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  • add database Tablenames to the JList in java

    - by Litecia
    // Declare JList private JList jlstTab, jlstCol; . . . DefaultListModel dlmTables = new DefaultListModel(); DefaultListModel dlmCol = new DefaultListModel(); // Instantiate dlmTables.addElement("kl"); jlstTab= new JList(dlmTables); jlstTab.setSelectedIndex(0); jlstTab.setSelectionMode(ListSelectionModel.SINGLE_SELECTION); . . . . Connect to the database public static void main(String args[]) { DBToolSwing cs = new DBToolSwing("DB Tool Swing"); try DBAccessObject dbAccess1 = new DBAccessObject("jdbc:odbc:JavaClassDSN"); DBAccessObject dbAccess2 = new DBAccessObject(); ResultSet rsTables = dbAccess1.getDatabaseTableNames(); while (rsTables.next()) System.out.println(rsTables.getString("TABLE_NAME")); I need to get the table names from the database, the output shouldn't be printed on the screen, instead I need the output added to the JlstTab so dlmTables.addElement("TABLE_NAME"); Please if someone can help I would appreciate it. Thanks in advance.

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  • Facebook - generating fb tag in Jquery - not working

    - by Gublooo
    Hey guys Kind of stuck here - I have this functionality on my site where I display 10 user comments along with their photo and when a user clicks on "More" - using Jquery more results are fetched from DB and the results are displayed via string generated in the Jquery method. This is a shortened version of my Jquery function $(".more_swipes").live('click',function() { var profile_id = 'profile-user_id; ?'; $.getJSON("/profile/more-swipes", { user_id: profile_id},function(swipes) { $.each(swipes, function(i,data){ newcomment="<div"; newcomment +="<fb:profile-pic uid='"+data.fb_userid+"' linked='false'/"; newcomment +="Name="+data.user_name+"-Comment="+data.comment; $("#moreswipes").append(newcomment); }); }); return false; }); Here as you can see I'm using the tag <fb:profile-pic uid='"+data.fb_userid+"' linked='false'/ Now when more results get displayed, the profile pic of the user is not getting displayed - when I look at the source code - this is how the fb tag looks when its generated thru Jquery <fb:profile-pic uid="222222" linked="false" height="50" width="50" Whereas the FB tags not generated thru the Jquery code look like <fb:profile-pic uid="222222" linked="false" height="50" width="50" class="FB_profile_pic <fb_profile_pic_rendered FB_ElementReady" style="width:px;height:50px" <img src="http://profile.atk......2025.jpg" alt="User Name" title="User Name" style="width:px;height:50px" class="FB_profile_pic"/ </fb:profile-pic So when I add it as a String in JQuery function - facebook is not identifying it and executing it Any idea how to fix this Thanks a bunch

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  • managing classes when everything is relative to a user in nhibernate (orm)

    - by Schotime
    Firstly I have three entities. Users, Roles, Items A user can have multiple Roles. An item gets assigned to one or more roles. Therefore a user will have access to a distinct set of items. Now there is a few ways I can see this working. There is a Collection on Users which has Roles via a many-to-many assoc. Then each Role in this collection will have its own collection of Items. So for each user I would have to get the User (using nhib and fetch the roles and items with it) then either do a selectMany on the Items in each Role to get all the Items for the user or do a couple of foreach's to port the data to a view or dto model. Create a db trigger to automatically insert into another table that just has the relationship between user and items so that on my User entity I only have a Items collections which has all the items assigned to me. Some other way that i can't think of yet, because I'm new to nHibernate. Now i know that the trigger doesn't feel right but I'm not sure how to do this. We also have some hierarchy later where a user may be in charge of a group of users. If anyone could shed some light on how they go about these scenarios in nhibernate or another orm that would be great, or point be in a direction. I know that in the past you would have to enter all combinations into a table so that the query worked, but when you know sql its not too bad. If you need any other info then let me know. Cheers

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  • Php JSON Response Array

    - by Nick Kl
    I have this php code. As you can see i query a mysql database through a function showallevents. I return a the $result to the $event variable. I try to return all rows of the data that i take with the msql_fetch_assoc. I don't get response even when i encode the $response variable. It returns null to all fields. Can anyone help me on what i am doing wrong. I had a valid code but it was returning only 1 row of data so i tried to make an associative array but seems i am failing. if ($tag == 'showallevents') { // Request type is show all events // show all events $event = $db->showallevents(); if ($event != false) { $data = array(); while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($event)) { $data[] = array( $response["success"] = 1, $response["uid"] = $event["uid"], $response["event"]["date"] = $event["date"], $response["event"]["hours"] = $event["hours"], $response["event"]["store_name"] = $event["store_name"], $response["event"]["event_information"] = $event["event_information"], $response["event"]["event_type"] = $event["event_type"], $response["event"]["Phone"] = $event["Phone"], $response["event"]["address"] = $event["address"], $response["event"]["created_at"] = $event["created_at"], $response["event"]["updated_at"] = $event["updated_at"]); } echo json_encode($data); } else { // event not found // echo json with error = 1 $response["error"] = 1; $response["error_msg"] = "Events not found"; echo json_encode($response); } } else { echo "Access Denied"; } } ?>

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  • Identical files from different servers. Why might IE 8 display them differently?

    - by jasongetsdown
    I'm working on a site that will go on my company's intranet. I developed it locally on my computer, checking it in different browsers and on colleague's computers, and when it was done I handed it off to IT. They put identical copies on a staging server, and on the production server. This is a site built only with html, javascript, and css. No server side scripting. It also uses a DWF viewer plugin from Autodesk. It is a single standalone page (not part of a CMS) that allows users to load drawings into the viewer and then click to see info from a database of space info saved in a series of js arrays (the space DB software spits out a js file with all the info listed in array literals, creating a crap ton of global variables - ugh, but I digress). When I followed their links (using IE 8) the version on the staging server looked as expected, but the layout is hosed on the version from the production server. Specifically, it seems like a div that is supposed to flow to the right of a div that is float: left is displaying below the floated div at full width, as though it was clear: left (which it is not). It also has the wrong height. I downloaded the files from each and they are identical to my local version. Frustrated, I cleared my browser's cache, restarted my computer, checked it on a colleague's computer who also has IE 8. All the same issue. Staging server good. Production server bad. Finally I uninstalled IE 8 and looked at it in IE 6. Both versions looked fine. So, to recap. Two different servers. No server side scripting. Identical files. One browser agrees they are identical, the other does not. What could cause this?

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  • How to fix this simple SQL query?

    - by morpheous
    I have a database with three tables: user_table country_table city_table I want to write ANSI SQL which will allow me to fetch all the user data (i.e. user details including the name of the country of the last school and the name of the city they live in now). The problem I am having is that I have to use a self join, and I am getting slightly confused. The schema is shown below: CREATE TABLE user_table (id int, first_name varchar(16), last_school_country_id int, city_id int); CREATE TABLE country_table (id int, name varchar(32)); CREATE TABLE city_table (id int, country_id int, name varchar(32)); This is the query I have come up with so far, but the results are wrong, and sometimes, the db engine (mySQL), asks me if I want to show all [HUGE NUMBER HERE] results - which makes me suspect that I am unintentionally creating a cartesian product somewhere. Can someone explain what is wrong with this SQL statement, and what I need to do to fix it? SELECT usr.id AS id, usr.first_name, ctry1.name as loc_country_name, ctry2.name as school_country_name, city.name as loc_city_name FROM user_table usr, country_table ctry1, country_table ctry2, city_table city WHERE usr.last_school_country_id=ctry2.id AND usr.city_id=city.id AND city.country_id=ctry1.id AND ctry1.id=ctry2.id;

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  • passing string to a AJAX/JSON function

    - by Mikey1980
    I’m having trouble getting a AJAX/JSON function to work correctly. I had this function grabbing value from a drop down box but now I want to use an anchor tag to set it's value. I thought it would be easy to just use the onClick event to pass string to the function I was using for the drop down box but it doesn’t do anything. I’m stumped! Here how I set it up: 1st I add an onClick event… <a href="<?php echo Settings::get('app.webroot'); ?>?view=schedule&action=questions" onmouseout="MM_swapImgRestore();" onmouseover="MM_swapImage('bre','','template/images/schedule/bre_f2.gif',1) onclick="assignCallType('testing')";> 2nd I check main.js.php function assignCallType(type) { alert(type); //just for debugging new Request.JSON({ url: "ajax.php", onSuccess: function(rtndata,txt){ if (rtndata['STATUS'] != 'OK') alert('Error assigning call type to call'); }, onFailure: function (xhr) { alert('Error assigning call type to call'); } }).get({ 'action': 'assignCallType', 'call_type': type }); } 3rd Ajax.php: the variable is back in PHP and values don’t get added to the db, but I also didn’t get the alert from main.js.php if ($_GET['action'] == "assignCallType") { if ($USER->isInsideSales()) { $call_type = $_GET['call_type']; $_SESSION['callinfo']->setCallType($call_type); $_SESSION['callinfo']->save($callid); echo json_encode(array('STATUS'=>'OK')); } else { echo json_encode(array('STATUS'=>'DENIED')); } } Any idea where I am going wrong. The only difference between this and the working drop down is how the function was called, I used onchange="assignCallType(this.value)".

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  • Where can I find my iPhone app's Core Data persistent store?

    - by Dr Dork
    I'm diving into iPhone development, so I apologize in advance if this is a ridiculous question, but in a new iPad app project using the Core Data framework, here's the generated code for creating the persistentStoreCoordinator... - (NSPersistentStoreCoordinator *)persistentStoreCoordinator { if (persistentStoreCoordinator != nil) { return persistentStoreCoordinator; } NSURL *storeUrl = [NSURL fileURLWithPath: [[self applicationDocumentsDirectory] stringByAppendingPathComponent: @"ApplicationName.sqlite"]]; NSError *error = nil; persistentStoreCoordinator = [[NSPersistentStoreCoordinator alloc] initWithManagedObjectModel:[self managedObjectModel]]; if (![persistentStoreCoordinator addPersistentStoreWithType:NSSQLiteStoreType configuration:nil URL:storeUrl options:nil error:&error]) { /* Replace this implementation with code to handle the error appropriately. abort() causes the application to generate a crash log and terminate. You should not use this function in a shipping application, although it may be useful during development. If it is not possible to recover from the error, display an alert panel that instructs the user to quit the application by pressing the Home button. Typical reasons for an error here include: * The persistent store is not accessible * The schema for the persistent store is incompatible with current managed object model Check the error message to determine what the actual problem was. */ NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } return persistentStoreCoordinator; } My questions are... The first time I run the app, is the ApplicationName.sqllite database created automatically if it doesn't exist? If not, when is it created? When data is added to it programmatically? Once the DB does exist, where can I locate the file? I'd like to open it with a different program so I can manually manipulate the data. Thanks so much in advance for your help! I'm going to continue researching these questions right now.

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  • protect form hijacking hack

    - by Karem
    Yes hello today I discovered a hack for my site. When you write a msg on a users wall (in my communitysite) it runs a ajax call, to insert the msg to the db and will then on success slide down and show it. Works fine with no problem. So I was rethinking alittle, I am using POST methods for this and if it was GET method you could easily do ?msg=haxmsg&usr=12345679. But what could you do to come around the POST method? I made a new html document, made a form and on action i set "site.com/insertwall.php" (the file that normally are being used in ajax), i made some input fields with names exactly like i am doing with the ajaxcall (msg, uID (userid), BuID (by userid) ) and made a submit button. I know I have a page_protect() function on which requires you to login and if you arent you will be header to index.php. So i logged in (started session on my site.com) and then I pressed on this submit button. And then wops I saw on my site that it has made a new message. I was like wow, was it so easy to hijack POST method i thought maybe it was little more secure or something. I would like to know what could I do to prevent this hijacking? As i wouldnt even want to know what real hackers could do with this "hole". The page_protect secures that the sessions are from the same http user agent and so, and this works fine (tried to run the form without logging in, and it just headers me to startpage) but yea wouldnt take long time to figure out to log in first and then run it. Any advices are appreciated alot. I would like to keep my ajax calls most secure as possible and all of them are running on the POST method. What could I do to the insertwall.php, to check that it comes from the server or something.. Thank you

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  • Multiple "ObjectChangeTracker" getting created, can it be avoided?

    - by user555937
    Hi, We are working on a POC where we have following architecture (MVVM), WPF(Client) + WCF + Model(DataAccess)+ ADO.Net Entity Framework 4.0 (with SQL Server 2008 R2 as DB) All are different projects. In the DataAccess layer we have created different Entity Models(edmx) based on the functionality. The tables under perticular flow are grouped and created different entity models. We are using self tracking entities to and fro to communicate with the WPF client through wcf service. For Single model everything works fine. But when we created a Multiple models then few issues started coming. Mutliple models have few duplicate tables/entities. Two probels are, 1) When we try to access entities from different models mutiple objects "ObjectChangeTracker" are getting created. E.g. CompanyModel(edmx) - Company(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker, ObjectState ProductModel(edmx) - Customer(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker1, ObjectState1 OrderModel(edmx) - Oder(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker2, ObjectState2 Is there any way to avoid this? 2) There are few tables which shared across the Models, E.g. Company(Entity) is used in All above mdoels. During compile time it does not thow any error. But run time It gives error saying "Schema specified is not valid. Errors: The mapping of CLR type to EDM type is ambiguous because multiple CLR types match the EDM type "Company"".. To resolve this, we renamed the entities with some prefix to make them Unique. Is there any other way we can resolve this without changing the name of the entity in the same assembly? Thanks in advance and appreciate if anyone has approach for these issues. Thanks, Kiran

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  • Strange data swapping error occurs when I attempt to update rows in my table from another table in m

    - by Wesley
    So I have a table of data that is 10,000 lines long. Several of the columns in the table simply describe information about one of the columns, meaning, that only one column has the content, and the rest of the columns describe the location of the content (its for a book). Right now, only 6,000 of the 10,000 rows' content column is filled with its content. Rows 6-10,000's content column simply says null. I have another table in the db that has the content for rows 6,000-10,000, with the correct corresponding primary key which would (seemingly) make it easy to update the 10,000 row table. I have been trying an update query such as the following: UPDATE table(10,000) SET content_column = (SELECT content FROM table(6,000-10,000) WHERE table(10,000).id = table(6-10,000.id) Which kind of works, the only problem is that it pulls in the data from the second table just fine, but it replaces the existing content column with null. So rows 1-6,000's content column become null, and rows 6-10,000's content column have the correct values...Pretty strange I thought anyway. Does anybody have any thoughts about where I am going wrong? If you could show me a better sql query, I would appreciate it! Thanks

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  • MySQL - What is wrong with this query or my database? Terrible performance.

    - by Moss
    SELECT * from `employees` a LEFT JOIN (SELECT phone1 p1, count(*) c, FROM `employees` GROUP BY phone1) b ON a.phone1 = b.p1; I'm not sure if it is this query in particular that has the problem. I have been getting terrible performance in general with this database. The table in question has 120,000 rows. I have tried this particular query remotely and locally with the MyISAM and InnoDB engines, with different types of joins, and with and without an index on phone1. I can get this to complete in about 4 minutes on a 10,000 row table successfully but performance drops exponentially with larger tables. Remotely it will lose connection to the server and locally it brings my system to its knees and seems to go on forever. This query is only a smaller step I was trying to do when a larger query couldn't complete. Maybe I should explain the whole scenario. I have one big flat ugly table that lists a bunch of people and their contact info and the info of the companies they work for. I'm trying to normalize the database and intelligently determine which phone numbers apply to individual people and which apply to an office location. My reasoning is that if a phone number occurs multiple times and the number of occurrence equals the number of times that the street address it is attached to occurs then it must be an office number. So the first step is to count each phone number grouping by phone number. Normally if you just use COUNT()...GROUP BY it will only list the first record it finds in that group so I figured I have to join the full table to the count table where the phone number matches. This does work but as I said I can't successfully complete it on any table much larger than 10,000 rows. This seems pathetic and this doesn't seem like a crazy query to do. Is there a better way to achieve what I want or do I have to break my large table into 12 pieces or is there something wrong with the table or db?

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  • Advice on Linq to SQL mapping object design

    - by fearofawhackplanet
    I hope the title and following text are clear, I'm not very familiar with the correct terms so please correct me if I get anything wrong. I'm using Linq ORM for the first time and am wondering how to address the following. Say I have two DB tables: User ---- Id Name Phone ----- Id UserId Model The Linq code generator produces a bunch of entity classes. I then write my own classes and interfaces which wrap these Linq classes: class DatabaseUser : IUser { public DatabaseUser(User user) { _user = user; } public Guid Id { get { return _user.Id; } } ... etc } so far so good. Now it's easy enough to find a users phones from Phones.Where(p => p.User = user) but surely comsumers of the API shouldn't need to be writing their own Linq queries to get at data, so I should wrap this query in a function or property somewhere. So the question is, in this example, would you add a Phones property to IUser or not? In other words, should my interface specifically be modelling my database objects (in which case Phones doesn't belong in IUser), or are they actually simply providing a set of functions and properties which are conceptually associated with a User (in which case it does)? There seems drawbacks to both views, but I'm wondering if there is a standard approach to the problem. Or just any general words of wisdom you could share. My first thought was to use extension methods but in fact that doesn't work in this case.

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  • ASP.Net MVC - how can I easily serialize query results to a database?

    - by Mortanis
    I've been working on a little property search engine while I learn ASP.Net MVC. I've gotten the results from various property database tables and sorted them into a master generic property response. The search form is passed via Model Binding and works great. Now, I'd like to add pagination. I'm returning the chunk of properties for the current page with .Skip() and .Take(), and that's working great. I have a SearchResults model that has the paged result set and various other data like nextPage and prevPage. Except, I no longer have the original form of course to pass to /Results/2. Previously I'd have just hidden a copy of the form and done a POST each time, but it seems inelegant. I'd like to serialize the results to my MS SQL database and return a unique key for that results set - this also helps with a "Send this query to a friend!" link. Killing two birds with one stone. Is there an easy way to take an IQueryable result set that I have, serialize it, stick it into the DB, return a unique key and then reverse the process with said key? I'm using Linq to SQL currently on a MS SQL Express install, though in production it'll be on MS SQL 2008.

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  • Oracle User definied aggregate function for varray of varchar

    - by baju
    I am trying to write some aggregate function for the varray and I get this error code when I'm trying to use it with data from the DB: ORA-00600 internal error code, arguments: [kodpunp1], [], [], [], [], [], [], [], [], [], [], [] [koxsihread1], [0], [3989], [45778], [], [], [], [], [], [], [], [] Code of the function is really simple(in fact it does nothing ): create or replace TYPE "TEST_VECTOR" as varray(10) of varchar(20) ALTER TYPE "TEST_VECTOR" MODIFY LIMIT 4000 CASCADE create or replace type Test as object( lastVector TEST_VECTOR, STATIC FUNCTION ODCIAggregateInitialize(sctx in out Test) return number, MEMBER FUNCTION ODCIAggregateIterate(self in out Test, value in TEST_VECTOR) return number, MEMBER FUNCTION ODCIAggregateMerge(self IN OUT Test, ctx2 IN Test) return number, MEMBER FUNCTION ODCIAggregateTerminate(self IN Test, returnValue OUT TEST_VECTOR, flags IN number) return number ); create or replace type body Test is STATIC FUNCTION ODCIAggregateInitialize(sctx in out Test) return number is begin sctx := Test(TEST_VECTOR()); return ODCIConst.Success; end; MEMBER FUNCTION ODCIAggregateIterate(self in out Test, value in TEST_VECTOR) return number is begin self.lastVector := value; return ODCIConst.Success; end; MEMBER FUNCTION ODCIAggregateMerge(self IN OUT Test, ctx2 IN Test) return number is begin return ODCIConst.Success; end; MEMBER FUNCTION ODCIAggregateTerminate(self IN Test, returnValue OUT TEST_VECTOR, flags IN number) return number is begin returnValue := self.lastVector; return ODCIConst.Success; end; end; create or replace FUNCTION test_fn (input TEST_VECTOR) RETURN TEST_VECTOR PARALLEL_ENABLE AGGREGATE USING Test; Next I create some test data: create table t1_test_table( t1_id number not null, t1_value TEST_VECTOR not null, Constraint PRIMARY_KEY_1 PRIMARY KEY (t1_id) ) Next step is to put some data to the table insert into t1_test_table (t1_id,t1_value) values (1,TEST_VECTOR('x','y','z')) Now everything is prepared to perform queries: Select test_fn(TEST_VECTOR('y','x')) from dual Query above work well Select test_fn(t1_value) from t1_test_table where t1_id = 1 Version of Oracle DBMS I use: 11.2.0.3.0 Does anyone tried do such a thing? What can be the reason that it does not work? How to solve it? Thanks in advance for help.

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  • Null Pointer Exception in my BroadcastReceiver class

    - by user1760007
    I want to search a db and toast a specific column on the startup of the phone. The app keeps crashing and getting an exception even though I feel as the code is correct. @Override public void onReceive(Context ctx, Intent intent) { Log.d("omg", "1"); DBAdapter do = new DBAdapter(ctx); Log.d("omg", "2"); Cursor cursor = do.fetchAllItems(); Log.d("omg", "3"); if (cursor.moveToFirst()) { Log.d("omg", "4"); do { Log.d("omg", "5"); String title = cursor.getString(cursor.getColumnIndex("item")); Log.d("omg", "6"); // i = cursor.getInt(cursor.getColumnIndex("id")); Toast.makeText(ctx, title, Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } while (cursor.moveToNext()); } cursor.close(); } The frustrating part is that I don't see any of my "omg" logs show up in logcat. I only see when my application crashes. I get three lines of errors in logcat. 10-19 12:31:11.656: E/AndroidRuntime(1471): java.lang.RuntimeException: Unable to start receiver com.test.toaster.MyReciever: java.lang.NullPointerException 10-19 12:31:11.656: E/AndroidRuntime(1471): at com.test.toaster.DBAdapter.fetchAllItems(DBAdapter.java:96) 10-19 12:31:11.656: E/AndroidRuntime(1471): at com.test.toaster.MyReciever.onReceive(MyReciever.java:26) For anyone interested, here is my DBAdapter fetchAllItems code: public Cursor fetchAllItems() { return mDb.query(DATABASE_TABLE, new String[] { KEY_ITEM, KEY_PRIORITY, KEY_ROWID }, null, null, null, null, null); }

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  • @dynamic property needs setter with multiple behaviors

    - by ambertch
    I have a class that contains multiple user objects and as such has an array of them as an instance variable: NSMutableArray *users; The tricky part is setting it. I am deserializing these objects from a server via Objective Resource, and for backend reasons users can only be returned as a long string of UIDs - what I have locally is a separate dictionary of users keyed to UIDs. Given the string uidString of comma separated UIDs I override the default setter and populate the actual user objects: @dynamic users; - (void)setUsers:(id)uidString { users = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray: [[User allUsersDictionary] objectsForKeys:[(NSString*)uidString componentsSeparatedByString:@","]]]; } The problem is this: I now serialize these to database using SQLitePO, which stores these as the array of user objects, not the original string. So when I retrieve it from database the setter mistakenly treats this array of user objects as a string! Where I actually want to adjust the setter's behavior when it gets this object from DB vs. over the network. I can't just make the getter serialize back into a string without tearing up large code that reference this array of user objects, and I tried to detect in the setter whether I have a string or an array coming in: if ([uidString respondsToSelector:@selector(addObject)]) { // Already an array, so don't do anything - just assign users = uidString but no success... so I'm kind of stuck - any suggestions? Thanks in advance!

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  • Android CursorAdapters, ListViews and background threads

    - by MattC
    This application I've been working on has databases with multiple megabytes of data to sift through. A lot of the activities are just ListViews descending through various levels of data within the databases until we reach "documents", which is just HTML to be pulled from the DB(s) and displayed on the phone. The issue I am having is that some of these activities need to have the ability to search through the databases by capturing keystrokes and re-running the query with a "like %blah%" in it. This works reasonably quickly except when the user is first loading the data and when the user first enters a keystroke. I am using a ResourceCursorAdapter and I am generating the cursor in a background thread, but in order to do a listAdapter.changeCursor(), I have to use a Handler to post it to the main UI thread. This particular call is then freezing the UI thread just long enough to bring up the dreaded ANR dialog. I'm curious how I can offload this to a background thread totally so the user interface remains responsive and we don't have ANR dialogs popping up. Just for full disclosure, I was originally returning an ArrayList of custom model objects and using an ArrayAdapter, but (understandably) the customer pointed out it was bad memory-manangement and I wasn't happy with the performance anyways. I'd really like to avoid a solution where I'm generating huge lists of objects and then doing a listAdapter.notifyDataSetChanged/Invalidated() Here is the code in question: private Runnable filterDrugListRunnable = new Runnable() { public void run() { if (filterLock.tryLock() == false) return; cur = ActivityUtils.getIndexItemCursor(DrugListActivity.this); if (cur == null || forceRefresh == true) { cur = docDb.getItemCursor(selectedIndex.getIndexId(), filter); ActivityUtils.setIndexItemCursor(DrugListActivity.this, cur); forceRefresh = false; } updateHandler.post(new Runnable() { public void run() { listAdapter.changeCursor(cur); } }); filterLock.unlock(); updateHandler.post(hideProgressRunnable); updateHandler.post(updateListRunnable); } };

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  • Displaying code with <pre> tags.

    - by iMaster
    Currently I'm using <pre><code> code here </code><pre> to display code. I'm pulling this information from a DB for a blog. The problem I'm having is that some of the code isn't showing. For example, in the source code I have this: <pre><code><br /> echo '<ul class="mylist"><li><ul class="left">'; foreach($nameArray as $name) { if($countervar == $half) { echo '</ul></li>'; echo'<li><ul class="right">'; } echo '<li>$name</li>'; ++$i; } echo '</ul></li>'; echo '</ul>'; ?> But all that shows up is this: echo ''; foreach($nameArray as $name) { if($countervar == $half) { echo ''; echo''; } echo '$name'; ++$i; } echo ' An there's some really weird formatting/spacing issues as well. Any ideas as to what is causing this? I should also mention that some of the other sets of code show up just fine.

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  • Performing centralized authorization for multiple applications

    - by Vaibhav
    Here's a question that I have been wrestling with for a while. We have a situation wherein we have a number of applications that we have created. These have grown organically over a period of time. All of these applications have permissions code built into them that controls access to various parts of the application depending on whether the currently logged in user has the necessary permissions or not. Alongside these applications is a utility application which allows an administrator to map users to permissions for all applications - the way it works is that every application has code which reads this external database of the said utility application to check if the currently logged in user has the necessary permission or not. Now, the question is this. Should the user-permissions mapping information reside in and be owned by the applications themselves, or is it okay to have this information reside within an external entity/DB (as in this case the utility application's database). Part of me thinks that application permissions are very specific to the application context itself, so shouldn't be separated from the application itself. But I am not sure. Any comments?

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  • Switch front-end's of a website after X amount of hits

    - by Derek Adair
    Sorry about the title - not sure what to call this one. A client of mine would like to redirect users to different front-ends of his eCommerce site based on a hit-counter (possibly a timer?). important: -The content is moderately different in the two sites, enough to consider them two different websites. Knowing this client he will likely add more drastic content changes and other front-ends. So for this question consider the content to be -This site has a rather large back-end. With affiliate networking, multiple payment gateways, order-tracking, and several other features in the works. It is essential that these two front-ends have identical back-end functionality I know that if it was just a simple CSS swap this would be as simple as an if statement that ran off some kind of counter stored in a DB... but the different HTML markup is throwing me for a loop. Q: How can I serve two different front-ends (HTML/CSS) based on a hit counter? Also, I don't have any clue what to tag this one as...

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  • As3 & PHP URLEncoding problem!

    - by Jk_
    Hi everyone, I'm stuck with a stupid problem of encoding. My problem is that all my accentuated characters are displayed as weird iso characters. Example : é is displayed %E9 I send a string to my php file : XMLLoader.load(new URLRequest(online+"/query.php?Query=" + q)); XMLLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE,XMLLoaded); When I trace q, I get : "INSERT INTO hello_world (message) values('éàaà');" The GOOD query My php file look like this : <?php include("conection.php");//Conectiong to database $Q = $_GET['Query']; $query = $Q; $resultID = mysql_query($query) or die("Could not execute or probably SQL statement malformed (error): ". mysql_error()); $xml_output = "<?xml version=\"1.0\"?>\n"; // XML header $xml_output .= "<answers>\n"; $xml_output .= "<lastID id=".'"'.mysql_insert_id().'"'." />\n"; $xml_output .= "<query string=".'"'.$query.'"'." />\n"; $xml_output .= "</answers>"; echo $xml_output;//Output the XML ?> When I get back my XML into flash the $query looks like this : "INSERT INTO hello_world (message) values('%E9%E0a%E0');" And these values are then displayed into my DB which is annoying. Any help would be appreciated! Cheers. Jk_

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  • MySql ODBC connection in VB6 on WinXP VERY slow. Other machines on same network are fast.

    - by Matthew
    Hi All, I have a VB6 application that has been performing very well. Recently, we upgraded our server to a Windows 2003 server. Migration of the databases and shares went well and we experienced no problems. Except one. And it has happened at multiple sites. I use the MySQL ODBC 5.1 connector to point to my MySQL database. On identical machines (as far as I can tell, they are client machines not ours), access to the DB is lightning fast on all but one computer. They use the same software and have the same connection strings. And I'm sure it's not the program, but the ODBC connection. When I press the 'Test Connection' button in the ODBC connection string window, it can take up to 10 seconds on the poorly performing machine to respond with a success. All the other computers are instantaneous. I have tried using ip address versus the machine name in the UDL, no change. I enabled option 256, which sped it up initially, but it's slow again. Most of the time on a restart the program will be fast for an hour or so then go slow again with the option 256 enabled. Frankly, I am out of ideas and willing to entertain any and all ideas or suggestions. This is getting pretty frustrating. Anyone ever experience anything like this?

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  • MySQL query returning mysql_error

    - by Sebastian
    This returns mysql_error: <?php $name = $_POST['inputName2']; $email = $_POST['inputEmail2']; $instruments = $_POST['instruments']; $city = $_POST['inputCity']; $country = $_POST['inputCountry']; $distance = $_POST['distance']; // ^^ These all echo properly ^^ // CONNECT TO DB $dbhost = "xxx"; $dbname = "xxx"; $dbuser = "xxx"; $dbpass = "xxx"; $con = mysqli_connect("$dbhost", "$dbuser", "$dbpass", "$dbname"); if (mysqli_connect_errno()) { echo "Failed to connect to MySQL: " . mysqli_connect_error(); } $query = "INSERT INTO depfinder (name, email, instrument1, instrument2, instrument3, instrument4, instrument5, city, country, max_distance) VALUES ($name, $email, $instruments[0], $instruments[1], $instruments[2], $instruments[3], $instruments[4], $city, $country, $max_distance)"; $result = mysqli_query($con, $query) or die(mysqli_error($con)); // script fails here if (!$result) { echo "There was a problem with the signup process. Please try again later."; } else { echo "Success"; } } ?> N.B. I'm not sure whether it's relevant, but the user may not choose five instruments so some $instrument[] array values may be empty. Bonus question: is my script secure enough or is there more I could do?

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  • How to write automated tests for SQL queries?

    - by James
    The current system we are adopting at work is to write some extremely complex queries which perform multiple calculations and have multiple joins / sub-queries. I don't think I am experienced enough to say if this is correct or not so I am agreeing and attempting to function with this system as it has clear benefits. The problem we are having at the moment is that the person writing the queries makes a lot of mistakes and assumes everything is correct. We have now assigned a tester to analyse all of the queries but this still proves extremely time consuming and stressful. I would like to know how we could create an automated procedure (without specifically writing it with code if possible as I can work out how to do that the long way) to verify a set of 10+ different inputs, verify the output data and say if the calculations are correct. I know I could write a script using specific data in the database and create a script using c# (the db is SQL Server) and verify all the values coming out but I would like to know what the official "standard" is as my experience is lacking in this area and I would like to improve. I am happy to add more information if required, add a comment if necessary. Thank you. Edit: I am using c#

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