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• Map Literals to Object Properties/Values

  - by vijay

  For eg, my input XML is look like this. <root> <myelemt> <input type="variable"> <variable>STARTDATE</variable> <variable>CUSTOMERNAME</variable> </input> </myelemt> </root> it is deserialized and loaded into the object MyXmlElemtObj in my code i have written like this, if(MyXmlElemtObj.input.variable.ToUpper() == "STARTDATE") ProcessObjectB(ObjectA.OrderDate); if(MyXmlElemtObj.input.variable.ToUpper() == "CUSTOMERNAME") ProcessObjectB(ObjectC.UserName); Here I am mapping those input literals to some objects value. The one thing that scares me is seeing some ** hard-coded literals** all over my code. Instead i would like to write something like ProcessObjectB(Common.GetMappedvalue(MyXmlElemtObj.input.variable)); Is there a way to isolate this mapping thing to common class, where i will predefine which literal is mapped to which values. The problem is the values are of objects created at the run time. If my question is making sense then So how do i achieve this? I think i have given all the necessary details. if anything is missing please metnion. Thx Much.

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• What are the hibernate annotations used to persist a Map with an enumerated type as a key?

  - by Jason Novak

  I am having trouble getting the right hibernate annotations to use on a Map with an enumerated class as a key. Here is a simplified (and extremely contrived) example. public class Thing { public String id; public Letter startLetter; public Map<Letter,Double> letterCounts = new HashMap<Letter, Double>(); } public enum Letter { A, B, C, D } Here are my current annotations on Thing @Entity public class Thing { @Id public String id; @Enumerated(EnumType.STRING) public Letter startLetter; @CollectionOfElements @JoinTable(name = "Thing_letterFrequencies", joinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "thingId")) @MapKey(columns = @Column(name = "letter", nullable = false)) @Column(name = "count") public Map<Letter,Double> letterCounts = new HashMap<Letter, Double>(); } Hibernate generates the following DDL to create the tables for my MySql database create table Thing (id varchar(255) not null, startLetter varchar(255), primary key (id)) type=InnoDB; create table Thing_letterFrequencies (thingId varchar(255) not null, count double precision, letter tinyblob not null, primary key (thingId, letter)) type=InnoDB; Notice that hibernate tries to define letter (my map key) as a tinyblob, however it defines startLetter as a varchar(255) even though both are of the enumerated type Letter. When I try to create the tables I see the following error BLOB/TEXT column 'letter' used in key specification without a key length I googled this error and it appears that MySql has issues when you try to make a tinyblob column part of a primary key, which is what hibernate needs to do with the Thing_letterFrequencies table. So I would rather have letter mapped to a varchar(255) the way startLetter is. Unfortunately, I've been fussing with the MapKey annotation for a while now and haven't been able to make this work. I've also tried @MapKeyManyToMany(targetEntity=Product.class) without success. Can anyone tell me what are the correct annotations for my letterCounts map so that hibernate will treat the letterCounts map key the same way it does startLetter?

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• Automapping Collections

  - by vaibhav

  I am using Automapper for mapping my domain model and DTO. When I map Mapper.Map<SiteDTO, SiteEntity> it works fine. But when I use collections of the same entities, it doesn't map. Mapper.Map<Collection<SiteEntity>, Collection<SiteDTO>>(siteEntityCollection); AS per Automapper Wiki, it says the lists implementing ICollection would be mapped, I am using Collection that implements ICollection, but automapper doesn't map it. Am I doing something wrong. public class SiteEntity //SiteDTO has exactly the same properties, so I am not posting it here. { public int SiteID { get; set; } public string Code { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public byte Status { get; set; } public int ModifiedBy { get; set; } public DateTime ModifiedDate{ get; set; } public long TimeStamp{ get; set; } public string Description{ get; set; } public string Notes{ get; set; } public ObservableCollection<AreaEntity> Areas{ get; set; } }

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• In AS3/Flex, how can I get from flat data to hierarchical data?

  - by Dave S

  I have some data that gets pulled out of a database and mapped to an arraycollection. This data has a field called parentid, and I would like to map the data into a new arraycollection with hierarchical information to then feed to an advanced data grid. I think I'm basically trying to take the parent object, add a new property/field/variable of type ArrayCollection called children and then remove the child object from the original list and clone it into the children array? Any help would be greatly appreciated, and I apologize ahead of time for this code: private function PutChildrenWithParents(accountData : ArrayCollection) : ArrayCollection{ var pos_inner:int = 0; var pos_outer:int = 0; while(pos_outer < accountData.length){ if (accountData[pos_outer].ParentId != null){ pos_inner = 0; while(pos_inner < accountData.length){ if (accountData[pos_inner].Id == accountData[pos_outer].ParentId){ accountData.addItemAt( accountData[pos_inner] + {children:new ArrayCollection(accountData[pos_outer])}, pos_inner ); accountData.removeItemAt(pos_outer); accountData.removeItemAt(pos_inner+1); } pos_inner++; } } pos_outer++; } return accountData; }

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• Rails nested attributes with a join model, where one of the models being joined is a new record

  - by gzuki

  I'm trying to build a grid, in rails, for entering data. It has rows and columns, and rows and columns are joined by cells. In my view, I need for the grid to be able to handle having 'new' rows and columns on the edge, so that if you type in them and then submit, they are automatically generated, and their shared cells are connected to them correctly. I want to be able to do this without JS. Rails nested attributes fail to handle being mapped to both a new record and a new column, they can only do one or the other. The reason is that they are a nested specifically in one of the two models, and whichever one they aren't nested in will have no id (since it doesn't exist yet), and when pushed through accepts_nested_attributes_for on the top level Grid model, they will only be bound to the new object created for whatever they were nested in. How can I handle this? Do I have to override rails handling of nested attributes? My models look like this, btw: class Grid < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :rows has_many :columns has_many :cells, :through => :rows accepts_nested_attributes_for :rows, :allow_destroy => true, :reject_if => lambda {|a| a[:description].blank? } accepts_nested_attributes_for :columns, :allow_destroy => true, :reject_if => lambda {|a| a[:description].blank? } end class Column < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :grid has_many :cells, :dependent => :destroy has_many :rows, :through => :grid end class Row < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :grid has_many :cells, :dependent => :destroy has_many :columns, :through => :grid accepts_nested_attributes_for :cells end class Cell < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :row belongs_to :column has_one :grid, :through => :row end

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• Publishing content to multiple (unknown) domains using Open Graph?

  - by Beau Lebens

  I'm working on an application that publishes content ('articles') on a variety of URLs, which are all controlled by the same WordPress installation (mapped domains, all powered by the same set of code/part of a network). All of the publishing is done through one central Facebook App. I have no idea what the domains for these URLS are going to be, since they are controlled by our users who register domains and then configure them within their account on our service. When I attempt to use Open Graph to publish content on one of these sites (that has a customized domain), they are rejected with the following error (error code 1611028): Object at URL * * * * of type 'article' is invalid because the domain '* * * ' is not allowed for the specified application id ' * * *'. You can verify your configured 'App Domain' at.... Since I can't enter all of the domains into Facebook, and since they are not derived from my App URL anyway, is there any way that I can have this work? Some sort of magic OG tag I can put in the pages or something? Or is it just not possible to do what I'm trying to do?

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• Entity Filter child without include

  - by Lic

  i'm a C# developer and i have a trouble with Entity Framework 5. I have mapped my database with Entity using the default code generation strategy. In particolar there are three classes: menus, submenus and submenuitems. The relationships about three classes are: one menu - to many submenus one submenu - to many submenuitems. All classes have a boolean attribute called "Active". Now, i want to filter all the Menus with the SubMenus active, and the SubMenus with the SubMenuItems active. To get this i've tried this: var tmp = _model.Menus.Where(m => m.Active) .Select => new { Menu = x, SubMenu = x.SubMenus.Where(sb => sb.Active) .Select(y => new { SubMenu = y, SubMenuItem = y.SubMenuItems.Where(sbi => sbi.Active) }) }) .Select(x => x.Menu).ToList(); But didn't work. Someone can help me? Thank you for your help!

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• how to emulate thread local storage at user space in C++ ?

  - by vprajan

  I am working on a mobile platform over Nucleus RTOS. It uses Nucleus Threading system but it doesn't have support for explicit thread local storage i.e, TlsAlloc, TlsSetValue, TlsGetValue, TlsFree APIs. The platform doesn't have user space pthreads as well. I found that __thread storage modifier is present in most of the C++ compilers. But i don't know how to make it work for my kind of usage. How does __thread keyword can be mapped with explicit thread local storage? I read many articles but nothing is so clear for giving me the following basic information will __thread variable different for each thread ? How to write to that and read from it ? does each thread has exactly one copy of the variable ? following is the pthread based implementation: pthread_key_t m_key; struct Data : Noncopyable { Data(T* value, void* owner) : value(value), owner(owner) {} int* value; }; inline ThreadSpecific() { int error = pthread_key_create(&m_key, destroy); if (error) CRASH(); } inline ~ThreadSpecific() { pthread_key_delete(m_key); // Does not invoke destructor functions. } inline T* get() { Data* data = static_cast<Data*>(pthread_getspecific(m_key)); return data ? data->value : 0; } inline void set(T* ptr) { ASSERT(!get()); pthread_setspecific(m_key, new Data(ptr, this)); } How to make the above code use __thread way to set & get specific value ? where/when does the create & delete happen? If this is not possible, how to write custom pthread_setspecific, pthread_getspecific kind of APIs. I tried using a C++ global map and index it uniquely for each thread and retrieved data from it. But it didn't work well.

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• Using Enum in Hibernate causes select followed by an update statement

  - by Leonardo

  Hi all, I have a mapped entity wich has an enum property. By loking at log file, whenever I run a select statement on such entity, the result is an immediately following update. For example if my result set contains 100 records, then I have: [INFO org... select...] [INFO org... update... where id=?] [INFO org... update... where id=?] .... repeated 100 times If I mark the property as update=false the problem disappear. The enum is assigned trough an enum converter class, which I copied from a well known book. So I don't know if I just copy and paste the code. Here it is how is declared on hbm file. <typedef class="mypackage.HbnEnumConverter" name="the_type"> <param name="enumClassname">mypackage.TheType</param> </typedef> Can you point out a direction to investigate this ? Beside, what are the consequences of having update=false on hibernate field ? thanks

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• HIbernate 3.5.1 - can I just drop in EHCache 2.0.1?

  - by caerphilly

  I'm using Hibernate 3.5.1, which comes with EHCache 1.5 bundled. If I want to use the latest EHCache release (2.0.1), is it just a matter of removing the ehcache-1.5.jar from my project, and replacing with ehcache-core-2.0.1.jar? Any issues to be aware of? Also - is a cache "region" in the Hibernate mapping file that same as a cache "name" in the ehcache configuration xml? What I want to do is define 2 named cache regions - one for read-only reference entities that won't change (lookup lists etc), and one for all other entities. So in ehcache I want to define two elements; <cache name="readonly"> ... </cache> <cache name="mutable"> ... </cache> And then in my Hibernate mapping files, I will specify the cache to be used for each entity: <hibernate-mapping> <class name="lookuplist"> <cache region="readonly" usage="read-only"/> <property> ... </property> </class> </hibernate-mapping> Will that work? Some of the documentation seems to imply that a separate region/cache gets created for each mapped class... Thanks.

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• Sharing a global/static variable between a process and DLL

  - by minjang

  I'd like to share a static/global variable only between a process and a dll that is invoked by the process. The exe and dll are in the same memory address space. I don't want the variable to be shared among other processes. Elaboration of the problem: Say that there is a static/global variable x in a.cpp. Both the exe foo.exe and the dll bar.dll have a.cpp, so the variable x is in both images. Now, foo.exe dynamically loads (or statically) bar.dll. Then, the problem is whether the variable x is shared by the exe and dll, or not. In Windows, these two guys never share the x: the exe and dll will have a separate copy of x. However, in Linux, the exe and dll do share the variable x. Unfortunately, I want the behavior of Linux. I first considered using pragma data_seg on Windows. However, even if I correctly setup the shared data segment, foo.exe and bar.dll never shares the x. Recall that bar.dll is loaded into the address space of foo.exe. However, if I run another instance of foo.exe, then x is shared. But, I don't want x to be shared by different processes. So, using data_seg was failed. I may it use a memory-mapped file by making an unique name between exe and dll, which I'm trying now. Two questions: Why the behavior of Linux and Windows is different? Can anyone explain more about this? What would be most easiest way to solve this problem on Windows?

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• hibernate empty collection in component

  - by Jurgen H

  I have a component mapped using Hibernate. If all fields in the component in the database are null, the component itself is set to null by hibernate. This is the expected behavior and also what I need. The problem I have, is that when I add a bag to that component, the bag is initialized to an empty list. This means the component has a non null value... resulting in the component being created. Any idea how to fix this? <class name="foo.bar.Entity" table="Entity"> <id name="id" column="id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="departure" column="departure_time" /> <property name="arrival" column="arrival_time" /> <component name="statistics"> <bag name="linkStatistics" lazy="false" cascade="all" > <key column="entity_id" not-null="true" /> <one-to-many class="foo.bar.LinkStatistics" /> </bag> <property name="loggedTime" column="logged_time" /> ... </component> A criteria with Restirctions.isNull("statistics") does return the expected values.

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• How to map keys in vim differently for different kinds of buffers

  - by Yogesh Arora

  The problem i am facing is that i have mapped some keys and mouse events for seraching in vim while editing a file. But those mappings impact the functionality if the quickfix buffer. I was wondering if it is possible to map keys depending on the buffer in which they are used. EDIT - I am adding more info for this question Let us consider a scenario. I want to map <C-F4> to close a buffer/window. Now this behavior could depend on a number of things. If i am editing a buffer it should just close that buffer without changing the layout of the windows. I am using buffkil plugin for this. It does not depend on extension of file but on the type of buffer. I saw in vim documentation that there are unlisted and listed buffer. So if it is listed buffer it should close using bufkill commands. If it is not a listed buffer it should use <c-w>c command to close buffer and changing the window layout. I am new at writing vim functions/scripts, can someone help me getting started on this

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• auto_complete plugin error: Couldn't find Question with ID=auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name

  - by bgadoci

  I have successfully set up this plugin before so I am curious as to what I am doing wrong here. I have built the ability for users to add tags to questions. I am not using tagging plugin here but that shouldn't matter for this. With respect to the auto complete, I am trying to have the form located in the /views/questions/show.html.erb file access the Tags table and display entries in the tags.tags_name column. When I begin to type in the field I get the following error message: Processing QuestionsController#show (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-31 15:22:20) [GET] Parameters: {"tag"=>{"tag_name"=>"a"}, "id"=>"auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name"} Question Load (0.1ms) SELECT * FROM "questions" WHERE ("questions"."id" = 0) ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound (Couldn't find Question with ID=auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name): app/controllers/application_controller.rb:15:in `init_data' For some reason I am actually passing the field name as the Question.id. The plugin set up is fairly simple as you add the following line to your controller: auto_complete_for :tag, :tag_name and the following line in your routes.rb file: map.resources :tags, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } I have added the controller line to both my tags and questions controller and also mapped resources for both tags and questions in my routes.rb file: map.resources :tags, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } map.resources :questions, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } I have played around with removing either or of the above but can't seem to fix it. Any ideas what I am doing wrong here?

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• Manual Linq to SQL entity framework mapping

  - by kprobst

  I've been playing with the O/R designer in VS and I was wondering if someone could shed come light on this. I'm used to OR mappers that are largely manual (homegrown and e.g., NHibernate). I don't mind encoding the entity classes myself, since they don't change all that often to begin with, and I have this irrational fear of designers and auto generated code as it is. I have noticed that the generated entity classes contain a lot of boilerplate extensibility methods, e.g. On[Property]Changed() and so on where [Property] is a mapped member of the class. These are placed in the setters of the property accessors. I assume it's OK if I don't include these when I do my hand coding, correct? They would be nice if I needed some sort of interception pattern but that's certainly not the case. I guess I just need to know if any of those methods are required by the entity framework to keep track of changes to the mapping types in order for things to work when updating the database. Thanks!

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• Extended Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract does not return values

  - by WesleyE

  Hi, I'm quite new to Zend and the database classes from it. I'm having problems mapping a Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract to my rows. The problem is that whenever I try to map it to a class (Job) that extends the Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract class, the database data is not receivable anymore. I'm not getting any errors, trying to get data simply returns null. Here is my code so far: Jobs: class Jobs extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'jobs'; protected $_rowsetClass = "Job"; public function getActiveJobs() { $select = $this->select()->where('jobs.jobDateOpen < UNIX_TIMESTAMP()')->limit(15,0); $rows = $this->fetchAll($select); return $rows; } } Job: class Job extends Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract { public function getCompanyName() { //Gets the companyName for this row (Is on another table), just for example } } Controller: $oJobs = new Jobs(); $aActiveJobs = $oJobs->getActiveJobs(); foreach ($aActiveJobs as $value) { var_dump($value->jobTitle); } When I remove the "protected $_rowsetClass = "Job";" line, so that the table row is not mapped to my own class, I get all the jobTitles perfectly. What am I doing wrong here? Thanks in advance, Wesley

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• Getting a stream back from a .Net remoting service that is accessible with IP v4 and v6

  - by jon.ediger

  My company has an existing .Net Remoting service that listens on a port, fronting interfaces used by external systems. This all works great with IP v4 based communications. However, this service now needs to support both IP v4 communications and IP v6 communications. I have found info that the system.runtime.remoting section of the app.config should include two channels as follows: <channel ref="tcp" name="tcp6" port="9000" bindTo="[::]" /> <channel ref="tcp" name="tcp4" port="9000" bindTo="0.0.0.0" /> The above config file changes to the System.Runtime.Remoting config section will get the remoting service responding to non-stream functions on both ip v4 and ip v6. The issue comes only when attempting to get a stream back, used to upload or download large files. In this case, instead of getting a usable stream back, the following ArgumentException is thrown instead: IPv4 address 0.0.0.0 and IPv6 address ::0 are unspecified addresses that cannot be used as a target address. Parameter name: hostNameOrAddress Is there a way to modify the app.config (in the system.runtime.remoting section, or another section) so that the service will return a stream mapped to a real ip so the client can actually upload/download files while maintaining the ability to use both IP v4 and IP v6?

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• Behavior of Struts2 and convention-plugin when there is Index(extends ActionSupport)

  - by hanishi

  We have an Action class named 'Index' immediately under com.example.common.action and is annotated @ParentPackage('default') which is declared in package directive in struts.xml and has "/" for its namespace and extends "struts-default". It also declares @Result so that it responses with jsp files corresponding the string values returned by its execute() method. In our struts.xml, the following struts setting is configured along with other necessary configurations that are needed for convention-plugin. <constant name="struts.action.extension" value=","/> When accessing /my_context/none_existing_path, the request apparently hits this Index class and the contents of the jsp declared in the Index's @Result section gets returned. However, if we provide /my_context/, we receive the following error: HTTP Status 404-There is no Action mapped for namespace[/] and action name [] associated with context path [/my_context]. We want to know the reason why accessing /my_context/none_existing_path, where none_existing_path has no matching action, can fallback to Index class, but error is returned when when the URL requested is just /my_context/. Currently, our convention-plugin settings are declared as follows: <constant name="struts.convention.package.locators.basePackage" value="com.example"/> <constant name="struts.convention.package.locators" value="action"/> Strangely, if we changed the value of the struts.convention.package.locators.basePackage to om.example.common, in which the aforementioned Index file can be immediately found by narrowing the search scope, requesting /my_context/ displays the content of the jsps declared in @Result section of the Index class. However, as our action classes are distributed throughout the com.example.[a-z].action packages, where [a-z] represents the large volume of directories we have in our package structure, we cannot use this trick as a workaround. We have also tried placing index.jsp at the top level of the class path, and have the index.jsp redirect to /my_context/index, which worked but not what we want. Could this be a bug? We appreciate your responses. Thank you in advance. EDIT: JIRA registered, problem solved (from Struts 2.3.12 up)

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• Finding out the windows group by virtue of which a user is able to access a database in sql server?

  - by Raghu Dodda

  There is a SQL Server 2005 database with mixed-mode authentication. Among others, we have the following logins on the server: our-domain\developers-group-1, and our-domain\developers-group-2 which are AD groups. The our-domain\developer-group-2 is added to the sysadmin role on the server, by virture of which all domain users of that group can access any database as SQL Server implictly maps the sysadmin role to the dbo user in each database. There are two users our-domain\good-user and our-domain\bad-user The issue is the following: Both the good-user and the bad-user have the exact same AD group memberships. They are both members of our-domain\developers-group-1 and our-domain\developers-group-2. The good-user is able to access all the databases, and the bad-user is not. The bad-user is able to login, but he is unable access any databases. By the way, I am the good-user. How do I go about finding out why? Here's what I tried so far: When I do print current_user, I get dbo When I do print system_user, I get my-domain\good-user When I do select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I see permissions. But if do execute as user='my-domain\good-user'; select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I dont see any permisisons. And When I do, execute as user='my-domain\bad-user'; select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I dont see any permisisons. Also, I was wondering if there is a sql command that will tell me, "hey! the current database user is able to access this database because he is a member such-and-such ad-group, which is a login that is mapped to such-and-such user in this database".

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• Entity Framework does not map 2 columns from a SqlQuery calling a stored procedure

  - by user1783530

  I'm using Code First and am trying to call a stored procedure and have it map to one of my classes. I created a stored procedure, BOMComponentChild, that returns details of a Component with information of its hierarchy in PartsPath and MyPath. I have a class for the output of this stored procedure. I'm having an issue where everything except the two columns, PartsPath and MyPath, are being mapped correctly with these two properties ending up as Nothing. I searched around and from my understanding the mapping bypasses any Entity Framework name mapping and uses column name to property name. The names are the same and I'm not sure why it is only these two columns. The last part of the stored procedure is: SELECT t.ParentID ,t.ComponentID ,c.PartNumber ,t.PartsPath ,t.MyPath ,t.Layer ,c.[Description] ,loc.LocationID ,loc.LocationName ,CASE WHEN sup.SupplierID IS NULL THEN 1 ELSE sup.SupplierID END AS SupplierID ,CASE WHEN sup.SupplierName IS NULL THEN 'Scinomix' ELSE sup.SupplierName END AS SupplierName ,c.Active ,c.QA ,c.IsAssembly ,c.IsPurchasable ,c.IsMachined ,t.QtyRequired ,t.TotalQty FROM BuildProducts t INNER JOIN [dbo].[BOMComponent] c ON c.ComponentID = t.ComponentID LEFT JOIN [dbo].[BOMSupplier] bsup ON bsup.ComponentID = t.ComponentID AND bsup.IsDefault = 1 LEFT JOIN [dbo].[LookupSupplier] sup ON sup.SupplierID = bsup.SupplierID LEFT JOIN [dbo].[LookupLocation] loc ON loc.LocationID = c.LocationID WHERE (@IsAssembly IS NULL OR IsAssembly = @IsAssembly) ORDER BY t.MyPath and the class it maps to is: Public Class BOMComponentChild Public Property ParentID As Nullable(Of Integer) Public Property ComponentID As Integer Public Property PartNumber As String Public Property MyPath As String Public Property PartsPath As String Public Property Layer As Integer Public Property Description As String Public Property LocationID As Integer Public Property LocationName As String Public Property SupplierID As Integer Public Property SupplierName As String Public Property Active As Boolean Public Property QA As Boolean Public Property IsAssembly As Boolean Public Property IsPurchasable As Boolean Public Property IsMachined As Boolean Public Property QtyRequired As Integer Public Property TotalQty As Integer Public Property Children As IDictionary(Of String, BOMComponentChild) = New Dictionary(Of String, BOMComponentChild) End Class I am trying to call it like this: Me.Database.SqlQuery(Of BOMComponentChild)("EXEC [BOMComponentChild] @ComponentID, @PathPrefix, @IsAssembly", params).ToList() When I run the stored procedure in management studio, the columns are correct and not null. I just can't figure out why these won't map as they are the important information in the stored procedure. The types for PartsPath and MyPath are varchar(50).

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• Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection

  - by Tony_Henrich

  My web service app on my Windows XP box is trying to log in to my sql server 2005 database on the same box. The machine is part of a domain. I am logged in in the domain and I am an admin on my machine. I am using Windows Authentication in my connection string as in "Server=myServerAddress;Database=myDataBase;Trusted_Connection=True". SQLServer is configured for both types of authentication (mixed mode) and accepts remote connections and accepts tcp and named pipes protocols. Integrated authentication is enabled in IIS and with and without anonymous access. 'Everyone' has access to computer from network setting in local security settings. ASPNET is a user in the sql server and has access to the daatabase. user is mapped to the login. The app works fine for other developers which means the app shouldn't be changed (It's not new code). So it seems it's my machine which has an issue. I am getting the error "Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection" Note the blank user name. Why am I getting this error when both the app and database are on my machine? I can use SQL Server authentication but don't want to. I can connect to the database using SSMS and my Windows credentials. It might be related to setspn, kerberos, delegation, AD. I am not sure what further checks to make?

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• Google maps api Directions User defined Steps

  - by Via Lactea

  Hi All, I have a google map service with the stores mapped on it. I also have directions service (then you define two addresses or more and it shows you a way on this map, see google map api directions). So I wa?? to show the nearest stores to this way. Of course it could be the store located in the next streat of my way, so it also should be included to the list. So far I just found only an array of steps in the directions object which I get from google maps api. But these steps are predefined by google, so they can be too close one each to other and they also can be too far (if a part of your route is a highway or there is no any special steps on your way etc.) So, what I want to do. I want to make my own steps on the line that I get from google directions (for example to put these steps on my line every 500 meeters etc.), and after that to search every step for any stores around 200 meeters. Is it possible to do? I cannot find any solution of this idea in internet.

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• What is the meaning of @ModelAttribute annotation at method argument level?

  - by beemaster

  Spring 3 reference teaches us: When you place it on a method parameter, @ModelAttribute maps a model attribute to the specific, annotated method parameter I don't understand this magic spell, because i sure that model object's alias (key value if using ModelMap as return type) passed to the View after executing of the request handler method. Therefore when request handler method executes the model object's name can't be mapped to the method parameter. To solve this contradiction i went to stackoverflow and found this detailed example. The author of example said: // The "personAttribute" model has been passed to the controller from the JSP It seems, he is charmed by Spring reference... To dispel the charms i deployed his sample app in my environment and cruelly cut @ModelAttribute annotation from method MainController.saveEdit. As result the application works without any changes! So i conclude: the @ModelAttribute annotation is not needed to pass web form's field values to the argument's fields. Then i stuck to the question: what is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation? If the only mean is to set alias for model object in View, then why this way better than explicitly adding of object to ModelMap?

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• Best practice when removing entity regarding mappedBy collections?

  - by Daniel Bleisteiner

  I'm still kind of undecided which is the best practice to handle em.remove(entity) with this entity being in several collections mapped using mappedBy in JPA. Consider an entity like a Property that references three other entities: a Descriptor, a BusinessObject and a Level entity. The mapping is defined using @ManyToOne in the Property entity and using @OneToMany(mappedBy...) in the other three objects. That inverse mapping is defined because there are some situations where I need to access those collections. Whenever I remove a Property using em.remove(prop) this element is not automatically removed from managed entities of the other three types. If I don't care about that and the following page load (webapp) doesn't reload those entities the Property is still found and some decisions might be taken that are no longer true. The inverse mappings may become quite large and though I don't want to use something like descriptor.getProperties().remove(prop) because it will load all those properties that might have been lazy loaded until then. So my currently preferred way is to refresh the entity if it is managed: if (em.contains(descriptor)) em.refresh(descriptor) - which unloads a possibly loaded collection and triggers a reload upon the next access. Is there another feasible way to handle all those mappedBy collections of already loaded entites?

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• Risky Business with LINQ to SQL and OR Designer?

  - by Toadmyster

  I have two tables with a one to many relationship in SQL 2008. The first table (BBD) PK | BBDataID | int       | Floor_Qty | tinyint       | Construct_Year | char(4)       | etc, etc describes the data common to all buildings and the second (BBDCerts) PK | BBDCertsID | int       | BBDataID | int       | Certification_Type | varchar(20)       | etc, etc is a collection of certifications for a particular building. Thus, the primary key in BBD (BBDataID) is mapped to the corresponding field in BBDCerts via an FK relationship, but BBDCertsID is the second table's primary key and BBDataID is not because it will not be unique. My problem is that I want to be able to use the OR generated data context to get at the list of certs when I access a particular record in the BBD table. For instance: Dim vals = (From q in db.BBD Where q.BBDataID = x Select q.Floor_Qty, q.Construct_Year, q.BBDCerts).SingleOrDefault and later be able to access a particular certification like this: vals.BBDCerts.Certification_Type.First Now, the automatic associations created when the SQL tables are dropped on the design surface don't generate the EntityRef associations that are needed to access the other table using the dot notation. So, I have to use the OR designer to make the BBDCerts BBDataID a primary key (this doesn't affect the actual database), and then manually change the association properties to the appropriate OneToMany settings. There might be a better way to approach this solution but my question is, is the way I've done it safe? I've done a barrage of tests and the correct cert is referenced or updated every time. Frankly, the whole thing makes me nervous.

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