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  • WPF - ListBox ignores Style When ItemsSource is bound

    - by Andy T
    Hi, I have created styled a ListBox in WPF so that it is rendered as a checkbox list. When I populate the ListBox's items manually, the styling works perfectly. However, when I instead bind the ItemsSource of the ListBox to a static resource (an ItemsControl containing the required items), the styling is completely dropped. Here's the style: <Style x:Key="CheckBoxListStyle" TargetType="ListBox"> <Style.Resources> <Style TargetType="ListBoxItem"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="ListBoxItem"> <Grid Margin="2"> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" /> <ColumnDefinition /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <CheckBox IsChecked="{Binding IsSelected, RelativeSource={RelativeSource TemplatedParent}, Mode=TwoWay}"/> <ContentPresenter Grid.Column="1" Margin="2,0,0,0" /> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> </Style.Resources> <Setter Property="ItemsPanel"> <Setter.Value> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <WrapPanel Orientation="Vertical" /> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> <Setter Property="BorderThickness" Value="0" /> <Setter Property="Background" Value="Transparent" /> </Style> Here's the code for the ListBox that shows the style correctly: <ListBox x:Name="ColumnsList" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="0" Style="{StaticResource CheckBoxListStyle}" BorderThickness="1"> <ListBox.Items> <ListBoxItem>Test</ListBoxItem> <ListBoxItem>Test2</ListBoxItem> <ListBoxItem>Test3</ListBoxItem> </ListBox.Items> </ListBox> Here's the code for the ListBox that ignores the style: <ListBox x:Name="ColumnsList2" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="0" Style="{StaticResource CheckBoxListStyle}" BorderThickness="1" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource Test1}, Path=Items}"> </ListBox> Hoping someone can help - I'm pretty new to all this and have tried everything I can think of, but everything I've read leads me to believe that setting ItemsSource should have the same outcome as setting the items manually, so I can't see any reason why this would not work. Thanks, AT

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  • WordPress Write Cache Problem with Multiple Sessions

    - by Volomike
    I'm working on a content dripper custom plugin in WordPress that my client asked me to build. He says he wants it to catch a page view event, and if it's the right time of day (24 hours since last post), to pull from a resource file and output another post. He needed it to also raise a flag and prevent other sessions from firing that same snippet of code. So, raise some kind of flag saying, "I'm posting that post, go away other process," and then it makes that post and releases the flag again. However, the strangest thing is occurring when placed under load with multiple sessions hitting the site with page views. It's firing instead of one post -- it's randomly doing like 1, 2, or 3 extra posts, with each one thinking that it was the right time to post because it was 24 hours past the time of the last post. Because it's somewhat random, I'm guessing that the problem is some kind of write caching where the other sessions don't see the raised flag just yet until a couple microseconds pass. The plugin was raising the "flag" by simply writing to the wp_options table with the update_option() API in WordPress. The other user sessions were supposed to read that value with get_option() and see the flag, and then not run that piece of code that creates the post because a given session was already doing it. Then, when done, I lower the flag and the other sessions continue as normal. But what it's doing is letting those other sessions in. To make this work, I was using add_action('loop_start','checkToAddContent'). The odd thing about that function though is that it's called more than once on a page, and in fact some plugins may call it. I don't know if there's a better event to hook. Even still, even if I find an event to hook that only runs once on a page view, I still have multiple sessions to contend with (different users who may view the page at the same time) and I want only one given session to trigger the content post when the post is due on the schedule. I'm wondering if there are any WordPress plugin devs out there who could suggest another event hook to latch on to, and to figure out another way to raise a flag that all sessions would see. I mean, I could use the shared memory API in PHP, but many hosting plans have that disabled. Can't use a cookie or session var because that's only one single session. About the only thing that might work across hosting plans would be to drop a file as a flag, instead. If the file is present, then one session has the flag. If the file is not present, then other sessions can attempt to get the flag. Sure, I could use the file route, but it's kind of immature in my opinion and I was wondering if there's something in WordPress I could do.

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  • Understanding CLR 2.0 Memory Model

    - by Eloff
    Joe Duffy, gives 6 rules that describe the CLR 2.0+ memory model (it's actual implementation, not any ECMA standard) I'm writing down my attempt at figuring this out, mostly as a way of rubber ducking, but if I make a mistake in my logic, at least someone here will be able to catch it before it causes me grief. Rule 1: Data dependence among loads and stores is never violated. Rule 2: All stores have release semantics, i.e. no load or store may move after one. Rule 3: All volatile loads are acquire, i.e. no load or store may move before one. Rule 4: No loads and stores may ever cross a full-barrier (e.g. Thread.MemoryBarrier, lock acquire, Interlocked.Exchange, Interlocked.CompareExchange, etc.). Rule 5: Loads and stores to the heap may never be introduced. Rule 6: Loads and stores may only be deleted when coalescing adjacent loads and stores from/to the same location. I'm attempting to understand these rules. x = y y = 0 // Cannot move before the previous line according to Rule 1. x = y z = 0 // equates to this sequence of loads and stores before possible re-ordering load y store x load 0 store z Looking at this, it appears that the load 0 can be moved up to before load y, but the stores may not be re-ordered at all. Therefore, if a thread sees z == 0, then it also will see x == y. If y was volatile, then load 0 could not move before load y, otherwise it may. Volatile stores don't seem to have any special properties, no stores can be re-ordered with respect to each other (which is a very strong guarantee!) Full barriers are like a line in the sand which loads and stores can not be moved over. No idea what rule 5 means. I guess rule 6 means if you do: x = y x = z Then it is possible for the CLR to delete both the load to y and the first store to x. x = y z = y // equates to this sequence of loads and stores before possible re-ordering load y store x load y store z // could be re-ordered like this load y load y store x store z // rule 6 applied means this is possible? load y store x // but don't pop y from stack (or first duplicate item on top of stack) store z What if y was volatile? I don't see anything in the rules that prohibits the above optimization from being carried out. This does not violate double-checked locking, because the lock() between the two identical conditions prevents the loads from being moved into adjacent positions, and according to rule 6, that's the only time they can be eliminated. So I think I understand all but rule 5, here. Anyone want to enlighten me (or correct me or add something to any of the above?)

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  • How can I create specialized builders for semantic layout in rails?

    - by Paul Alexander
    This is how I'd like to write markup in say index.html.erb <%= page_for "Super Cool Page" do |p| %> <%= p.header do %> Ruby is Cool <% end %> <%= p.body do %> Witty discourse on Ruby. <% end %> <% if page.has_sidebar? %> <%= p.sidebar do %> <ul><li>Option 1</li></ul> <% end %> <% end %> <% end %> Which would output <div class="page"> <header><h1>Super Cool Page</h1></header> <section> Witty discourse on Ruby. </section> </div> and when page.has_sidebar? is true <div class="page"> <header><h1>Super Cool Page</h1></header> <asside><ul><li>Option 1</li></ul></asside> <section> Witty discourse on Ruby. </section> </div> I've taken a look at the FormHelper class in rails for guidance, but it seems like I'd have to duplicate a lot of work which I'm trying to avoid. I'm really just trying to figure out where to hang the classes/modules/methods in the framework and whit kind of object |p| should be. My first inclination was to create a PageBuilder class that implements header, body and sidebar methods. But I got stuck on the rendering pipeline to get everything output just right. Is there a gem that already provides this type of semantic generation? If not I'd love any insight on how to set this up.

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  • Exception opening TAdoDataset: Arguments are of the wrong type, are out of acceptable range, or are

    - by Dave Falkner
    I've been trying to debug the following problem for several weeks now - this method is called from several places within the same datamodule, but this exception (from the subject line of this post) only occurs when integers for a certain purpose (pickup orders vs. orders that we ship through a carrier) are used - and don't ask me how the application can tell the difference between one integer's purpose and another! Furthermore, I cannot duplicate this issue on my machine - the error occurs on a warehouse machine but not my own development machine, even when working with the same production database. I have suspected an MDAC version conflict between the two machines, but have run a version checker and confirmed that both machines are running 2.8, and additionally have confirmed this by logging the TAdoDataset's .Version property at runtime. function TdmESShip.SecondaryID(const PrimaryID : Integer ): String; begin try with qESPackage2 do begin if Active then Close; LogMessage('-----------------------------------'); LogMessage('Version: ' + FConnection.Version); LogMessage('DB Info: ' + FConnection.Properties['Initial Catalog'].Value + ' ' + FConnection.Properties['Data Source'].Value); LogMessage('Setting the parameter.'); Parameters.ParamByName('ParameterName').Value := PrimaryID; LogMessage('Done setting the parameter.'); Open; Ninety-nine times out of 100 this logging code logs a successful operation as follows: Version: 2.8 DB Info: (database name and instance) Setting the parameter. Done setting the parameter. Opened the dataset. But then whenever a "pickup" order is processed, this exception gets thrown whenever the dataset is opened: Version: 2.8 DB Info: (database name and instance) Setting the parameter. Done setting the parameter. GetESPackageID() threw an exception. Type: EOleException, Message: Arguments are of the wrong type, are out of acceptable range, or are in conflict with one another Error: Arguments are of the wrong type, are out of acceptable range, or are in conflict with one another for packageID 10813711 I've tried eliminating the parameter and have built the commandtext for this dataset programmatically, suspecting that some part of the TParameter's configuration might be out of whack, but the same error occurs under the same circumstances. I've tried every combination of TParameter properties that I can think of - this is the millionth TParameter I've created for my millionth dataset, and I've never encountered this error. I've even created a second dataset from scratch and removed all references to the original dataset in case some property of the original dataset in the .dfm might be corrupted, but the same error occurs under the same circumstances. The commandtext for this dataset is a simple select ValueA from TableName where ValueB = @ParameterB I'm about ready to do something extreme, such as writing a web service to look these values up - it feels right now as though I could destroy my machine, rebuild it, rewrite this entire application from scratch, and the application would still know to throw an exception whenever I try to look up a secondary value from a primary value, but only for pickup orders, and only from the one machine in the warehouse, but I'm probably missing something simple. So, any help anyone could provide would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Mapping two tables 0..n in Hibernate

    - by simon
    I have a table Users CREATE TABLE "USERS" ( "ID" NUMBER NOT NULL , "LOGINNAME" VARCHAR2 (150) NOT NULL ) and I have a second table SpecialUsers. No UserId can occur twice in the SpecialUsers table, and only a small subset of the ids of users in the Users table are contained in the SpecialUsers table. CREATE TABLE "SPECIALUSERS" ( "USERID" NUMBER NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT "PK_SPECIALUSERS" PRIMARY KEY ("USERID") ) ALTER TABLE "SPECIALUSERS" ADD CONSTRAINT "FK_SPECIALUSERS_USERID" FOREIGN KEY ("USERID") REFERENCES "USERS" ("ID") / Mapping the Users table in Hibernate works ok <hibernate-mapping package="com.initech.domain"> <class name="com.initech.User" table="USERS"> <id name="id" column="ID" type="java.lang.Long"> <meta attribute="use-in-tostring">true</meta> <generator class="sequence"> <param name="sequence">SEQ_USERS_ID</param> </generator> </id> <property name="loginName" column="LOGINNAME" type="java.lang.String" not-null="true"> <meta attribute="use-in-tostring">true</meta> </property> </class> </hibernate-mapping> But I'm struggling in creating the mapping for the SpecialUsers table. All the examples (e.g. in Hibernate documentation) in Internet I found don't have this type of self-reference. I tried a mapping like this: <hibernate-mapping package="com.initech.domain"> <class name="com.initech.User" table="SPECIALUSERS"> <id name="id" column="USERID"> <meta attribute="use-in-tostring">true</meta> <generator class="foreign"> <param name="property">user</param> </generator> </id> <one-to-one name="user" class="User"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping> but got the error Invocation of init method failed; nested exception is org.hibernate.DuplicateMappingException: Duplicate class/entity mapping com.initech.User How should I map the SpecialUsers table? What I need on the application level is a list of the User objects contained in the SpecialUsers table.

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  • Recursive N-way merge/diff algorithm for directory trees?

    - by BobMcGee
    What algorithms or Java libraries are available to do N-way, recursive diff/merge of directories? I need to be able to generate a list of folder trees that have many identical files, and have subdirectories with many similar files. I want to be able to use 2-way merge operations to quickly remove as much redundancy as possible. Goals: Find pairs of directories that have many similar files between them. Generate short list of directory pairs that can be synchronized with 2-way merge to eliminate duplicates Should operate recursively (there may be nested duplicates of higher-level directories) Run time and storage should be O(n log n) in numbers of directories and files Should be able to use an embedded DB or page to disk for processing more files than fit in memory (100,000+). Optional: generate an ancestry and change-set between folders Optional: sort the merge operations by how many duplicates they can elliminate I know how to use hashes to find duplicate files in roughly O(n) space, but I'm at a loss for how to go from this to finding partially overlapping sets between folders and their children. EDIT: some clarification The tricky part is the difference between "exact same" contents (otherwise hashing file hashes would work) and "similar" (which will not). Basically, I want to feed this algorithm at a set of directories and have it return a set of 2-way merge operations I can perform in order to reduce duplicates as much as possible with as few conflicts possible. It's effectively constructing an ancestry tree showing which folders are derived from each other. The end goal is to let me incorporate a bunch of different folders into one common tree. For example, I may have a folder holding programming projects, and then copy some of its contents to another computer to work on it. Then I might back up and intermediate version to flash drive. Except I may have 8 or 10 different versions, with slightly different organizational structures or folder names. I need to be able to merge them one step at a time, so I can chose how to incorporate changes at each step of the way. This is actually more or less what I intend to do with my utility (bring together a bunch of scattered backups from different points in time). I figure if I can do it right I may as well release it as a small open source util. I think the same tricks might be useful for comparing XML trees though.

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  • multiple definition of inline function

    - by K71993
    Hi, I have gone through some posts related to this topic but was not able to sort out my doubt completly. This might be a very navie question. Code Description I have a header file "inline.h" and two translation unit "main.cpp" and "tran.cpp". Details of code are as below inline.h file details #ifndef __HEADER__ #include <stdio.h> extern inline int func1(void) { return 5; } static inline int func2(void) { return 6; } inline int func3(void) { return 7; } #endif main.c file details are below #define <stdio.h> #include <inline.h> int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { printf("%d\n",func1()); printf("%d\n",func2()); printf("%d\n",func3()); return 0; } tran.cpp file details (Not that the functions are not inline here) #include <stdio.h> int func1(void) { return 500; } int func2(void) { return 600; } int func3(void) { return 700; } Question The above code does not compile in gcc compiler whereas compiles in g++ (Assuming you make changes related to gcc in code like changing the code to .c not using any C++ header files... etc). The error displayed is "duplicate definition of inline function - func3". Can you clarify why this difference is present across compile? When you run the program (g++ compiled) by creating two seperate compilation unit (main.o and tran.o and create an executable a.out), the output obtained is 500 6 700 Why does the compiler pick up the definition of the function which is not inline. Actually since #include is used to "add" the inline definiton I had expected 5,6,7 as the output. My understanding was during compilation since the inline definition is found, the function call would be "replaced" by inline function definition. Can you please tell me in detailed steps the process of compilation and linking which would lead us to 500,6,700 output. I can only understand the output 6. Thanks in advance for valuable input.

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  • cannot retrieve effect.fx file

    - by numerical25
    I am having issues loading my effect.fx from directx. When I step into my application, my ID3D10Effect *m_pDefaultEffect; pointer remains empty. the address remains at 0x000000 below is my code #pragma once #include "stdafx.h" #include "resource.h" #include "d3d10.h" #include "d3dx10.h" #include "dinput.h" #define MAX_LOADSTRING 100 class RenderEngine { protected: RECT m_screenRect; //direct3d Members ID3D10Device *m_pDevice; // The IDirect3DDevice10 // interface ID3D10Texture2D *m_pBackBuffer; // Pointer to the back buffer ID3D10RenderTargetView *m_pRenderTargetView; // Pointer to render target view IDXGISwapChain *m_pSwapChain; // Pointer to the swap chain RECT m_rcScreenRect; // The dimensions of the screen ID3D10Texture2D *m_pDepthStencilBuffer; ID3D10DepthStencilState *m_pDepthStencilState; ID3D10DepthStencilView *m_pDepthStencilView; //transformation matrixs D3DXMATRIX g_mtxWorld; D3DXMATRIX g_mtxView; D3DXMATRIX g_mtxProj; //Effect members ID3D10Effect *m_pDefaultEffect; ID3D10EffectTechnique *m_pDefaultTechnique; ID3DX10Font *m_pFont; // The font used for rendering text // Sprites used to hold font characters ID3DX10Sprite *m_pFontSprite; ATOM RegisterEngineClass(); void DoFrame(float); bool LoadEffects(); public: static HINSTANCE m_hInst; HWND m_hWnd; int m_nCmdShow; TCHAR m_szTitle[MAX_LOADSTRING]; // The title bar text TCHAR m_szWindowClass[MAX_LOADSTRING]; // the main window class name void DrawTextString(int x, int y, D3DXCOLOR color, const TCHAR *strOutput); //static functions static LRESULT CALLBACK WndProc(HWND hWnd, UINT message, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam); static INT_PTR CALLBACK About(HWND hDlg, UINT message, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam); bool InitWindow(); bool InitDirectX(); bool InitInstance(); int Run(); void ShutDown(); RenderEngine() { m_screenRect.right = 800; m_screenRect.bottom = 600; } }; below is the implementation bool RenderEngine::LoadEffects() { HRESULT hr; ID3D10Blob *pErrors = 0; // Create the default rendering effect hr = D3DX10CreateEffectFromFile(L"effect.fx", NULL, NULL, "fx_4_0", D3D10_SHADER_DEBUG, 0, m_pDevice, NULL, NULL, &m_pDefaultEffect, &pErrors, NULL); if(pErrors)// at this point, m_pDefaultEffect is still empty but pErrors returns data which means there is {//errors return false; //ends here } //m_pDefaultTechnique = m_pDefaultEffect->GetTechniqueByName("DefaultTechnique"); return true; } My directx Device does work. My effect.fx file is in the same folder as my solution files (.cpp and header files)

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  • ASP.NET MVC Custom Error Pages with Magical Unicorn

    - by FLClover
    my question is regarding Pure.Kromes answer to this post. I tried implementing my pages' custom error messages using his method, yet there are some problems I can't quite explain. a) When I provoke a 404 Error by entering in invalid URL such as localhost:3001/NonexistantPage, it defaults to the ServerError() Action of my error controller even though it should go to NotFound(). Here is my ErrorController: public class ErrorController : Controller { public ActionResult NotFound() { Response.TrySkipIisCustomErrors = true; Response.StatusCode = (int)HttpStatusCode.NotFound; var viewModel = new ErrorViewModel() { ServerException = Server.GetLastError(), HTTPStatusCode = Response.StatusCode }; return View(viewModel); } public ActionResult ServerError() { Response.TrySkipIisCustomErrors = true; Response.StatusCode = (int)HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; var viewModel = new ErrorViewModel() { ServerException = Server.GetLastError(), HTTPStatusCode = Response.StatusCode }; return View(viewModel); } } My error routes in Global.asax.cs: routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.IgnoreRoute("{*favicon}", new { favicon = @"(.*/)?favicon.ico(/.*)?" }); routes.MapRoute( name: "Error - 404", url: "NotFound", defaults: new { controller = "Error", action = "NotFound" } ); routes.MapRoute( name: "Error - 500", url: "ServerError", defaults: new { controller = "Error", action = "ServerError" } ); And my web.config settings: <system.web> <customErrors mode="On" redirectMode="ResponseRewrite" defaultRedirect="/ServerError"> <error statusCode="404" redirect="/NotFound" /> </customErrors> ... </system.web> <system.webServer> <httpErrors errorMode="Custom" existingResponse="Replace"> <remove statusCode="404" subStatusCode="-1" /> <error statusCode="404" path="/NotFound" responseMode="ExecuteURL" /> <remove statusCode="500" subStatusCode="-1" /> <error statusCode="500" path="/ServerError" responseMode="ExecuteURL" /> </httpErrors> ... The Error views are located in /Views/Error/ as NotFound.cshtml and ServerError.cshtml. b) One funny thing is, When a server error occurs, it does in fact display the Server Error view I defined, however it also outputs a default error message as well saying that the Error page could not be found. Here's how it looks like: Do you have any advice how I could fix these two problems? I really like Pure.Kromes approach to implementing these error messages, but if there are better ways of achieving this don't hestitate to tell me. Thanks! *EDIT : * I can directly navigate to my views through the ErrorController by accessing /Error/NotFound or Error/ServerError. The views themselves only contain some text, no markup or anything. As I said, it actually works in some way, just not the way I intended it to work. There seems to be an issue with the redirect in the web.config, but I haven't been able to figure it out.

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  • In a DDD approach, is this example modelled correctly?

    - by Tag
    Just created an acc on SO to ask this :) Assuming this simplified example: building a web application to manage projects... The application has the following requirements/rules. 1) Users should be able to create projects inserting the project name. 2) Project names cannot be empty. 3) Two projects can't have the same name. I'm using a 4-layered architecture (User Interface, Application, Domain, Infrastructure). On my Application Layer i have the following ProjectService.cs class: public class ProjectService { private IProjectRepository ProjectRepo { get; set; } public ProjectService(IProjectRepository projectRepo) { ProjectRepo = projectRepo; } public void CreateNewProject(string name) { IList<Project> projects = ProjectRepo.GetProjectsByName(name); if (projects.Count > 0) throw new Exception("Project name already exists."); Project project = new Project(name); ProjectRepo.InsertProject(project); } } On my Domain Layer, i have the Project.cs class and the IProjectRepository.cs interface: public class Project { public int ProjectID { get; private set; } public string Name { get; private set; } public Project(string name) { ValidateName(name); Name = name; } private void ValidateName(string name) { if (name == null || name.Equals(string.Empty)) { throw new Exception("Project name cannot be empty or null."); } } } public interface IProjectRepository { void InsertProject(Project project); IList<Project> GetProjectsByName(string projectName); } On my Infrastructure layer, i have the implementation of IProjectRepository which does the actual querying (the code is irrelevant). I don't like two things about this design: 1) I've read that the repository interfaces should be a part of the domain but the implementations should not. That makes no sense to me since i think the domain shouldn't call the repository methods (persistence ignorance), that should be a responsability of the services in the application layer. (Something tells me i'm terribly wrong.) 2) The process of creating a new project involves two validations (not null and not duplicate). In my design above, those two validations are scattered in two different places making it harder (imho) to see whats going on. So, my question is, from a DDD perspective, is this modelled correctly or would you do it in a different way?

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  • Troubleshooting Multiple Endpoints Problem in WCF

    - by omatase
    I have been using WCF for a few years now and am fairly comfortable with it, however there is one simple WCF concept that I have yet to employ and am having difficulties with it. Following this article about WCF addressing as it specifically relates to multiple endpoints in IIS I see these two excerpts: "Suppose you have a file named calc.svc and you place it in a virtual directory that corresponds to (http://localhost:8080/calcservice). The base address for this service will be (http://localhost:8080/calcservice/calc.svc)." and "Now, consider the endpoint configuration found in the virtual directory’s web.config file (in Figure 3). In this case, the address of the first endpoint becomes the same as the base address (http://localhost:8080/calcservice/calc.svc) since I left the endpoint address empty. The address of the second endpoint becomes the combination of the base address appended with "secure", like this: (http://localhost:8080/calcservice/calc.svc/secure)." Now in my application I'm trying to create two endpoints for the same service (shown below). The service name is MainService.svc. For endpoint one I have address="" and endpoint two has address="Soap11". Bringing the site up in IIS I can successfully hit this URL: (https://localhost:444/MainService.svc). This is the base address for the service according to all the documentation I can find. According to this article and others I have seen that confirm its information I should have the second endpoint at (https://localhost:444/MainService.svc/Soap11) but if I navigate to that URL I get a .Net exception indicating the resource is not found. Is there a tool I can use to see where my different endpoints will be available? Maybe some IIS or aspnet_isapi.dll logging I can turn on? My web.config section defining my endpoints follows. Thanks in advance for your help <service behaviorConfiguration="MyService.MainServiceBehavior" name="MyService.MainService"> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="WSBindingConfig" contract="MyService.IMainService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="Soap11" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="BasicBindingWithCredentials" contract="MyService.IMainService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> </service>

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  • SurfaceView for Camera Preview won't get destroyed when pressing Power-Botton

    - by for3st
    I want to implement a camera preview. For that I have a custom View CameraView extends ViewGroup that in the constructor programatically creates an surfaceView. I have the following components (higly simplified for beverity): ScannerFragment.java public View onCreateView(..) { //inflate view and get cameraView } public void onResume() { //open camera -> set rotation -> startPreview (in a thread) -> //set preview callback -> start decoding worker } public void onPause() { // stop decoding worker -> stop Preview -> release camera } CameraView.java extends ViewGroup public void setUpCalledInConstructor(Context context) { //create a surfaceview and add it to this viewgroup -> //get SurfaceHolder and set callback } /* SurfaceHolder.Callback */ public void surfaceCreated(SurfaceHolder holder) { camera.setPreviewDisplay(holder); } public void surfaceDestroyed(SurfaceHolder holder) { //NOTHING is done here } public void surfaceChanged(SurfaceHolder holder, int format, int w, int h) { camera.getParameters().setPreviewSize(previewSize.width, previewSize.height); } fragment_scanner.xml <RelativeLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" xmlns:tools="http://schemas.android.com/tools" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent"> <com.myapp.camera.CameraView android:id="@+id/cameraPreview" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent"/> </RelativeLayout> I think I have set the lifecycle correct (getting resources onResume(), releasing it onPause() roughly said) and the following works just fine: pressing home and returning pressing Taskswitcher and returning rotation But one thing doesn't work and that is when I press the power-button on the device and then return to the camera-preview. The result is: the preview is stuck with the image that was last captured before button was pressed. If I rotate it works fine again, since it will get through the lifecycle. After some research I found out that this is probably due to the fact that surfaceView won't get destroyed when the power-button is pressed, i.e. SurfaceHolder.Callback.surfaceDestroyed(SurfaceHolder holder) won't be called. And in fact when I compare the (very verbose) log output of the home-button-case and the power-button-case it's the same except that 'surfaceDestroyed' won't get called. So far I found no solution whatsoever to work around it. I purposely avoid any resource cleaning code in my surfaceDestroyed(), but this does not help. My idea was to manually destroy the surfaceView like asked in this question but this seems not possible. I also tested other applications with surfaceViews/cameras and they don't seem to have this issue. So I would appreciate any hints or tips on that.

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  • Mocking objects with complex Lambda Expressions as parameters

    - by iCe
    Hi there, I´m encountering this problem trying to mock some objects that receive complex lambda expressions in my projects. Mostly with with proxy objects that receive this type of delegate: Func<Tobj, Fun<TParam1, TParam2, TResult>> I have tried to use Moq as well as RhinoMocks to acomplish mocking those types of objects, however both fail. (Moq fails with NotSupportedException, and in RhinoMocks simpy does not satisgy expectation). This is simplified example of what I´m trying to do: I have a Calculator object that does calculations: public class Calculator { public Calculator() { } public int Add(int x, int y) { var result = x + y; return result; } public int Substract(int x, int y) { var result = x - y; return result; } } I need to validate parameters on every method in the Calculator class, so to keep with the Single Responsability principle, I create a validator class. I wire everything up using a Proxy class, that prevents having duplicate code: public class CalculatorProxy : CalculatorExample.ICalculatorProxy { private ILimitsValidator _validator; public CalculatorProxy(Calculator _calc, ILimitsValidator _validator) { this.Calculator = _calc; this._validator = _validator; } public int Operation(Func&lt;Calculator, Func&lt;int, int, int&gt;&gt; operation, int x, int y) { _validator.ValidateArgs(x, y); var calcMethod = operation(this.Calculator); var result = calcMethod(x, y); _validator.ValidateResult(result); return result; } public Calculator Calculator { get; private set; } } Now, I´m testing a component that does use the CalculatorProxy, so I want to mock it, for example using Rhino Mocks: [TestMethod] public void ParserWorksWithCalcultaroProxy() { var calculatorProxyMock = MockRepository.GenerateMock&lt;ICalculatorProxy&gt;(); calculatorProxyMock.Expect(x =&gt; x.Calculator).Return(_calculator); calculatorProxyMock.Expect(x =&gt; x.Operation(c =&gt; c.Add, 2, 2)).Return(4); var mathParser = new MathParser(calculatorProxyMock); mathParser.ProcessExpression("2 + 2"); calculatorProxyMock.VerifyAllExpectations(); } However I cannot get it to work! Any ideas about how this can be done? Thanks a lot!

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  • Wondering about a way to conserve memory in C# using List<> with structs

    - by Michael Ryan
    I'm not even sure how I should phrase this question. I'm passing some CustomStruct objects as parameters to a class method, and storing them in a List. What I'm wondering is if it's possible and more efficient to add multiple references to a particular instance of a CustomStruct if a equivalent instance it found. This is a dummy/example struct: public struct CustomStruct { readonly int _x; readonly int _y; readonly int _w; readonly int _h; readonly Enum _e; } Using the below method, you can pass one, two, or three CustomStruct objects as parameters. In the final method (that takes three parameters), it may be the case that the 3rd and possibly the 2nd will have the same value as the first. List<CustomStruct> _list; public void AddBackground(CustomStruct normal) { AddBackground(normal, normal, normal); } public void AddBackground(CustomStruct normal, CustomStruct hover) { AddBackground(normal, hover, hover); } public void AddBackground(CustomStruct normal, CustomStruct hover, CustomStruct active) { _list = new List<CustomStruct>(3); _list.Add(normal); _list.Add(hover); _list.Add(active); } As the method stands now, I believe it will create new instances of CustomStruct objects, and then adds a reference of each to the List. It is my understanding that if I instead check for equality between normal and hover and (if equal) insert normal again in place of hover, when the method completes, hover will lose all references and eventually be garbage collected, whereas normal will have two references in the List. The same could be done for active. That would be better, right? The CustomStruct is a ValueType, and therefore one instance would remain on the Stack, and the three List references would just point to it. The overall List size is determined not by the object Type is contains, but by its Capacity. By eliminating the "duplicate" CustomStuct objects, you allow them to be cleaned up. When the CustomStruct objects are passed to these methods, new instances are created each time. When the structs are added to the List, is another copy made? For example, if i pass just one CustomStruct, AddBackground(normal) creates a copy of the original variable, and then passes it three times to Addbackground(normal, hover, active). In this method, three copies are made of the original copy. When the three local variables are added to the List using Add(), are additional copies created inside Add(), and does that defeat the purpose of any equality checks as previously mentioned? Am I missing anything here?

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  • Custom activity designers in Workflow Foundation 3.5: How do they work?

    - by stakx
    Intent of this post: I realise that Workflow Foundation is not extremely popular on StackOverflow and that there will probably be not many answers, or none at all. This post is intended as a resource to people trying to customise workflow activities' appearance through custom designer classes. Goals: I am attempting to create a custom designer class for Workflow activities to achieve the following: Make activities look less technical. For example, I don't necessarily want to see the internal object name as the activity's "title" -- instead, I'd like to see something more descriptive. Display the values of certain properties beneath the title text. I would like to see some properties' values directly underneath the title so that I don't need to look somewhere else (namely, at the Properties window). Provide custom drop areas and draw custom internal arrows. As an example, I would like to be able to have custom drop areas in very specific places. What I found out so far: I created a custom designer class deriving from SequentialActivityDesigner as follows: [Designer(typeof(SomeDesigner))] public partial class SomeActivity: CompositeActivity { ... } class PlainDesigner : SequentialActivityDesigner { ... } Through overriding some properties and the OnPaint method, I found out about the following correspondences between the properties and how the activity will be displayed: Figure 1. Relationship between some properties of an SequentialActivityDesigner and the displayed activity. Possible solutions for goal #1 (make activities look less technical) and goal #2 (display values of properties beneath title text): The displayed title can be changed through the Title property. If more room is required to display additional information beneath the title, the TitleHeight property can be increased (ie., override the property and make it return base.TitleHeight + n, where n is some positive integer). Override the OnPaint method and draw additional text in the area reserved through TitleHeight. Open questions: What are the connectors, connections, and connection points used for? They seem to be necessary, but for what purpose? While the drop targets can be got through the GetDropTargets method, it seems that this is not necessarily where the designer will actually place dropped activities. When an activity is dragged across a workflow, the designer displays little green plus signs where activities can be dropped; how does it figure out the locations of these plus signs? How does the designer figure out where to draw connector lines and arrows?

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  • a question about rails general practice with REST, json, and ajax

    - by Nik
    Hi all, I have this question concerning REST I think: I have read a few rest tutorials and the feeling I get from them is that each action in a restful controller tends to be lean and almost single purpose: "Index gives off a collection of a model show gives off one model edit/new a prep place for changing/create a model update/create changes and makes new model deletes removes one model" After reading all these tutorials, rest seems to be to be a means to create an interface for a model, much like active resource type of thing. the mantra seems to be "controller provides data and data only and is also pretty convention over configuration, so expect projects_path to return a bunch of projects" I can understand that, and I like the cleanliness. But here's when I run into some trouble in reality in applying these guidelines: say three models, Project with attrib title, User with attrib name, and Location with attrib address. Say in views/users/index.html.erb, I want to use Ajax to fetch and display a project in a div#project_display when the user clicks on a project element, I know that I can use views/projects/show.js.rjs like this: page.replace_html 'project_display' "#{@project.name}" where in the projects_controller.rb def show @project = Project.find(params[:id]) repsond_to do |format| format.js and other formats... end end I have no problem in doing that for a couple of years now. BUT doesn't that mean that my JS response for the project#show action is LOCkED to present data to div#project_display element and show only whatever I that rjs template says it should show? That's very limiting and doesn't sound very "interface" like. I have never used JSON before or much XML, so I thought, maybe the JS response should send back raw stuff, like JSON and somehow the page on which the ajax request was called has the instruction on what do to with these raw data. That sounds a lot more flexible, doesn't it? Because look back at that exmpale, what if in the views/locations/index.html.erb, I want to do the exact same thing except I want to put the response in div#project_goes_here and the response should be #{project.name} I know this is a trivial change but that's the point: the RJS only allows one template at a time. So I think the JSON route is the way to go, but how does the already loaded page, the one that the ajax call came from, know when or how to "look forward" to incoming data? I read that PrototypeJS has this template thing, I wouldn't mind using it with JSON, but if you can demonstrate this or other means for displaying received-from-ajax data, I am all attention. Thank You

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  • Moving MVC2 Helpers to MVC3 razor view engine

    - by Dai Bok
    Hi, In my MVC 2 site, I have an html helper, that I use to add javascripts for my pages. In my master page I have the main javascripts I want to include, and then in the aspx pages, I include page specific javascripts. So for example, my Site.Master has something like this: .... <head> <%=html.renderScripts() %> </head> ... //core scripts for main page <%html.AddScript("/scripts/jquery.js") %> <%html.AddScript("/scripts/myLib.js") %> .... Then in the child aspx page, I may also want to include other scripts. ... //the page specific script I want to use <% html.AddScript("/scripts/register.aspx.js") %> ... So when the full page gets rendered the javascript files are all collected and rendered in the head by sitemaster placeholder function RenderScripts. This works fine. Now with MVC 3 and razor view engine, they layout pages behave differently, because now my page level javascripts are not rendered/included. Now all I see the LayoutMaster contents. How do I get the solution wo workwith MVC 3 and the razor view engine. (The helper has already been re-written to return a HTMLString ;-)) For reference: my MasterLayout looks like this: ... ... <head> @{ Html.AddJavaScript("/Scripts/jQuery.js"); Html.AddJavaScript("/Scripts/myLib.js"); } //Render scripts @html.RenderScripts() </head> .... and the child page looks like this: @{ Layout = "~/Views/Shared/MasterLayout.cshtml"; ViewBag.Title = "Child Page"; Html.AddJavaScript("/Scripts/register.aspx.js"); } .... <div>some html </div> Thanks for your help. Edit = Just to explain, if this question is not clear enough. When producing a "page" I collect all the javascript files the designers want to use, by using the html.addJavascript("filename.js") and store these in a dictionary - (1) stops people adding duplicate js files - then finally when the page is ready to render, I write out all the javascript files neatly in the header. (2) - this helper helps keep JS in one place, and prevents designers from adding javascript files all over the place. This used to work fine with Master/SiteMaster Pages in mvc 2. but how can I achieve this with razor?

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  • live search with Jquery

    - by user272899
    Hello! I am trying to implement a live search on my site. I am using a script somebody has already created. http://www.reynoldsftw.com/2009/03/live-mysql-database-search-with-jquery/ I have got the Jquery, css, html working correctly but am having troubles with the php. I need to change it to contain my database information but everytime I do I recieve an error: Warning: mysql_fetch_array() expects parameter 1 to be resource, boolean given in C:\wamp\www\search.php on line 33 These are the details of my database: database name: development table name: links Columns: id, sitename, siteurl, description, category This is the php script <?php $dbhost = "localhost"; $dbuser = "root"; $dbpass = "password"; $dbname = "links"; $conn = mysql_connect($dbhost, $dbuser, $dbpass) or die ('Error connecting to mysql'); mysql_select_db($dbname); if(isset($_GET['query'])) { $query = $_GET['query']; } else { $query = ""; } if(isset($_GET['type'])) { $type = $_GET['type']; } else { $query = "count"; } if($type == "count") { $sql = mysql_query("SELECT count(url_id) FROM urls WHERE MATCH(url_url, url_title, url_desc) AGAINST('$query' IN BOOLEAN MODE)"); $total = mysql_fetch_array($sql); $num = $total[0]; echo $num; } if($type == "results") { $sql = mysql_query("SELECT url_url, url_title, url_desc FROM urls WHERE MATCH(url_url, url_title, url_desc) AGAINST('$query' IN BOOLEAN MODE)"); while($array = mysql_fetch_array($sql)) { $url_url = $array['url_url']; $url_title = $array['url_title']; $url_desc = $array['url_desc']; echo "<div class=\"url-holder\"><a href=\"" . $url_url . "\" class=\"url-title\" target=\"_blank\">" . $url_title . "</a> <div class=\"url-desc\">" . $url_desc . "</div></div>"; } } mysql_close($conn); ?> Can anybody help me input this database info correctly? I have tried many times but keep getting an error. Thanks in advance.

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  • Stuck on an ASP.NET/WCF WSDL Parsing Error

    - by Vaccano
    I have a WCF Web Service that my ASP.NET app uses. It has been working fine for quite some time. I just added in a Dev Express Grid (and the Dev Express DLLs) and a new page that uses them and now I am getting parsing errors on the WSDL. But the weird part is that it works fine on my machine but fails on the web server machine. (Both are connecting to the same web services WSDL.) Here is the error message I am getting: Server Error in '/MyWebAppWebDev' Application. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Parser Error Description: An error occurred during the parsing of a resource required to service this request. Please review the following specific parse error details and modify your source file appropriately. Parser Error Message: Reference.svcmap: Failed to generate code for the service reference 'MyWebAppService'. Cannot import wsdl:portType Detail: An exception was thrown while running a WSDL import extension: System.ServiceModel.Description.DataContractSerializerMessageContractImporter Error: Referenced type 'WebClientApp.MyWebAppService.ReferenceUpdatesDataContract, WebClientApp, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' with data contract name 'ReferenceUpdatesDataContract' in namespace 'http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/MyWebAppServiceLibrary.DataContracts' cannot be used since it does not match imported DataContract. Need to exclude this type from referenced types. XPath to Error Source: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:portType[@name='IMyWebAppReferenceDataServiceLib'] Cannot import wsdl:binding Detail: There was an error importing a wsdl:portType that the wsdl:binding is dependent on. XPath to wsdl:portType: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:portType[@name='IMyWebAppReferenceDataServiceLib'] XPath to Error Source: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:binding[@name='MyWebAppServicesDefaultEndpoint'] Cannot import wsdl:port Detail: There was an error importing a wsdl:binding that the wsdl:port is dependent on. XPath to wsdl:binding: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:binding[@name='MyWebAppServicesDefaultEndpoint'] XPath to Error Source: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:service[@name='MyWebAppReferenceDataServiceLib']/wsdl:port[@name='MyWebAppServicesDefaultEndpoint'] Source Error: [No relevant source lines] Source File: /MyWebAppWebDev/App_WebReferences/MyWebAppService/ Line: 1 I am completely stumped on this. I have checked my web.config endpoint address and it is spot on (and notably is not in the error message above). Any ideas would be welcomed. Things I have tried: Giving permissions to C:\Windows\temp to my Website user name Giving permissions to C:\Windows\temp to my App pool user name Checking to see that none of my data contracts are generic and have IsReference=true in them.

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  • Bogus WPF / XAML errors in Visual Studio 2010

    - by epalm
    There are bogus errors hanging around, but at runtime everything works. Right now, I'm getting Cannot locate resource 'img/icons/silk/arrow_refresh.png'. I've got a simple UserControl called ImageButton (doesn't everyone?): <UserControl x:Class="WinDispatchClientWpf.src.controls.ImageButton" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" mc:Ignorable="d"> <Button Name="btnButton" Click="btnButton_Click"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Image Name="btnImage" Stretch="None" /> <TextBlock Name="btnText" /> </StackPanel> </Button> </UserControl> Which does what you'd expect: [ContentProperty("Text")] public partial class ImageButton : UserControl { public String Image { set { btnImage.Source = GuiUtil.CreateBitmapImage(value); } } public String Text { set { btnText.Text = value; } } public double Gap { set { btnImage.Margin = new Thickness(0, 0, value, 0); } } public bool ToolBarStyle { set { if (value) { btnButton.Style = (Style)FindResource(ToolBar.ButtonStyleKey); } } } public bool IsCancel { set { btnButton.IsCancel = value; } } public bool IsDefault { set { btnButton.IsDefault = value; } } public event RoutedEventHandler Click; public ImageButton() { InitializeComponent(); } private void btnButton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { if (Click != null) { Click(sender, e); } } } Where CreateBitmapImage is the following: public static BitmapImage CreateBitmapImage(string imagePath) { BitmapImage icon = new BitmapImage(); icon.BeginInit(); icon.UriSource = new Uri(String.Format("pack://application:,,,/{0}", imagePath)); icon.EndInit(); return icon; } I can't see the design view of any xaml file that uses an ImageButton like such: <Window foo="bar" xmlns:wpfControl="clr-namespace:MyProj.src.controls"> <Grid> <wpfControl:ImageButton ToolBarStyle="True" Gap="3" Click="btnRefresh_Click" Text="Refresh" Image="img/icons/silk/arrow_refresh.png" /> </Grid> </Window> Why is VS complaining?

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  • How to use Wordpress' http.php in external projects?

    - by NJTechGuy
    I am trying to parse data from a pipe-delimited text file hosted on another server which in turn will be inserted in a database. My host (1and1) disabled allow_url_fopen in php.ini I guess. Error message : Warning: fopen() [function.fopen]: URL file-access is disabled in the server configuration in Code : <? // make sure curl is installed if (function_exists('curl_init')) { // initialize a new curl resource $ch = curl_init(); // set the url to fetch curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, 'http://abc.com/data/output.txt'); // don't give me the headers just the content curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); // return the value instead of printing the response to browser curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); // use a user agent to mimic a browser curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, 'Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 5.1; en-US; rv:1.7.5) Gecko/20041107 Firefox/1.0'); $content = curl_exec($ch); // remember to always close the session and free all resources curl_close($ch); } else { // curl library is not installed so we better use something else } //$contents = fread ($fd,filesize ($filename)); //fclose ($fd); $delimiter = "|"; $splitcontents = explode($delimiter, $contents); $counter = ""; ?> <font color="blue" face="arial" size="4">Complete File Contents</font> <hr> <? echo $contents; ?> <br><br> <font color="blue" face="arial" size="4">Split File Contents</font> <hr> <? foreach ( $splitcontents as $color ) { $counter = $counter+1; echo "<b>Split $counter: </b> $colorn<br>"; } ?> Wordpress has this cool http.php file. Is there a better way of doing it? If not, how do I use http.php for this task? Thank you guys..

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  • Hadoop in a RESTful Java Web Application - Conflicting URI templates

    - by user1231583
    I have a small Java Web Application in which I am using Jersey 1.12 and the Hadoop 1.0.0 JAR file (hadoop-core-1.0.0.jar). When I deploy my application to my JBoss 5.0 server, the log file records the following error: SEVERE: Conflicting URI templates. The URI template / for root resource class org.apache.hadoop.hdfs.server.namenode.web.resources.NamenodeWebHdfsMethods and the URI template / transform to the same regular expression (/.*)? To make sure my code is not the problem, I have created a fresh web application that contains nothing but the Jersey and Hadoop JAR files along with a small stub. My web.xml is as follows: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <web-app version="2.5" xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee/web-app_2_5.xsd"> <servlet> <servlet-name>ServletAdaptor</servlet-name> <servlet-class>com.sun.jersey.spi.container.servlet.ServletContainer</servlet- class> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>ServletAdaptor</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/mytest/*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> <session-config> <session-timeout> 30 </session-timeout> </session-config> <welcome-file-list> <welcome-file>index.jsp</welcome-file> </welcome-file-list> </web-app> My simple RESTful stub is as follows: import javax.ws.rs.core.Context; import javax.ws.rs.core.UriInfo; import javax.ws.rs.Path; @Path("/mytest") public class MyRest { @Context private UriInfo context; public MyRest() { } } In my regular application, when I remove the Hadoop JAR files (and the code that is using Hadoop), everything works as I would expect. The deployment is successful and the remaining RESTful services work. I have also tried the Hadoop 1.0.1 JAR files and have had the same problems with the conflicting URL template in the NamenodeWebHdfsMethods class. Any suggestions or tips in solving this problem would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Sorting based on existing elements in xslt

    - by Teelo
    Hi , I want to sort in xslt based on existing set of pattern . Let me explain with the code: <Types> <Type> <Names> <Name>Ryan</Name> </Names> <Address>2344</Address> </Type> <Type> <Names> </Name>Timber</Name> </Names> <Address>1234</Address> </Type> <Type> <Names> </Name>Bryan</Name> </Names> <Address>34</Address> </Type> </Types> Right now I m just calling it and getting it like (all hyperlinks) Ryan Timber Bryan Now I don't want sorting on name but I have existing pattern how I want it to get displayed.Like Timber Bryan Ryan (Also I don't want to lose the url attached to my names earlier while doing this) I was thinking of putting earlier value in some array and sort based on the other array where I will store my existing pattern. But I am not sure how to achieve that.. My xslt looks like this now(there can be duplicate names also) <xsl:for-each select="/Types/Type/Names/Name/text()[generate-id()=generate-id(key('Name',.)[1])]"> <xsl:call-template name="typename"> </xsl:call-template> </xsl:for-each> <xsl:template name="typename"> <li> <a href="somelogicforurl"> <xsl:value-of select="."/> </a> </li> </xsl:template> I am using xsl 1.0

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  • Python: Script works, but seems to deadlock after some time

    - by sberry2A
    I have the following script, which is working for the most part Link to PasteBin The script's job is to start a number of threads which in turn each start a subprocess with Popen. The output from each subprocess is as follows: 1 2 3 . . . n Done Bascially the subprocess is transferring 10M records from tables in one database to different tables in another db with a lot of data massaging/manipulation in between because of the different schemas. If the subprocess fails at any time in it's execution (bad records, duplicate primary keys, etc), or it completes successfully, it will output "Done\n". If there are no more records to select against for transfer then it will output "NO DATA\n" My intent was to create my script "tableTransfer.py" which would spawn a number of these processes, read their output, and in turn output information such as number of updates completed, time remaining, time elapsed, and number of transfers per second. I started running the process last night and checked in this morning to see it had deadlocked. There were not subprocceses running, there are still records to be updated, and the script had not exited. It was simply sitting there, no longer outputting the current information because no subprocces were running to update the total number complete which is what controls updates to the output. This is running on OS X. I am looking for three things: I would like to get rid of the possibility of this deadlock occurring so I don't need to check in on it as frequently. Is there some issue with locking? Am I doing this in a bad way (gThreading variable to control looping of spawning additional thread... etc.) I would appreciate some suggestions for improving my overall methodology. How should I handle ctrl-c exit? Right now I need to kill the process, but assume I should be able to use the signal module or other to catch the signal and kill the threads, is that right? I am not sure whether I should be pasting my entire script here, since I usually just paste snippets. Let me know if I should paste it here as well.

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