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  • Multi threading in WCF RIA Services

    - by synergetic
    I use WCF RIA Services to update customer database. In domain service: public void UpdateCustomer(Customer customer) { this.ObjectContext.Customers.AttachAsModified(customer); syncCustomer(customer); } After update, a database trigger launches and depending on the columns updated it may insert a new record in CustomerChange table. syncCustomer(customer) method is executed to check for a new record in the CustomerChange table and if found it will create a text file which contains customer information and forwards that file to external system for import. Now this synchronization may take a time so I wanted to execute it in different thread. So: private void syncCustomer(Customer customer) { this.ObjectContext.SaveChanges(); new Thread(() => syncCustomerInfo(customer.CustomerID)) { IsBackground = true }.Start(); } private void syncCustomerInfo(int customerID) { //Thread.Sleep(2000); //does real job here ... ... } The problem is in most cases syncCustomerInfo method cannot find any new CustomerChange record even if it was definitely there. If I force thread sleep then it finds a new record. I also looked Entity Framework events but the only event provided by object context is SavingChanges which occur before changes are saved. Please suggest me what else to try.

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  • Which SQL statements to execute with intersection / junction tables

    - by user1455103
    Here a simplified database layout One condo can hold multiple properties (flats, garage boxes, etc) - 1->n relationship One owner can have multiple properties in the same condo and properties can have more than one owner (m->n changed to 1->n with the junction table) One condo can have multiple owners - 1->n Some additional clarification: A owner is a member of a condo. A condo is made of properties belonging to owners BUT a owner is not linked to a property directly (there can be no relation between a property and a owner for a certain time BUT there will ALWAYS be a relation between a owner and a condo). Reason for this: the agent managing the condo will first create a list of owners and a list of properties. It is only later thet he will "link" each property to one or multiple owners (or inversely) I'm quite new to SQL. What SQL statements should I execute to: SELECT, for a specific condo (WHERE condition), the properties and their respective owners (all properties should be listed even if owners are null) SELECT, for a specific condo (WHERE condition), the owners along with their properties (all owners should be listed even if properties are null) UPDATE / DELETE existing owners (I'm uncertain about how to handle the operation for the junction tables. Should I first check if there is an entry in the junction table or not ?) UPDATE / DELETE existing properties (same concern) INSERT new owners (should I use two different SQL statements depending if the owner should be linked to a property or NOT - IF condition ?) INSERT new properties (same question as above) Could you be as clear and generic as possible so that it can be reused ? :-)

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  • python gui events out of order

    - by dave
    from Tkinter import * from tkMessageBox import * class Gui: def __init__(self, root): self.container = Frame(root) self.container.grid() self.inputText = Text(self.container, width=50, height=8) self.outputText = Text(self.container, width=50, height=8, bg='#E0E0E0', state=DISABLED) self.inputText.grid(row=0, column=0) self.outputText.grid(row=0, column=1) self.inputText.bind("<Key>", self.translate) def translate(self, event): input = self.inputText.get(0.0, END) output = self.outputText.get(0.0, END) self.outputText.config(state=NORMAL) self.outputText.delete(0.0, END) self.outputText.insert(INSERT, input) self.outputText.config(state=DISABLED) showinfo(message="Input: %s characters\nOutput: %s characters" % (len(input), len(input))) root = Tk() #toplevel object app = Gui(root) #call to the class where gui is defined root.mainloop() #enter event loop Working on a gui in tkinter I'm a little confused as to the sequence the event handlers are run. If you run the above code you'll hopefully see... 1) Editing the text widget triggers the event handler but it seems to fire it off without registering the actual change, 2) Even when the text widget is cleared (ie, keep pressing BackSpace) it still seems to have a one character length string, 3) The output widget only receives its update when the NEXT event trigger is fired despite the fact the data came on the previous event. Is this just how bindings work in tkinter or am i missing something here? The behaviour i would like when updating the input widget is: 1) Show the change, 2) Enter event handler, 3) Update output widget, 4) Show message box.

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  • Am I a discoverer of a bug in the WPF engine?

    - by bitbonk
    We have a MFC 8 application compiled with /CLR that contains a larger amount of Windows Forms UserControls wich again contain WPF user controls using ElementHost. Due to the architecture of our software we can not use HwndHost directly. We observed an extremely strange behavior here that we can not make any sense of: When the CPU load is very high during startup of the application and there are a lot live of ElementHost instances, the whole property engine completely stops working. For example animations that usually just work fine now never update the values of the bound properties, they just stay at some random value after startup. When I set a property that is not bound to anything the value is correctly stored in the dependency property (calling the getter returns the new value) but the visual representation never reflects that. I set the background to red but the background color does not change. We tested this on a lot of different machines all running Windows XP SP2 and it is pretty reproducible. The funny thing here is, that there is in fact one situation where the bound properties actually pickup a new value from the animation and the visual gets updated based on the property values. It is when I resize the ElementHost or when I hide and reshow the parent native control. As soon as I do this, properties that are bound to an animation pickup a new value and the visuals rerender based on the new property values - but just once - if I want to see another update I have to resize the ElementHost. Do you have any explanation of what could be happening here or how I could approach this problem to find it out? What can I do to debug this? Is there a way I can get more information about what WPF actually does or where WPF might have crashed? To me it currently seems like a bug in WPF itself since it only happens at high CPU load at startup.

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  • Should I use IDisposable for purely managed resources?

    - by John Gietzen
    Here is the scenario: I have an object called a Transaction that needs to make sure that only one entity has permission to edit it at any given time. In order to facilitate a long-lived lock, I have the class generating a token object that can be used to make the edits. You would use it like this: var transaction = new Transaction(); using (var tlock = transaction.Lock()) { transaction.Update(data, tlock); } Now, I want the TransactionLock class to implement IDisposable so that its usage can be clear. But, I don't have any unmanaged resources to dispose. however, the TransctionLock object itself is a sort of "unmanaged resource" in the sense that the CLR doesn't know how to properly finalize it. All of this would be fine and dandy, I would just use IDisposable and be done with it. However, my issue comes when I try to do this in the finalizer: ~TransactionLock() { this.Dispose(false); } I want the finalizer to release the transaction from the lock, if possible. How, in the finalizer, do I detect if the parent transaction (this.transaction) has already been finalized? Is there a better pattern I should be using? The Transaction class looks something like this: public sealed class Transaction { private readonly object lockMutex = new object(); private TransactionLock currentLock; public TransactionLock Lock() { lock (this.lockMutex) { if (this.currentLock != null) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); this.currentLock = new TransactionLock(this); return this.currentLock; } } public void Update(object data, TransactionLock tlock) { lock (this.lockMutex) { this.ValidateLock(tlock); // ... } } internal void ValidateLock(TransactionLock tlock) { if (this.currentLock == null) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); if (this.currentLock != tlock) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); } internal void Unlock(TransactionLock tlock) { lock (this.lockMutex) { this.ValidateLock(tlock); this.currentLock = null; } } }

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  • advanced winform framework

    - by alfredo dobrekk
    Hi, i m starting a new project that would basically take input from user and save them to database among about 30 screens, and i would like to find a framework that will allow the maximum number of these features out of the box : .net c#. windows form. unit testing continuous integration screens with lists, combo boxes, text boxes, add, delete, save, cancel that are easy to update when you add a property to your classes or a field to your database. auto completion on controls to help user find its way use of an orm like nhibernate easy multithreading and display of wait screens for user easy undo redo tabbed child windows search forms ability to grant access to some functionnalities according to user profiles mvp/mvvm or whatever design patterns either some code generation from database to c# classe or generation of database schema from c# classes some kind of database versioning / upgrade to easily update database when i release patches to application once in production code metrics analysis some code generator i can use against my entities that would generate some rough form i can rearrange after code documentation generator ... Any ideas ? I know its lot but i really would like to use existing code to build upon so i can focus on business rules. Do u have any suggestion to add to the list before starting ? What open source tools would u use to achieve these ?

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  • jQuery Accordion + Anchor Tag 'stuck as block' bug?

    - by DA
    Sample page: http://jsbin.com/ohuze/2 This is a simple jQuery UI Accordion. Each accordion panel has an UL (an OL works the same) with this markup: <ol> <li><a href="">Lorep ipsum dolor lorem ipsum dolor lorem ipsum dolor</a>?</li> <li><a href="">Lorep ipsum dolor lorem ipsum dolor lorem ipsum dolor</a>?</li> </ol> In IE6, you'll see that the <a> tag appears to be getting rendered as a block element, so the question mark ends up being pushed outside and not at the end of the line of text. In addition, the bullet and/or list item number is now bottom-aligned with the text rather than top-aligned. I've narrowed it down to the javascript that executes to make the accordion. It's not an issue with jQuery's CSS as disabling that, alone, doesn't resolve the issue. Anyone know what might be going on in IE6 to cause this rendering issue? UPDATE: Apparently, this is also an IE7 issue. UPDATE 2: After some more playing, I've narrowed things down a bit more: the bug has nothing to do with lists. The issue is any anchor tag within a jQuery Accordion will appear as display: block (even though it appears that the CSS still indicates display: inline) the bug has nothing to do with the actual CSS that jQuery UI uses to create the accordion. I created a test page that uses the fully rendered jQuery Accordion post-processed source code and the accompanying CSS. In that situation, the anchor tags remain inline. In conclusion: It appears that the process of rendering the accordion via javascript is messing up the display of the anchor tags. It may be a show/hide issue?

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  • Seam @Factory in abstract base class?

    - by Shadowman
    I've got a series of web actions I'm implementing in Seam to perform create, read, update, etc. operations. For my read/update/delete actions, I'd like to have individual action classes that all extend an abstract base class. I'd like to put the @Factory method in the abstract base class to retrieve the item that is to be acted upon. For example, I have this as the base class: public abstract class BaseAction { @In(required=false)@Out(required=false) private MyItem item=null; public MyItem getItem(){...} public void setItem(...){...} @Factory("item") public void initItem(){...} } My subclasses would extend BaseAction, so that I don't have to repeat the logic to load the item that is to be viewed, deleted, updated, etc. However, when I start my application, Seam throws errors saying I have declared multiple @Factory's for the same object. Is there any way around this? Is there any way to provide the @Factory in the base class without encoutnering these errors?

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  • SQL Duplicates Issue SQL SERVER 2000

    - by jeff
    I have two tables : Product and ProductRateDetail. The parent table is Product. I have duplicate records in the product table which need to be unique. There are entries in the ProductRateDetail table which correspond to duplicate records in the product table. Somehow I need to update the ProductRateDetail table to match the original (older) ID from the Product table and then remove the duplicates from the product table. I would do this manually but there are 100's of records. i.e. something like UPDATE tbl_productRateDetail SET productID = (originalID from tbl_product) then something like DELETE from tbl_product WHERE duplicate ID and only delete the recently added ID data example: (sorry can't work out this formatting thing) tbl_Product select * from dbo.Product where ProductCode = '10003' ProductID ProductTypeID ProductDescription ProductCode ProductSize 365 1 BEND DOUBLE FLANGED 10003 80mmX90deg 1354 1 BEND DOUBLE FLANGED 10003 80mmX90deg tbl_ProductRateDetail SELECT * FROM [MSTS2].[dbo].[ProductRateDetail] WHERE ProductID in (365,1354) ProductRateDetailID ProductRateID ProductID UnitRate 365 1 365 16.87 1032 5 365 16.87 2187 10 365 16.87 2689 11 365 16.87 3191 12 365 16.87 7354 21 1354 21.30 7917 22 1354 21.30 8480 23 1354 21.30 9328 25 1354 21.30 9890 26 1354 21.30 10452 27 1354 21.30 Please help!

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  • Help me write my LISP :) LISP environments, Ruby Hashes...

    - by MikeC8
    I'm implementing a rudimentary version of LISP in Ruby just in order to familiarize myself with some concepts. I'm basing my implementation off of Peter Norvig's Lispy (http://norvig.com/lispy.html). There's something I'm missing here though, and I'd appreciate some help... He subclasses Python's dict as follows: class Env(dict): "An environment: a dict of {'var':val} pairs, with an outer Env." def __init__(self, parms=(), args=(), outer=None): self.update(zip(parms,args)) self.outer = outer def find(self, var): "Find the innermost Env where var appears." return self if var in self else self.outer.find(var) He then goes on to explain why he does this rather than just using a dict. However, for some reason, his explanation keeps passing in through my eyes and out through the back of my head. Why not use a dict, and then inside the eval function, when a new "sub-environment" needs to be created, just take the existing dict and update the key/value pairs that need to be updated, and pass that new dict into the next eval? Won't the Python interpreter keep track of the previous "outer" envs? And won't the nature of the recursion ensure that the values are pulled out from "inner" to "outer"? I'm using Ruby, and I tried to implement things this way. Something's not working though, and it might be because of this, or perhaps not. Here's my eval function, env being a regular Hash: def eval(x, env = $global_env) ........ elsif x[0] == "lambda" then ->(*args) { eval(x[2], env.merge(Hash[*x[1].zip(args).flatten(1)])) } ........ end The line that matters of course is the "lambda" one. If there is a difference, what's importantly different between what I'm doing here and what Norvig did with his Env class? If there's no difference, then perhaps someone can enlighten me as to why Norvig uses the Env class. Thanks :)

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  • How do you populate a UIImage view with ASIHTTPRequest given @2x?

    - by Jonathan Page
    I've been trying to load images from a url using ASIHTTPRequest but I always come up with a blank UIImage. I think it might have something to do with iOS automatically choosing the @2x named version of images or vica versa. [ASIHTTPRequest setDefaultCache:[ASIDownloadCache sharedCache]]; NSString *url_string = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://173.246.100.185/%@", [eventDictionary objectForKey:kEventDescriptionImageURLKey]]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:url_string]; __block ASIHTTPRequest *request = [ASIHTTPRequest requestWithURL:url]; [request setDownloadCache:[ASIDownloadCache sharedCache]]; [request setCachePolicy:ASIAskServerIfModifiedCachePolicy|ASIFallbackToCacheIfLoadFailsCachePolicy]; [request setCacheStoragePolicy:ASICachePermanentlyCacheStoragePolicy]; [request setSecondsToCache:86400]; [request setDelegate:self]; [request setCompletionBlock:^{ NSLog(@"Successful Update"); [self makeAssignment]; }]; [request setFailedBlock:^{ NSError *error = [request error]; NSLog(@"%@", [error localizedDescription]); UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Update Failed" message:[error localizedDescription] delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"OK" otherButtonTitles:nil]; [alert show]; [alert release]; }]; [request startAsynchronous]; NSLog(@"%@", url_string); The makeAssignment method is below. NSString *url_string = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://173.246.100.185/%@", [eventDictionary objectForKey:kEventDescriptionImageURLKey]]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:url_string]; downloadedImage = [[UIImage alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:[[ASIDownloadCache sharedCache] pathToCachedResponseDataForURL:url]]; NSLog(@"%@", downloadedImage); NSLog(@"%@", [[ASIDownloadCache sharedCache] pathToCachedResponseDataForURL:url]); Nothing I do, including naming images @2x on the server or providing both versions, gets it to load. Any ideas? Has anyone done this before? When I load them locally (from within the package) I don't have any issues. Thanks!

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  • Showing errors in updatepanel after processing a CSV file

    - by Younes
    I have a csv importroutine which imports my CSV values into Sitecore. After this proces is done i want to show the errors in an asp:literal. This is not working, and I think this is because i need an updatepanel for this in order to be able to update text after the first postback (the csv upload / import). I made this: <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server"> </asp:ScriptManager> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="PlaceHolder1" runat="server"></asp:PlaceHolder> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" OnClick="Button1_Click" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> and coded this: string melding = string.Format("Er zijn {0} objecten geïmporteerd.{1}", nrOfItemsImported, errors); ViewState["Melding"] = melding; And i have a button. On the onclick of this button I have: Literal literal = new Literal(); literal.Text = (string)ViewState["Melding"]; literal.ID = DateTime.Now.Ticks.ToString(); UpdatePanel1.ContentTemplateContainer.Controls.Add(literal); PlaceHolder1.Controls.Add(literal); When i now press the button i want to update the panel so that it will show my Literal with the errormsg on it. This however isn't happening. How can this be? I'm guessing it has something to do with my viewstate, i don't see keys on the viewstate after I press the button...

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  • updating dataset using join and bindingsource?

    - by netadictos
    Hi, I have created a dataset and in the designer I have created the relations and foreign keys that exist in the database. Basically, I have a product that has a relationship to a table of prices. The keyfield they share is IdProduct in the Prices table. In the Fill/Get of the product I return the Price field. I also have a DataGrid that uses a BindingSource which uses this table. Everything displays correctly and when I double click on a row within the datagrid I then open up a tabbed form that contains a detailed view of the record selected. The user at this point is able to make changes to the record and they are properly propogated back to the BindingSource. The problem is that the TableAdapter does not contain the appopriate update, therefore I am not able to call the TableAdapter.Update method with the dataset as I would had I created a tableadapter not using a join. How am I best to handle this situation. At the same time I cannot get any modified row: dTiendasDs.ProductosDataTable modified = (dTiendasDs.ProductosDataTable) dTiendasDs.Productos.GetChanges(DataRowState.Modified); modified is always null Thanks,

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  • JavaEE: Question about design

    - by Harry Pham
    I have a JSF page that will create a new Comment. I have the managed bean of that page to be RequestScoped managed bean. @ManagedBean(name="PostComment") @RequestScoped public class PostComment { private Comment comment = null; @ManagedProperty(value="#{A}") private A a; //A is a ViewScoped Bean @ManagedProperty(value="#{B}") private B b; //B is a ViewScoped Bean @PostConstruct public void init(){ comment = new Comment(); } // setters and getters for comment and all the managed property variable public void postComment(String location){ //persist the new comment ... if(location.equals("A")){ //update the comment list on page A }else if(location.equals("B")){ //update the comment list on page B } } } As you can see from the code above, 2 ViewScoped bean A and B will both use method postComment(), and getter getComment() from bean PostComment. The problem I am having right now is that, if I am on A, constructor of A will load, but it will also load constructor of bean B. This make my page load twice as slow. What would be the best way to solve this problem?

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  • Class design when working with dataset

    - by MC
    If you have to retrieve data from a database and bring this dataset to the client, and then allow the user to manipulate the data in various ways before updating the database again, what is a good class design for this if the data tables will not have a 1:1 relationship with the class objects? Here are some I came up with: Just manipulate the DataSet itself on the client and then send it back to the database as is. This will work though obviously the code will be very dirty and not well-structured. Same as #1, but wrap the dataset code around classes. What I mean is that you may have a class that takes a dataset or a datatable in its constructor, and then provides public methods and properties to simplify the code. Inside these methods and properties it will be reading or manipulating the dataset. To update the database afterwards will be easy because you already have the updated dataset. Get rid of the dataset entirely on the client, convert to objects, then convert back to a dataset when needing to update the database. Is there any good resources where I can find information on this?

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  • Login as SYS user to Oracle 11g from .NET

    - by Jens Bannmann
    Using the Oracle Data Provider for .NET, my application connects to the database using the privileged SYS user. The connection string is as follows: Data Source=MyTnsName;User ID=sys;Password=MySysPassword;DBA Privilege=SYSDBA This works fine with Oracle 10, but Oracle 11 keeps complaining about an invalid username or password. I verified that the password is correct - other apps work fine with the same credentials. Note that for regular users (without the DBA Privilege part), connecting to Oracle 11 works perfectly. So, what's wrong? Update: This is not an issue with case sensitivity - when constructing the connection string, the password case is not altered by my code, and the password works fine with other, non-.NET-applications. I suspect that this might be caused by the Oracle 10 client I'm using to connect to the 11 database. Oracle states that the client is upward-compatible, the only drawback being that you cannot use some new features of the database. However, SYSDBA connections clearly are not a new Oracle 11 feature, and - again - a non-.NET-app (Keeptool Hora) can connect using the same setup. Any other ideas? Update 2: The problem persists when using an Oracle 11 client :-(

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  • Comparing two images from the clipboard class

    - by VeXe
    In a C# winform app. I'm writing a Clipboard log manager that logs test to a log file, (everytime a Ctrl+c/x is pressed the copied/cut text gets appended to the file) I also did the same for images, that is, if you press "prtScreen", the screen shot you took will also go to a folder. I do that by using a timer, inside I have something which 'looks' like this: if (Clipboard.ContainsImage()) { if (IsClipboardUpdated()) { LogData(); UpdateLastClipboardData(); } } This is how the rest of the methods look like: public void UpdateLastClipboardData() { // ... other updates LastClipboardImage = Clipboard.GetImage(); } // This is how I determine if there's a new image in the clipboard... public bool IsClipboardUpdated() { return (LastClipboardImage != Clipboard.GetImage()); } public void LogData() { Clipboard.GetImage().Save(ImagesLogFolder + "\\Image" + now_hours + "_" + now_mins + "_" + now_secs + ".jpg"); } The problem is: inside the update method, "LastClipboardImage != Clipboard.GetImage()" is always returning true! I even did the following inside the update method: Image img1 = Clipboard.GetImage(); Image img2 = Clipboard.GetImage(); Image img3 = img2; bool b1 = img1 == img2; // this returned false. WHY?? bool b2 = img3 == img2; // this returned true. Makes sense. Please help, the comparison isn't working... why?

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  • how do I call a javacript function every 60 seconds?

    - by William
    So I'm trying to work on a Canvas demo, and I want this square to move from one side to the other, but I can't figure out how to call javascript in a way that repeats every 60 seconds. Here's what I got so far: <!DOCTYPE html> <html lang="en"> <head> <title>Canvas test</title> <meta charset="utf-8" /> <link href="/bms/style.css" rel="stylesheet" /> <style> body { text-align: center; background-color: #000000;} canvas{ background-color: #ffffff;} </style> <script type="text/javascript"> var x = 50; var y = 250; function update(){ draw(); x = x + 5; } function draw(){ var canvas = document.getElementById('screen1'); if (canvas.getContext){ var ctx = canvas.getContext('2d'); ctx.fillStyle = 'rgb(236,138,68)'; ctx.fillRect(x,y,24,24); } } </script> </head> <body onLoad="setTimeout(update(), 0);"> <canvas id="screen1" width="500" height="500"></canvas> </body> </html>

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  • How can I remove a JPanel from a JFrame?

    - by Roman
    Recently I asked here how to add a new JPanel to JFrame. The answer helped me to get a working code. But not I have a related question: "How can I remove an old JPanel". I need that because of the following problem. A new JPanel appears appears when I want (either time limit is exceeded or user press the "Submit" button). But in several seconds some element of the old JPanel appears together with the component of the new JPanel. I do not understand why it happens. I thought that it is because I have to other threads which update the window. But the first thread just add the old panel once (so, it should be finished). And in the second thread I have a loop which is broken (so, it also should be finished). Here is my code: private Thread controller = new Thread() { public void run() { // First we set the initial pane (for the selection of partner). SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { frame.getContentPane().add(generatePartnerSelectionPanel()); frame.invalidate(); frame.validate(); } }); // Update the pane for the selection of the parnter. for (int i=40; i>0; i=i-1) { final int sec = i; SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { timeLeftLabel.setText(sec + " seconds left."); } }); try {Thread.sleep(1000);} catch (InterruptedException e) {} if (partnerSubmitted) {break;} } // For the given user the selection phase is finished (either the time is over or form was submitted). SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { frame.getContentPane().add(generateWaitForGamePanel()); frame.invalidate(); frame.validate(); } }); } };

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  • Flash SWF not initializing until visible - can I force them to initialize?

    - by Jason
    I have an application that needs to render about 100 flash graphs (as well as other DOM stuff) in a series of rows that vertically extend many times beyond the current visible window - in other words, the users have to scroll down see see all the different graphs. This application is also dynamic and when a user changes a value in the DOM (anywhere on the page) it will need to propagate that change to all the Flash graphs at the same time. So I setup all the externalInterface callbacks and was careful to not let any JS start going until the ever-so-important "flashIsReady" call and...it worked great until I tried to update() the existing swf's with new data. Here was the behavior: - All the swfs load (initially) in both IE/Fox = good. - Updating swfs with new content works in IE but not in Fox = not good - Updating swfs with new content works in Fox --ONLY IF-- I scrolled down to the bottom of the page, then back to the top -- BEFORE -- I triggered an update(). So then I started tracing out each time a swf called the JS to say "flash is ready" and I realized, Firfox only renders swfs as they become visible. And To be honest - that's fine and actually, I am pretty sure that IE does this too. But the problem is that not only does Firefox not initialize the swf, Firefox doesn't even acknowledge the swf exists (expect for after onload) if it has not yet been visible. And the proof is that you get JS errors saying: "[FlashDOMID].FlashMethod is not a function". However, scroll down a little, wait until its visible and suddenly the trace starts lighting up "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready" and once they are all ready, everything works fine. Someone told me that FF does not init swf's until visible - can I force it? I can post code if you need...but its pretty heavy (hard to strip out the relevant from the rest) and I would like to avoid it (for your sakes) if possible. The question is simple - have you had this happen and if so, did you find a solution? Does anyone now how to force a not-yet-visible swf to initialize? Thanks guys.

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  • Accessing MS Access database from C#

    - by Abilash
    I want to use MS Access as database for my C# windows form application.I have used OleDb driver for connecting MS Access. I am able to select the records from the MS Access using OleDbConnection and ExecuteReader.But I am un able to insert,update and delete records. My code is as follows: OleDbConnection con=new OleDbConnection(strCon); try { con.Open(); OleDbCommand com = new OleDbCommand("INSERT INTO DPMaster(DPID,DPName,ClientID,ClientName) VALUES('53','we','41','aw')", con); int a=com.ExecuteNonQuery(); //OleDbCommand com = new OleDbCommand("SELECT * FROM DPMaster", con); //OleDbDataReader dr = com.ExecuteReader(); //while (dr.Read()) //{ // MessageBox.Show(dr[2].ToString()); //} MessageBox.Show(a.ToString()); } catch { MessageBox.Show("cannot"); } If I execute the commented block the application works.But the insert block doesnt works.Why I am unable to insert/update/delete the records into database? My Connection String is as follows: string strCon="Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=xyz.mdb;Persist Security Info=True";

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  • Javascript timezone solution needed(taking into account the actual difference in UTC timestamps)

    - by user198729
    I have unix timestamps from time zone X which is not known, the current timestamp(now()) in TZ X is known 1275143019, how to approach a javascript function so that it can generate the datetime in the users current TZ in the format 2010-05-29 15:32:35 ? UPDATE I'm not a unix timestamp expert,if unix timestamp is always the same in different TZ, then I have to change the question a little,so that the current datetime in TZ X is known(like 2010-05-29 22:32:28),and the other datetime is also in this format,how to convert them to the user's TZ based on the difference between now() ? UPDATE Something strange from MySQL: On server: mysql> select now(); +---------------------+ | now() | +---------------------+ | 2010-05-29 18:34:30 | +---------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) mysql> select UNIX_TIMESTAMP(); +------------------+ | UNIX_TIMESTAMP() | +------------------+ | 1275143674 | +------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) On local: mysql> select now(); +---------------------+ | now() | +---------------------+ | 2010-05-29 22:41:30 | +---------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) mysql> select UNIX_TIMESTAMP(); +------------------+ | UNIX_TIMESTAMP() | +------------------+ | 1275144091 | +------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) Why the difference between now() (2010-05-29 22:41:30-2010-05-29 18:34:30=6hours) and UNIX_TIMESTAMP() (1275144091 - 1275143674 = 417seconds) is not the same ?

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  • mysql row locking via php

    - by deezee
    I am helping a friend with a web based form that is for their business. I am trying to get it ready to handle multiple users. I have set it up so that just before the record is displayed for editing I am locking the record with the following code. $query = "START TRANSACTION;"; mysql_query($query); $query = "SELECT field FROM table WHERE ID = \"$value\" FOR UPDATE;"; mysql_query($query); (okay that is greatly simplified but that is the essence of the mysql) It does not appear to be working. However, when I go directly to mysql from the command line, logging in with the same user and execute START TRANSACTION; SELECT field FROM table WHERE ID = "40" FOR UPDATE; I can effectively block the web form from accessing record "40" and get the timeout warning. I have tried using BEGIN instead of START TRANSACTION. I have tried doing SET AUTOCOMMIT=0 first and starting the transaction after locking but I cannot seem to lock the row from the PHP code. Since I can lock the row from the command line I do not think there is a problem with how the database is set up. I am really hoping that there is some simple something that I have missed in my reading. FYI, I am developing on XAMPP version 1.7.3 which has Apache 2.2.14, MySQL 5.1.41 and PHP 5.3.1. Thanks in advance. This is my first time posting but I have gleaned alot of knowledge from this site in the past.

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  • Flex DataGridColumn with array of objects as data provider

    - by rforte
    I have a datagrid that uses an array of objects as the data provider. The objects are essentially key/value pairs: { foo:"something"} { bar:"hello"} { caca:"lorem"} The datagrid has 2 columns. The first column is the key and the second column is the value. Right now my grid looks like: My dataFormatter function makes sure that depending on the column (i.e. the dataField value) the correct key or value gets printed out. This works fine for displaying. However, as soon as I try and edit the value field it essentially adds a new value into the object with a key of '1'. For example, if I edit the {caca:"lorem"} object it will then contain the value {caca:"lorem",1:"new value"}. Is there any possible way I can set the DataGridColumn so that when I edit a value it will update the value associated with the key rather than inserting a new value? I've tried using a custom item editor but it still does the insert. It seems like I need to be able to update the 'dataField' with the actual key value but I'm not sure how to do that.

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  • What is best practice about having one-many hibernate

    - by Patrick
    Hi all, I believe this is a common scenario. Say I have a one-many mapping in hibernate Category has many Item Category: @OneToMany( cascade = {CascadeType.ALL},fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name="category_id") @Cascade( value = org.hibernate.annotations.CascadeType.DELETE_ORPHAN ) private List<Item> items; Item: @ManyToOne(targetEntity=Category.class,fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinColumn(name="category_id",insertable=false,updatable=false) private Category category; All works fine. I use Category to fully control Item's life cycle. But, when I am writing code to update Category, first I get Category out from DB. Then pass it to UI. User fill in altered values for Category and pass back. Here comes the problem. Because I only pass around Category information not Item. Therefore the Item collection will be empty. When I call saveOrUpdate, it will clean out all associations. Any suggestion on what's best to address this? I think the advantage of having Category controls Item is to easily main the order of Item and not to confuse bi-directly. But what about situation that you do want to just update Category it self? Load it first and merge? Thank you.

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