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  • For a .NET winforms datagridview I would like a combobox column to have a different set of values for each row.

    - by Seth Spearman
    Hello, I have a DataGridView that I am binding to a POCO. I have the databinding working fine. However, I have added a combobox column that I want to be different for each row. Specifically, I have a grid of purchased items, some of which have sizes (like Adult XL, Adult L) and other items are not sized (like Car Magnet.) So essentially what I want to change is the DATA SOURCE for a combobox column in the data grid. Can that be done? What event can I hook into that would allow me to change properties of certain columns FOR EACH ROW? An acceptable alternative is to change a property when the user clicks or tabs into the row. What event is that? Seth EDIT I need more help with this question. With Triduses help I am SO close but I need a bit more information. First, per the question, is the CellFormatting event really the best/only event for changing the DataSource for a combo box column. I ask because I am doing something rather resource/data intensive, not merely formatting the cell. Second, the cellformatting event is being called just by having the mouse hover over the cell. I tried to set the FormattingApplied property inside my if-block and then I check for it in the if- test but that is returning a weird error message. My ideal situation is that I would apply change the data source for the combo box once for each row and then be done with it. Finally, in order to set the data source of the combobox colunm I have to be able to cast the Cell inside my if block to a type of DataGridViewComboBoxColumn so that I can fill it with rows or set the datasource or something. Here is the code I have right now. Private Sub ProductsDataGrid_CellFormatting(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewCellFormattingEventArgs) Handles ProductsDataGrid.CellFormatting If e.ColumnIndex = ProductsDataGrid.Columns("SizeDGColumn").Index Then ' AndAlso Not e.FormattingApplied Then Dim product As LeagueOrderProductInfo = DirectCast(ProductsDataGrid.Rows(e.RowIndex).DataBoundItem, LeagueOrderProductInfo) Dim sizes As LeagueOrderProductSizeList = product.ProductSizes sizes.RemoveSizeFromList(_parentOrderDetail.SizeID) 'WHAT DO I DO HERE TO FILL THE COMBOBOX COLUMN WITH THE sizes collection. End If End Sub Please help. I am completely stuck and this task item should have taken an hour and I am 4+ hours in now. BTW, I am also open to resolving this by taking a completely different direction with it (as long as I can be done quickly.) Seth

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  • Haskell newbie on types

    - by garulfo
    I'm completely new to Haskell (and more generally to functional programming), so forgive me if this is really basic stuff. To get more than a taste, I try to implement in Haskell some algorithmic stuff I'm working on. I have a simple module Interval that implements intervals on the line. It contains the type data Interval t = Interval t t the helper function makeInterval :: (Ord t) => t -> t -> Interval t makeInterval l r | l <= r = Interval l r | otherwise = error "bad interval" and some utility functions about intervals. Here, my interest lies in multidimensional intervals (d-intervals), those objects that are composed of d intervals. I want to separately consider d-intervals that are the union of d disjoint intervals on the line (multiple interval) from those that are the union of d interval on d separate lines (track interval). With distinct algorithmic treatments in mind, I think it would be nice to have two distinct types (even if both are lists of intervals here) such as import qualified Interval as I -- Multilple interval newtype MInterval t = MInterval [I.Interval t] -- Track interval newtype TInterval t = TInterval [I.Interval t] to allow for distinct sanity checks, e.g. makeMInterval :: (Ord t) => [I.Interval t] -> MInterval t makeMInterval is = if foldr (&&) True [I.precedes i i' | (i, i') <- zip is (tail is)] then (MInterval is) else error "bad multiple interval" makeTInterval :: (Ord t) => [I.Interval t] -> TInterval t makeTInterval = TInterval I now get to the point, at last! But some functions are naturally concerned with both multiple intervals and track intervals. For example, a function order would return the number of intervals in a multiple interval or a track interval. What can I do? Adding -- Dimensional interval data DInterval t = MIntervalStuff (MInterval t) | TIntervalStuff (TInterval t) does not help much, since, if I understand well (correct me if I'm wrong), I would have to write order :: DInterval t -> Int order (MIntervalStuff (MInterval is)) = length is order (TIntervalStuff (TInterval is)) = length is and call order as order (MIntervalStuff is) or order (TIntervalStuff is) when is is a MInterval or a TInterval. Not that great, it looks odd. Neither I want to duplicate the function (I have many functions that are concerned with both multiple and track intevals, and some other d-interval definitions such as equal length multiple and track intervals). I'm left with the feeling that I'm completely wrong and have missed some important point about types in Haskell (and/or can't forget enough here about OO programming). So, quite a newbie question, what would be the best way in Haskell to deal with such a situation? Do I have to forget about introducing MInterval and TInterval and go with one type only? Thanks a lot for your help, Garulfo

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  • Using scipy.interpolate.splrep function

    - by Koustav Ghosal
    I am trying to fit a cubic spline to a given set of points. My points are not ordered. I CANNOT sort or reorder the points, since I need that information. But since the function scipy.interpolate.splrep works only on non-duplicate and monotonically increasing points I have defined a function that maps the x-coordinates to a monotonically increasing space. My old points are: xpoints=[4913.0, 4912.0, 4914.0, 4913.0, 4913.0, 4913.0, 4914.0, 4915.0, 4918.0, 4921.0, 4925.0, 4932.0, 4938.0, 4945.0, 4950.0, 4954.0, 4955.0, 4957.0, 4956.0, 4953.0, 4949.0, 4943.0, 4933.0, 4921.0, 4911.0, 4898.0, 4886.0, 4874.0, 4865.0, 4858.0, 4853.0, 4849.0, 4848.0, 4849.0, 4851.0, 4858.0, 4864.0, 4869.0, 4877.0, 4884.0, 4893.0, 4903.0, 4913.0, 4923.0, 4935.0, 4947.0, 4959.0, 4970.0, 4981.0, 4991.0, 5000.0, 5005.0, 5010.0, 5015.0, 5019.0, 5020.0, 5021.0, 5023.0, 5025.0, 5027.0, 5027.0, 5028.0, 5028.0, 5030.0, 5031.0, 5033.0, 5035.0, 5037.0, 5040.0, 5043.0] ypoints=[10557.0, 10563.0, 10567.0, 10571.0, 10575.0, 10577.0, 10578.0, 10581.0, 10582.0, 10582.0, 10582.0, 10581.0, 10578.0, 10576.0, 10572.0, 10567.0, 10560.0, 10550.0, 10541.0, 10531.0, 10520.0, 10511.0, 10503.0, 10496.0, 10490.0, 10487.0, 10488.0, 10488.0, 10490.0, 10495.0, 10504.0, 10513.0, 10523.0, 10533.0, 10542.0, 10550.0, 10556.0, 10559.0, 10560.0, 10559.0, 10555.0, 10550.0, 10543.0, 10533.0, 10522.0, 10514.0, 10505.0, 10496.0, 10490.0, 10486.0, 10482.0, 10481.0, 10482.0, 10486.0, 10491.0, 10497.0, 10506.0, 10516.0, 10524.0, 10534.0, 10544.0, 10552.0, 10558.0, 10564.0, 10569.0, 10573.0, 10576.0, 10578.0, 10581.0, 10582.0] Plots: The code for the mapping function and interpolation is: xnew=[] ynew=ypoints for c3,i in enumerate(xpoints): if np.isfinite(np.log(i*pow(2,c3))): xnew.append(np.log(i*pow(2,c3))) else: if c==0: xnew.append(np.random.random_sample()) else: xnew.append(xnew[c3-1]+np.random.random_sample()) xnew=np.asarray(xnew) ynew=np.asarray(ynew) constant1=10.0 nknots=len(xnew)/constant1 idx_knots = (np.arange(1,len(xnew)-1,(len(xnew)-2)/np.double(nknots))).astype('int') knots = [xnew[i] for i in idx_knots] knots = np.asarray(knots) int_range=np.linspace(min(xnew),max(xnew),len(xnew)) tck = interpolate.splrep(xnew,ynew,k=3,task=-1,t=knots) y1= interpolate.splev(int_range,tck,der=0) The code is throwing an error at the function interpolate.splrep() for some set of points like the above one. The error is: File "/home/neeraj/Desktop/koustav/res/BOS5/fit_spline3.py", line 58, in save_spline_f tck = interpolate.splrep(xnew,ynew,k=3,task=-1,t=knots) File "/usr/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/scipy/interpolate/fitpack.py", line 465, in splrep raise _iermessier(_iermess[ier][0]) ValueError: Error on input data But for other set of points it works fine. For example for the following set of points. xpoints=[1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1630.0, 1630.0, 1630.0, 1631.0, 1631.0, 1631.0, 1631.0, 1630.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1628.0, 1627.0, 1627.0, 1625.0, 1624.0, 1624.0, 1623.0, 1620.0, 1618.0, 1617.0, 1616.0, 1615.0, 1614.0, 1614.0, 1612.0, 1612.0, 1612.0, 1611.0, 1610.0, 1609.0, 1608.0, 1607.0, 1607.0, 1603.0, 1602.0, 1602.0, 1601.0, 1601.0, 1600.0, 1599.0, 1598.0] ypoints=[10570.0, 10572.0, 10572.0, 10573.0, 10572.0, 10572.0, 10571.0, 10570.0, 10569.0, 10565.0, 10564.0, 10563.0, 10562.0, 10560.0, 10558.0, 10556.0, 10554.0, 10551.0, 10548.0, 10547.0, 10544.0, 10542.0, 10541.0, 10538.0, 10534.0, 10532.0, 10531.0, 10528.0, 10525.0, 10522.0, 10519.0, 10517.0, 10516.0, 10512.0, 10509.0, 10509.0, 10507.0, 10504.0, 10502.0, 10500.0, 10501.0, 10499.0, 10498.0, 10496.0, 10491.0, 10492.0, 10488.0, 10488.0, 10488.0, 10486.0, 10486.0, 10485.0, 10485.0, 10486.0, 10483.0, 10483.0, 10482.0, 10480.0] Plots: Can anybody suggest what's happening ?? Thanks in advance......

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  • jQuery DatePicker - How to highlight certain days every month?

    - by Sergio
    Hi I have a jquery datepicker which is renders the current date by default as a full calendar. Before this is rendered I get a list of days from the server via ajax of days that need to be highlighted for the current month. The code for this is as follows: $.get("Note/GetActionDates/?orgID=" + orgID + "&month=" + month +"&year=" + year, null, function(result) { RenderCalendar(result); }, "json"); function RenderCalendar(dates) { $("#actionCal").datepicker({ dateFormat: 'dd/mm/yy', beforeShowDay: function(thedate) { var theday = thedate.getDate(); if ($.inArray(theday, dates) == -1) { return [true, "", ""]; } else { return [true, "specialDate", "Actions Today"]; } } }); } This is all good, but I would like the highlighted dates to update when the user clicks to a different month. I can modify the jquery datepicker initialise code with the following code: onChangeMonthYear: function(year, month, inst) { //get new array of dates for that month $.get("Note/GetActionDates/?orgID=" + orgID + "&month=" + month + "&year=" + year, null, function(result) { RenderCalendar(result); }, "json"); } But this doesn't seem to work. Could anyone show me what I'm doing wrong? Thanks! :) UPDATE - Working Code Thanks for the help! I have tweaked the code from petersendidit as follows and it now works. Gonna add a little more code to remove duplicate dates from the dates array but aside from that its all good. $("#actionCal").datepicker({ dateFormat: 'dd/mm/yyyy', beforeShowDay: function(thedate) { var theday = thedate.getDate() + "/" + (thedate.getMonth() + 1) + "/" + thedate.getFullYear(); if ($.inArray(theday, actionCalDates) == -1) { return [true, "", ""]; } else { return [true, "specialDate", "Actions Today"]; } }, onChangeMonthYear: function(year, month, inst) { dateCount = 0; getDates(orgID, month, year); } }); function getDates(orgID, month, year) { dateCount += 1; if (dateCount < 4) { $.ajax({ url: "Note/GetActionDates/", data: { 'orgID': orgID, 'month': month, 'year': year }, type: "GET", dataType: "json", success: function(result) { actionCalDates = actionCalDates.concat(result); getDates(orgID, month + 1, year); getDates(orgID, month - 1, year); } }); } }

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  • How to make ASP.Net MVC checkboxes keep state

    - by myotherme
    I have the following situation: I have a class Product that can have a confirmation from various Stations. So I have a ViewModel that holds the Product information, and a list of stations, and all the ProductStationConfirmations. public class ProductViewModel { public Product Product { get; private set; } public List<Station> Stations { get; private set; } public Dictionary<string, ProductStationConfirmation> ProductStationConfirmations { get; private set; } public ProductViewModel(int productID) { // Loads everything from DB } } In my partial view for inserting/editing I iterate over the stations to make a checkbox for each of them: <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.Product.Title)%> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Product.Title)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Product.Title)%> </div> <fieldset> <legend>Station Confirmations</legend> <% foreach (var station in Model.Stations) { %> <div class="nexttoeachother"> <div> <%= Html.Encode(station.Name) %> </div> <div> <%= Html.CheckBox("confirm_"+station.ID.ToString(), Request["confirm_"+station.ID.ToString()] == null ? Model.ProductStationConfirmations.ContainsKey(Entities.ProductStationConfirmation.MakeHash(Model.Product.ID, station.ID)) : Request["confirm_" + station.ID.ToString()].Contains("true") ) %> </div> </div> <% } %> </fieldset> This works and I can process the Request values to store the confirmed Stations, but it is really messy. I made it this way to preserve the state of the checkboxes between round trips if there is a problem with the model (missing title, bad value for decimal, or something that can only be checked server-side like duplicate tile). I would expect that there is a nicer way to do this, I just don't know what it is. I suspect that I need to change the shape of my ViewModel to better accommodate the data, but i don't know how. I am using MVC 2.

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  • How to do role-based access control for a franchise business?

    - by FreshCode
    I'm building the 2nd iteration of a web-based CRM+CMS for a franchise service business in ASP.NET MVC 2. I need to control access to each franchise's services based on the roles a user is assigned for that franchise. 4 examples: Receptionist should be able to book service jobs in for her "Atlantic Seaboard" franchise, but not do any reporting. Technician should be able to alter service jobs, but not modify invoices. Managers should be able to apply discount to invoices for jobs within their stores. Owner should be able to pull reports for any franchises he owns. Where should franchise-level access control fit in between the Data - Services - Web layer? If it belongs in my Controllers, how should I best implement it? Partial Schema Roles class int ID { get; set; } // primary key for Role string Name { get; set; } Partial Franchises class short ID { get; set; } // primary key for Franchise string Slug { get; set; } // unique key for URL access, eg /{franchise}/{job} string Name { get; set; } UserRoles mapping short FranchiseID; // related to franchises table Guid UserID; // related to Users table int RoleID; // related to Roles table DateTime ValidFrom; DateTime ValidUntil; Background I built the previous CRM in classic ASP and it runs the business well, but it's time for an upgrade to speed up workflow and leave less room for error. For the sake of proper testing and better separation between data and presentation, I decided to implement the repository pattern as seen in Rob Conery's MVC Storefront series. Controller Implementation Access Control with [Authorize] attribute If there was just one franchise involved, I could simply limit access to a controller action like so: [Authorize(Roles="Receptionist, Technician, Manager, Owner")] public ActionResult CreateJob(Job job) { ... } And since franchises don't just pop up over night, perhaps this is a strong case to use the new Areas feature in ASP.NET MVC 2? Or would this lead to duplicate Views? Controllers, URL Routing & Areas Assuming Areas aren't used, what would be the best way to determine which franchise's data is being accessed? I thought of this: {franchise}/{controller}/{action}/{id} or is it better to determine a job's franchise in a Details(...) action and limit a user's action with [Authorize]: {job}/{id}/{action}/{subaction} {invoice}/{id}/{action}/{subaction} which makes more sense if any user could potentially have access to more than one franchise without cluttering the URL with a {franchise} parameter. Any input is appreciated.

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  • Opera Mobile, offline web app development, and memory

    - by Jake Krohn
    I'm developing a data collection app for use on a HP iPAQ 211. I'm doing it as an offline web app (go with what you know) using Opera Mobile 9.7 and Google Gears. Being it is an offline app, it is very dependent on Javascript for much of its behavior. I'm using the LocalServer, Database, and Geolocation components of Gears, as well as the JQuery core and a couple of plugins for form validation and other usability tweaks (no jQuery UI). I've tried to be conservative with my programming style and free up or close resources whenever possible, but Opera just slowly dies after about 10-20 minutes of use. The Javascript engine stops responding, pages only half-load, and eventually stop loading completely. I'm guessing it's a resource issue. Quitting and relaunching the browser solves the problem, but only temporarily. The iPAQ ships with 128 MB of RAM, about 85-87 MB of which is available immediately after a reset. With only Opera running, there still remains about 50 MB that is left unused. My questions are thus: Is it possible to get Opera to address this unused RAM? Are there configuration settings in Opera or in the Windows Registry itself that will help improve performance? I know where to tweak, but the descriptions of the opera:config variables that I've found are less than helpful. Is is laughable to ask about memory management and jQuery in the same sentence? If not, does anyone have any suggestions? Finally, are my plans too ambitious, given the platform I have to work with? I know that Gears and Windows Mobile 6 are on their way out, but they (theoretically) suffice for what I need to do. I could ditch them in favor of an iPhone/iPod Touch, Mobile Safari, and HTML5 but I'd like to try to make this work first. I didn't think that Opera was a dog when it comes to JS performance, but perhaps it's worse than I thought. That this motley collection of technologies works at all is a minor miracle, but it needs to be faster and more stable. I appreciate any suggestions.

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  • Using regex to fix phone numbers in a CSV with PHP

    - by Hurpe
    My new phone does not recognize a phone number unless it's area code matches the incoming call. Since I live in Idaho where an area code is not needed for in-state calls, many of my contacts were saved without an area code. Since I have thousands of contacts stored in my phone, it would not be practical to manually update them. I decided to write the following PHP script to handle the problem. It seems to work well, except that I'm finding duplicate area codes at the beginning of random contacts. <?php //the script can take a while to complete set_time_limit(200); function validate_area_code($number) { //digits are taken one by one out of $number, and insert in to $numString $numString = ""; for ($i = 0; $i < strlen($number); $i++) { $curr = substr($number,$i,1); //only copy from $number to $numString when the character is numeric if (is_numeric($curr)) { $numString = $numString . $curr; } } //add area code "208" to the beginning of any phone number of length 7 if (strlen($numString) == 7) { return "208" . $numString; //remove country code (none of the contacts are outside the U.S.) } else if (strlen($numString) == 11) { return preg_replace("/^1/","",$numString); } else { return $numString; } } //matches any phone number in the csv $pattern = "/((1? ?\(?[2-9]\d\d\)? *)? ?\d\d\d-?\d\d\d\d)/"; $csv = file_get_contents("contacts2.CSV"); preg_match_all($pattern,$csv,$matches); foreach ($matches[0] as $key1 => $value) { /*create a pattern that matches the specific phone number by adding slashes before possible special characters*/ $pattern = preg_replace("/\(|\)|\-/","\\\\$0",$value); //create the replacement phone number $replacement = validate_area_code($value); //add delimeters $pattern = "/" . $pattern . "/"; $csv = preg_replace($pattern,$replacement,$csv); } echo $csv; ?> Is there a better approach to modifying the csv? Also, is there a way to minimize the number of passes over the csv? In the script above, preg_replace is called thousands of times on a very large String.

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  • WPF Choppy Animation

    - by Chris Dunaway
    WPF Windows-XP SP3 I'm having a problem with a simple WPF animation. I use the following Xaml code (in XamlPad and also in a WPF project): <Page xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:sys="clr-namespace:System;assembly=mscorlib" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" > <Border Name="MyBorder" BorderThickness="10" BorderBrush="Blue" CornerRadius="10" Background="DarkRed" > <Rectangle Name="MyRectangle" Margin="10" StrokeDashArray="2.0,1.0" StrokeThickness="10" RadiusX="10" RadiusY="10" Stroke="Black" StrokeDashOffset="0"> <Rectangle.Triggers> <EventTrigger RoutedEvent="Rectangle.Loaded"> <BeginStoryboard> <Storyboard> <DoubleAnimation Storyboard.TargetName="MyRectangle" Storyboard.TargetProperty="StrokeDashOffset" From="0.0" To="3.0" Duration="0:0:1" RepeatBehavior="Forever" Timeline.DesiredFrameRate="30" /> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </EventTrigger> </Rectangle.Triggers> </Rectangle> </Border> </Page> It has the effect of causing the border to animate around the rectangle. After a fresh reboot of the machine, this animation is nice and smooth. However, I tend to leave my machine on all the time and after a period time elapses (I don't know how long), the animation starts stuttering and becomes choppy. I thought that it may be memory or resource issues, but after shutting down all other apps and any services that seem unnecessary, the stuttering still continues. However, after a system reboot, the animation is smooth again! I get the same symptoms in a WPF app or in XamlPad. In the case of the app, it doesn't seem to make any difference whether I run in the debugger or if I run the executable directly. I applied the patch at this link: http://support.microsoft.com/kb/981741 and I thought that it had taken care of the issue, but it seems not to have. I have seen some posts that might indicate that using transparency might affect animation, but as you can see, my xaml does not use transparency. Can anyone give me some suggestions on how to determine what the problem is? Are there any WPF diagnostic tools that might help? UPDATE: I have checked my video drivers and they are the latest version. (nVidia GeForce 8400 GS)

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  • How to optimize Core Data query for full text search

    - by dk
    Can I optimize a Core Data query when searching for matching words in a text? (This question also pertains to the wisdom of custom SQL versus Core Data on an iPhone.) I'm working on a new (iPhone) app that is a handheld reference tool for a scientific database. The main interface is a standard searchable table view and I want as-you-type response as the user types new words. Words matches must be prefixes of words in the text. The text is composed of 100,000s of words. In my prototype I coded SQL directly. I created a separate "words" table containing every word in the text fields of the main entity. I indexed words and performed searches along the lines of SELECT id, * FROM textTable JOIN (SELECT DISTINCT textTableId FROM words WHERE word BETWEEN 'foo' AND 'fooz' ) ON id=textTableId LIMIT 50 This runs very fast. Using an IN would probably work just as well, i.e. SELECT * FROM textTable WHERE id IN (SELECT textTableId FROM words WHERE word BETWEEN 'foo' AND 'fooz' ) LIMIT 50 The LIMIT is crucial and allows me to display results quickly. I notify the user that there are too many to display if the limit is reached. This is kludgy. I've spent the last several days pondering the advantages of moving to Core Data, but I worry about the lack of control in the schema, indexing, and querying for an important query. Theoretically an NSPredicate of textField MATCHES '.*\bfoo.*' would just work, but I'm sure it will be slow. This sort of text search seems so common that I wonder what is the usual attack? Would you create a words entity as I did above and use a predicate of "word BEGINSWITH 'foo'"? Will that work as fast as my prototype? Will Core Data automatically create the right indexes? I can't find any explicit means of advising the persistent store about indexes. I see some nice advantages of Core Data in my iPhone app. The faulting and other memory considerations allow for efficient database retrievals for tableview queries without setting arbitrary limits. The object graph management allows me to easily traverse entities without writing lots of SQL. Migration features will be nice in the future. On the other hand, in a limited resource environment (iPhone) I worry that an automatically generated database will be bloated with metadata, unnecessary inverse relationships, inefficient attribute datatypes, etc. Should I dive in or proceed with caution?

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  • Fluent | Nhibernate multiple inheritance mapping?

    - by Broken Pipe
    I'm trying to map this classes: public interface IBusinessObject { Guid Id { get; set; } } public class Product { public virtual Guid Id { get; set; } public virtual int ProductTypeId { get; set; } } public class ProductWeSell : Product, IBusinessObject { } public class ProductWeDontSell : Product { } Using this Fluent mapping code: public class IBusinessObjectMap : ClassMap<IBusinessObject> { public IBusinessObjectMap() { Id(t => t.Id).GeneratedBy.Guid(); Table("BusinessObject"); } } public class ProductMap : ClassMap<Product> { public ProductMap() { Id(t => t.Id); DiscriminateSubClassesOnColumn("ProductTypeId", "null").Nullable(); } } public class ProductWeSellMap : SubclassMap<ProductWeSell> { public ProductWeSellMap() { DiscriminatorValue(1); KeyColumn("Id"); } } public class ProductWeDontSellMap : SubclassMap<ProductWeDontSell> { public ProductWeDontSellMap() { DiscriminatorValue(2); KeyColumn("Id"); } } But I get {"Duplicate class/entity mapping ProductWeSell"} error. And if we take a look at generated HBM, indeed it's duplicated, but i have no idea how to write this mapping without duplicating it if it's possible at all. Produced hbm: <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2"> <class xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" name="IBusinessObject" table="BusinessObject"> <joined-subclass name="ProductWeSell" table="ProductWeSell"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2"> <class xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" discriminator-value="null" name="Product" table="Product"> <discriminator type="String"> <column name="ProductTypeId" not-null="false" /> </discriminator> <subclass name="ProductWeDontSell" discriminator-value="2" /> <subclass name="ProductWeSell" discriminator-value="1" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping> So far I was unable to figure out how to map this using fluent Nhibernate (i haven't tried mapping this using hmb files). Any help appreciated Fluent or HBM files. The thing I'm trying to solve look identical to this topic: NHibernate inheritance mapping question

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  • android - using resources drawable in content provider

    - by Russ Wheeler
    I am trying to pass back an image through a content provider in a separate app. I have two apps, one with the activity in (app a), the other with content provider (app b) I have app a reading an image off my SD card via app b using the following code. App a: public void but_update(View view) { ContentResolver resolver = getContentResolver(); Uri uri = Uri.parse("content://com.jash.cp_source_two.provider/note/1"); InputStream inStream = null; try { inStream = resolver.openInputStream(uri); Bitmap bitmap = BitmapFactory.decodeStream(inStream); image = (ImageView) findViewById(R.id.imageView1); image.setImageBitmap(bitmap); } catch(FileNotFoundException e) { Toast.makeText(getBaseContext(), "error = "+e, Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } finally { if (inStream != null) { try { inStream.close(); } catch (IOException e) { Log.e("test", "could not close stream", e); } } } }; App b: @Override public ParcelFileDescriptor openFile(Uri uri, String mode) throws FileNotFoundException { try { File path = new File(Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory().getAbsolutePath(),"pic2.png"); return ParcelFileDescriptor.open(path,ParcelFileDescriptor.MODE_READ_ONLY); } catch (FileNotFoundException e) { Log.i("r", "File not found"); throw new FileNotFoundException(); } } In app a I am able to display an image from app a's resources folder, using setImageURi and constructing a URI using the following code. int id = R.drawable.a2; Resources resources = getBaseContext().getResources(); Uri uri = Uri.parse(ContentResolver.SCHEME_ANDROID_RESOURCE + "://" + resources.getResourcePackageName(id) + '/' + resources.getResourceTypeName(id) + '/' + resources.getResourceEntryName(id) ); image = (ImageView) findViewById(R.id.imageView1); image.setImageURI(uri); However, if I try to do the same in app b (read from app b's resources folder rather than the image on the SD card) it doesn't work, saying it can't find the file, even though I am creating the path of the file from the resource, so it is definitely there. Any ideas? Does it restrict sending resources over the content provider somehow? P.S. I also got an error when I tried to create the file with File path = new File(uri); saying 'there is no applicable constructor to '(android.net.Uri)' though http://developer.android.com/reference/java/io/File.html#File(java.net.URI) Seems to think it's possible...unless java.net.URI is different to android.net.URI, in which case can I convert them? Thanks Russ

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  • Git for Websites / post-receive / Separation of Test and Production Sites

    - by Walt W
    Hi all, I'm using Git to manage my website's source code and deployment, and currently have the test and live sites running on the same box. Following this resource http://toroid.org/ams/git-website-howto originally, I came up with the following post-receive hook script to differentiate between pushes to my live site and pushes to my test site: while read ref do #echo "Ref updated:" #echo $ref -- would print something like example at top of file result=`echo $ref | gawk -F' ' '{ print $3 }'` if [ $result != "" ]; then echo "Branch found: " echo $result case $result in refs/heads/master ) git --work-tree=c:/temp/BLAH checkout -f master echo "Updated master" ;; refs/heads/testbranch ) git --work-tree=c:/temp/BLAH2 checkout -f testbranch echo "Updated testbranch" ;; * ) echo "No update known for $result" ;; esac fi done echo "Post-receive updates complete" However, I have doubts that this is actually safe :) I'm by no means a Git expert, but I am guessing that Git probably keeps track of the current checked-out branch head, and this approach probably has the potential to confuse it to no end. So a few questions: IS this safe? Would a better approach be to have my base repository be the test site repository (with corresponding working directory), and then have that repository push changes to a new live site repository, which has a corresponding working directory to the live site base? This would also allow me to move the production to a different server and keep the deployment chain intact. Is there something I'm missing? Is there a different, clean way to differentiate between test and production deployments when using Git for managing websites? As an additional note in light of Vi's answer, is there a good way to do this that would handle deletions without mucking with the file system much? Thank you, -Walt PS - The script I came up with for the multiple repos (and am using unless I hear better) is as follows: sitename=`basename \`pwd\`` while read ref do #echo "Ref updated:" #echo $ref -- would print something like example at top of file result=`echo $ref | gawk -F' ' '{ print $3 }'` if [ $result != "" ]; then echo "Branch found: " echo $result case $result in refs/heads/master ) git checkout -q -f master if [ $? -eq 0 ]; then echo "Test Site checked out properly" else echo "Failed to checkout test site!" fi ;; refs/heads/live-site ) git push -q ../Live/$sitename live-site:master if [ $? -eq 0 ]; then echo "Live Site received updates properly" else echo "Failed to push updates to Live Site" fi ;; * ) echo "No update known for $result" ;; esac fi done echo "Post-receive updates complete" And then the repo in ../Live/$sitename (these are "bare" repos with working trees added after init) has the basic post-receive: git checkout -f if [ $? -eq 0 ]; then echo "Live site `basename \`pwd\`` checked out successfully" else echo "Live site failed to checkout" fi

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  • android searchable not opening

    - by ng93
    Hi im trying to use a searchable activity in my application but when the search button is pressed nothing happens AndroidManifest.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <manifest xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" package="com.test.test" android:versionCode="1" android:versionName="1.0.0" android:configChanges="keyboardHidden|orientation"> <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="7"/> <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="Test"> <activity android:name=".Test" android:label="Test" android:debuggable="true" android:theme="@android:style/Theme.NoTitleBar" android:launchMode="singleTask"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN"/> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER"/> </intent-filter> </activity> <activity android:name=".Searchable"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.SEARCH" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT" /> </intent-filter> <meta-data android:name="android.app.searchable" android:resource="@xml/searchable"/> </activity> <meta-data android:name="android.app.default_searchable" android:value=".Searchable"/> </application> </manifest> Searchable.xml (res/xml/searchable.xml) <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <searchable xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:label="Search" android:hint="Perform Search"> </searchable> Searchable.java (src/com/test/test/Searchable.java) package com.test.test; import android.app.Activity; import android.app.SearchManager; import android.content.Intent; import android.os.Bundle; public class Searchable extends Activity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); handleIntent(getIntent()); } @Override protected void onNewIntent(Intent intent) { setIntent(intent); handleIntent(intent); } private void handleIntent(Intent intent) { if (Intent.ACTION_SEARCH.equals(intent.getAction())) { String query = intent.getStringExtra(SearchManager.QUERY); } } } TIA, ng93

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  • Sharing a file from Android to Gmail or to Dropbox

    - by Calaf
    To share a simple text file, I started by copying verbatim from FileProvider's manual page: <application android:allowBackup="true" android:icon="@drawable/ic_launcher" android:label="@string/app_name" android:theme="@style/AppTheme" > <provider android:name="android.support.v4.content.FileProvider" android:authorities="com.mycorp.helloworldtxtfileprovider.MainActivity" android:exported="false" android:grantUriPermissions="true" > <meta-data android:name="android.support.FILE_PROVIDER_PATHS" android:resource="@xml/my_paths" /> </provider> <activity android:name="com.mycorp.helloworldtxtfileprovider.MainActivity" ... Then I saved a text file and used, again nearly verbatim, the code under Sending binary content. (Notice that this applies more accurately in this case than "Sending text content" since we are sending a file, which happens to be a text file, rather than just a string of text.) For the convenience of duplication on your side, and since the code is in any case so brief, I'm including it here in full. public class MainActivity extends Activity { @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.activity_main); String filename = "hellow.txt"; String fileContents = "Hello, World!\n"; byte[] bytes = fileContents.getBytes(); FileOutputStream fos = null; try { fos = this.openFileOutput(filename, MODE_PRIVATE); fos.write(bytes); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } finally { try { fos.close(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } File file = new File(filename); Intent shareIntent = new Intent(); shareIntent.setAction(Intent.ACTION_SEND); shareIntent.putExtra(Intent.EXTRA_STREAM, Uri.fromFile(file)); shareIntent.setType("application/txt"); startActivity(Intent.createChooser(shareIntent, getResources().getText(R.string.send_to))); file.delete(); } } Aside from adding a value for send_to in res/values/strings.xml, the only other change I did to the generic Hello, World that Eclipse creates is to add the following in res/xml/my_paths.xml (as described on the page previously referenced. <paths xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <Files-path name="files" path="." /> </paths> This code runs fine. It shows a list of intent recipients. But sending the text file to either Dropbox or to Gmail fails. Dropbox sends the notification "Uploading to Dropbox" followed by "Upload failed: my_file.txt". After "sending message.." Gmail sends "Couldn't send attachment". What is wrong?

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  • Http Modules are called on every request when using mvc/routing module

    - by MartinF
    I am developing a http module that hooks into the FormsAuthentication Module through the Authenticate event. While debugging i noticed that the module (and all other modules registered) gets hit every single time the client requests a resource (also when it requests images, stylesheets, javascript files (etc.)). This happens both when running on a IIS 7 server in integrated pipeline mode, and debugging through the webdev server (in non- integrated pipeline mode) As i am developing a website with a lot images which usually wont be cached by the client browser it will hit the modules a lot of unnessecary times. I am using MVC and its routing mechanishm (System.Web.Routing.UrlRoutingModule). When creating a new website the runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests attribute for the IIS 7 (system.webServer) section is per default set to true in the web.config, which as the name indicates make it call all modules for every single request. If i set the runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests attribute to false, no modules will get called. It seems that the reason for this is because of the routing module or mvc (dont know excactly why), which causes that the asp.net (aspx) handler never gets called and therefore the events and the modules never gets called (one time only like supposed). I tested this by trying to call "mydomain.com/Default.aspx" instead of just "mydomain.com/" and correctly it calls the modules only once like it is supposed. How do i fix this so it only calls the modules once when the page is requested and not also when all other resources are requested ? Is there some way i can register that all requests should fire the asp.net (aspx) handler, except requests for specific filetype extensions ? Of course that wont fix the problem if i choose to go with urls like /content/images/myimage123 for the images (without the extension). But i cant think of any other way to fix it. Is there a better way to solve this problem ? I have tried to set up an ignoreRoute like this routes.IgnoreRoute("content/{*pathInfo}"); where the content folder contains all the images, javascripts and stylesheets in seperat subfolders, but it doesnt seem to change anything. I can see there a many different possibilites when setting up a handler but I cant seem to figure out how it should be possible to setup one that will make it possible to use the routing module and have urls like /blog/post123 and not call the modules when requesting images, javascripts and stylesheets (etc.). Hope anyone out there can help me ? Martin

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  • please explain NHibernate HiLo

    - by Ben
    I'm struggling to get my head round how the HiLo generator works in NHibernate. I've read the explanation here which made things a little clearer. My understanding is that each SessionFactory retrieves the high value from the database. This improves performance because we have access to IDs without hitting the database. The explanation from the above link also states: For instance, supposing you have a "high" sequence with a current value of 35, and the "low" number is in the range 0-1023. Then the client can increment the sequence to 36 (for other clients to be able to generate keys while it's using 35) and know that keys 35/0, 35/1, 35/2, 35/3... 35/1023 are all available. How does this work in a web application as don't I only have one SessionFactory and therefore one hi value. Does this mean that in a disconnected application you can end up with duplicate (low) ids in your entity table? In my tests I used these settings: <id name="Id" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="hilo"/> </id> I ran a test to save 100 objects. The IDs in my table went from 32768 - 32868. The next hi value was incremented to 2. Then I ran my test again and the Ids were in the range 65536 - 65636. First off, why start at 32768 and not 1, and secondly why the jump from 32868 to 65536? Now I know that my surrogate keys shouldn't have any meaning but we do use them in our application. Why can't I just have them increment nicely like a SQL Server identity field would. Finally can someone give me an explanation of how the max_lo parameter works? Is this the maximum number of low values (entity ids in my head) that can be created against the high value? This is one topic in NHibernate that I have struggled to find documentation for. I read the entire NHibernate in action book and it still doesn't go into how this works in any detail. Thanks Ben

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  • do you want try ? [closed]

    - by gemxia
    Only with time and hard work, that can you get an IT certification. Although there are hundreds of certifications for you to pick from, the basic steps to get certified are the same. The following steps are certain to clear your puzzles about the preparation process of your <. The first step to take is choosing a certification. It is simple but at the same time very important. Make sure to choose the certifications that are respected in your industries. The second step you should take is to evaluate your experience. Find out what skills and experience the IBM certification is expecting. Then, decide what type of training is suitable for you. Preparation books will certainly not make you an expert in subjects you’re not already an expert in. But, for the subject areas you know little or nothing about, a study guide provides you clues and guidance about what the important information from those subjects is when it comes to passing the Examkiller IBM examination exam. Visit certification forums during your 000-M62 certification exam preparation. In this way, you can learn from others’ mistakes and example, meanwhile help your own studies. Achieving your goals without proper training is a sure road to failure. Knowing about a topic and having special expertise in it are completely different. One cannot be an expert in the IT industry without the proper foundation. Taking a training class for Examkiller IBM exam might be a guaranteed way. When the economy dips and budgets get tightened, one of the first things to go from corporate spending is training. There are plenty of courses, boot camps and cram sessions that promise to prepare you for the IBM exam, but they are exceptionally expensive. As much as possible, for your own benefit, you should look for resources that are free. Vendor of IBM offers free resource in their sites. These practice exams are the closest to the real exams. If you think that you have got ready for the exam, you can take the fourth now, which is registering your exam. Even if you have passed your <, yet you can’t relax, since there are still so many certifications ahead. If you have just memorized some questions and answers, excepting a fluke, then, don’t take the IBM test exam, until you really have the experience and skills the certification requires.

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  • Fixed point math in c#?

    - by x4000
    Hi there, I was wondering if anyone here knows of any good resources for fixed point math in c#? I've seen things like this (http://2ddev.72dpiarmy.com/viewtopic.php?id=156) and this (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/79677/whats-the-best-way-to-do-fixed-point-math), and a number of discussions about whether decimal is really fixed point or actually floating point (update: responders have confirmed that it's definitely floating point), but I haven't seen a solid C# library for things like calculating cosine and sine. My needs are simple -- I need the basic operators, plus cosine, sine, arctan2, PI... I think that's about it. Maybe sqrt. I'm programming a 2D RTS game, which I have largely working, but the unit movement when using floating-point math (doubles) has very small inaccuracies over time (10-30 minutes) across multiple machines, leading to desyncs. This is presently only between a 32 bit OS and a 64 bit OS, all the 32 bit machines seem to stay in sync without issue, which is what makes me think this is a floating point issue. I was aware from this as a possible issue from the outset, and so have limited my use of non-integer position math as much as possible, but for smooth diagonal movement at varying speeds I'm calculating the angle between points in radians, then getting the x and y components of movement with sin and cos. That's the main issue. I'm also doing some calculations for line segment intersections, line-circle intersections, circle-rect intersections, etc, that also probably need to move from floating-point to fixed-point to avoid cross-machine issues. If there's something open source in Java or VB or another comparable language, I could probably convert the code for my uses. The main priority for me is accuracy, although I'd like as little speed loss over present performance as possible. This whole fixed point math thing is very new to me, and I'm surprised by how little practical information on it there is on google -- most stuff seems to be either theory or dense C++ header files. Anything you could do to point me in the right direction is much appreciated; if I can get this working, I plan to open-source the math functions I put together so that there will be a resource for other C# programmers out there. UPDATE: I could definitely make a cosine/sine lookup table work for my purposes, but I don't think that would work for arctan2, since I'd need to generate a table with about 64,000x64,000 entries (yikes). If you know any programmatic explanations of efficient ways to calculate things like arctan2, that would be awesome. My math background is all right, but the advanced formulas and traditional math notation are very difficult for me to translate into code.

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  • Uploading a picture to facebook

    - by kielie
    Hi guys, I am trying to upload a image to a gallery on a facebook fan page, here is my code thus far, $ch = curl_init(); $data = array('type' => 'client_cred', 'client_id' => 'app_id','client_secret'=>'secret_key',' redirect_uri'=>'http://apps.facebook.com/my-application/'); // your connect url here curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, 'https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token'); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $data); $rs = curl_exec($ch); curl_close($ch); $ch = curl_init(); $data = explode("=",$rs); $token = $data[1]; $album_id = '1234'; $file= 'http://my.website.com/my-application/sketch.jpg'; $data = array(basename($file) => "@".realpath($file), //filename, where $row['file_location'] is a file hosted on my server "caption" => "test", "aid" => $album_id, //valid aid, as demonstrated above "access_token" => $token ); $ch2 = curl_init(); $url = "https://graph.facebook.com/".$album_id."/photos"; curl_setopt($ch2, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch2, CURLOPT_HEADER, false); curl_setopt($ch2, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, false); curl_setopt($ch2, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, false); curl_setopt($ch2, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch2, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $data); $op = curl_exec($ch2); When I echo $token, I seem to be getting the token, but when I run the script, I get this error, {"error":{"type":"OAuthAccessTokenException","message":"An access token is required to request this resource."} , I have NO idea why it is doing this! Basically what I am doing in that code is getting the access token with curl, and then, uploading the photo to my album also via curl, but I keep getting that error! Any help would be appreciated, thank you!

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  • create text inside a rectangle using inkscape

    - by mr calendar
    I've put some text inside a rectangle using inkscape so the tree is like <svg:rect><svg:text><svg:tspan>text.... The problem is, I can't see the text. I've tried fiddling with the opacity of the rect to no avail. There should be a way of doing this from the UI? Edit example as requested <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <!-- Created with Inkscape (http://www.inkscape.org/) --> <svg xmlns:dc="http://purl.org/dc/elements/1.1/" xmlns:cc="http://creativecommons.org/ns#" xmlns:rdf="http://www.w3.org/1999/02/22-rdf-syntax-ns#" xmlns:svg="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" xmlns:sodipodi="http://sodipodi.sourceforge.net/DTD/sodipodi-0.dtd" xmlns:inkscape="http://www.inkscape.org/namespaces/inkscape" width="184.25197" height="262.20471" id="svg2" sodipodi:version="0.32" inkscape:version="0.46" version="1.0" sodipodi:docname="ex1.svg" inkscape:output_extension="org.inkscape.output.svg.inkscape"> <defs id="defs4"> <inkscape:perspective sodipodi:type="inkscape:persp3d" inkscape:vp_x="0 : 526.18109 : 1" inkscape:vp_y="0 : 1000 : 0" inkscape:vp_z="744.09448 : 526.18109 : 1" inkscape:persp3d-origin="372.04724 : 350.78739 : 1" id="perspective10" /> </defs> <sodipodi:namedview id="base" pagecolor="#ffffff" bordercolor="#666666" borderopacity="1.0" gridtolerance="10000" guidetolerance="10" objecttolerance="10" inkscape:pageopacity="0.0" inkscape:pageshadow="2" inkscape:zoom="0.64" inkscape:cx="195.9221" inkscape:cy="335.3072" inkscape:document-units="px" inkscape:current-layer="layer1" showgrid="false" inkscape:window-width="640" inkscape:window-height="675" inkscape:window-x="44" inkscape:window-y="44" /> <metadata id="metadata7"> <rdf:RDF> <cc:Work rdf:about=""> <dc:format>image/svg+xml</dc:format> <dc:type rdf:resource="http://purl.org/dc/dcmitype/StillImage" /> </cc:Work> </rdf:RDF> </metadata> <g inkscape:label="Layer 1" inkscape:groupmode="layer" id="layer1"> <rect style="opacity:0.25480766;fill:#ff0000;fill-opacity:1;stroke:#000000;stroke-width:12.94795799;stroke-miterlimit:4;stroke-dasharray:none;stroke-opacity:1" id="rect2383" width="150.87796" height="84.226181" x="18.221733" y="39.557121"> <text xml:space="preserve" style="font-size:56.0331955px;font-style:normal;font-weight:normal;fill:#000000;fill-opacity:1;stroke:none;stroke-width:1px;stroke-linecap:butt;stroke-linejoin:miter;stroke-opacity:1;font-family:Bitstream Vera Sans" x="44.815186" y="114.0088" id="text2385" transform="scale(1.0054479,0.9945816)"><tspan sodipodi:role="line" id="tspan2387" x="44.815186" y="114.0088">text</tspan></text> </rect> </g> </svg> I'd expect to be able to see this in inkscape. The workaround is to put text on a layer above the box (the intent is that the box obscures the layers below it) and not try and get clever with nested tags. Shame it doesn't work though.

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  • Silverlight ControlTemplate and F#

    - by akaphenom
    Has anybody had any success incorporating a Silverlight ControlTemplate into an F# Silverlight application. I am trying to add transitions to the Navgiation.Frame element and following along on with a C# example: http://www.davidpoll.com/2009/07/19/silverlight-3-navigation-adding-transitions-to-the-frame-control The downloaded source uses the MSBUILD:Compile option on the template XAML and the file is included as a "Page"... ILDASM doesn't show any object created for the XAML; In my project I incldued it as a "Resource" (same as I have done for my pages) and referenced it in app.xaml: <Application xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" x:Class="Module1.MyApp"> <Application.Resources> <ResourceDictionary> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="/FSSilverlightApp;component/TransitioningFrame.xaml"/> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> </Application.Resources> </Application> the TransitioningFrame.xaml is as follows: <ResourceDictionary xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:navigation="clr-namespace:System.Windows.Controls;assembly=System.Windows.Controls.Navigation" xmlns:toolkit="clr-namespace:System.Windows.Controls;assembly=System.Windows.Controls.Layout.Toolkit"> <ControlTemplate x:Key="TransitioningFrame" TargetType="navigation:Frame"> <Border Background="{TemplateBinding Background}" BorderBrush="{TemplateBinding BorderBrush}" BorderThickness="{TemplateBinding BorderThickness}" HorizontalAlignment="{TemplateBinding HorizontalContentAlignment}" VerticalAlignment="{TemplateBinding VerticalContentAlignment}"> <toolkit:TransitioningContentControl Content="{TemplateBinding Content}" Cursor="{TemplateBinding Cursor}" Margin="{TemplateBinding Padding}" HorizontalAlignment="{TemplateBinding HorizontalContentAlignment}" VerticalAlignment="{TemplateBinding VerticalContentAlignment}" HorizontalContentAlignment="{TemplateBinding HorizontalContentAlignment}" VerticalContentAlignment="{TemplateBinding VerticalContentAlignment}" Transition="DefaultTransition" /> </Border> </ControlTemplate> </ResourceDictionary> My page objects all load their respective xaml with the follwoing code: type Page1() as this = inherit UriUserControl("/FSSilverlightApp;component/Page1.xaml") do Application.LoadComponent(this, base.uri) and somewhere in app startup: let p1 = new Page1() I donot have a comparable piece for the ControlTemplate - though I was hoping the application object and App.xaml would pull it in magically (as an aside, the reliance on this magic has made setting up a 100% f# silverlight application rather tricky - as nearly all the published articles I find are based around wizards and short cuts - very little on the acual plumbing - ugh). Any advice or thougts on the subject are appreciated.

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  • Common DataAnnotations in ASP.Net MVC2

    - by Scott Mayfield
    Howdy, I have what should be a simple question. I have a set of validations that use System.CompontentModel.DataAnnotations . I have some validations that are specific to certain view models, so I'm comfortable with having the validation code in the same file as my models (as in the default AccountModels.cs file that ships with MVC2). But I have some common validations that apply to several models as well (valid email address format for example). When I cut/paste that validation to the second model that needs it, of course I get a duplicate definition error because they're in the same namespace (projectName.Models). So I thought of removing the common validations to a separate class within the namespace, expecting that all of my view models would be able to access the validations from there. Unexpectedly, the validations are no longer accessible. I've verified that they are still in the same namespace, and they are all public. I wouldn't expect that I would have to have any specific reference to them (tried adding using statement for the same namespace, but that didn't resolve it, and via the add references dialog, a project can't reference itself (makes sense). So any idea why public validations that have simply been moved to another file in the same namespace aren't visible to my models? CommonValidations.cs using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.ComponentModel; using System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations; using System.Text.RegularExpressions; namespace ProjectName.Models { public class CommonValidations { [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Field | AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = true, Inherited = true)] public sealed class EmailFormatValidAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { if (value != null) { var expression = @"^[a-zA-Z][\w\.-]*[a-zA-Z0-9]@[a-zA-Z0-9][\w\.-]*[a-zA-Z0-9]\.[a-zA-Z][a-zA-Z\.]*[a-zA-Z]$"; return Regex.IsMatch(value.ToString(), expression); } else { return false; } } } } } And here's the code that I want to use the validation from: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.ComponentModel; using System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations; using Growums.Models; namespace ProjectName.Models { public class PrivacyModel { [Required(ErrorMessage="Required")] [EmailFormatValid(ErrorMessage="Invalid Email")] public string Email { get; set; } } }

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  • hibernate column uniqueness question

    - by Seth
    I'm still in the process of learning hibernate/hql and I have a question that's half best practices question/half sanity check. Let's say I have a class A: @Entity public class A { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; @Column(unique=true) private String name = ""; //getters, setters, etc. omitted for brevity } I want to enforce that every instance of A that gets saved has a unique name (hence the @Column annotation), but I also want to be able to handle the case where there's already an A instance saved that has that name. I see two ways of doing this: 1) I can catch the org.hibernate.exception.ConstraintViolationException that could be thrown during the session.saveOrUpdate() call and try to handle it. 2) I can query for existing instances of A that already have that name in the DAO before calling session.saveOrUpdate(). Right now I'm leaning towards approach 2, because in approach 1 I don't know how to programmatically figure out which constraint was violated (there are a couple of other unique members in A). Right now my DAO.save() code looks roughly like this: public void save(A a) throws DataAccessException, NonUniqueNameException { Session session = sessionFactory.getCurrentSession(); try { session.beginTransaction(); Query query = null; //if id isn't null, make sure we don't count this object as a duplicate if(obj.getId() == null) { query = session.createQuery("select count(a) from A a where a.name = :name").setParameter("name", obj.getName()); } else { query = session.createQuery("select count(a) from A a where a.name = :name " + "and a.id != :id").setParameter("name", obj.getName()).setParameter("name", obj.getName()); } Long numNameDuplicates = (Long)query.uniqueResult(); if(numNameDuplicates > 0) throw new NonUniqueNameException(); session.saveOrUpdate(a); session.getTransaction().commit(); } catch(RuntimeException e) { session.getTransaction().rollback(); throw new DataAccessException(e); //my own class } } Am I going about this in the right way? Can hibernate tell me programmatically (i.e. not as an error string) which value is violating the uniqueness constraint? By separating the query from the commit, am I inviting thread-safety errors, or am I safe? How is this usually done? Thanks!

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  • How to create a compiler in vb.net

    - by Cyclone
    Before answering this question, understand that I am not asking how to create my own programming language, I am asking how, using vb.net code, I can create a compiler for a language like vb.net itself. Essentially, the user inputs code, they get a .exe. By NO MEANS do I want to write my own language, as it seems other compiler related questions on here have asked. I also do not want to use the vb.net compiler itself, nor do I wish to duplicate the IDE. The exact purpose of what I wish to do is rather hard to explain, but all I need is a nudge in the right direction for writing a compiler (from scratch if possible) which can simply take input and create a .exe. I have opened .exe files as plain text before (my own programs) to see if I could derive some meaning from what I assumed would be human readable text, yet I was obviously sorely disappointed to see the random ascii, though it is understandable why this is all I found. I know that a .exe file is simply lines of code, being parsed by the computer it is on, but my question here really boils down to this: What code makes up a .exe? How could I go about making one in a plain text editor if I wanted to? (No, I do not want to do that, but if I understand the process my goals will be much easier to achieve.) What makes an executable file an executable file? Where does the logic of the code fit in? This is intended to be a programming question as opposed to a computer question, which is why I did not post it on SuperUser. I know plenty of information about the System.IO namespace, so I know how to create a file and write to it, I simply do not know what exactly I would be placing inside this file to get it to work as an executable file. I am sorry if this question is "confusing", "dumb", or "obvious", but I have not been able to find any information regarding the actual contents of an executable file anywhere. One of my google searches Something that looked promising EDIT: The second link here, while it looked good, was an utter fail. I am not going to waste hours of my time hitting keys and recording the results. "Use the "Alt" and the 3-digit combinations to create symbols that do not appear on the keyboard but that you need in the program." (step 4) How the heck do I know what symbols I need??? Thank you very much for your help, and my apologies if this question is a nooby or "bad" one. To sum this up simply: I want to create a program in vb.net that can compile code in a particular language to a single executable file. What methods exist that can allow me to do this, and if there are none, how can I go about writing my own from scratch?

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