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• Making a simple searchable directory of people and their skills in a day - Which technologies?

  - by gav

  Hi All, I am working with a small theatre company. Currently they have a list of people on paper with notes about their skills next to each one. I want to create a database / directory for them so that they can add, delete, update and search for people. It is a very simple and common scenario I know but the issue here is that I only have a day to build a working solution. The search has to be very simple At first I was thinking LAMP but I'd rather not have to create it all from scratch and host it myself. That lead me to Google Spreadsheet as a database, this has the advantage that they already use google docs for everything and if my front end goes tits up they can still get to the data. Presuming none of you can think of some existing software which does exactly what I want the next step is to make a front end for the database. You can create forms for Google Spreadsheets but they only let you add new entries, I can make a Google Gadget but that will only let me implement the search as the Google Visualisation API provides read only access. It's at this point I'm stuck, should I just create a Java Servlet front end for the Google Spreadsheet and use the Java API to add, search and update? I know this is a broad question but I'm just asking 'What would you do?' to implement this system with a day's development time? Gav

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• Rewrite a URL that's already been redirected?

  - by Jack

  Hi guys, I'm running an Apache2 web server with a dynamic IP address. I bought exampledomain.net, and I use no-ip.com's domain-update service to redirect any visitors to my current ip address (endnote #1). For example, someone visits exampledomain.net and they get redirected to 73.181.57.34. It works like a charm. However, it isn't all that user-friendly. Can I rewrite the redirected, ip-address URL? I tried these rewrite rules in the root folder's .htaccess... RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^73\.181\.57\.34:88 RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.exampledomain.net/$1 [L,NC] # I simplified the RewriteCond. I would use regex in a real situation. Of course, this creates an infinite loop. The user visits www.exampledomain.net. They're redirected to 73.181.57.34:88 by no-ip. Apache redirects them to www.exampledomain.net which redirects them back to 73.181.57.34:88... so on and so forth. I'm a noob when it comes to rewriting, but is there a way to rewrite a URL without redirecting? I tried these rewrite rules too (a shot in the dark)... RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^73\.181\.57\.34:88 RewriteRule ^(.*)$ my.exampledomain.net/$1 [L,NC] # I'd read that Apache replied with a redirect header when you include http Thanks! (1) No-IP works like this: You download and install their dynamic update client on your server. Every couple of minutes it polls your server for its current external ip address. If it's changed, it updates your server's ip address in no-ip's records.

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• EF 4 Self Tracking Entities does not work as expected.

  - by ashraf

  I am using EF4 Self Tracking Entities (VS2010 Beta 2 CTP 2 plus new T4 generator). But when I try to update entity information it does not update to database as expected. I setup 2 service calls. one for GetResource(int id) which return a resource object. the second call is SaveResource(Resource res); here is the code. public Resource GetResource(int id) { using (var dc = new MyEntities()) { return dc.Resources.Where(d => d.ResourceId == id).SingleOrDefault(); } } public void SaveResource(Resource res) { using (var dc = new MyEntities()) { dc.Resources.ApplyChanges(res); dc.SaveChanges(); // Nothing save to database. } } //Windows Console Client Calls var res = service.GetResource(1); res.Description = "New Change"; // Not updating... service.SaveResource(res); // does not change anything. It seems to me that ChangeTracker.State is always show as "Unchanged". anything wrong in this code?

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• Trying to replace contents of a Div, with no luck

  - by bluedaniel

  Ive tried to use the Dom model with no bloody luck, getElementByID just doesnt work for me. I loathe to resort to a regex but not sure what else to do. The idea is to replace a <div id="content_div"> all sorts </div> with a new <div id="content_div"> NEW ALL SORTS HERE </div> and keep anything that was before or after it in the string. The string is a partial HTML string and more specifically out of the wordpress Posts DB. Any ideas? UPDATE: I tagged this question PHP but probably should of mentioned Im looking for a PHP solution only. Update: Code Example $content = ($wpdb->get_var( "SELECT `post_content` FROM $wpdb->posts WHERE ID = {$article[post_id]}" )); $doc = new DOMDocument(); $doc->validateOnParse = true; $doc->loadHTMLFile($content); $element = $doc->getElementById('div_to_edit'); So Ive tried a whole lot of code and this is what Ive got so far, probably not right but Ive been hacking at it for a little while now.

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• C# / XNA - Load objects to the memory - how it works?

  - by carl

  Hello I'm starting with C# and XNA. In the "Update" method of the "Game" class I have this code: t = Texture2D.FromFile( [...] ); //t is a 'Texture2D t;' which loads small image. "Update" method is working like a loop, so this code is called many times in a second. Now, when I run my game, it takes 95MB of RAM and it goes slowly to about 130MB (due to the code I've posted, without this code it remains at 95MB), then goes immediately to about 100MB (garbare colletion?) and again goes slowly to 130MB, then immediately to 100MB and so on. So my first question: Can You explain why (how) it works like that? I've found, that if I change the code to: t.Dispose() t = Texture2D.FromFile( [...] ); it works like that: first it takes 95MB and then goes slowly to about 101MB (due to the code) and remains at this level. I don't understand why it takes this 6MB (101-95)... ? I want to make it works like that: load image, release from memory, load image, release from memory and so on, so the program should always takes 95MB (it takes 95MB when image is loaded only once in previous method). Whats instructions should I use? If it is important, the size of the image is about 10KB. Thank You!

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• How can this code throw a NullReferenceException?

  - by Davy8

  I must be going out of my mind, because my unit tests are failing because the following code is throwing a null ref exception: int pid = 0; if (parentCategory != null) { Console.WriteLine(parentCategory.Id); pid = parentCategory.Id; } The line that's throwing it is: pid = parentCategory.Id; The console.writeline is just to debug in the NUnit GUI, but that outputs a valid int. Edit: It's single-threaded so it can't be assigned to null from some other thread, and the fact the the Console.WriteLine successfully prints out the value shows that it shouldn't throw. Edit: Relevant snippets of the Category class: public class Category { private readonly int id; public Category(Category parent, int id) { Parent = parent; parent.PerformIfNotNull(() => parent.subcategories.AddIfNew(this)); Name = string.Empty; this.id = id; } public int Id { get { return id; } } } Well if anyone wants to look at the full code, it's on Google Code at http://code.google.com/p/chefbook/source/checkout I think I'm going to try rebooting the computer... I've seen pretty weird things fixed by a reboot. Will update after reboot. Update: Mystery solved. Looks like NUnit shows the error line as the last successfully executed statement... Copy/pasted test into new console app and ran in VS showed that it was the line after the if statement block (not shown) that contained a null ref. Thanks for all the ideas everyone. +1 to everyone that answered.

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• "You have already activated" message even when using bundle exec

  - by juanpastas

  I am installing gems in my Gemfile in shared path as Capistrano does by default, and when I run: bundle exec rake assets:precompile RAILS_ENV=production I get: You have already activated rake 0.9.2.2, but your Gemfile requires rake 10.0.4. Using bundle exec may solve this. See that: cat Gemfile.lock | grep rake returns: rake (>= 0.8.7) rake (10.0.4) This is my gem environment output: - RUBYGEMS VERSION: 1.8.24 - RUBY VERSION: 1.9.3 (2013-06-27 patchlevel 448) [x86_64-linux] - INSTALLATION DIRECTORY: /home/bitnami/my_app/shared/bundle/ruby/1.9.1/ - RUBY EXECUTABLE: /opt/bitnami/ruby/bin/ruby - EXECUTABLE DIRECTORY: /home/bitnami/my_app/shared/bundle/ruby/1.9.1/bin - RUBYGEMS PLATFORMS: - ruby - x86_64-linux - GEM PATHS: - /home/bitnami/my_app/shared/bundle/ruby/1.9.1/ - GEM CONFIGURATION: - :update_sources => true - :verbose => true - :benchmark => false - :backtrace => false - :bulk_threshold => 1000 - "gemhome" => "/home/bitnami/my_app/shared/bundle/ruby/1.9.1/" - "gempath" => ["/home/bitnami/my_app/shared/bundle/ruby/1.9.1/"] - REMOTE SOURCES: - http://rubygems.org/ Update which -a rake /opt/bitnami/rvm/bin/rake /opt/bitnami/ruby/bin/rake Update 2 I tried giving full path to rake, but same problem

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• Rails uploaded file blank

  - by Ceilingfish

  Hi chaps, I'm trying to upload a file to the server using a HTTP multipart form in rails, and for some reason it's turning up blank at the other end. I can see it being received in the rails log thusly: Processing Admin::HeadlinesController#update (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-03-08 12:26:13) [PUT] Parameters: {"commit"=>"Save changes", "action"=>"update", "_method"=>"put", "authenticity_token"=>"mK70XRk5gOPUwXOcNboT/4K8PD9RBM7GqCOlEUKZwcA=", "headline"=>{"position"=>"1", "location"=>"primary", "attachment_id"=>"13", "headline_content"=>"questionnaires", "article_id"=>"3", "image"=>#<File:/tmp/RackMultipart20100308-63211-1vym9nj-0>}, "id"=>"140", "controller"=>"admin/headlines"} But if I have a look in /tmp/RackMultipart20100308-63211-1vym9nj-0 the file is blank. Am I right in thinking that this should be the file that I uploaded? I'm running Phusion Passenger 2.2.7 on Apache 2.2.13, with ruby 1.8.7 and rails 2.3.5, on OSX 10.6.2

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• MVVM Listbox DataTemplate SelectedItem

  - by StinkerPeter

  I am using a ListBox with a DataTemplate as shown below (xaml simplified and variable names changed). <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=ObservCollectionItems}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=SelectedItemVar, Mode=TwoWay}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <TextBlock Text="{Binding SomeVar}" /> <Border> <StackPanel> <Button Content="String1" Command="{Binding DataContext.Command1} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1}}" /> <Button Content="String2" Command="{Binding DataContext.Command2} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1}}" /> </StackPanel> </Border> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> I need the SelectedItemVar (dependency property) to update when I click on one of the buttons. SelectedItemVar is then used for the respective button's command. SelectedItemVar does update when I click on the TextBlock or the Border, but not when I click either button. I found a non-MVVM solution to this problem here. I do not want to add code in the file-behind to solve this, as they did in the link. Is there a clean solution that can be done in XAML. Beyond the non-MVVM solutions, I have not found anyone with this problem. I would have thought this was fairly common. Finally, I found this Command="{Binding DataContext.CommandName} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1} for the Command binding. I do not fully understand what it is doing, but I do know that the command wasn't firing when I was binding directly to CommandName.

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• C# Late Binding for Parameterized Property

  - by optim

  I'm trying to use late binding to connect to a COM automation API provided by a program called Amibroker, using a C# WinForms project. So far I've been able to connect to everything in the API except one item, which I believe to be a "parameterized property" based on extensive Googling. Here's what the API specification looks like according to the docs (Full version here: http://www.amibroker.com/guide/objects.html): Property Filter(ByVal nType As Integer, ByVal pszCategory As String) As Long [r/w] A javascript snippet to update the value looks like this: AB = new ActiveXObject("Broker.Application"); AA = AB.Analysis; AA.Filter( 0, "market" ) = 0; Using the following C# late-binding code, I can get the value of the property, but I can't for the life of me figure out how to set the value: object[] parameter = new object[2]; parameter[0] = Number; parameter[1] = Type; object filters = _analysis.GetType().InvokeMember("Filter", BindingFlags.GetProperty, null, _analysis, parameter); So far I have tried: using BindingFlags.SetProperty, BindingFlags.SetField casting the returned object to a PropertyInfo object and trying to update the value using it adding extra object containing the value to the parameters object various other things as last-ditch efforts From what I can see, this should be straight-forward, but I'm finding the late binding in C# to be cumbersome at best. The property looks like a method call to me, which is what is throwing me off. How does one assign a value to a method, and what would the prototype for late-binding C# code look like for it? Hopefully that explains it well enough, but feel free to ask if I've left anything unclear. Thanks in advance for any help! Daniel

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• Sometimes can rename, remove a folder; sometimes cannot

  - by Vy Clarks

  In my website project. I need to rename or remove some folder by code. Sometimes I can do all of that, but sometimes I cannot with error: Access to the path is denied Try to find to solution on Google. May be, there are two reason: The permisstion of that Folder Some subFolder or some file in that Folder that's being held open. Try to check: Right click on Folder- Properties-- Security: if this is the right way to check the permission, the Folder allowes every action (read, write....) There are no file, no subfolder of that Folder is opened. Why? I still dont understant why sometimes I can rename folder but sometimes I cannot. Help!! I need your opinions!!! UPDATE: take a look at my code above: I want to rename the a folder with the new name inputed in a Textbox txtFilenFolderName: protected void btnUpdate_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string[] values = EditValue; string oldpath = values[0];// = "D:\\C#Projects\\website\\Lecturer\\giangvien\\New folder" string oldName = values[2]; //= New Folder string newName = txtFilenFolderName.Text; //= New Folder1 string newPath = string.Empty; if (oldName != newName) { newPath = oldpath.Replace(oldName, newName); Directory.Move(oldpath, newPath); } else lblmessage2.Text = "New name must not be the same as the old "; } } Try to debug: oldpath = "D:\\C#Projects\\website\\Lecturer\\giangvien\\New folder" oldName = New Folder newName= New Folder1 newpath = "D:\\C#Projects\\website\\Lecturer\\giangvien\\New folder1" Everything seems right, but I when I click on buton Edit --- rename--- Update--- an error occur: Access to the path is denied D:\\C#Projects\\website\\Lecturer\\giangvien\\New folder Help!

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• Can I use a static cache Helper method in a NET MVC controller?

  - by Euston

  I realise there have been a few posts regarding where to add a cache check/update and the separation of concerns between the controller, the model and the caching code. There are two great examples that I have tried to work with but being new to MVC I wonder which one is the cleanest and suits the MVC methodology the best? I know you need to take into account DI and unit testing. Example 1 (Helper method with delegate) ...in controller var myObject = CacheDataHelper.Get(thisID, () => WebServiceServiceWrapper.GetMyObjectBythisID(thisID)); Example 2 (check for cache in model class) in controller var myObject = WebServiceServiceWrapper.GetMyObjectBythisID(thisID)); then in model class.............. if (!CacheDataHelper.Get(cachekey, out myObject)) { //do some repository processing // Add obect to cache CacheDataHelper.Add(myObject, cachekey); } Both use a static cache helper class but the first example uses a method signature with a delegate method passed in that has the name of the repository method being called. If the data is not in cache the method is called and the cache helper class handles the adding or updating to the current cache. In the second example the cache check is part of the repository method with an extra line to call the cache helper add method to update the current cache. Due to my lack of experience and knowledge I am not sure which one is best suited to MVC. I like the idea of calling the cache helper with the delegate method name in order to remove any cache code in the repository but I am not sure if using the static method in the controller is ideal? The second example deals with the above but now there is no separation between the caching check and the repository lookup. Perhaps that is not a problem as you know it requires caching anyway?

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• How to do binding programmically?

  - by user175908

  Hello, Could anyone identify the problem in this code? (I'm kinda newbie in WPF bindings.) This code executes after chart is loaded when I click a button: I get this error: Update: I dont get that error anymore. Thanks to Tomas. Now no error occur but chart looks completely blank (no columns) Update: Code now looks like this: // create a very simple DataSet var dataSet = new DataSet("MyDataSet"); var table = dataSet.Tables.Add("MyTable"); table.Columns.Add("Name"); table.Columns.Add("Price"); table.Rows.Add("Brick", 1.5d); table.Rows.Add("Soap", 4.99d); table.Rows.Add("Comic Book", 0.99d); // chart series var series = new ColumnSeries() { IndependentValueBinding = new Binding("[Name]"), // How to deal with DependentValueBinding = new Binding("[Price]"), // these two? ItemsSource = dataSet.Tables[0].DefaultView // or maybe I do mistake here? }; // ---------- set additional binding as adviced ------------------ series.SetBinding(ColumnSeries.ItemsSourceProperty, new Binding()); // chart stuff MyChart.Series.Add(series); MyChart.Title = "Names 'n Prices"; // some code to remove legend var style = new Style(typeof(Control)); style.Setters.Add(new Setter(LegendItem.TemplateProperty, null)); MyChart.LegendStyle = style; XAML: <Window x:Class="BindingzTest.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="606" Width="988" xmlns:charting="clr-namespace:System.Windows.Controls.DataVisualization.Charting;assembly=System.Windows.Controls.DataVisualization.Toolkit"> <Grid Name="LayoutRoot"> <charting:Chart Name="MyChart" Margin="0,0,573,0" Height="289" VerticalAlignment="Top" /> <Button Content="Button" Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="272,361,0,0" Name="button1" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="75" Click="chart1_Loaded" /> </Grid> Thanks for help in advance once more.

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• Copying a foreign Subversion repository to keep under dependencies

  - by Jonathan Sternberg

  I want to keep dependencies for my project in our own repository, that way we have consistent libraries for the entire team to work with. For example, I want our project to use the Boost libraries. I've seen this done in the past with putting dependencies under a "vendor" or "dependencies" folder. But I still want to be able to update these dependencies. If a new feature appears in a library and we need it, I want to just be able to update that repository within our own repository. I don't want to have to recopy it and put it under version control again. I'd also like for us to have the ability to change dependencies if a small change is needed without stopping us from ever updating the library. I want the ability to do something like 'svn cp', then be able to 'svn merge' in the future. I just tried this with the boost trunk, but I'm not able to get any history using 'svn log' on the copy I made. How do I do this? What is usually done for large projects with dependencies?

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• Sliding & hiding multiple panels in jQuery.

  - by lloydphillips

  I have a table with multiple rows in each row is a select list and based on the selection (when the onchange event is fired) panels appear containing additional data below the row.I currently have code like this: var allPnls = '.inv-dtl-comnts-add,.inv-dtl-comnts-update'; $(document).ready(function(){ hideAll(); //select action change $(".inv-dtl-ddlaction").change(onSelectChange); $(".btn-cancel").click(function(event){ slideAll(); $(".inv-dtl-ddlaction").val('[Select an Action]'); return false; }); }); function onSelectChange(event){ //find out which select item was clicked switch($(this).val()) { case 'View/Add Comment': $(this).closest(".row").children(allPnls).slideUp("fast", function(){ $(this).closest(".row").children(".inv-dtl-comnts-add").slideToggle("fast"); }); break; case 'Change Status': $(this).closest(".row").children(allPnls).slideUp("fast", function(){ $(this).closest(".row").children(".inv-dtl-comnts-update").slideToggle("fast"); }); break; default: //code to be executed if n is different from case 1 and 2 } } function hideAll(){ $(allPnls).hide(); } function slideAll(){ $(allPnls).slideUp("fast"); } So I'm hiding all the panels when the page loads and if a panel is already open I want to slide it shut before reopening the new panel. This works with the postback. With just one panel in the selection it worked great but with two panels the sliding up happens twice (it seems to slide down unopened panels before sliding them back up again). How can I adjust this so that I can get all panels listed in the variable allPnls to slide shut ONLY if they are already open? Is there a better way of sliding the panels shut and then having a callback to have the slideToggle work? Lloyd

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• Which SQL statements to execute with intersection / junction tables

  - by user1455103

  Here a simplified database layout One condo can hold multiple properties (flats, garage boxes, etc) - 1->n relationship One owner can have multiple properties in the same condo and properties can have more than one owner (m->n changed to 1->n with the junction table) One condo can have multiple owners - 1->n Some additional clarification: A owner is a member of a condo. A condo is made of properties belonging to owners BUT a owner is not linked to a property directly (there can be no relation between a property and a owner for a certain time BUT there will ALWAYS be a relation between a owner and a condo). Reason for this: the agent managing the condo will first create a list of owners and a list of properties. It is only later thet he will "link" each property to one or multiple owners (or inversely) I'm quite new to SQL. What SQL statements should I execute to: SELECT, for a specific condo (WHERE condition), the properties and their respective owners (all properties should be listed even if owners are null) SELECT, for a specific condo (WHERE condition), the owners along with their properties (all owners should be listed even if properties are null) UPDATE / DELETE existing owners (I'm uncertain about how to handle the operation for the junction tables. Should I first check if there is an entry in the junction table or not ?) UPDATE / DELETE existing properties (same concern) INSERT new owners (should I use two different SQL statements depending if the owner should be linked to a property or NOT - IF condition ?) INSERT new properties (same question as above) Could you be as clear and generic as possible so that it can be reused ? :-)

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• Consolidate multiple site files into single location

  - by seengee

  We have a custom PHP/MySQL CMS running on Linux/Apache thats rolled out to multiple sites (20+) on the same server. Each site uses exactly the same CMS files with a few files for each site being customised. The customised files for each site are: /library/mysql_connect.php /public_html/css/* /public_html/ftparea/* /public_html/images/* There's also a couple of other random files inside /public_html/includes/ that are unique to each site. Other than this each site on the server uses the exact same files. Each site sitting within /home/username/. There is obviously a massive amount of replication here as each time we want to deploy a system update we need to update to each user account. Given the common site files are all stored in SVN it would make far more sense if we were able to simply commit to SVN and deploy to a single location direct from there. Unfortunately, making a major architecture change at this stage could be problematic. In my mind the ideal scenario would mean creating an account like /home/commonfiles/ and each site using these common files unless an account specific file exists, for example a request is made to /home/user/public_html/index.php but as this file doesnt exist the request is then redirected to /home/commonfiles/public_html/index.php. I know that generally this approach is possible, similar to how Zend Framework (and probably others) redirect all requests that dont match a specific file to index.php. I'm just not sure about how exactly to go about implementing it and whether its actually advisable. Would really welcome any input/ideas people have got. Thanks.

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• python gui events out of order

  - by dave

  from Tkinter import * from tkMessageBox import * class Gui: def __init__(self, root): self.container = Frame(root) self.container.grid() self.inputText = Text(self.container, width=50, height=8) self.outputText = Text(self.container, width=50, height=8, bg='#E0E0E0', state=DISABLED) self.inputText.grid(row=0, column=0) self.outputText.grid(row=0, column=1) self.inputText.bind("<Key>", self.translate) def translate(self, event): input = self.inputText.get(0.0, END) output = self.outputText.get(0.0, END) self.outputText.config(state=NORMAL) self.outputText.delete(0.0, END) self.outputText.insert(INSERT, input) self.outputText.config(state=DISABLED) showinfo(message="Input: %s characters\nOutput: %s characters" % (len(input), len(input))) root = Tk() #toplevel object app = Gui(root) #call to the class where gui is defined root.mainloop() #enter event loop Working on a gui in tkinter I'm a little confused as to the sequence the event handlers are run. If you run the above code you'll hopefully see... 1) Editing the text widget triggers the event handler but it seems to fire it off without registering the actual change, 2) Even when the text widget is cleared (ie, keep pressing BackSpace) it still seems to have a one character length string, 3) The output widget only receives its update when the NEXT event trigger is fired despite the fact the data came on the previous event. Is this just how bindings work in tkinter or am i missing something here? The behaviour i would like when updating the input widget is: 1) Show the change, 2) Enter event handler, 3) Update output widget, 4) Show message box.

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• Good strategy for copying a "sliding window" of data from a table?

  - by chiborg

  I have a MySQL table from a third-party application that has millions of rows and only one index - the timestamp of each entry. Now I want to do some heavy self-joins and queries on the data using fields other than the timestamp. Doing the query on the original table would bring the database to a crawl, adding indexes to the table is not an option. Additionally, I only need entries that are newer than one week. My current strategy for doing the queries efficiently is to use a separate table (aux_table) that has the necessary indexes. My questions are: Is there another way to do the queries? and if not, How do I update the data in the indexed table efficiently? So far I have found two approaches for updating aux_table: Truncate aux_table and insert the desired data from the original table. Not very efficient because all the indexes must be re-crated. Check for the biggest timestamp in aux_table and insert all entries with a greater or equal timestamp from the original table. Occasionally drop older entries. Only copying entries with greater timestamp leads to dropped entries (because of entries with same timestamp that were inserted into the original table after the last update).

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• Sample twitter application

  - by Jack

  I have installed WAMP and running PHP scripts on localhost. I have enabled cURL. Here is my code. <?php function updateTwitter($status) { // Twitter login information $username = 'xxxxx'; $password = 'xxxxx'; // The url of the update function $url = 'http://twitter.com/statuses/update.xml'; // Arguments we are posting to Twitter $postargs = 'status='.urlencode($status); // Will store the response we get from Twitter $responseInfo=array(); // Initialize CURL $ch = curl_init($url); // Tell CURL we are doing a POST curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_PROXY,"localhost:80"); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); // Give CURL the arguments in the POST curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $postargs); // Set the username and password in the CURL call curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERPWD, $username.':'.$password); // Set some cur flags (not too important) curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_NOBODY, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION,1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); // execute the CURL call $response = curl_exec($ch); if($response === false) { echo 'Curl error: ' . curl_error($ch); } else { echo 'Operation completed without any errors<br/>'; } // Get information about the response $responseInfo=curl_getinfo($ch); // Close the CURL connection curl_close($ch); // Make sure we received a response from Twitter if(intval($responseInfo['http_code'])==200){ // Display the response from Twitter echo $response; }else{ // Something went wrong echo "Error: " . $responseInfo['http_code']; } curl_close($ch); } updateTwitter("Just finished a sweet tutorial on http://brandontreb.com"); ?> Here's my output Operation completed without any errors Error: 404 Here's what error 404 means 404 Not Found: The URI requested is invalid or the resource requested, such as a user, does not exists. Please help.

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• Best practice for inserting large chunks of HTML into elements with Javscript?

  - by hamstar

  Hey guys. I'm building a web application (using prototype) at the moment that requires the addition of large chunks of HTML into the DOM. Most of these are rows that contain elements with all manner of attributes. Currently I keep a blank row of html in a variable and var blankRow = '<tr><td>' +'<a href="{LINK}" onclick="someFunc(\'{STRING}\');">{WORD}</a>' +'</td></tr>'; function insertRow(o) { newRow = blankRow .sub('{LINK}',o.link) .sub('{STRING}',o.string) .sub('{WORD}',o.word); $('tbodyElem').insert( newRow ); } Now that works all well and dandy, but is it the best practice? I have to update the code in the blankRow when I update code on the page, so the new elements being inserted are the same. It gets sucky when I have like 40 lines of HTML to go in a blankRow and then I have to escape it too. Is there an easier way? I was thinking of urlencoding and then decoding it before insertion but that would still mean a blankRow and lots of escaping. What would be mean would be a eof function a la PHP et al. $blankRow = <<<EOF text text EOF; That would mean no escaping but it would still need a blankRow. What do you do in this situation?

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• Clickonce redirect

  - by David Hagan

  Is it possible to deploy an application (using an existing clickonce deployment URL, such that users update to that version) which changes the deployment URL of the deployed application? The scenario is that I have a deployed client (A), which is stable and has been in use for over a year, and a new client (B), which is in development and will be used. However, B and A have different UIDs so that they can both be deployed on the same system together. At some point in the future, I'd like to automatically migrate users who have been using A to B, but I'd hope that Clickonce is well-designed enough to not upgrade A to B if I place B's install files in A's install directory (because it should be checking those UIDs). I know that a C# application that's been deployed through clickonce has some access to its own deployment method, and I'm wondering whether I'm able to change the upgrade-location. I'm hoping to do this quietly without much involvement of the user (and I understand that quiet redirects are heavily frowned upon, for good reasons) and am wondering whether anyone has any experience of trying to modify an installed clickonce's deployment/upgrade information with an update.

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• White Screen of Death (WSOD) in Browser

  - by nickyt

  Here's the specs: ASP.NET 3.5 using ASP.NET AJAX AJAX Control Toolkit jQuery 1.3.2 web services IIS6 on Windows Server 2003 SP1 SP1 SQLServer 2005 SP3 Site is SSL Here's the problem: I'm getting the White Screen of Death (WSOD) in pretty much any browser (at least FireFox and IE 7/8). We have an application that uses one popup window for updating records. Most of the time when you click on the [Edit] button to edit a record, the popup window opens and loads the update page. However, after editing records for a while, all of a sudden the popup window will open, but it stays blank and just hangs. The URL is in the address bar. Loading up Fiddler I noticed that the request for the update page is never sent which leads me to believe it's some kind of lockup on the client-side. If I copy the same URL that's in the popup window into a new browser window, the page generally loads fine. Observations: - Since the request is never sent to the server, it's definitely something client-side - Only appears to happen when there is some semblance of traffic on the site which is weird because this appears to be contained within client-side code - There is a web service being called in the background every few seconds checking if the user is logged on, but this doesn't cause the freeze. I'm really at a loss here. I've googled WSOD but not much seems to appear related to my specific WSOD. Any ideas?

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• Am I a discoverer of a bug in the WPF engine?

  - by bitbonk

  We have a MFC 8 application compiled with /CLR that contains a larger amount of Windows Forms UserControls wich again contain WPF user controls using ElementHost. Due to the architecture of our software we can not use HwndHost directly. We observed an extremely strange behavior here that we can not make any sense of: When the CPU load is very high during startup of the application and there are a lot live of ElementHost instances, the whole property engine completely stops working. For example animations that usually just work fine now never update the values of the bound properties, they just stay at some random value after startup. When I set a property that is not bound to anything the value is correctly stored in the dependency property (calling the getter returns the new value) but the visual representation never reflects that. I set the background to red but the background color does not change. We tested this on a lot of different machines all running Windows XP SP2 and it is pretty reproducible. The funny thing here is, that there is in fact one situation where the bound properties actually pickup a new value from the animation and the visual gets updated based on the property values. It is when I resize the ElementHost or when I hide and reshow the parent native control. As soon as I do this, properties that are bound to an animation pickup a new value and the visuals rerender based on the new property values - but just once - if I want to see another update I have to resize the ElementHost. Do you have any explanation of what could be happening here or how I could approach this problem to find it out? What can I do to debug this? Is there a way I can get more information about what WPF actually does or where WPF might have crashed? To me it currently seems like a bug in WPF itself since it only happens at high CPU load at startup.

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• Showing errors in updatepanel after processing a CSV file

  - by Younes

  I have a csv importroutine which imports my CSV values into Sitecore. After this proces is done i want to show the errors in an asp:literal. This is not working, and I think this is because i need an updatepanel for this in order to be able to update text after the first postback (the csv upload / import). I made this: <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server"> </asp:ScriptManager> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="PlaceHolder1" runat="server"></asp:PlaceHolder> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" OnClick="Button1_Click" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> and coded this: string melding = string.Format("Er zijn {0} objecten geïmporteerd.{1}", nrOfItemsImported, errors); ViewState["Melding"] = melding; And i have a button. On the onclick of this button I have: Literal literal = new Literal(); literal.Text = (string)ViewState["Melding"]; literal.ID = DateTime.Now.Ticks.ToString(); UpdatePanel1.ContentTemplateContainer.Controls.Add(literal); PlaceHolder1.Controls.Add(literal); When i now press the button i want to update the panel so that it will show my Literal with the errormsg on it. This however isn't happening. How can this be? I'm guessing it has something to do with my viewstate, i don't see keys on the viewstate after I press the button...

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