z0-9-]+).domain [NC] RewriteRule (.*) index.php/%1/$1 [QSA] RewriteCond $1 !^(index\.php|images|robots\.txt) RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /index.php/$1 [L,QSA] With the above, when I visit: http://test.domain/abc/123 this is what I notice in $_SERVER var (I've removed some of the fields): Array ( [REDIRECT_STATUS] => 200 [SERVER_NAME] => test.domain [REDIRECT_URL] => /abc/123 [QUERY_STRING] => [REQUEST_URI] => /abc/123 [SCRIPT_NAME] => /index.php [PATH_INFO] => /test/abc/123 [PATH_TRANSLATED] => redirect:\index.php\test\test\abc\123\abc\123 [PHP_SELF] => /index.php/test/abc/123 ) You can see the PATH_TRANSLATED is not properly being formed and I think that may be screwing things up?

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• PHP $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] vs. $_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'], am I understanding the man pages correctly?

  - by Jeff

  I did a lot of searching and also read the PHP $_SERVER man page. Do I have this right regarding which to use for my PHP scripts for simple link definitions used throughout my site? $_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'] is based on your web servers' config file (Apache2 in my case), and varies depending on a few directives: (1) VirtualHost, (2) ServerName, (3) UseCanonicalName, etc. $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] is based on the request from the client. Therefore, it would seem to me that the proper one to use in order to make my scripts as compatible as possible would be $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST']. Is this assumption correct? Followup comments: I guess I got a little paranoid after reading this article and noting that someone said "they wouldn't trust any of the $_SERVER vars": http://markjaquith.wordpress.com/2009/09/21/php-server-vars-not-safe-in-forms-or-links/ and also: http://www.php.net/manual/en/reserved.variables.server.php (comment: Vladimir Kornea 14-Mar-2009 01:06) Apparently the discussion is mainly about $_SERVER['PHP_SELF'] and why you shouldn't use it in the form action attribute without proper escaping to prevent XSS attacks. My conclusion about my original question above is that it is "safe" to use $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] for all links on a site without having to worry about XSS attacks, even when used in forms. Please correct me if I'm wrong.

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• Why use INCLUDE in a SQL index

  - by StarLite

  I recently encountered an index in a database I maintain that was of the form: CREATE INDEX [IX_Foo] ON [Foo] ( Id ASC ) INCLUDE ( SubId ) In this particular case, the performance problem that I was encountering (a slow SELECT filtering on both Id and SubId) could be fixed by simply moving the SubId column into the index proper rather than as an included column. This got me thinking however that I don't understand the reasoning behind included columns at all, when generally, they could simply be a part of the index itself. Even if I don't particularly care about the items being in the index itself is there any downside to having column in the index rather than simply being included. After some research, I am aware that there are a number of restrictions on what can go into an indexed column (maximum width of the index, and some column types that can't be indexed like 'image'). In these cases I can see that you would be forced to include the column in the index page data. The only thing I can think of is that if there are updates on SubId, the row will not need to be relocated if the column is included (though the value in the index would need to be changed). Is there something else that I'm missing? I'm considering going through the other indexes in the database and shifting included columns in the index proper where possible. Would this be a mistake? I'm primarily interested in MS SQL Server, but information on other DB engines is welcome also.

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• IntegrityError: foreign key violation upon delete

  - by Lukasz Korzybski

  I have Order and Shipment model. Shipment has a foreign key to Order. class Order(...): ... class Shipment() order = m.ForeignKey('Order') ... Now in one of my views I want do delete order object along with all related objects. So I invoke order.delete(). I have Django 1.0.4, PostgreSQL 8.4 and I use transaction middleware, so whole request is enclosed in single transaction. The problem is that upon order.delete() I get: ... File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/__init__.py", line 28, in _commit return self.connection.commit() IntegrityError: update or delete on table "main_order" violates foreign key constraint "main_shipment_order_id_fkey" on table "main_shipment" DETAIL: Key (id)=(45) is still referenced from table "main_shipment". I checked in connection.queries that proper queries are executed in proper order. First shipment is deleted, after that django executes delete on order row: {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_shipment" WHERE "id" IN (17)'}, {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_order" WHERE "id" IN (45)'} Foreign key have ON DELETE NO ACTION (default) and is initially deferred. I don't know why I get foreign key constraint violation. I also tried to register pre_delete signal and manually delete shipment objects before delete on order is called, but it resulted in the same error. I can change ON DELETE behaviour for this key in Postgres but it would be just a hack, I wonder if anyone has a better idea what's going on here. There is also a small detail, my Order model inherits from Cart model, so it actually doesn't have id field but cart_ptr_id and after DELETE on order is executed there is also DELETE on cart, but it seems unrelated? to the shipment-order problem so I simplified it in the example.

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• Book recommendation for Silverlight

  - by Mathias Weyel

  Hi there, yet another question for recommendations for a book on Silverlight. I look for a book that covers the UI and styling and, if possible, custom drawing and graphics. Very important for me is the style of the book - it should focus on the actual programming and not on where to click in Visual Studio to get things done. Let's take a fictional example for proper usage of the DataGrid control: Bad: To use the data grid, drag it from the toolbox onto the control. You can change the background color by clicking on “Background” in the properties. To define custom columns, click on columns and edit them in the configuration window that opens. Good: To use the DataGrid, you need a reference to the blah dll and declare the namespace in the XAML like this (blah), the data model should be like blah and if you want to define how the columns look like, you need to define them like this (more blah). And if you want to do this in C# because you for whatever reason aren’t able or willing to use XAML, this would look like blah. Bonus points for coverage of topics like how to manage resources (images/fonts) and internationalization. There are quite some snippets on how to do that on the internet but somehow each of them looks like they work but are not a proper way of doing it. cheers Mathias

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• vb.net documentation and exception question

  - by dcp

  Let's say I have this sub in vb.net: ''' <summary> ''' Validates that <paramref name="value"/> is not <c>null</c>. ''' </summary> ''' ''' <param name="value">The object to validate.</param> ''' ''' <param name="name">The variable name of the object.</param> ''' ''' <exception cref="ArgumentNullException">If <paramref name="value"/> is <c>null</c>.</exception> Sub ValidateNotNull(ByVal value As Object, ByVal name As String) If value Is Nothing Then Throw New ArgumentNullException(name, String.Format("{0} cannot be null.", name)) End If End Sub My question is, is it proper to call this ValidateNotNull (which is what I would call it in C#) or should I stick with VB terminology and call it ValidateNotNothing instead? Also, in my exception, is it proper to say "cannot be null", or would it be better to say "cannot be Nothing"? I sort of like the way I have it, but since this is VB, maybe I should use Nothing. But since the exception itself is called ArgumentNullException, it feels weird to make the message say "cannot be Nothing". Anyway, I guess it's pretty nitkpicky, just wondered what you folks thought.

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• Splitting build cross the network?

  - by Dandikas

  Is there a known solution for splitting build process cross the network machines? Use case: We are an average software development company. We own around 50 development workstations (Quad Core 2.66Ghz, 4 GB ram, 200 GB raid). No need to tell that at any single moment not every machine is loaded to the max. There are 5 to 15 projects running simultaneously at any single moment. Obviously all of them are continuously build on server, than deployed to proper environment. Single project build is taking from 3 to 15 minutes. The problem: Whenever we build 5 projects in a row the last project is going to be ready after around 25 - 50 minutes. Building in parallel does not solve the problem (build is only a part of the game, than you need to deploy, run tests etc.) YES the correct solution is to add another build server, but "That involves buying new Expensive hardware, and we already spent a lot!". Yea, right(damn them)! Anyway. What about splitting build among developers workstation? Lets say whenever we need to build project "A" we check 5 workstations and start build on all that are not overloaded. The build can be canceled by a developer if he really needs all the power of his machine as long as there is at least 1 machine that is still building. After build is finished deployment can be performed to a proper environment (hosted on some server, not on workstation :) ). The bigger the company the more this makes sense to me. Anyone tried something like this? Are there any good practices? Any helpful software? (90% of the projects are .net C#)

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• Memory leak, again!

  - by Dave

  A couple of weeks ago I was having trouble with memory leaks associated with a ContextMenuStrip. That problem was fixed. See that question here Now I'm having similar issues with ToolStrip controls. As in the previous problem, I'm creating a large number of UserControls and adding them to a FlowLayoutPanel. Each control creates a ToolStrip for itself in its constructor. When a control is removed from the FlowLayoutPanel (the only reference to the control), it seems memory for the ToolStrip is not being released. However when I comment out the code that creates the ToolStrip the memory leak doesn't happen. Is this the same sort of issue as the previous one - I need to set the ToolStrip to null? I don't see how that could be since this time the control is creating the strip itself, and all the button events etc are handled inside it. So shouldn't everything be GC'd when the control is no longer referenced? EDIT: As to the comments, the thing I don't understand is originally I was "making" my own toolstrip out of a panel and some labels. The labels were used as buttons. No memory leaks occurred this way. The only thing I've changed is using a proper ToolStrip with proper buttons in place of the panel, but all the event handlers are wired the same way. So why is it now leaking memory?

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• JUnit confusion: use 'extend Testcase' or '@Test' ?

  - by Rabarberski

  I've found the proper use (or at least the documentation) of JUnit very confusing. This question serves both as a future reference and as a real question. If I've understood correctly, there are two main approaches to create and run a JUnit test: Approach A: create a class that extends TestCase, and start test methods with the word test. When running the class as a JUnit Test (in Eclipse), all methods starting with the word test are automatically run. import junit.framework.TestCase; public class DummyTestA extends TestCase { public void testSum() { int a = 5; int b = 10; int result = a + b; assertEquals(15, result); } } Approach B: create a 'normal' class and prepend a @Test annotation to the method. Note that you do NOT have to start the method with the word test. import org.junit.*; import static org.junit.Assert.*; public class DummyTestB { @Test public void Sum() { int a = 5; int b = 10; int result = a + b; assertEquals(15, result); } } Mixing the two seems not to be a good idea, see e.g. this stackoverflow question: Now, my questions(s): What is the preferred approach, or when would you use one instead of the other? Approach B allows for testing for exceptions by extending the @Test annotation like in @Test(expected = ArithmeticException.class). But how do you test for exceptions when using approach A? When using approach A, you can group a number of test classes in a test suite. TestSuite suite = new TestSuite("All tests");<br/> suite.addTestSuite(DummyTestA.class); suite.addTestSuite(DummyTestAbis.class);` But this can't be used with approach B (since each testclass should subclass TestCase). What is the proper way to group tests for approach B?

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• Aspect-Oriented Programming in OOP world - breaking rules ?

  - by Maksim Kondratyuk

  Hi 2 all! When I worked on asp.net mvc web site project, I investigated different approaches for validation. Some of them were DataAnotation validation and Validation Block. They use attributes for setting up rules for validation. Like this: [Required] public string Name {get;set;} I was confused how this approach combines with SRP (single responsibilty principle) from OOP world. Also I don't like any business logic in business objects, I prefer "poor business objects" model, but when I decorate my business objects with validation attributes for real requirements, they become ugly (Has a lot of attributes / with localization logic and so on). Idea with attributes realy simple, but in my opinion the validation decoration should be separated from object. I'm not sure is the approach to separate validation rules to xml files or to another objects, maybe it is a solution. Another bad side of AOP - problems with unit testin such code. When I decorated some controller actions with custom attributes for example to import/export TempData between actions or initialize some required services I can't to write proper unit test for testing this actions. Do you think that attributes don't break srp or you just disregard this and think that it's simplest , is not worst way ? P.S. I read some likes articles and discussions and I just want to put things in proper order. P.P.S. sorry for my "fluent" english :=)

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• How to use symbols/punctuation characters in discriminated unions

  - by user343550

  I'm trying to create a discriminated union for part of speech tags and other labels returned by a natural language parser. It's common to use either strings or enums for these in C#/Java, but discriminated unions seem more appropriate in F# because these are distinct, read-only values. In the language reference, I found that this symbol ``...`` can be used to delimit keywords/reserved words. This works for type ArgumentType = | A0 // subject | A1 // indirect object | A2 // direct object | A3 // | A4 // | A5 // | AA // | ``AM-ADV`` However, the tags contain symbols like $, e.g. type PosTag = | CC // Coordinating conjunction | CD // Cardinal Number | DT // Determiner | EX // Existential there | FW // Foreign Word | IN // Preposision or subordinating conjunction | JJ // Adjective | JJR // Adjective, comparative | JJS // Adjective, superlative | LS // List Item Marker | MD // Modal | NN // Noun, singular or mass | NNP // Proper Noun, singular | NNPS // Proper Noun, plural | NNS // Noun, plural | PDT // Predeterminer | POS // Possessive Ending | PRP // Personal Pronoun | PRP$ //$ Possessive Pronoun | RB // Adverb | RBR // Adverb, comparative | RBS // Adverb, superlative | RP // Particle | SYM // Symbol | TO // to | UH // Interjection | VB // Verb, base form | VBD // Verb, past tense | VBG // Verb, gerund or persent participle | VBN // Verb, past participle | VBP // Verb, non-3rd person singular present | VBZ // Verb, 3rd person singular present | WDT // Wh-determiner | WP // Wh-pronoun | WP$ //$ Possessive wh-pronoun | WRB // Wh-adverb | ``#`` | ``$`` | ``''`` | ``(`` | ``)`` | ``,`` | ``.`` | ``:`` | `` //not sure how to escape/delimit this ``...`` isn't working for WP$ or symbols like ( Also, I have the interesting problem that the parser returns `` as a meaningful symbol, so I need to escape it as well. Is there some other way to do this, or is this just not possible with a discriminated union? Right now I'm getting errors like Invalid namespace, module, type or union case name Discriminated union cases and exception labels must be uppercase identifiers I suppose I could somehow override toString for these goofy cases and replace the symbols with some alphanumeric equivalent?

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• Is extending a base class with non-virtual destructor dangerous in C++

  - by Akusete

  Take the following code class A { }; class B : public A { }; class C : public A { int x; }; int main (int argc, char** argv) { A* b = new B(); A* c = new C(); //in both cases, only ~A() is called, not ~B() or ~C() delete b; //is this ok? delete c; //does this line leak memory? return 0; } when calling delete on a class with a non-virtual destructor with member functions (like class C), can the memory allocator tell what the proper size of the object is? If not, is memory leaked? Secondly, if the class has no member functions, and no explicit destructor behaviour (like class B), is everything ok? I ask this because I wanted to create a class to extend std::string, (which I know is not recommended, but for the sake of the discussion just bear with it), and overload the +=,+ operator. -Weffc++ gives me a warning because std::string has a non virtual destructor, but does it matter if the sub-class has no members and does not need to do anything in its destructor? -- FYI the += overload was to do proper file path formatting, so the path class could be used like class path : public std::string { //... overload, +=, + //... add last_path_component, remove_path_component, ext, etc... }; path foo = "/some/file/path"; foo = foo + "filename.txt"; //and so on... I just wanted to make sure someone doing this path* foo = new path(); std::string* bar = foo; delete bar; would not cause any problems with memory allocation

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• Is there a good way to execute MySQL statements atomically via JDBC?

  - by javanix

  Suppose I have a table that contains valid data. I would like to modify this data in some way, but I'd like to make sure that if any errors occur with the modification, the table isn't changed and the method returns something to that effect. For instance, (this is kind of a dumb example, but it illustrates the point so bear with me) suppose I want to edit all the entries in a "name" column so that they are properly capitalized. For some reason, I want either ALL of the names to have proper capitalization, or NONE of them to have proper capitalization (and the starting state of the table is that NONE of them do). Is there an already-implemented way to run a batch update on the table and be assured that, if any one of the updates fails, all changes are rolled back and the table remains unchanged? I can think of a few ways to do this by hand (though suggestions are welcomed), but it'd be nice if there was some method I could use that would function this way. I looked at the java.sql.statement.executeBatch() command, but I'm not convinced by the documentation that my table wouldn't be changed if it failed in some manner.

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• codegen:nullValue vs msprop:nullValue

  - by Ken

  Ok, I have datasets that I created way back in 1.1 framework to which we used codegen:nullValue within the XSD to handle null values. However if I open one of these datasets with vs 2005 (i.e. 2.0 framework) and add a column, it removes the codegen setting from the entire xsd but adds in msprop:nullValue However, unlike previous years, I noticed this time the proper property code was NOT over riden from returning the null value specified in codegen as it was doing in the past. Meaning the msprop appears to be creating the proper code behind the scenes (See example). Anyone know of any other differnces? Should I be concerned with deploying a new xsd, WITHOUT the codegen code but instead with the msprop xml? Example: Original creates _ Public Property ParentID() As Integer Get If Me.IsParentIDNull Then Return -1 Else Return CType(Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn),Integer) End If End Get Set Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn) = value End Set End Property New creates _ Public Property ParentID() As Integer Get If Me.IsParentIDNull Then Return -1 Else Return CType(Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn),Integer) End If End Get Set Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn) = value End Set End Property BUT is there anything else that might be occuring that I am NOT seeing thus MAKING me re-enter all the codegen settings? THANKS!

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• How to call different methods from single webservices class

  - by pointer

  I have a following RESTful webservice, I have two methods for http get. One function signs in and other function signs out a user from an application. Following is the code: import javax.ws.rs.core.Context; import javax.ws.rs.core.UriInfo; import javax.ws.rs.PathParam; import javax.ws.rs.Consumes; import javax.ws.rs.PUT; import javax.ws.rs.Path; import javax.ws.rs.GET; import javax.ws.rs.POST; import javax.ws.rs.Produces; import javax.ws.rs.QueryParam; /** * REST Web Service * * @author Pointer */ @Path("generic") public class GenericResource { @Context private UriInfo context; /** * Creates a new instance of GenericResource */ public GenericResource() { } /** * Retrieves representation of an instance of * com.ef.apps.xmpp.ws.GenericResource * * @return an instance of java.lang.String */ @GET @Produces("text/html") public String SignIn(@QueryParam("username") String username, @QueryParam("password") String password, @QueryParam("extension") String extension) { //TODO return proper representation object return "Credentials " + username + " : " + password + " : " + extension; } @GET @Produces("text/html") public String SignOut(@QueryParam("username") String username, @QueryParam("password") String password, @QueryParam("extension") String extension) { //TODO return proper representation object return "Credentials " + username + " : " + password + " : " + extension; } } Now, where would I specify that which function I want to call for http get?

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• Return value from Object match

  - by Hito_kun

  I'm, by no means, JS fluent, so forgive me if im asking for some really basic stuff, but I've not being able to find a proper answer to my question. Im writting my first Node.js (plus Extra Framework and Socket.io) app and Im having some fun setting up the server side of a FB-like messenger (surprise!!!). So, let's say I have this data structure to store online users(This is a JSON Array, but I'm not sure it is the best way to do it or should I go with Javascript Objects): [ { "site": 45, "users": [ { "idUser": 5, "idSocket": "qwe87r7w8qwe", "name": "Carlos Ray Norris" }, { "idUser": 6, "idSocket": "v8d9d0fgfs7d", "name": "John Connor" } ] }, { "site": 48, "users": [ { "idUser": 22, "idSocket": "qwe87r7w8qwe", "name": "David Bowie" }, { "idUser": 23, "idSocket": "v8d9d0fgfs7d", "name": "Barack H. Obama" } ] } ] What I want to do is to search in the array for x value given y. In this case, retrieving the idSocket knowing the idUser WITHOUT having to run through the array values. So I have basically 2 questions: first, what would be the proper way to store users online? and secondly, how to find values matching with the values I already know (find the idSocket that has a given idUser). I would like a pure JS approach(or using some of the tools given by Node, Socket.io or Express), but if that's not possible then I can look for some JQuery.

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• resizing images with imagemagick via shell script

  - by jml

  Hi there, I don't really know that much about bash scripts OR imagemagick, but I am attempting to create a script in which you can give some sort of regexp matching pattern for a list of images and then process those into new files that have a given filename prefix. for example given the following dir listing: allfiles01.jpg allfiles02.jpg allfiles03.jpg i would like to call the script like so: ./resisemany.sh allfiles*.jpg 30 newnames*.jpg the end result of this would be that you get a bunch of new files with newnames, the numbers match up, so far what i have is: IMAGELIST=$1 RESIEZFACTOR=$2 NUMIMGS=length($IMAGELIST) for(i=0; i<NUMIMGS; i++) convert $IMAGELIST[i] -filter bessel -resize . RESIZEFACTOR . % myfile.JPG Thanks for any help... The parts that I obviously need help with are 1. how to give a bash script matching criteria that it understands 2. how to use the $2 without having it match the 2nd item in the image list 3. how to get the length of the image list 4. how to create a proper for loop in such a case 5. how to do proper text replacement for a shell command whereby you are appending items as i allude to. jml

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• Python: Convert format string to regular expression

  - by miracle2k

  The users of my app can configure the layout of certain files via a format string. For example, the config value the user specifies might be: layout = '%(group)s/foo-%(locale)s/file.txt' I now need to find all such files that already exist. This seems easy enough using the glob module: glob_pattern = layout % {'group': '*', 'locale': '*'} glob.glob(glob_pattern) However, now comes the hard part: Given the list of glob results, I need to get all those filename-parts that matched a given placeholder, for example all the different "locale" values. I thought I would generate a regular expression for the format string that I could then match against the list of glob results (or then possibly skipping glob and doing all the matching myself). But I can't find a nice way to create the regex with both the proper group captures, and escaping the rest of the input. For example, this might give me a regex that matches the locales: regex = layout % {'group': '.*', 'locale': (.*)} But to be sure the regex is valid, I need to pass it through re.escape(), which then also escapes the regex syntax I have just inserted. Calling re.escape() first ruins the format string. I know there's fnmatch.translate(), which would even give me a regex - but not one that returns the proper groups. Is there a good way to do this, without a hack like replacing the placeholders with a regex-safe unique value etc.? Is there possibly some way (a third party library perhaps?) that allows dissecting a format string in a more flexible way, for example splitting the string at the placeholder locations?

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• Two part question about submitting bluetooth-enabled apps for the iPhone

  - by Kyle

  I have a couple questions about submitting blue-tooth enabled apps on the iPhone. I want to first say that bluetooth is merely an option in the application. The application does not completely rely on bluetooth as there are many modes the user can go in. First, do they require you to have the "peer-peer" key set in UIRequiredDeviceCapabilities even if bluetooth interface options can be disabled or hidden for non-bluetooth enabled devices? Basically, it's just an OPTION in the game and there are many other modes the player can play.. Does Apple not allow you to do that? I'm just curious, because it seems like something they would do. Adding to that, how do you check for it's functionality at runtime? In essence, how do you check UIRequiredDeviceCapabilities at runtime. I'm aware of checking iPhone device types, so would that be a proper way of going about it? I'm also sort of unaware which devices can run bluetooth gamekit, there doesn't seem to be a proper reference at the SDK site, or I'm unable to find it. Thanks for reading! [edit] I can confirm the existance of somebody rejected for submitting a bluetooth enabled app which didn't work on a iPhone 2G.. Of course, they didn't say if that was the MAIN function of the app, though.

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• Sending buffered images between Java client and Twisted Python socket server

  - by PattimusPrime

  I have a server-side function that draws an image with the Python Imaging Library. The Java client requests an image, which is returned via socket and converted to a BufferedImage. I prefix the data with the size of the image to be sent, followed by a CR. I then read this number of bytes from the socket input stream and attempt to use ImageIO to convert to a BufferedImage. In abbreviated code for the client: public String writeAndReadSocket(String request) { // Write text to the socket BufferedWriter bufferedWriter = new BufferedWriter(new OutputStreamWriter(socket.getOutputStream())); bufferedWriter.write(request); bufferedWriter.flush(); // Read text from the socket BufferedReader bufferedReader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(socket.getInputStream())); // Read the prefixed size int size = Integer.parseInt(bufferedReader.readLine()); // Get that many bytes from the stream char[] buf = new char[size]; bufferedReader.read(buf, 0, size); return new String(buf); } public BufferedImage stringToBufferedImage(String imageBytes) { return ImageIO.read(new ByteArrayInputStream(s.getBytes())); } and the server: # Twisted server code here # The analog of the following method is called with the proper client # request and the result is written to the socket. def worker_thread(): img = draw_function() buf = StringIO.StringIO() img.save(buf, format="PNG") img_string = buf.getvalue() return "%i\r%s" % (sys.getsizeof(img_string), img_string) This works for sending and receiving Strings, but image conversion (usually) fails. I'm trying to understand why the images are not being read properly. My best guess is that the client is not reading the proper number of bytes, but I honestly don't know why that would be the case. Side notes: I realize that the char[]-to-String-to-bytes-to-BufferedImage Java logic is roundabout, but reading the bytestream directly produces the same errors. I have a version of this working where the client socket isn't persistent, ie. the request is processed and the connection is dropped. That version works fine, as I don't need to care about the image size, but I want to learn why the proposed approach doesn't work.

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• Django IntegrityError: foreign key violation upon delete

  - by Lukasz Korzybski

  I have Order and Shipment model. Shipment has a foreign key to Order. class Order(...): ... class Shipment() order = m.ForeignKey('Order') ... Now in one of my views I want do delete order object along with all related objects. So I invoke order.delete(). I have Django 1.0.4, PostgreSQL 8.4 and I use transaction middleware, so whole request is enclosed in single transaction. The problem is that upon order.delete() I get: ... File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/__init__.py", line 28, in _commit return self.connection.commit() IntegrityError: update or delete on table "main_order" violates foreign key constraint "main_shipment_order_id_fkey" on table "main_shipment" DETAIL: Key (id)=(45) is still referenced from table "main_shipment". I checked in connection.queries that proper queries are executed in proper order. First shipment is deleted, after that django executes delete on order row: {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_shipment" WHERE "id" IN (17)'}, {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_order" WHERE "id" IN (45)'} Foreign key have ON DELETE NO ACTION (default) and is initially deferred. I don't know why I get foreign key constraint violation. I also tried to register pre_delete signal and manually delete shipment objects before delete on order is called, but it resulted in the same error. I can change ON DELETE behaviour for this key in Postgres but it would be just a hack, I wonder if anyone has a better idea what's going on here. There is also a small detail, my Order model inherits from Cart model, so it actually doesn't have id field but cart_ptr_id and after DELETE on order is executed there is also DELETE on cart, but it seems unrelated? to the shipment-order problem so I simplified it in the example.

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• Twitter bootstrap modal loads wrong remote data

  - by Victor S

  I'm using Twitter Bootstrap modal featurs and loading data from remote locations. I'm providing the remote url for a set of thumbnails with the hope that once the thumbnail is clicked, the appropriate data (a large version of the image) is displayed. I'm using the html declarative style to define the remote urls and all the features of the modal. What I find is that Twitter bootstrap modal loads first remote url then does not display subsequent remote data, (although a request to the proper url is made in Chrome) but displays first loaded data always. How do I get it to show the proper data? View: #gallery-navigation %ul - @profile.background_images.each do |image| %li = link_to image_tag(image.background_image.url(:thumb)), remote_image_path(image.id), :role => "button", :data => {:toggle => "modal", :target => "#image-modal", :remote => remote_image_path(image.id)}, :id => "image-modal" / Modal #image-modal.modal.hide.fade(role="dialog" aria-hidden="true" data-backdrop="true") .modal-body Controller: def remote_image @image = current_user.profile.background_images.find(params[:image_id]) respond_to do |format| format.html { render :partial => "remote_image", :locals => { :image => @image } } end end

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• Fastest inline-assembly spinlock

  - by sigvardsen

  I'm writing a multithreaded application in c++, where performance is critical. I need to use a lot of locking while copying small structures between threads, for this I have chosen to use spinlocks. I have done some research and speed testing on this and I found that most implementations are roughly equally fast: Microsofts CRITICAL_SECTION, with SpinCount set to 1000, scores about 140 time units Implementing this algorithm with Microsofts InterlockedCompareExchange scores about 95 time units Ive also tried to use some inline assembly with __asm {} using something like this code and it scores about 70 time units, but I am not sure that a proper memory barrier has been created. Edit: The times given here are the time it takes for 2 threads to lock and unlock the spinlock 1,000,000 times. I know this isn't a lot of difference but as a spinlock is a heavily used object, one would think that programmers would have agreed on the fastest possible way to make a spinlock. Googling it leads to many different approaches however. I would think this aforementioned method would be the fastest if implemented using inline assembly and using the instruction CMPXCHG8B instead of comparing 32bit registers. Furthermore memory barriers must be taken into account, this could be done by LOCK CMPXHG8B (I think?), which guarantees "exclusive rights" to the shared memory between cores. At last [some suggests] that for busy waits should be accompanied by NOP:REP that would enable Hyper-threading processors to switch to another thread, but I am not sure whether this is true or not? From my performance-test of different spinlocks, it is seen that there is not much difference, but for purely academic purpose I would like to know which one is fastest. However as I have extremely limited experience in the assembly-language and with memory barriers, I would be happy if someone could write the assembly code for the last example I provided with LOCK CMPXCHG8B and proper memory barriers in the following template: __asm { spin_lock: ;locking code. spin_unlock: ;unlocking code. }

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• How to resolve the only ImagePicker control view in landscap mode and whole application in portrait mode?

  - by Wolvorin

  I have tried almost all the answers during last two days provided by Google and SO but no luck :( What I want is my whole application is in portrait mode only. And it working fine in ios 6+. The only support required at now. But the problem is I need to launch UIImagePickerViewController with image source type camera in only landscap mode. What I tried till now is : (1) I try to create one category for UIImagePickerController for orientation. -(BOOL)shouldAutorotate { return NO; } -(NSUInteger)supportedInterfaceOrientations { return UIInterfaceOrientationMaskLandscape; } - (UIInterfaceOrientation)preferredInterfaceOrientationForPresentation { return UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeLeft; } Like this. But the camera view is not proper aligned. It just follows the orientation of device with some +/- 90 angle but not what I required. Even the button of the camera shown by camera view as camera control is also follows the camera view, ie. the view is rotated to 90 anti clock vise and stays to that way. Is there any way to use the camera with proper alignment? or have to use other framework to work with it? Please help me. I stuck with it for last two days.

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