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  • Behavior of Struts2 and convention-plugin when there is Index(extends ActionSupport)

    - by hanishi
    We have an Action class named 'Index' immediately under com.example.common.action and is annotated @ParentPackage('default') which is declared in package directive in struts.xml and has "/" for its namespace and extends "struts-default". It also declares @Result so that it responses with jsp files corresponding the string values returned by its execute() method. In our struts.xml, the following struts setting is configured along with other necessary configurations that are needed for convention-plugin. <constant name="struts.action.extension" value=","/> When accessing /my_context/none_existing_path, the request apparently hits this Index class and the contents of the jsp declared in the Index's @Result section gets returned. However, if we provide /my_context/, we receive the following error: HTTP Status 404-There is no Action mapped for namespace[/] and action name [] associated with context path [/my_context]. We want to know the reason why accessing /my_context/none_existing_path, where none_existing_path has no matching action, can fallback to Index class, but error is returned when when the URL requested is just /my_context/. Currently, our convention-plugin settings are declared as follows: <constant name="struts.convention.package.locators.basePackage" value="com.example"/> <constant name="struts.convention.package.locators" value="action"/> Strangely, if we changed the value of the struts.convention.package.locators.basePackage to om.example.common, in which the aforementioned Index file can be immediately found by narrowing the search scope, requesting /my_context/ displays the content of the jsps declared in @Result section of the Index class. However, as our action classes are distributed throughout the com.example.[a-z].action packages, where [a-z] represents the large volume of directories we have in our package structure, we cannot use this trick as a workaround. We have also tried placing index.jsp at the top level of the class path, and have the index.jsp redirect to /my_context/index, which worked but not what we want. Could this be a bug? We appreciate your responses. Thank you in advance. EDIT: JIRA registered, problem solved (from Struts 2.3.12 up)

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  • Entity Framework does not map 2 columns from a SqlQuery calling a stored procedure

    - by user1783530
    I'm using Code First and am trying to call a stored procedure and have it map to one of my classes. I created a stored procedure, BOMComponentChild, that returns details of a Component with information of its hierarchy in PartsPath and MyPath. I have a class for the output of this stored procedure. I'm having an issue where everything except the two columns, PartsPath and MyPath, are being mapped correctly with these two properties ending up as Nothing. I searched around and from my understanding the mapping bypasses any Entity Framework name mapping and uses column name to property name. The names are the same and I'm not sure why it is only these two columns. The last part of the stored procedure is: SELECT t.ParentID ,t.ComponentID ,c.PartNumber ,t.PartsPath ,t.MyPath ,t.Layer ,c.[Description] ,loc.LocationID ,loc.LocationName ,CASE WHEN sup.SupplierID IS NULL THEN 1 ELSE sup.SupplierID END AS SupplierID ,CASE WHEN sup.SupplierName IS NULL THEN 'Scinomix' ELSE sup.SupplierName END AS SupplierName ,c.Active ,c.QA ,c.IsAssembly ,c.IsPurchasable ,c.IsMachined ,t.QtyRequired ,t.TotalQty FROM BuildProducts t INNER JOIN [dbo].[BOMComponent] c ON c.ComponentID = t.ComponentID LEFT JOIN [dbo].[BOMSupplier] bsup ON bsup.ComponentID = t.ComponentID AND bsup.IsDefault = 1 LEFT JOIN [dbo].[LookupSupplier] sup ON sup.SupplierID = bsup.SupplierID LEFT JOIN [dbo].[LookupLocation] loc ON loc.LocationID = c.LocationID WHERE (@IsAssembly IS NULL OR IsAssembly = @IsAssembly) ORDER BY t.MyPath and the class it maps to is: Public Class BOMComponentChild Public Property ParentID As Nullable(Of Integer) Public Property ComponentID As Integer Public Property PartNumber As String Public Property MyPath As String Public Property PartsPath As String Public Property Layer As Integer Public Property Description As String Public Property LocationID As Integer Public Property LocationName As String Public Property SupplierID As Integer Public Property SupplierName As String Public Property Active As Boolean Public Property QA As Boolean Public Property IsAssembly As Boolean Public Property IsPurchasable As Boolean Public Property IsMachined As Boolean Public Property QtyRequired As Integer Public Property TotalQty As Integer Public Property Children As IDictionary(Of String, BOMComponentChild) = New Dictionary(Of String, BOMComponentChild) End Class I am trying to call it like this: Me.Database.SqlQuery(Of BOMComponentChild)("EXEC [BOMComponentChild] @ComponentID, @PathPrefix, @IsAssembly", params).ToList() When I run the stored procedure in management studio, the columns are correct and not null. I just can't figure out why these won't map as they are the important information in the stored procedure. The types for PartsPath and MyPath are varchar(50).

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  • Why do I get null objects in a many-to-many bag?

    - by Jim Geurts
    I have a bag defined for a many-to-many list: <class name="Author" table="Authors"> <id name="Id" column="AuthorId"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Name" /> <bag name="Books" table="Author_Book_Map" where="IsDeleted=0" fetch="join"> <key column="AuthorId" /> <many-to-many class="Book" column="BookId" where="IsDeleted=0" /> </bag> </class> If I return all author objects using something like the following, I will get what initially appeared to be duplicate Author records: Session.Query<Author>().List<Author>() The extra author objects are created when an author is mapped to Book objects that have IsDeleted = 1 and IsDeleted = 0. Rather than creating one Author object with an enumerable that contains only the books with IsDeleted = 0, it will create two author objects. The first author object has a Books enumerable that contains books with IsDeleted = 0. The second author object will contain an enumerable of null book objects. Similarly, if an object only has one book map, and that map points to a book with IsDeleted = 1, then an author object is returned with a Books collection having one null object. I'm thinking part of the problem stems from the map table objects linking to rows that satisfy the where condition on the bag object but do not meet the many-to-many where condition. This is happening with NHibernate version 3.0.0.4980. Is this a configuration issue or something else?

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  • Using Enum in Hibernate causes select followed by an update statement

    - by Leonardo
    Hi all, I have a mapped entity wich has an enum property. By loking at log file, whenever I run a select statement on such entity, the result is an immediately following update. For example if my result set contains 100 records, then I have: [INFO org... select...] [INFO org... update... where id=?] [INFO org... update... where id=?] .... repeated 100 times If I mark the property as update=false the problem disappear. The enum is assigned trough an enum converter class, which I copied from a well known book. So I don't know if I just copy and paste the code. Here it is how is declared on hbm file. <typedef class="mypackage.HbnEnumConverter" name="the_type"> <param name="enumClassname">mypackage.TheType</param> </typedef> Can you point out a direction to investigate this ? Beside, what are the consequences of having update=false on hibernate field ? thanks

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  • @ManyToMany Duplicate Entry Exception

    - by zp26
    I have mapped a bidirectional many-to-many exception between the entities Course and Trainee in the following manner: Course { ... private Collection<Trainee> students; ... @ManyToMany(targetEntity = lesson.domain.Trainee.class, cascade = {CascadeType.All}, fetch = {FetchType.EAGER}) @Jointable(name="COURSE_TRAINEE", joincolumns = @JoinColumn(name="COURSE_ID"), inverseJoinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "TRAINEE_ID")) @CollectionOfElements public Collection<Trainee> getStudents() { return students; } ... } Trainee { ... private Collection<Course> authCourses; ... @ManyToMany(cascade = {CascadeType.All}, fetch = {FetchType.EAGER}, mappedBy = "students", targetEntity = lesson.domain.Course.class) @CollectionOfElements public Collection<Course> getAuthCourses() { return authCourses; } ... } Instead of creating a table where the Primary Key is made of the two foreign keys (imported from the table of the related two entities), the system generates the table "COURSE_TRAINEE" with the following schema: I am working on MySQL 5.1 and my App. Server is JBoss 5.1. Does anyone guess why?

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  • Hibernate NamingStrategy implementation that maintains state between calls

    - by Robert Petermeier
    Hi, I'm working on a project where we use Hibernate and JBoss 5.1. We need our entity classes to be mapped to Oracle tables that follow a certain naming convention. I'd like to avoid having to specify each table and column name in annotations. Therefore, I'm currently considering implementing a custom implementation of org.hibernate.cfg.NamingStrategy. The SQL naming conventions require the name of columns to have a suffix that is equivalent to a prefix of the table name. If there is a table "T100_RESOURCE", the ID column would have to be named "RES_ID_T100". In order to implement this in a NamingStrategy, the implementation would have to maintain state, i.e. the current class name it is creating the mappings for. It would rely on Hibernate to always call classToTableName() before propertyToColumnName() and to determine all column names by calling propertyToColumnName() before the next call to classToTableName() Is it safe to do that or are there situations where Hibernate will mix things up? I am not thinking of problems through multiple threads here (which can be solved by keeping the last class name in a ThreadLocal) but also of Hibernate deliberately calling this out of order in certain circumstances. For example Hibernate asking for mappings of three properties of class A, then one of class B, then again more attributes of class A.

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  • Rails nested attributes with a join model, where one of the models being joined is a new record

    - by gzuki
    I'm trying to build a grid, in rails, for entering data. It has rows and columns, and rows and columns are joined by cells. In my view, I need for the grid to be able to handle having 'new' rows and columns on the edge, so that if you type in them and then submit, they are automatically generated, and their shared cells are connected to them correctly. I want to be able to do this without JS. Rails nested attributes fail to handle being mapped to both a new record and a new column, they can only do one or the other. The reason is that they are a nested specifically in one of the two models, and whichever one they aren't nested in will have no id (since it doesn't exist yet), and when pushed through accepts_nested_attributes_for on the top level Grid model, they will only be bound to the new object created for whatever they were nested in. How can I handle this? Do I have to override rails handling of nested attributes? My models look like this, btw: class Grid < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :rows has_many :columns has_many :cells, :through => :rows accepts_nested_attributes_for :rows, :allow_destroy => true, :reject_if => lambda {|a| a[:description].blank? } accepts_nested_attributes_for :columns, :allow_destroy => true, :reject_if => lambda {|a| a[:description].blank? } end class Column < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :grid has_many :cells, :dependent => :destroy has_many :rows, :through => :grid end class Row < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :grid has_many :cells, :dependent => :destroy has_many :columns, :through => :grid accepts_nested_attributes_for :cells end class Cell < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :row belongs_to :column has_one :grid, :through => :row end

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  • Map Literals to Object Properties/Values

    - by vijay
    For eg, my input XML is look like this. <root> <myelemt> <input type="variable"> <variable>STARTDATE</variable> <variable>CUSTOMERNAME</variable> </input> </myelemt> </root> it is deserialized and loaded into the object MyXmlElemtObj in my code i have written like this, if(MyXmlElemtObj.input.variable.ToUpper() == "STARTDATE") ProcessObjectB(ObjectA.OrderDate); if(MyXmlElemtObj.input.variable.ToUpper() == "CUSTOMERNAME") ProcessObjectB(ObjectC.UserName); Here I am mapping those input literals to some objects value. The one thing that scares me is seeing some ** hard-coded literals** all over my code. Instead i would like to write something like ProcessObjectB(Common.GetMappedvalue(MyXmlElemtObj.input.variable)); Is there a way to isolate this mapping thing to common class, where i will predefine which literal is mapped to which values. The problem is the values are of objects created at the run time. If my question is making sense then So how do i achieve this? I think i have given all the necessary details. if anything is missing please metnion. Thx Much.

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  • In AS3/Flex, how can I get from flat data to hierarchical data?

    - by Dave S
    I have some data that gets pulled out of a database and mapped to an arraycollection. This data has a field called parentid, and I would like to map the data into a new arraycollection with hierarchical information to then feed to an advanced data grid. I think I'm basically trying to take the parent object, add a new property/field/variable of type ArrayCollection called children and then remove the child object from the original list and clone it into the children array? Any help would be greatly appreciated, and I apologize ahead of time for this code: private function PutChildrenWithParents(accountData : ArrayCollection) : ArrayCollection{ var pos_inner:int = 0; var pos_outer:int = 0; while(pos_outer < accountData.length){ if (accountData[pos_outer].ParentId != null){ pos_inner = 0; while(pos_inner < accountData.length){ if (accountData[pos_inner].Id == accountData[pos_outer].ParentId){ accountData.addItemAt( accountData[pos_inner] + {children:new ArrayCollection(accountData[pos_outer])}, pos_inner ); accountData.removeItemAt(pos_outer); accountData.removeItemAt(pos_inner+1); } pos_inner++; } } pos_outer++; } return accountData; }

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  • how to emulate thread local storage at user space in C++ ?

    - by vprajan
    I am working on a mobile platform over Nucleus RTOS. It uses Nucleus Threading system but it doesn't have support for explicit thread local storage i.e, TlsAlloc, TlsSetValue, TlsGetValue, TlsFree APIs. The platform doesn't have user space pthreads as well. I found that __thread storage modifier is present in most of the C++ compilers. But i don't know how to make it work for my kind of usage. How does __thread keyword can be mapped with explicit thread local storage? I read many articles but nothing is so clear for giving me the following basic information will __thread variable different for each thread ? How to write to that and read from it ? does each thread has exactly one copy of the variable ? following is the pthread based implementation: pthread_key_t m_key; struct Data : Noncopyable { Data(T* value, void* owner) : value(value), owner(owner) {} int* value; }; inline ThreadSpecific() { int error = pthread_key_create(&m_key, destroy); if (error) CRASH(); } inline ~ThreadSpecific() { pthread_key_delete(m_key); // Does not invoke destructor functions. } inline T* get() { Data* data = static_cast<Data*>(pthread_getspecific(m_key)); return data ? data->value : 0; } inline void set(T* ptr) { ASSERT(!get()); pthread_setspecific(m_key, new Data(ptr, this)); } How to make the above code use __thread way to set & get specific value ? where/when does the create & delete happen? If this is not possible, how to write custom pthread_setspecific, pthread_getspecific kind of APIs. I tried using a C++ global map and index it uniquely for each thread and retrieved data from it. But it didn't work well.

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  • Finding out the windows group by virtue of which a user is able to access a database in sql server?

    - by Raghu Dodda
    There is a SQL Server 2005 database with mixed-mode authentication. Among others, we have the following logins on the server: our-domain\developers-group-1, and our-domain\developers-group-2 which are AD groups. The our-domain\developer-group-2 is added to the sysadmin role on the server, by virture of which all domain users of that group can access any database as SQL Server implictly maps the sysadmin role to the dbo user in each database. There are two users our-domain\good-user and our-domain\bad-user The issue is the following: Both the good-user and the bad-user have the exact same AD group memberships. They are both members of our-domain\developers-group-1 and our-domain\developers-group-2. The good-user is able to access all the databases, and the bad-user is not. The bad-user is able to login, but he is unable access any databases. By the way, I am the good-user. How do I go about finding out why? Here's what I tried so far: When I do print current_user, I get dbo When I do print system_user, I get my-domain\good-user When I do select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I see permissions. But if do execute as user='my-domain\good-user'; select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I dont see any permisisons. And When I do, execute as user='my-domain\bad-user'; select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I dont see any permisisons. Also, I was wondering if there is a sql command that will tell me, "hey! the current database user is able to access this database because he is a member such-and-such ad-group, which is a login that is mapped to such-and-such user in this database".

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  • Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection

    - by Tony_Henrich
    My web service app on my Windows XP box is trying to log in to my sql server 2005 database on the same box. The machine is part of a domain. I am logged in in the domain and I am an admin on my machine. I am using Windows Authentication in my connection string as in "Server=myServerAddress;Database=myDataBase;Trusted_Connection=True". SQLServer is configured for both types of authentication (mixed mode) and accepts remote connections and accepts tcp and named pipes protocols. Integrated authentication is enabled in IIS and with and without anonymous access. 'Everyone' has access to computer from network setting in local security settings. ASPNET is a user in the sql server and has access to the daatabase. user is mapped to the login. The app works fine for other developers which means the app shouldn't be changed (It's not new code). So it seems it's my machine which has an issue. I am getting the error "Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection" Note the blank user name. Why am I getting this error when both the app and database are on my machine? I can use SQL Server authentication but don't want to. I can connect to the database using SSMS and my Windows credentials. It might be related to setspn, kerberos, delegation, AD. I am not sure what further checks to make?

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  • Information about PTE's (Page Table Entries) in Windows

    - by Patrick
    In order to find more easily buffer overflows I am changing our custom memory allocator so that it allocates a full 4KB page instead of only the wanted number of bytes. Then I change the page protection and size so that if the caller writes before or after its allocated piece of memory, the application immediately crashes. Problem is that although I have enough memory, the application never starts up completely because it runs out of memory. This has two causes: since every allocation needs 4 KB, we probably reach the 2 GB limit very soon. This problem could be solved if I would make a 64-bit executable (didn't try it yet). even when I only need a few hundreds of megabytes, the allocations fail at a certain moment. The second problem is the biggest one, and I think it's related to the maximum number of PTE's (page table entries, which store information on how Virtual Memory is mapped to physical memory, and whether pages should be read-only or not) you can have in a process. My questions (or a cry-for-tips): Where can I find information about the maximum number of PTE's in a process? Is this different (higher) for 64-bit systems/applications or not? Can the number of PTE's be configured in the application or in Windows? Thanks, Patrick PS. note for those who will try to argument that you shouldn't write your own memory manager: My application is rather specific so I really want full control over memory management (can't give any more details) Last week we had a memory overwrite which we couldn't find using the standard C++ allocator and the debugging functionality of the C/C++ run time (it only said "block corrupt" minutes after the actual corruption") We also tried standard Windows utilities (like GFLAGS, ...) but they slowed down the application by a factor of 100, and couldn't find the exact position of the overwrite either We also tried the "Full Page Heap" functionality of Application Verifier, but then the application doesn't start up either (probably also running out of PTE's)

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  • hibernate empty collection in component

    - by Jurgen H
    I have a component mapped using Hibernate. If all fields in the component in the database are null, the component itself is set to null by hibernate. This is the expected behavior and also what I need. The problem I have, is that when I add a bag to that component, the bag is initialized to an empty list. This means the component has a non null value... resulting in the component being created. Any idea how to fix this? <class name="foo.bar.Entity" table="Entity"> <id name="id" column="id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="departure" column="departure_time" /> <property name="arrival" column="arrival_time" /> <component name="statistics"> <bag name="linkStatistics" lazy="false" cascade="all" > <key column="entity_id" not-null="true" /> <one-to-many class="foo.bar.LinkStatistics" /> </bag> <property name="loggedTime" column="logged_time" /> ... </component> A criteria with Restirctions.isNull("statistics") does return the expected values.

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  • What are the hibernate annotations used to persist a Map with an enumerated type as a key?

    - by Jason Novak
    I am having trouble getting the right hibernate annotations to use on a Map with an enumerated class as a key. Here is a simplified (and extremely contrived) example. public class Thing { public String id; public Letter startLetter; public Map<Letter,Double> letterCounts = new HashMap<Letter, Double>(); } public enum Letter { A, B, C, D } Here are my current annotations on Thing @Entity public class Thing { @Id public String id; @Enumerated(EnumType.STRING) public Letter startLetter; @CollectionOfElements @JoinTable(name = "Thing_letterFrequencies", joinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "thingId")) @MapKey(columns = @Column(name = "letter", nullable = false)) @Column(name = "count") public Map<Letter,Double> letterCounts = new HashMap<Letter, Double>(); } Hibernate generates the following DDL to create the tables for my MySql database create table Thing (id varchar(255) not null, startLetter varchar(255), primary key (id)) type=InnoDB; create table Thing_letterFrequencies (thingId varchar(255) not null, count double precision, letter tinyblob not null, primary key (thingId, letter)) type=InnoDB; Notice that hibernate tries to define letter (my map key) as a tinyblob, however it defines startLetter as a varchar(255) even though both are of the enumerated type Letter. When I try to create the tables I see the following error BLOB/TEXT column 'letter' used in key specification without a key length I googled this error and it appears that MySql has issues when you try to make a tinyblob column part of a primary key, which is what hibernate needs to do with the Thing_letterFrequencies table. So I would rather have letter mapped to a varchar(255) the way startLetter is. Unfortunately, I've been fussing with the MapKey annotation for a while now and haven't been able to make this work. I've also tried @MapKeyManyToMany(targetEntity=Product.class) without success. Can anyone tell me what are the correct annotations for my letterCounts map so that hibernate will treat the letterCounts map key the same way it does startLetter?

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  • HIbernate 3.5.1 - can I just drop in EHCache 2.0.1?

    - by caerphilly
    I'm using Hibernate 3.5.1, which comes with EHCache 1.5 bundled. If I want to use the latest EHCache release (2.0.1), is it just a matter of removing the ehcache-1.5.jar from my project, and replacing with ehcache-core-2.0.1.jar? Any issues to be aware of? Also - is a cache "region" in the Hibernate mapping file that same as a cache "name" in the ehcache configuration xml? What I want to do is define 2 named cache regions - one for read-only reference entities that won't change (lookup lists etc), and one for all other entities. So in ehcache I want to define two elements; <cache name="readonly"> ... </cache> <cache name="mutable"> ... </cache> And then in my Hibernate mapping files, I will specify the cache to be used for each entity: <hibernate-mapping> <class name="lookuplist"> <cache region="readonly" usage="read-only"/> <property> ... </property> </class> </hibernate-mapping> Will that work? Some of the documentation seems to imply that a separate region/cache gets created for each mapped class... Thanks.

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  • How to map keys in vim differently for different kinds of buffers

    - by Yogesh Arora
    The problem i am facing is that i have mapped some keys and mouse events for seraching in vim while editing a file. But those mappings impact the functionality if the quickfix buffer. I was wondering if it is possible to map keys depending on the buffer in which they are used. EDIT - I am adding more info for this question Let us consider a scenario. I want to map <C-F4> to close a buffer/window. Now this behavior could depend on a number of things. If i am editing a buffer it should just close that buffer without changing the layout of the windows. I am using buffkil plugin for this. It does not depend on extension of file but on the type of buffer. I saw in vim documentation that there are unlisted and listed buffer. So if it is listed buffer it should close using bufkill commands. If it is not a listed buffer it should use <c-w>c command to close buffer and changing the window layout. I am new at writing vim functions/scripts, can someone help me getting started on this

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  • Risky Business with LINQ to SQL and OR Designer?

    - by Toadmyster
    I have two tables with a one to many relationship in SQL 2008. The first table (BBD) PK | BBDataID | int       | Floor_Qty | tinyint       | Construct_Year | char(4)       | etc, etc describes the data common to all buildings and the second (BBDCerts) PK | BBDCertsID | int       | BBDataID | int       | Certification_Type | varchar(20)       | etc, etc is a collection of certifications for a particular building. Thus, the primary key in BBD (BBDataID) is mapped to the corresponding field in BBDCerts via an FK relationship, but BBDCertsID is the second table's primary key and BBDataID is not because it will not be unique. My problem is that I want to be able to use the OR generated data context to get at the list of certs when I access a particular record in the BBD table. For instance: Dim vals = (From q in db.BBD Where q.BBDataID = x Select q.Floor_Qty, q.Construct_Year, q.BBDCerts).SingleOrDefault and later be able to access a particular certification like this: vals.BBDCerts.Certification_Type.First Now, the automatic associations created when the SQL tables are dropped on the design surface don't generate the EntityRef associations that are needed to access the other table using the dot notation. So, I have to use the OR designer to make the BBDCerts BBDataID a primary key (this doesn't affect the actual database), and then manually change the association properties to the appropriate OneToMany settings. There might be a better way to approach this solution but my question is, is the way I've done it safe? I've done a barrage of tests and the correct cert is referenced or updated every time. Frankly, the whole thing makes me nervous.

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  • Manual Linq to SQL entity framework mapping

    - by kprobst
    I've been playing with the O/R designer in VS and I was wondering if someone could shed come light on this. I'm used to OR mappers that are largely manual (homegrown and e.g., NHibernate). I don't mind encoding the entity classes myself, since they don't change all that often to begin with, and I have this irrational fear of designers and auto generated code as it is. I have noticed that the generated entity classes contain a lot of boilerplate extensibility methods, e.g. On[Property]Changed() and so on where [Property] is a mapped member of the class. These are placed in the setters of the property accessors. I assume it's OK if I don't include these when I do my hand coding, correct? They would be nice if I needed some sort of interception pattern but that's certainly not the case. I guess I just need to know if any of those methods are required by the entity framework to keep track of changes to the mapping types in order for things to work when updating the database. Thanks!

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  • Extended Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract does not return values

    - by WesleyE
    Hi, I'm quite new to Zend and the database classes from it. I'm having problems mapping a Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract to my rows. The problem is that whenever I try to map it to a class (Job) that extends the Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract class, the database data is not receivable anymore. I'm not getting any errors, trying to get data simply returns null. Here is my code so far: Jobs: class Jobs extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'jobs'; protected $_rowsetClass = "Job"; public function getActiveJobs() { $select = $this->select()->where('jobs.jobDateOpen < UNIX_TIMESTAMP()')->limit(15,0); $rows = $this->fetchAll($select); return $rows; } } Job: class Job extends Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract { public function getCompanyName() { //Gets the companyName for this row (Is on another table), just for example } } Controller: $oJobs = new Jobs(); $aActiveJobs = $oJobs->getActiveJobs(); foreach ($aActiveJobs as $value) { var_dump($value->jobTitle); } When I remove the "protected $_rowsetClass = "Job";" line, so that the table row is not mapped to my own class, I get all the jobTitles perfectly. What am I doing wrong here? Thanks in advance, Wesley

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  • Getting a stream back from a .Net remoting service that is accessible with IP v4 and v6

    - by jon.ediger
    My company has an existing .Net Remoting service that listens on a port, fronting interfaces used by external systems. This all works great with IP v4 based communications. However, this service now needs to support both IP v4 communications and IP v6 communications. I have found info that the system.runtime.remoting section of the app.config should include two channels as follows: <channel ref="tcp" name="tcp6" port="9000" bindTo="[::]" /> <channel ref="tcp" name="tcp4" port="9000" bindTo="0.0.0.0" /> The above config file changes to the System.Runtime.Remoting config section will get the remoting service responding to non-stream functions on both ip v4 and ip v6. The issue comes only when attempting to get a stream back, used to upload or download large files. In this case, instead of getting a usable stream back, the following ArgumentException is thrown instead: IPv4 address 0.0.0.0 and IPv6 address ::0 are unspecified addresses that cannot be used as a target address. Parameter name: hostNameOrAddress Is there a way to modify the app.config (in the system.runtime.remoting section, or another section) so that the service will return a stream mapped to a real ip so the client can actually upload/download files while maintaining the ability to use both IP v4 and IP v6?

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  • Google maps api Directions User defined Steps

    - by Via Lactea
    Hi All, I have a google map service with the stores mapped on it. I also have directions service (then you define two addresses or more and it shows you a way on this map, see google map api directions). So I wa?? to show the nearest stores to this way. Of course it could be the store located in the next streat of my way, so it also should be included to the list. So far I just found only an array of steps in the directions object which I get from google maps api. But these steps are predefined by google, so they can be too close one each to other and they also can be too far (if a part of your route is a highway or there is no any special steps on your way etc.) So, what I want to do. I want to make my own steps on the line that I get from google directions (for example to put these steps on my line every 500 meeters etc.), and after that to search every step for any stores around 200 meeters. Is it possible to do? I cannot find any solution of this idea in internet.

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  • What is the meaning of @ModelAttribute annotation at method argument level?

    - by beemaster
    Spring 3 reference teaches us: When you place it on a method parameter, @ModelAttribute maps a model attribute to the specific, annotated method parameter I don't understand this magic spell, because i sure that model object's alias (key value if using ModelMap as return type) passed to the View after executing of the request handler method. Therefore when request handler method executes the model object's name can't be mapped to the method parameter. To solve this contradiction i went to stackoverflow and found this detailed example. The author of example said: // The "personAttribute" model has been passed to the controller from the JSP It seems, he is charmed by Spring reference... To dispel the charms i deployed his sample app in my environment and cruelly cut @ModelAttribute annotation from method MainController.saveEdit. As result the application works without any changes! So i conclude: the @ModelAttribute annotation is not needed to pass web form's field values to the argument's fields. Then i stuck to the question: what is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation? If the only mean is to set alias for model object in View, then why this way better than explicitly adding of object to ModelMap?

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  • auto_complete plugin error: Couldn't find Question with ID=auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name

    - by bgadoci
    I have successfully set up this plugin before so I am curious as to what I am doing wrong here. I have built the ability for users to add tags to questions. I am not using tagging plugin here but that shouldn't matter for this. With respect to the auto complete, I am trying to have the form located in the /views/questions/show.html.erb file access the Tags table and display entries in the tags.tags_name column. When I begin to type in the field I get the following error message: Processing QuestionsController#show (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-31 15:22:20) [GET] Parameters: {"tag"=>{"tag_name"=>"a"}, "id"=>"auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name"} Question Load (0.1ms) SELECT * FROM "questions" WHERE ("questions"."id" = 0) ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound (Couldn't find Question with ID=auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name): app/controllers/application_controller.rb:15:in `init_data' For some reason I am actually passing the field name as the Question.id. The plugin set up is fairly simple as you add the following line to your controller: auto_complete_for :tag, :tag_name and the following line in your routes.rb file: map.resources :tags, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } I have added the controller line to both my tags and questions controller and also mapped resources for both tags and questions in my routes.rb file: map.resources :tags, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } map.resources :questions, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } I have played around with removing either or of the above but can't seem to fix it. Any ideas what I am doing wrong here?

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  • What is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation at method argument level?

    - by beemaster
    Spring 3 reference teaches us: When you place it on a method parameter, @ModelAttribute maps a model attribute to the specific, annotated method parameter I don't understand this magic spell, because i sure that model object's alias (key value if using ModelMap as return type) passed to the View after executing of the request handler method. Therefore when request handler method executes the model object's name can't be mapped to the method parameter. To solve this contradiction i went to stackoverflow and found this detailed example. The author of example said: // The "personAttribute" model has been passed to the controller from the JSP It seems, he is charmed by Spring reference... To dispel the charms i deployed his sample app in my environment and cruelly cut @ModelAttribute annotation from method MainController.saveEdit. As result the application works without any changes! So i conclude: the @ModelAttribute annotation is not needed to pass web form's field values to the argument's fields. Then i stuck to the question: what is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation? If the only mean is to set alias for model object in View, then why this way better than explicitly adding of object to ModelMap?

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