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  • Multiple generic parameters on a html helper extension method

    - by WestDiscGolf
    What I'm trying to do is create an extension method for the HtmlHelper to create a specific output and associated details like TextBoxFor<. What I want to do is specify the property from the model class as per TextBoxFor<, then an associated controller action and other parameters. So far the signature of the method looks like: public static MvcHtmlString Create<TModel, TProperty, TController>(this HtmlHelper<TModel> htmlHelper, Expression<Func<TModel, TProperty>> expression, Expression<Action<TController>> action, object htmlAttributes) where TController : Controller where TModel : class The issue occurs when I go to call it. In my view if I call it as per the TextBoxFor without specifying the Model type I am able to specify the lambda expression to set the property which it's for, but when I go to specify the action I am unable to. However, when I specify the controller type Html.Create<HomeController>( ... ) I am unable to specify the model property that the control is to be created for. I want to be able to call it like <%= Html.Create(x => x.Title, controller => controller.action, null) %> I've been hitting my head for a few hours now on this issue over the past day, can anyone point me in the right direction?

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  • Best practice to create WPF wrapper application displaying screens on demand.

    - by Robbie
    Context: I'm developing a WPF application which will contain a lot of different "screens". Each screen contains a which on its turn contains all the visual elements. Some elements trigger events (e.g., checkboxes), a screen has individual resources, etc. The main application is "wrapper" around these screens: it contains a menubar, toolbar, statusbar and alike (in a DockPanel) and space to display one screen. Through the menubar, the user can choose which screen he wants to display. Goal: I want to dynamically load & display & (event)handle one screen in the space in the main application. I don't want to copy & paste all the "wrapper" stuff in all the different screens. And As I have many complex screens (around 300 - luckily auto-generated), I don't want to load all of them at the start of the application, but only upon request. Question: What do you recommend as the best way to realize this? What kind of things should I use and investigate: Pages or windows or User Control for the screens? Does this affect the event handling?

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  • Best way to catch a WCF exception in Silverlight?

    - by wahrhaft
    I have a Silverlight 2 application that is consuming a WCF service. As such, it uses asynchronous callbacks for all the calls to the methods of the service. If the service is not running, or it crashes, or the network goes down, etc before or during one of these calls, an exception is generated as you would expect. The problem is, I don't know how to catch this exception. Because it is an asynchronous call, I can't wrap my begin call with a try/catch block and have it pick up an exception that happens after the program has moved on from that point. Because the service proxy is automatically generated, I can't put a try/catch block on each and every generated function that calls EndInvoke (where the exception actually shows up). These generated functions are also surrounded by External Code in the call stack, so there's nowhere else in the stack to put a try/catch either. I can't put the try/catch in my callback functions, because the exception occurs before they would get called. There is an Application_UnhandledException function in my App.xaml.cs, which captures all unhandled exceptions. I could use this, but it seems like a messy way to do it. I'd rather reserve this function for the truly unexpected errors (aka bugs) and not end up with code in this function for every circumstance I'd like to deal with in a specific way. Am I missing an obvious solution? Or am I stuck using Application_UnhandledException? [Edit] As mentioned below, the Error property is exactly what I was looking for. What is throwing me for a loop is that the fact that the exception is thrown and appears to be uncaught, yet execution is able to continue. It triggers the Application_UnhandledException event and causes VS2008 to break execution, but continuing in the debugger allows execution to continue. It's not really a problem, it just seems odd.

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  • How can my facebook application post message to a wall?

    - by Thomas Dekiere
    i already found out how to post something to a wall with the graph api on behalf of the facebook user. But now i want to post something in the name of my application. Here is how i'm trying to do this: protected void btn_submit_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Dictionary<string, string> data = new Dictionary<string, string>(); data.Add("message", "Testing"); // i'll add more data later here (picture, link, ...) data.Add("access_token", FbGraphApi.getAppToken()); FbGraphApi.postOnWall(ConfigSettings.getFbPageId(), data); } FbGraphApi.getAppToken() // ... private static string graphUrl = "https://graph.facebook.com"; //... public static string getAppToken() { MyWebRequest req = new MyWebRequest(graphUrl + "/" + "oauth/access_token?type=client_cred&client_id=" + ConfigSettings.getAppID() + "&client_secret=" + ConfigSettings.getAppSecret(), "GET"); return req.GetResponse().Split('=')[1]; } FbGraphApi.postOnWall() public static void postOnWall(string id, Dictionary<string,string> args) { call(id, "feed", args); } FbGraphApi.call() private static void call(string id, string method, Dictionary<string,string> args ) { string data = ""; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, string> arg in args) { data += arg.Key + "=" + arg.Value + "&"; } MyWebRequest req = new MyWebRequest(graphUrl +"/" + id + "/" + method, "POST", data.Substring(0, data.Length - 1)); req.GetResponse(); // here i get: "The remote server returned an error: (403) Forbidden." } Does anyone see where this i going wrong? I'm really stuck on this. Thanks!

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  • Displaying same record twice- SQL Reporting Services

    - by RyanW
    Ok, here's the situation: I need to display the same record in two different sections. stupid i know, but here's why. The Report I am building is grouped by one Field, called Day. Each record has date/times, an expected arrival date time, and an expected departure date/time. so, at this point we have something like this: Day..............Arrival Time..................Departure Time 18/5.............18/5 9.00am.........19/5 11.00am The boss only wants to show times that relate to the current day in the arrive/depart coloumns (easy enough with expressions), which ends up like this: Day..............Arrival Time..................Departure Time 18/5..............9.00am.........................- the next thing he wants is to display the departing time in the correct day 'group', but as you can imagine as soon as you move to the next row, well you move to the next row of the table. So the question is: is there anyway to display the same record on multiple coloumns? Have i missed something or have i got an unsolvable problem? NOTE: this is not the only data in my table either. there is (for example) a name coloumn which also needs to be displayed on both days.

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  • Trouble with building up a string in Clojure

    - by Aki Iskandar
    Hi gang - [this may seem like my problem is with Compojure, but it isn't - it's with Clojure] I've been pulling my hair out on this seemingly simple issue - but am getting nowhere. I am playing with Compojure (a light web framework for Clojure) and I would just like to generate a web page showing showing my list of todos that are in a PostgreSQL database. The code snippets are below (left out the database connection, query, etc - but that part isn't needed because specific issue is that the resulting HTML shows nothing between the <body> and </body> tags). As a test, I tried hard-coding the string in the call to main-layout, like this: (html (main-layout "Aki's Todos" "Haircut<br>Study Clojure<br>Answer a question on Stackoverfolw")) - and it works fine. So the real issue is that I do not believe I know how to build up a string in Clojure. Not the idiomatic way, and not by calling out to Java's StringBuilder either - as I have attempted to do in the code below. A virtual beer, and a big upvote to whoever can solve it! Many thanks! ============================================================= ;The master template (a very simple POC for now, but can expand on it later) (defn main-layout "This is one of the html layouts for the pages assets - just like a master page" [title body] (html [:html [:head [:title title] (include-js "todos.js") (include-css "todos.css")] [:body body]])) (defn show-all-todos "This function will generate the todos HTML table and call the layout function" [] (let [rs (select-all-todos) sbHTML (new StringBuilder)] (for [rec rs] (.append sbHTML (str rec "<br><br>"))) (html (main-layout "Aki's Todos" (.toString sbHTML))))) ============================================================= Again, the result is a web page but with nothing between the body tags. If I replace the code in the for loop with println statements, and direct the code to the repl - forgetting about the web page stuff (ie. the call to main-layout), the resultset gets printed - BUT - the issue is with building up the string. Thanks again. ~Aki

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  • RhinoMocks: how to test if method was called when using PartialMock

    - by epitka
    I have a clas that is something like this public class MyClass { public virtual string MethodA(Command cmd) { //some code here} public void MethodB(SomeType obj) { // do some work MethodA(command); } } I mocked MyClass as PartialMock (mocks.PartialMock<MyClass>) and I setup expectation for MethodA var cmd = new Command(); //set the cmd to expected state Expect.Call(MyClass.MethodA(cmd)).Repeat.Once(); Problem is that MethodB calls actual implementation of MethodA instead of mocking it up. I must be doing something wrong (not very experienced with RhinoMocks). How do I force it to mock MetdhodA? Here is the actual code: var cmd = new SetBaseProductCoInsuranceCommand(); cmd.BaseProduct = planBaseProduct; var insuredType = mocks.DynamicMock<InsuredType>(); Expect.Call(insuredType.Code).Return(InsuredTypeCode.AllInsureds); cmd.Values.Add(new SetBaseProductCoInsuranceCommand.CoInsuranceValues() { CoInsurancePercent = 0, InsuredType = insuredType, PolicySupplierType = ppProvider }); Expect.Call(() => service.SetCoInsurancePercentages(cmd)).Repeat.Once(); mocks.ReplayAll(); //act service.DefaultCoInsurancesFor(planBaseProduct); //assert service.AssertWasCalled(x => x.SetCoInsurancePercentages(cmd),x=>x.Repeat.Once());

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  • Coupling an MFC CListCtrl and CTreeCtrl to get a view of the whole tree, not just one node at a time

    - by omatai
    Consider Windows Explorer (or regedit or similar). To the left side, there is a tree view, and to the right, a list view. In all cases I know of, the contents of the right view reflect the attributes of the selected node from the left pane. This is all well and good... but just not what I want. The nodes of the tree I want to display have a very few attributes (2-3) associated with each node - a reasonable amount to display horizontally as a row in a table. Rather than waste all that list view space on a single node with very few properties, I would like to have my list view display a table of the whole tree's properties (as the part of the tree currently expanded). So the nth line in the left view (tree) will correspond directly to the nth line in the right view (list/table), and I will get a decent overview of the properties of my tree. Does anyone know of code that does this? I am guessing that slaving a CListCtrl to a CTreeCtrl would be the way to go, and somehow overriding the vertical scrolling functions so that they are locked together. I'm just not sure that it is possible to lock the scrolls together like this... among other things! All advice gratefully welcomed :-)

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  • UITableView UITableViewCell dynamic UILabel Height storyboard

    - by Mikel Nelson
    This isn'an a question, just a results log on an issue I had with XCode 4.5 storyboards and dynamic height UITableCell with a UILabel. The issue was; the initial display of a cell would only show part of the resized UILabel contents, and that the visual UILabel was not resized. It would only display correctly after scrolling off the top of the Table and back down. I did the calculations in hieghtForRowAtIndexPath and sizeToFit the UILabel in rowAtIndexPath. The sizes where coming up ok in debug, but the device was not updating the display with the correct size and UILable.text value. I had created the dynamic UITableCell in a storyboard. However, I had set the width and height to a nominal value (290x44). It turns out, this was causing my issues. I set the width and height to zero (0) in the story board, and everything started working correctly. (i.e. the UILabels displayed at the correct size with full content). I was unable to find anything online on this issue, except for some references to creating the custom table cell with a frame of zero. Turns out, that was really the answer (for me).

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  • OptimisticLockException in inner transaction ruins outer transaction

    - by Pace
    I have the following code (OLE = OptimisticLockException)... public void outer() { try { middle() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); outer(); } } @Transactional public void middle() { try { inner() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); middle(); } @Transactional public void inner() { //Do DB operation } inner() is called by other non-transactional methods which is why both middle() and inner() are transactional. As you can see, I deal with OLEs by updating the entities and retrying the operation. The problem I'm having is that when I designed things this way I was assuming that the only time one could get an OLE was when a transaction closed. This is apparently not the case as the call to inner() is throwing an OLE even when the stack is outer()->middle()->inner(). Now, middle() is properly handling the OLE and the retry succeeds but when it comes time to close the transaction it has been marked rollbackOnly by Spring. When the middle() method call finally returns the closing aspect throws an exception because it can't commit a transaction marked rollbackOnly. I'm uncertain what to do here. I can't clear the rollbackOnly state. I don't want to force create a transaction on every call to inner because that kills my performance. Am I missing something or can anyone see a way I can structure this differently? EDIT: To clarify what I'm asking, let me explain my main question. Is it possible to catch and handle OLE if you are inside of an @Transactional method? FYI: The transaction manager is a JpaTransactionManager and the JPA provider is Hibernate.

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  • C# / IronPython Interop with shared C# Class Library

    - by Adam Haile
    I'm trying to use IronPython as an intermediary between a C# GUI and some C# libraries, so that it can be scripted post compile time. I have a Class library DLL that is used by both the GUI and the python and is something along the lines of this: namespace MyLib { public class MyClass { public string Name { get; set; } public MyClass(string name) { this.Name = name; } } } The IronPython code is as follows: import clr clr.AddReferenceToFile(r"MyLib.dll") from MyLib import MyClass ReturnObject = MyClass("Test") Then, in C# I would call it as follows: ScriptEngine engine = Python.CreateEngine(); ScriptScope scope = null; scope = engine.CreateScope(); ScriptSource source = engine.CreateScriptSourceFromFile("Script.py"); source.Execute(scope); MyClass mc = scope.GetVariable<MyClass>("ReturnObject ") When I call this last bit of code, source.Execute(scope) runs returns successfully, but when I try the GetVariable call, it throw the following exception Microsoft.Scripting.ArgumentTypeException: expected MyClass , got MyClass So, you can see that the class names are exactly the same, but for some reason it thinks they are different. The DLL is in a different directory than the .py file (I just didn't bother to write out all the path setup stuff), could it be that there is an issue with the interpreter for IronPython seeing these objects as difference because it's somehow seeing them as being in a different context or scope?

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  • Performance of C# method polymorphism with generics

    - by zildjohn01
    I noticed in C#, unlike C++, you can combine virtual and generic methods. For example: using System.Diagnostics; class Base { public virtual void Concrete() {Debug.WriteLine("base concrete");} public virtual void Generic<T>() {Debug.WriteLine("base generic");} } class Derived : Base { public override void Concrete() {Debug.WriteLine("derived concrete");} public override void Generic<T>() {Debug.WriteLine("derived generic");} } class App { static void Main() { Base x = new Derived(); x.Concrete(); x.Generic<PerformanceCounter>(); } } Given that any number of versions of Generic<T> could be instantiated, it doesn't look like the standard vtbl approach could be used to resolve method calls, and in fact it's not. Here's the generated code: x.Concrete(); mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] mov eax,dword ptr [ecx] call dword ptr [eax+38h] x.Generic<PerformanceCounter>(); push 989A38h mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] mov edx,989914h call 76A874F1 mov dword ptr [ebp-4],eax mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] call dword ptr [ebp-4] The extra code appears to be looking up a dynamic vtbl according to the generic parameters, and then calling into it. Has anyone written about the specifics of this implementation? How well does it perform compared to the non-generic case?

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  • How to find Tomcat's PID and kill it in python?

    - by 4herpsand7derpsago
    Normally, one shuts down Apache Tomcat by running its shutdown.sh script (or batch file). In some cases, such as when Tomcat's web container is hosting a web app that does some crazy things with multi-threading, running shutdown.sh gracefully shuts down some parts of Tomcat (as I can see more available memory returning to the system), but the Tomcat process keeps running. I'm trying to write a simple Python script that: Calls shutdown.sh Runs ps -aef | grep tomcat to find any process with Tomcat referenced If applicable, kills the process with kill -9 <PID> Here's what I've got so far (as a prototype - I'm brand new to Python BTW): #!/usr/bin/python # Imports import sys import subprocess # Load from imported module. if __init__ == "__main__": main() # Main entry point. def main(): # Shutdown Tomcat shutdownCmd = "sh ${TOMCAT_HOME}/bin/shutdown.sh" subprocess.call([shutdownCmd], shell=true) # Check for PID grepCmd = "ps -aef | grep tomcat" grepResults = subprocess.call([grepCmd], shell=true) if(grepResult.length > 1): # Get PID and kill it. pid = ??? killPidCmd = "kill -9 $pid" subprocess.call([killPidCmd], shell=true) # Exit. sys.exit() I'm struggling with the middle part - with obtaining the grep results, checking to see if their size is greater than 1 (since grep always returns a reference to itself, at least 1 result will always be returned, methinks), and then parsing that returned PID and passing it into the killPidCmd. Thanks in advance!

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  • What VC++ compiler/linker does when building a C++ project with Managed Extension

    - by ???
    The initial problem is that I tried to rebuild a C++ project with debug symbols and copied it to test machine, The output of the project is external COM server(.exe file). When calling the COM interface function, there's a RPC call failre: COMException(0x800706BE): The remote procedure call failed. According to the COM HRESULT design, if the FACILITY code is 7, it's actually a WIN32 error, and the win32 error code is 0x6BE, which is the above mentioned "remote procedure call failed". All I do is replace the COM server .exe file, the origin file works well. When I checked into the project, I found it's a C++ project with Managed Extension. When I checking the DLL with reflector, it shows there's 2 additional .NET assembly reference. Then I checked the project setting and found nothing about the extra 2 assembly reference. I turned on the show includes option of compiler and verbose library of linker, and try to analyze whether the assembly is indirectly referenced via .h file. I've collect all the .h file and grep all the files with '#using' '#import' and the assembly file itself. There really is a '#using ' in one of the .h file but not-relevant to the referenced assembly. And about the linked .lib library files, only one of the .lib file is a side-product of another managed-extension-enabled C++ project, all others are produced by a pure, traditional C++ project. For the managed-extension-enabled C++ project, I checked the output DLL assembly, it did NOT reference to the 2 assembly. I even try to capture the access of the additional assembly file via sysinternal's filemon and procmon, but the rebuild process does NOT access these file. I'm very confused about the compile and linking process model of a VC++/CLI project, where the additional assembly reference slipped into the final assembly? Thanks in advance for any of your help.

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  • How to add jsf components in javascript?

    - by Guru
    Is it possible to add JSF Components using javascript? In my case , on change of a select option , i need to display a different combination of input controls (like text box(s)). I thought i could use a element and innerHTML property to display the dynamic controls.But it seems to not work!!! <h:selectOneMenu id="browseType" class="TextBlackNormal" value="#{adminBean.browseType}" onchange="showDynamicBox(this);" valueChangeListener="#{adminBean.theValueChanged}"> <f:selectItems value="#{adminBean.browseTypeList}" /> </h:selectOneMenu> &#160;&#160;&#160;</td> <td> <div id="dynamicBox" style="display:block"><h:inputText class="TextBlackNormal" size="32" name="browseValue" id="browseValue" value="#{adminBean.browseValue}" /></div> </td> javascript code : ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ function showDynamicBox(selectObjj) { //alert('showDynamicBox ' +showDynamicBox); if(selectObjj.options[selectObjj.selectedIndex].value=='IBD/Office/IP' || selectObjj.options[selectObjj.selectedIndex].value=='APA#' ) { alert('just about to change'); document.getElementById("dynamicBox").innerHTML='<h:inputText class="TextBlackNormal" size="3" name="val1" id="val1" /> <h:inputText class="TextBlackNormal" size="3" name="val2" id="val2" /> <h:inputText class="TextBlackNormal" size="3" name="val3" id="val3" /> '; alert(' --> ' +document.getElementById("dynamicBox").innerHTML); }else{ alert('back to pavillion'); document.getElementById("dynamicBox").innerHTML='<h:inputText class="TextBlackNormal" size="32" name="browseValue" id="browseValue" value="#{adminBean.browseValue}" />'; } }

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  • Browser window popups - risks and special features

    - by Sandeepan Nath
    1. What exactly is the security risk with popups? The new browsers provide settings to block window popups (on blocking, sites with active popups display a message to user). What exactly is the security risk with popups? If allowing popups can execute something dangerous, then the main window can too. Is it not the case. I think I don't know about some special powers of window popups. 2. Any special features of popup windows? Take for example the HDFC bank netbanking site. The entire netbanking session happens in a new window popup and a user neither manually edit the URL or paste the URL in the main browser window. it does not work. Is a popup window needed for this feature? Does it improve security? (Asking because everything that is there in this site revolves around security - so they must have done that for a reason too). Why otherwise they would implement the entire netbanking on a popup window? 3. Is it possible to override browser's popup blocking settings Lastly, the HDFC site succcessfully displays popup window even when in the browser settings popups are blocked. So, how do they do it? Is that a browser hack? To see this - go to http://hdfcbank.com/ Under the "Login to your account" section select "HDFC Bank NetBanking" and click the "Login" button. You can verify that even if popups are blocked/popup blocker is enabled in the browser settings, this site is able to display popups. The answers to this question say that it is not possible to display popup windows if it has been blocked in browser settings. Solved Concluded with Pointy's solution and comments under that. Here is a fiddle demonstrating the same.

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  • Modify the server side functions using jquery

    - by ant
    Hi, I am developing one website using cakephp and jquery technologies. Server-side there are some functions which handles sql queris. As per requirement I want to modify server side functions on client side using jquery AJAX call. E.g. : Below is the function on server side to modify users information. function modifyUser(username,userid) { //update query statements } Then jquery AJAX call will be like this : $.ajax({ url: 'users/modiyUser', success: function() { alert("Updation done") or any statements. } }); and I want to modify above i.e. server side function depending upon client input criteria. $.ajax({ function users/modiyUser(username,userid) { // I will write here any other statements which gives me some other output. } }); Above AJAX call syntax may not present, but i think you all understood what I am trying to do I simply wants to modify/override server side functions on client side. Please let me know is there any way to resolve above mentioned requirement. Thanks in adavance

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  • Datareceived Serialport event stops raising after some seconds

    - by Mario
    Hi, I was hoping someone could help me out with this problem. I have a system (VB .NET) where I must read a person's weight (RS232 Sluice) and id (Fingerprint - 2 biometric reader, rs232) and compare it to a database. I have 3 serialports in my app, one for the sluice and the other 2 are to receive the id from the fingerprint readers, both of which call the same sub to get the id from the reader. I've been testing just one reader and it seemed to work fine, I got data from the datareceived and joined it together to get the id. The problem comes at this moment: I put a finger, sends the id, if it's ok sends a message, otherwise, writes the id to a textbox. But in-between reads, if I let 5 or 10 seconds pass without putting a finger on the reader it seems like I get no data at all anymore, the datareceived event nevers gets raised but if I keep putting a finger constantly it works pretty good, this is really weird to me. I was thinking of some things: **Maybe the port gets closed somehow after some time? I never call the CLose() method **The fact both datareceived eventhandlers call the same method and delegate **Maybe the connection settings are missing something? I tested with hyperterminal and the port keeps getting info even after time without activity and I use the same config with my application, maybe I need to change more settings like DTEenable and RTSenable? Please I need some help with this issue, it's to control access so it needs to be running 24/7 thanks in advance!

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  • Touch draw in Quatz 2D/Core Graphics

    - by OgreSwamp
    Hello, I'm trying to implement "hand draw tool". At the moment algorythm looks like that (I don't insert any code because methods are quite big, will try to explain an idea): Drawing In touchesStarted: method I create NSMutableArray *pointsArray and add point into it. Call setNeedsDisplay: method. In touchesMoved: method I calculate points between last added point from the pointsArray and current point. Add all points to the pointsArray. Call setNeedsDisplay: method. In touchesFinished: event I calculate points between last added point from the array and current point. Set flag touchesWereFinished. Call setNeedsDisplay:. Render: drawRect: method checks is pointsArray != nil and is there any data in it. If there is - it starts to traw circles in each point of this array. If flag touchesWereFinished is set - save current context to the UIImage, release pointsArray, set it to nil and reset the flag. There are a lot disadvantages of this method: It is slow It becomes extremely slow when user touches and move finger for long time. Array becomes enormous "Lines" composed by circles are ugly I would like to change my algorithm to make it bit faster and line smoother. In result I would like to have lines like on the picture at following URL (sorry, not enough reputation to insert an image): http://2.bp.blogspot.com/_r5VzEAUYXJ4/SrOYp8tJCPI/AAAAAAAAAMw/ZwDKXiHlhV0/s320/SketchBook+Mobile(4).png Can you advice me, ho I can draw lines this way (smooth and slim on the edges)? I thought to draw circles with alpha gradient on the edges (to make lines smoother), but it will be extremely slowly IMHO. Thanks for help

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  • How to change CSS color values in real-time off a javascript slider?

    - by bflora
    I'm making a page where the user gets a javascript slider that goes from 0 to 100 and can use it to set the opacity of a div on the page. I want the opacity of that div to change in real-time as they work the slider. I've not done this before. What's the best approach? There cursor in the slider displays the slider's current value as you move it. It seems to be that I just need to find a way to display that value in any arbitrary other place on the page so I can display it in the style settings for the div. The .js file that generates the slider has a line that (I think) is setting the current value in the cursor: $(this).children(".ui-slider-handle", context).html(parseInt(settings[index]['default'])); TO get this changing number to display somewhere else at the same time, do I just need to add a div somewhere and then add a line like this? $("#newDivId").children(".ui-slider-handle", context).html(parseInt(settings[index]['default'])); That seems like it would give me the number showing up in a div. How then would I get it into a form I could put into the style settings for a div? If this was a php variable, I would do something like this, style="opacity:<?php print $value ?>;" What would be the .js equivalent?

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  • MVC and jQuery data retrieval.

    - by user337542
    Hello, I am using mvc and jQuery and I am trying to display someone's profile with some additional institutions that the person belongs to. I am new to this but I've done something like this in ProfileControler: public ActionResult Institutions(int id) { var inst = fr.getInstitutions(id); return Json(inst); } getInstitutions(id) returns Institution objects(with Name, City, Post Code etc.) Then in a certain View I am trying to get the data with jQuery and display them as follows: $(document).ready(function () { $.post("/Profile/Institutions", { id: <%= Model.Profile.userProfileID %> }, function (data) { $.each(data, function () { var new_div = $("<div>"); var new_label = $("<label>"); new_label.html(this.City); var new_input_b = $("<input>"); new_input_b.attr("type", "button"); new_div.append(new_label); new_div.append(new_input_b); $("#institutions").append(new_div); }); }); }); $("#institutions") is a div where i want to display all of the results. .post works correct for sure because certain institutions are retrieved from database, and passed to the view as Json result. But then I am affraid it wont itterate with .each. Any help, coments or pointing in some direction would be much appriciated

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  • Calling into a saved java object via JNI from a different thread

    - by Drake Amara
    I have a java object which calls into a C++ shared object via JNI. In C++, I am saving a reference to the JNIEnv and jObject. JavaVM * jvm; JNIEnv * myEnv; jobject myobj; JNIEXPORT void JNICALL Java_org_api_init (JNIEnv *env, jobject jObj) { myEnv = env; myobj = jObj; } I also have a GLSurface renderer and it eventually calls the C++ shared object mentioned above on a different thread, the GLThread. I am then trying to call back into my original Java object using the jobject I saved initially, but I think because I am on the GLThread, I get the following error. W/dalvikvm(16101): JNI WARNING: 0x41ded218 is not a valid JNI reference I/dalvikvm(16101): "GLThread 981" prio=5 tid=15 RUNNABLE I/dalvikvm(16101): | group="main" sCount=0 dsCount=0 obj=0x41d6e220 self=0x5cb11078 I/dalvikvm(16101): | sysTid=16133 nice=0 sched=0/0 cgrp=apps handle=1555429136 I/dalvikvm(16101): | schedstat=( 0 0 0 ) utm=42 stm=32 core=1 The code calling back into Java : void setData() { jvm->AttachCurrentThread(&myEnv, 0); jclass javaClass = myEnv->FindClass("com/myapp/myClass"); if(javaClass == NULL){ LOGD("ERROR - cant find class"); } jmethodID method = myEnv->GetMethodID(javaClass, "updateDataModel", "()V"); if(method == NULL){ LOGD("ERROR - cant access method"); } // this works, but its a new java object //jobject myobj2 = myEnv->NewObject(javaClass, method); //this is where the crash occurs myEnv->CallVoidMethod(myobj, method, NULL); } If instead I create a new jObject using env-NewObject, I can succuessfully call back into Java, but it is a new object and I dont want that. I need to get back to my original Java Object. Is it a matter of switching threads before I call back into Java? If so, how do I do so ?

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  • How to close InAppBrowser itself in Phonegap Application?

    - by Shashi
    I am developing Phonegap application and currently i am using InAppBrowser to display external pages. On some of the external pages I place a close button and i want to close the InAppBrowser itself. because InAppBrowser displays these pages that is why the reference of it is not accessed on itself to close it and Please do not suggest me to use ChildBrowser Plugin. window.close(); //Not Worked for me or iabRef.close(); //Also not Worked for me because iabRef is not accessible on InAppBrowser. It is created on Parent Window Some of the Android device and iOS device display a Done Button to close it. As well as the iPad also display the Done button. but in Case of Android tablet there is not any kind of button to close it. UPDATE :- Here is my full code :- var iabRef = null; function iabLoadStart(event) { } function iabLoadStop(event) { } function iabClose(event) { iabRef.removeEventListener('loadstart', iabLoadStart); iabRef.removeEventListener('loadstop', iabLoadStop); iabRef.removeEventListener('exit', iabClose); } function startInAppB() { var myURL=encodeURI('http://www.domain.com/some_path/mypage.html'); iabRef = window.open(myURL,'_blank', 'location=yes'); iabRef.addEventListener('loadstart', iabLoadStart); iabRef.addEventListener('loadstop', iabLoadStop); iabRef.addEventListener('exit', iabClose); }

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  • Clever Next and Previous Buttons in jQuery

    - by matt
    I have created a webpage which when you press 'down' automatically scrolls down to the next ID (a section which isn't visible due to overflow: hidden) When you press 'up' it scrolls back up. At the moment each arrow simply tells the webpage to go to a specific div e.g. the 'down arrow' says <a class="tab" href="#page2">Down</a> This is ok for just two pages however as I will be having more pages what I would like is to be able to specify the amount of pages and for the arrows to automatically change which link it needs to go to next. For example, on page 1 the 'up arrow' is not visible and when you press the 'down arrow' it scrolls to #page2 whereupon the 'up arrow' is then visible. If you now press the down arrow again it will take you to #page3 whereupon it then becomes hidden as page 3 is the last page. I'm guessing I need to create a 'var' which specifies the amount of pages and that to make the arrows invisible it will change the css property 'display' to none yet I don't know how to do this nor to make the links work out which number to go to next! edit: Just botched together some code which hides the arrows based on the page number however still need to work out how to update the variables and change the links the arrows go to. (please exclude the coding, it's my first time trying to write script as opposed to just editing plugins!) var PageNumber = 1; var PageAmount = 2; function getPageNumber() { } function hideUpArrow() { if(PageNumber==1) { $("#up_arrow").css({ "display": "none" }); } } function hideDownArrow() { if(PageNumber==PageAmount) { $("#down_arrow").css({ "display": "none" }); } } $(document).ready(function(){ hideUpArrow(); });

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  • WordPress: Using a Where Clause With A Custom Field

    - by Steve Wilkison
    I have a bunch of events that are listed on a particular page. Each event is a post. I need them to display in the order in which they occur, NOT the order of the posting date. So, I've created a custom field called TheDate and enter in the date in this format for each one: 20110306. Then, I wrote my query like this: query_posts( array ( 'cat' => '4', 'posts_per_page' => -1, 'orderby' => 'meta_value_num', 'meta_key' => 'TheDate', 'order' => 'ASC' ) ); Works perfectly and displays the events in the correct order. However, I also want it to ONLY display dates from today onward. I don't want it to display dates which have passed. It seems the way to do this is with a "filter." I tried this, but it doesn't work. $todaysdate = date('Ymd'); query_posts( array ( 'cat' => '4', 'posts_per_page' => -1, 'orderby' => 'meta_value_num', 'meta_key' => 'TheDate', 'order' => 'ASC' ) ); function filter_where( $where = '' ) { $where .= "meta_value_num >= $todaysdate"; return $where; } add_filter( 'posts_where', 'filter_where' ); I figure it's just a matter of where I'm using this filter, I probably have it in the wrong place. Or maybe the filter itself is bad. Any help or guidance would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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