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  • Django IntegrityError: foreign key violation upon delete

    - by Lukasz Korzybski
    I have Order and Shipment model. Shipment has a foreign key to Order. class Order(...): ... class Shipment() order = m.ForeignKey('Order') ... Now in one of my views I want do delete order object along with all related objects. So I invoke order.delete(). I have Django 1.0.4, PostgreSQL 8.4 and I use transaction middleware, so whole request is enclosed in single transaction. The problem is that upon order.delete() I get: ... File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/__init__.py", line 28, in _commit return self.connection.commit() IntegrityError: update or delete on table "main_order" violates foreign key constraint "main_shipment_order_id_fkey" on table "main_shipment" DETAIL: Key (id)=(45) is still referenced from table "main_shipment". I checked in connection.queries that proper queries are executed in proper order. First shipment is deleted, after that django executes delete on order row: {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_shipment" WHERE "id" IN (17)'}, {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_order" WHERE "id" IN (45)'} Foreign key have ON DELETE NO ACTION (default) and is initially deferred. I don't know why I get foreign key constraint violation. I also tried to register pre_delete signal and manually delete shipment objects before delete on order is called, but it resulted in the same error. I can change ON DELETE behaviour for this key in Postgres but it would be just a hack, I wonder if anyone has a better idea what's going on here. There is also a small detail, my Order model inherits from Cart model, so it actually doesn't have id field but cart_ptr_id and after DELETE on order is executed there is also DELETE on cart, but it seems unrelated? to the shipment-order problem so I simplified it in the example.

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  • Populate asp.net MVC Index page with data from the database

    - by Sunil Ramu
    I have a web application in which I need to fetch data from the database and display in the index page. As you know, asp.net mvc has given options to edit delete etc... I need to populate the page using the conventional DB way and it uses a stored procedure to retrieve results. I dont want to use LINQ. This is my model entity class using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace LogMVCApp.Models { public class Property { public int Id { get; set; } public string LogInId { get; set; } public string Username { get; set; } public string Action { get; set; } public string Information { get; set; } public bool Passed{get; set; } public string LogType { get; set; } } } and I need to retrieve data using something like this... var conString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["connection"].ToString(); var conn = new SqlConnection(conString); var command = new SqlCommand("LogInsert", conn){CommandType=CommandType.StoredProcedure};

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  • Advice needed: cold backup for SQL Server 2008 Express?

    - by Mikey Cee
    What are my options for achieving a cold backup server for SQL Server Express instance running a single database? I have an SQL Server 2008 Express instance in production that currently represents a single point of failure for my application. I have a second physical box sitting at the installation that is currently doing nothing. I want to somehow replicate my database in near real time (a little bit of data loss is acceptable) to the second box. The database is very small and resources are utilized very lightly. In the case that the production server dies, I would manually reconfigure my application to point to the backup server instead. Although Express doesn't support log shipping, I am thinking that I could manually script a poor man's version of it, where I use batch files to take the logs and copy them across the network and apply them to the second server at 5 minute intervals. Does anyone have any advice on whether this is technically achievable, or if there is a better way to do what I am trying to do? Note that I want to avoid having to pay for the full version of SQL Server and configure mirroring as I think it is an overkill for this application. I understand that other DB platforms may present suitable options (eg. a MySQL Cluster), but for the purposes of this discussion, let's assume we have to stick to SQL Server.

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  • PHP OOP singleton doesn't return object

    - by Misiur
    Weird trouble. I've used singleton multiple times but this particular case just doesn't want to work. Dump says that instance is null. define('ROOT', "/"); define('INC', 'includes/'); define('CLS', 'classes/'); require_once(CLS.'Core/Core.class.php'); $core = Core::getInstance(); var_dump($core->instance); $core->settings(INC.'config.php'); $core->go(); Core class class Core { static $instance; public $db; public $created = false; private function __construct() { $this->created = true; } static function getInstance() { if(!self::$instance) { self::$instance = new Core(); } else { return self::$instance; } } public function settings($path = null) { ... } public function go() { ... } } Error code Fatal error: Call to a member function settings() on a non-object in path It's possibly some stupid typo, but I don't have any errors in my editor. Thanks for the fast responses as always.

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  • Codeigniter: Library function--I'm stuck

    - by Kevin Brown
    I have a library function that sets up my forms, and submits data. They're long, and they work, so I'll spare you reading my code. :) I simply need a way for my functions to determine how to handle the data. Until now, the function did one thing: Submit a report for the current user. NOW, the client has requested that an administrator also be able to complete a form--this means that the form would be filled out, and it would CREATE a user at the same time, whereas the current function EDITS and is accessed by an EXISTING user. Do I need a separate function to do essentially the same thing? How do I make one function perform two tasks? One to update a user, and if there is no user, create one. Current controller: function survey() { $id = $this->session->userdata('id'); $data['member'] = $this->home_model->getUser($id); //Convert the db Object to a row array $data['manager'] = $data['member']->row(); $manager_id = $data['manager']->manager_id; $data['manager'] = $this->home_model->getUser($manager_id); $data['manager'] = $data['manager']->row(); $data['header'] = "Home"; $this->survey_form_processing->survey_form($this->_container,$data, $method); } Current Library: function survey_form($container) { //Lots of validation stuff $this->CI->validation->set_rules($rules); if ( $this->CI->validation->run() === FALSE ) { // Output any errors $this->CI->validation->output_errors(); } else { // Submit form $this->_submit(); } $this->CI->load->view($container,$data); The submit function is huge too. Basically says, "Update table with data where user_id=current user" I hope this wasn't too confusing. I'll create two functions if need be, but I'd like to keep redundancy down! }

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  • EF 4.0 Code only assocation from abstract to derived

    - by Jeroen
    Using EF 4.0 Code only i want to make an assocation between an abstract and normal class. I have class 'Item', 'ContentBase' and 'Test'. 'ContentBase' is abstract and 'Test' derives from it. 'ContentBase' has a property 'Item' that links to an instance of 'Item'. So that 'Test.Item' or any class that derives from 'ContentBase' has an 'Item' navigation property. In my DB every record for Test has a matching record for Item. public class Item { public int Id { get; set;} } public abstract class ContentBase { public int ContentId { get; set;} public int Id { get; set;} public Item Item { get; set;} } public class Test : ContentBase { public string Name { get; set;} } now some init code public void SomeInitFunction() { var itemConfig = new EntityConfiguration<Item>(); itemConfig.HasKey(p => p.Id); itemConfig.Property(p => p.Id).IsIdentity(); this.ContextBuilder.Configurations.Add(itemConfig); var testConfig = new EntityConfiguration<Test>(); testConfig.HasKey(p => p.ContentId); testConfig.Property(p => p.ContentId).IsIdentity(); // the problem testConfig.Relationship(p => p.Item).HasConstraint((p, q) => p.Id == q.Id); this.ContextBuilder.Configurations.Add(testConfig); } This gives an error: A key is registered for the derived type 'Test'. Keys must be registered for the root type 'ContentBase'. anyway i try i get an error. What am i a doing wrong?

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  • Spring MVC: should service layer be returning operation specific DTO's ?

    - by arrages
    In my Spring MVC application I am using DTO in the presentation layer in order to encapsulate the domain model in the service layer. The DTO's are being used as the spring form backing objects. hence my services look something like this: userService.storeUser(NewUserRequestDTO req); The service layer will translate DTO - Domain object and do the rest of the work. Now my problem is that when I want to retrieve a DTO from the service to perform say an Update or Display I can't seem to find a better way to do it then to have multiple methods for the lookup that return different DTO's like... EditUserRequestDTO userService.loadUserForEdit(int id); DisplayUserDTO userService.loadUserForDisplay(int id); but something does not feel right about this approach. The reason do have separate DTO's is that DisplayUserDTO is strongly typed to be read only and also there are many properties of user that are entities from a lookup table in the db (like city and state) so the DisplayUserDTO would have the string description of the properties while the EditUserRequestDTO will have the id's that will back the select drop down lists in the forms. What do you think? thanks

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  • Do I really ned bindParam?

    - by sandelius
    Hi there! I'm trying to do a little PDO CRUD to learn some PDO. I have a question about bindParam. Here's my update method right now: public static function update($conditions = array(), $data = array(), $table = '') { self::instance(); // Late static bindings (PHP 5.3) $table = ($table === '') ? self::table() : $table; // Check which data array we want to use $values = (empty($data)) ? self::$_fields : $data; $sql = "UPDATE $table SET "; foreach ($values as $f => $v) { $sql .= "$f = ?, "; } // let's build the conditions self::build_conditions($conditions); // fix our WHERE, AND, OR, LIKE conditions $extra = self::$condition_string; // querystring $sql = rtrim($sql, ', ') . $extra; // let's merge the arrays into on $v_val = array_values($values); $c_val = array_values($conditions); $array = array_merge($v_val, self::$condition_array); $stmt = self::$db->prepare($sql); return $stmt->execute($array); } in my "self::$condition_array" I get all the right values from the ?. SO the query looks like this: UPDATE table SET this = ?, another = ? WHERE title = ? AND time = ? as you can see I dont use bindParams instead I pass the right values in the right order ($array) directly into the execute($array) method. This works like a charm BUT is it safe not use use bindParam here? If not then how can I do it? Thanks from Sweden Tobias

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  • Storing Credit Card Numbers in SESSION - ways around it?

    - by JM4
    I am well aware of PCI Compliance so don't need an earful about storing CC numbers (and especially CVV nums) within our company database during checkout process. However, I want to be safe as possible when handling sensitive consumer information and am curious how to get around passing CC numbers from page to page WITHOUT using SESSION variables if at all possible. My site is built in this way: Step 1) collect Credit Card information from customer - when customer hits submit, the information is first run through JS validation, then run through PHP validation, if all passes he moves to step 2. Step 2) Information is displayed on a review page for customer to make sure the details of their upcoming transaction are shown. Only the first 6 and last 4 of the CC are shown on this page but card type, and exp date are shwon fully. If he clicks proceed, Step 3) The information is sent to another php page which runs one last validation, sends information through secure payment gateway, and string is returned with details. Step 4) If all is good and well, the consumer information (personal, not CC) is stored in DB and redirected to a completion page. If anything is bad, he is informed and told to revisit the CC processing page to try again (max of 3 times). Any suggestions?

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  • Querying a 3rd party website's database from my website

    - by Mong134
    The Goal: To retrieve information from a 3rd party database based off of a user's query on my ASP.NET website The Details: I need to be able to search 3rd-party websites for information relating to pharmaceutical drugs. Basically, here's what I've been tasked with: a user starts entering the name of a drug they're using in their experiments, and while they're typing a 3rd party website (e.g., here or here) is queried and suggestions are made based based off of what they've typed. Once they've made a selection, certain properties (molecular weight, chemical structure, etc) are retrieved from the 3rd party database and stored in our database. PharmaGKB.org's search bar is pretty much what I need to implement, but I need to access a 3rd party db. The site that I'm working on is ASP.NET/C#. The Problem: I don't really know where to start with this. There's a downloadable Perl example at the bottom of the page here, but it didn't really help me all that much. I'm at a loss as to how to implement this, or even find information about how to do it. The AJAX toolkit was suggested, but I'm not sure if that will solve the issue. JavaScript is also being considered, but again, I'm not sure if that will be sufficient, either. Perl Example Connection As a mentioned, here is a snippet from the Perl example given on the Pharmgkb.org site: my $call = SOAP::Lite -> readable (1) -> uri('SearchService') -> proxy('http://www.pharmgkb.org/services/SearchService') -> search ($ARGV[0]); However, I'm not sure how to implement this is C#/ASP.NET/JavaScript. There's a question on Stack Overflow about embedding Perl in C#, but it require a C wrapper as well, and I don't think that three languages is necessary or wise to solve this issue.

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  • SQL Server log backups "stalling"

    - by MattK
    I have interited a box running SQL Server 2008 and Windows 2003, and have had a few events where largeish (35GB) log backups "stall", both before and after the installation of SQL 2008 SP1. The server log ships to a standby, so regular log backups are taken at 15 minute intervals. However, after an index reorg causes the log to grow to about 35GB (on a DB with about 17GB of data), the next log backup runs to ~95% completion, then seems to stop. The process shows as suspended, with a wait state of BACKUPIO. CPU, read, and write activity on the SPID also does not change, and the process stays in this state for hours, when normally a backup of this size should complete in about 20 minutes. This server has a single RAID-1 volume, thus the source database files and destination backup files are on the same volume. However, I cannot determine if another process is blocking the backup. The backup SPID cannot be killed, and the only way to terminate the log backup and clear the lock on the backup file is to cycle the SQL Server service. There was one event where the backup terminated completely, with an error that another process had locked the backup file, but no details about what that process was. Can anyone suggest a cause or diagnostic process to this situation?

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  • how to synchronize database table and directory with php

    - by twmulloy
    hello, I have a directory with files and a database table with what should be the same files. I would like to be able to synchronize the database table with the directory. What would be the most efficient way to do this? or would I realistically only be able to do this in a brute manner? Here's my approach: 1. retrieve all of the files in the directory as array 2. retrieve all of the filenames in the database table as array 3. loop through the file values in the directory array and use in_array() on the database table array to verify the filename is in that array, and if not then start building an array to insert the missing filenames. run db query to add each missing file row to database table 4. loop through directory array and use in_array() on the directory array and anything not found in the directory array will just be deleted from the table. Is there a better way to go about this? or something better for this in php than in_array()?

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  • ASP Dot Net : How to repeat HTML parts with minor differences on a page?

    - by tinky05
    It's a really simple problem. I've got HTML code like this : <div> <img src="image1.jpg" alt="test1" /> </div> <div> <img src="image2.jpg" alt="test2" /> </div> <div> <img src="image3.jpg" alt="test3" /> </div> etc... The data is comming from a DB (image name, alt text). In JAVA, I would do something like : save the info in array in the back end. For the presentation I would loop through it with JSTL : <c:foeach items="${data}" var="${item}> <div> <img src="${item.image}" alt="${item.alt}" /> </div> </c:foreach> What's the best practice in ASP.net I just don't want to create a string with HTML code in it in the "code behind", it's ugly IMO.

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  • Synchronizing one or more databases with a master database - Foreign keys

    - by Ikke
    I'm using Google Gears to be able to use an application offline (I know Gears is deprecated). The problem I am facing is the synchronization with the database on the server. The specific problem is the primary keys or more exactly, the foreign keys. When sending the information to the server, I could easily ignore the primary keys, and generate new ones. But then how would I know what the relations are. I had one sollution in mind, bet the I would need to save all the pk for every client. What is the best way to synchronize multiple client with one server db. Edit: I've been thinking about it, and I guess seqential primary keys are not the best solution, but what other possibilities are there? Time based doesn't seem right because of collisions which could happen. A GUID comes to mind, is that an option? It looks like generating a GUID in javascript is not that easy. I can do something with natural keys or composite keys. As I'm thinking about it, that looks like the best solution. Can I expect any problems with that?

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  • How to perform Rails model validation checks within model but outside of filters using ledermann-rails-settings and extensions

    - by user1277160
    Background I'm using ledermann-rails-settings (https://github.com/ledermann/rails-settings) on a Rails 2/3 project to extend virtually the model with certain attributes that don't necessarily need to be placed into the DB in a wide table and it's working out swimmingly for our needs. An additional reason I chose this Gem is because of the post How to create a form for the rails-settings plugin which ties ledermann-rails-settings more closely to the model for the purpose of clean form_for usage for administrator GUI support. It's a perfect solution for addressing form_for support although... Something that I'm running into now though is properly validating the dynamic getters/setters before being passed to the ledermann-rails-settings module. At the moment they are saved immediately, regardless if the model validation has actually fired - I can see through script/console that validation errors are being raised. Example For instance I would like to validate that the attribute :foo is within the range of 0..100 for decimal usage (or even a regex). I've found that with the previous post that I can use standard Rails validators (surprise, surprise) but I want to halt on actually saving any values until those are addressed - ensure that the user of the GUI has given 61.43 as a numerical value. The following code has been borrowed from the quoted post. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_settings validates_inclusion_of :foo, :in => 0..100 def self.settings_attr_accessor(*args) >>SOME SORT OF UNLESS MODEL.VALID? CHECK HERE args.each do |method_name| eval " def #{method_name} self.settings.send(:#{method_name}) end def #{method_name}=(value) self.settings.send(:#{method_name}=, value) end " end >>END UNLESS end settings_attr_accessor :foo end Anyone have any thoughts here on pulling the state of the model at this point outside of having to put this into a before filter? The goal here is to be able to use the standard validations and avoid rolling custom validation checks for each new settings_attr_accessor that is added. Thanks!

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  • POSTmethod and PHP- login verification

    - by Neethusha
    I wrote a code for login verification..I got output with GET. But i need output with POST since it is more secure.pls let me know if there is any error in my code. javascript code: var xml; function verifyusernamepasswd(pass) { //pass is password that will be passed as parameter xml=new XMLHttpRequest(); var url="http://localhost/loginvalidate.php"; var para="q="+username+"&p="+pass;//username is global xml.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); xml.setRequestHeader("Content-length", para.length); xml.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); xml.open("POST",url,true); xml.onreadystatechange=statechanged1; xml.send(para); } function statechanged1() { if(xml.readyState==4) alert(xml.responseText); } php code: <?php $username=$_POST["q"]; $password=$_POST["p"]; $con=mysql_connect("localhost","root","blaze"); if(!$con) { die('Could not connect: '.mysql.error()); } mysql_select_db("BLAZE",$con) or die("No such Db"); $result=mysql_query("SELECT Passwword FROM USERTABLE WHERE Userhandle='$username'"); if($result==null) echo "false"; else if($result!=null) { $row=mysql_fetch_array($result); if((strcmp($row['Passwword'],$password)==0)) echo "true"; else echo "false"; } ?> the verification does not return anything, cos my alert is not displayed at all...pls tell me whats wrong....

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  • Do all the HTML5 storage systems work together ?

    - by azera
    While there are a lot of good stuff about html5, one thing I don't get is the redondant storage mechanism, first there is localstorage and sessionstorage, which are key value stores, one is for one instance of the app ("one tab"), and the other works for all the instances of that application so they can share data. Both are saved when you close your browser and have a limited size (usually 5MB), that's great and everything would be nice if we stopped there. But then there is the "Web SQL Database", which has the same security system as the localstorage, the same size limit, the same everything except it works like/is sqlite, with tables and sql syntax and all of that. And the bummer is, they don't work on the same data at all ! This is not two way to access your data, this is really two storage for every html 5 app out there (not created by default yes, but still you see my point). What I would like to know is, is there a reason for both of this mechanisms to exist at the same time ? Or did they just look at sql and nosql movement to pick the best then went "screw it let's add both !" ? Why not implement local/session storage as a table inside web sql db ?

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  • how to make a software and preserve database integrity and correctness and please help confused

    - by user287745
    i have made an application project in vs 08 c#, sql server from vs 08. the database has like 20 tables and many fields in each have made an interface for adding deleting editting and retrieving data according to predefined needs of the users. now i have to 1) make to project in to a software which i can deliver to professor. that is he can just double click the icon and the software simply starts. no vs 08 needed to start the debugging 2) the database will be on one powerful computer (dual core latest everything win xp) and the user will access it from another computer connected using LAN i am able to change the connection string to the shared database using vs 08/ debugger whenever the server changes but how am i supposed to do that when its a software? 3)there will by many clients am i supposed to give the same software to every one, so they all can connect to the database, how will the integrity and correctness of the database be maintained? i mean the db.mdf file will be in a folder which will be shared with read and write access. so its not necessary that only one user will write at a time. so is there any coding for this or? please help me out here i am stuck do not know what to do i have no practical experience, would appreciate all the help thank you

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  • Same session and session ID for different subdomains in Grails project - How can I do that?

    - by fluxon
    I am currently working on a project that supports multiple languages. In order to be seo friendly, I am trying to redirect users subdomains corresponding to their locale (or their preferred language). I.e., my projects's url is mydomain.com and I work with the subdomains en.mydomain.com, es.mydomain.com, de.mydomain.com, fr.mydomain.com ... you get the idea. All subdomains are served by the same grails app for now. What happens is that my grails project maintains different sessions (as seen by the session ids) for every single subdomain, hence information is lost, when a user switches between languages. I had not forseen that. :( How can I explicitly set the session identifier? I would like it to be based on just mydomain.com. I got the hint that Apache Tomcat offers something like <Context sessionCookiePath="/" sessionCookieDomain=".mydomain.com"> , but that does not help for the devel environment etc. Any hints? Have you tried storing session information in the DB? This is sometimes used for load-balancing purposes and might help here as well?! Help is highly appreciated (as always)! Cheers!

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  • How to Update with LINQ?

    - by DaveDev
    currently, I'm doing an update similar to as follows, because I can't see a better way of doing it. I've tried suggestions that I've read in blogs but none work, such as http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb425822.aspx and http://weblogs.asp.net/scottgu/archive/2007/05/19/using-linq-to-sql-part-1.aspx Maybe these do work and I'm missing some point. Has anyone else had luck with them? // please note this isn't the actual code. // I've modified it to clarify the point I wanted to make // and also I didn't want to post our code here! public bool UpdateMyStuff(int myId, List<int> funds) { // get MyTypes that correspond to the ID I want to update IQueryable<MyType> myTypes = database.MyTypes.Where(xx => xx.MyType_MyId == myId); // delete them from the database foreach (db.MyType mt in myTypes) { database.MyTypes.DeleteOnSubmit(mt); } database.SubmitChanges(); // create a new row for each item I wanted to update, and insert it foreach (int fund in funds) { database.MyType mt = new database.MyType { MyType_MyId = myId, fund_id = fund }; database.MyTypes.InsertOnSubmit(mt); } // try to commit the insert try { database.SubmitChanges(); return true; } catch (Exception) { return false; throw; } } Unfortunately, there isn't a database.MyTypes.Update() method so I don't know a better way to do it. Can sombody suggest what I could do? Thanks. ..as a side note, why isn't there an Update() method?

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  • For a set of sql-queries, how do you determine which result-set contains a certain row?

    - by ManBugra
    I have a set of sql - queries: List<String> queries = ... queries[0] = "select id from person where ..."; ... queries[8756] = "select id from person where ..."; Each query selects rows from the same table 'person'. The only difference is the where-clause. Table 'person' looks like this: id | name | ... many other columns How can i determine which queries will contain a certain person in their subset? For example: List<Integer> matchingQueries = magicMethod(queries, [23,45]); The list obtained by 'magicMethod' filters all sql queries present in the list 'queries' (defined above) and returns only those that contain either the person with id 23 OR a person with id 45. Why i need it: I am dealing with an application that contains products and categories where the categories are sql queries that define which products belong to them (queries stored in a table also). Now i have a requirement where an admin has to see all categories an item belongs to immediately after the item was created. Btw, over 8.000 categories defined (so far, more to come). language and db: java && postgreSQL Thanks,

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  • Modify SQL result set before returning from stored procedure

    - by m0sa
    I have a simple table in my SQL Server 2008 DB: Tasks_Table -id -task_complete -task_active -column_1 -.. -column_N The table stores instructions for uncompleted tasks that have to be executed by a service. I want to be able to scale my system in future. Until now only 1 service on 1 computer read from the table. I have a stored procedure, that selects all uncompleted and inactive tasks. As the service begins to process tasks it updates the task_active flag in all the returned rows. To enable scaleing of the system I want to enable deployment of the service on more machines. Because I want to prevent a task being returned to more than 1 service I have to update the stored procedure that returns uncompleted and inactive tasks. I figured that i have to lock the table (only 1 reader at a time - I know I have to use an apropriate ISOLATION LEVEL), and updates the task_active flag in each row of the result set before returning the result set. So my question is how to modify the SELECT result set iin the stored procedure before returning it?

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  • Good case for a Null Object Pattern? (Provide some service with a mailservice)

    - by fireeyedboy
    For a website I'm working on, I made an Media Service object that I use in the front end, as well as in the backend (CMS). This Media Service object manipulates media in a local repository (DB); it provides the ability to upload/embed video's and upload images. In other words, website visitors are able to do this in the front end, but administrators of the site are also able to do this in the backend. I'ld like this service to mail the administrators when a visitor has uploaded/embedded a new medium in the frontend, but refrain from mailing them when they upload/embed a medium themself in the backend. So I started wondering whether this is a good case for passing a null object, that mimicks the mail funcionality, to the Media Service in the backend. I thought this might come in handy when they decide the backend needs to have implemented mail functionality as well. In simplified terms I'ld like to do something like this: Frontend: $mediaService = new MediaService( new MediaRepository(), new StandardMailService() ); Backend: $mediaService = new MediaService( new MediaRepository(), new NullMailService() ); How do you feel about this? Does this make sense? Or am I setting myself up for problems down the road?

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  • MySQL Stored Procedures : Use a variable as the database name in a cursor declaration

    - by Justin
    I need to use a variable to indicate what database to query in the declaration of a cursor. Here is a short snippet of the code : CREATE PROCEDURE `update_cdrs_lnp_data`(IN dbName VARCHAR(25), OUT returnCode SMALLINT) cdr_records:BEGIN DECLARE cdr_record_cursor CURSOR FOR SELECT cdrs_id, called, calling FROM dbName.cdrs WHERE lrn_checked = 'N'; # Setup logging DECLARE EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION BEGIN #call log_debug('Got exception in update_cdrs_lnp_data'); SET returnCode = -1; END; As you can see, I'm TRYING to use the variable dbName to indicate in which database the query should occur within. However, MySQL will NOT allow that. I also tried things such as : CREATE PROCEDURE `update_cdrs_lnp_data`(IN dbName VARCHAR(25), OUT returnCode SMALLINT) cdr_records:BEGIN DECLARE cdr_record_cursor CURSOR FOR SET @query = CONCAT("SELECT cdrs_id, called, calling FROM " ,dbName, ".cdrs WHERE lrn_checked = 'N' "); PREPARE STMT FROM @query; EXECUTE STMT; # Setup logging DECLARE EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION BEGIN #call log_debug('Got exception in update_cdrs_lnp_data'); SET returnCode = -1; END; Of course this doesn't work either as MySQL only allows a standard SQL statement in the cursor declaration. Can anyone think of a way to use the same stored procedure in multiple databases by passing in the name of the db that should be affected?

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  • connecting to secure database on private network from website host

    - by jim
    Hello all, I've got a requirement to both read and write data via a .net webservice to a sqlserver database that's on a private network. this database is currently accessed via a vpn connection by remote client software (on standard desktop machines) to get latest product prices and to upload product stock sales. I've been tasked with finding a way to centralise this access from a webservice that the clients then access, rather than them using the vpn route to connect directly to the database. My question is related to my .net service's relationship to the sqlserver database. What are the options for connecting to a private network vpn from a domain host in order to achive the functionality of allowing the webservice to both read and write data to the database. For now, I'm not too concerned about the client connectivity and security (tho i appreciate that this will have to be worked out too), I'm really just interested in discovering the options available in order to allow my .net webservice to connect to the private network in as painless and transparent a way as posible. [edit] the webservice will also be available to the retail website in order for it to lookup product info as well as allocate stock transfers to the same sqlserver db. it will therefore be located on the same domain as the retail site The option of switching the database onto public hosting is not feasible, so I have to work with the scenario as described above for now, unless there's a compelling rationale presented to do otherwise. thanks all... jim

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