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  • check if directory exists c#

    - by Ant
    I am trying to see if a directory exists based on an input field from the user. When the user types in the path, I want to check if the path actually exists. I have some c# code already. It returns 1 for any local path, but always returns 0 when I am checking a network path. static string checkValidPath(string path) { //Insert your code that runs under the security context of the authenticating user here. using (ImpersonateUser user = new ImpersonateUser(user, "", password)) { //DirectoryInfo d = new DirectoryInfo(quotelessPath); bool doesExist = Directory.Exists(path); //if (d.Exists) if(doesExist) { user.Dispose(); return "1"; } else { user.Dispose(); return "0"; } } } public class ImpersonateUser : IDisposable { [DllImport("advapi32.dll", SetLastError = true)] private static extern bool LogonUser(string lpszUsername, string lpszDomain, string lpszPassword, int dwLogonType, int dwLogonProvider, out IntPtr phToken); [DllImport("kernel32", SetLastError = true)] private static extern bool CloseHandle(IntPtr hObject); private IntPtr userHandle = IntPtr.Zero; private WindowsImpersonationContext impersonationContext; public ImpersonateUser(string user, string domain, string password) { if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(user)) { // Call LogonUser to get a token for the user bool loggedOn = LogonUser(user, domain, password, 9 /*(int)LogonType.LOGON32_LOGON_NEW_CREDENTIALS*/, 3 /*(int)LogonProvider.LOGON32_PROVIDER_WINNT50*/, out userHandle); if (!loggedOn) throw new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()); // Begin impersonating the user impersonationContext = WindowsIdentity.Impersonate(userHandle); } } public void Dispose() { if (userHandle != IntPtr.Zero) CloseHandle(userHandle); if (impersonationContext != null) impersonationContext.Undo(); } } Any help is appreciated. Thanks! EDIT 3: updated code to use BrokenGlass's impersonation functions. However, I need to initialize "password" to something... EDIT 2: I updated the code to try and use impersonation as suggested below. It still fails everytime. I assume I am using impersonation improperly... EDIT: As requested by ChrisF, here is the function that calls the checkValidPath function. Frontend aspx file... $.get('processor.ashx', { a: '7', path: x }, function(o) { alert(o); if (o=="0") { $("#outputPathDivValid").dialog({ title: 'Output Path is not valid! Please enter a path that exists!', width: 500, modal: true, resizable: false, buttons: { 'Close': function() { $(this).dialog('close'); } } }); } }); Backend ashx file... public void ProcessRequest (HttpContext context) { context.Response.Cache.SetExpires(DateTime.Now); string sSid = context.Request["sid"]; switch (context.Request["a"]) {//a bunch of case statements here... case "7": context.Response.Write(checkValidPath(context.Request["path"].ToString())); break;

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  • How do I handle the Maybe result of at in Control.Lens.Indexed without a Monoid instance

    - by Matthias Hörmann
    I recently discovered the lens package on Hackage and have been trying to make use of it now in a small test project that might turn into a MUD/MUSH server one very distant day if I keep working on it. Here is a minimized version of my code illustrating the problem I am facing right now with the at lenses used to access Key/Value containers (Data.Map.Strict in my case) {-# LANGUAGE OverloadedStrings, GeneralizedNewtypeDeriving, TemplateHaskell #-} module World where import Control.Applicative ((<$>),(<*>), pure) import Control.Lens import Data.Map.Strict (Map) import qualified Data.Map.Strict as DM import Data.Maybe import Data.UUID import Data.Text (Text) import qualified Data.Text as T import System.Random (Random, randomIO) newtype RoomId = RoomId UUID deriving (Eq, Ord, Show, Read, Random) newtype PlayerId = PlayerId UUID deriving (Eq, Ord, Show, Read, Random) data Room = Room { _roomId :: RoomId , _roomName :: Text , _roomDescription :: Text , _roomPlayers :: [PlayerId] } deriving (Eq, Ord, Show, Read) makeLenses ''Room data Player = Player { _playerId :: PlayerId , _playerDisplayName :: Text , _playerLocation :: RoomId } deriving (Eq, Ord, Show, Read) makeLenses ''Player data World = World { _worldRooms :: Map RoomId Room , _worldPlayers :: Map PlayerId Player } deriving (Eq, Ord, Show, Read) makeLenses ''World mkWorld :: IO World mkWorld = do r1 <- Room <$> randomIO <*> (pure "The Singularity") <*> (pure "You are standing in the only place in the whole world") <*> (pure []) p1 <- Player <$> randomIO <*> (pure "testplayer1") <*> (pure $ r1^.roomId) let rooms = at (r1^.roomId) ?~ (set roomPlayers [p1^.playerId] r1) $ DM.empty players = at (p1^.playerId) ?~ p1 $ DM.empty in do return $ World rooms players viewPlayerLocation :: World -> PlayerId -> RoomId viewPlayerLocation world playerId= view (worldPlayers.at playerId.traverse.playerLocation) world Since rooms, players and similar objects are referenced all over the code I store them in my World state type as maps of Ids (newtyped UUIDs) to their data objects. To retrieve those with lenses I need to handle the Maybe returned by the at lens (in case the key is not in the map this is Nothing) somehow. In my last line I tried to do this via traverse which does typecheck as long as the final result is an instance of Monoid but this is not generally the case. Right here it is not because playerLocation returns a RoomId which has no Monoid instance. No instance for (Data.Monoid.Monoid RoomId) arising from a use of `traverse' Possible fix: add an instance declaration for (Data.Monoid.Monoid RoomId) In the first argument of `(.)', namely `traverse' In the second argument of `(.)', namely `traverse . playerLocation' In the second argument of `(.)', namely `at playerId . traverse . playerLocation' Since the Monoid is required by traverse only because traverse generalizes to containers of sizes greater than one I was now wondering if there is a better way to handle this that does not require semantically nonsensical Monoid instances on all types possibly contained in one my objects I want to store in the map. Or maybe I misunderstood the issue here completely and I need to use a completely different bit of the rather large lens package?

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  • Specializing a template on a lambda in C++0x

    - by Tony A.
    I've written a traits class that lets me extract information about the arguments and type of a function or function object in C++0x (tested with gcc 4.5.0). The general case handles function objects: template <typename F> struct function_traits { template <typename R, typename... A> struct _internal { }; template <typename R, typename... A> struct _internal<R (F::*)(A...)> { // ... }; typedef typename _internal<decltype(&F::operator())>::<<nested types go here>>; }; Then I have a specialization for plain functions at global scope: template <typename R, typename... A> struct function_traits<R (*)(A...)> { // ... }; This works fine, I can pass a function into the template or a function object and it works properly: template <typename F> void foo(F f) { typename function_traits<F>::whatever ...; } int f(int x) { ... } foo(f); What if, instead of passing a function or function object into foo, I want to pass a lambda expression? foo([](int x) { ... }); The problem here is that neither specialization of function_traits<> applies. The C++0x draft says that the type of the expression is a "unique, unnamed, non-union class type". Demangling the result of calling typeid(...).name() on the expression gives me what appears to be gcc's internal naming convention for the lambda, main::{lambda(int)#1}, not something that syntactically represents a C++ typename. In short, is there anything I can put into the template here: template <typename R, typename... A> struct function_traits<????> { ... } that will allow this traits class to accept a lambda expression?

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  • Feedback on Optimizing C# NET Code Block

    - by Brett Powell
    I just spent quite a few hours reading up on TCP servers and my desired protocol I was trying to implement, and finally got everything working great. I noticed the code looks like absolute bollocks (is the the correct usage? Im not a brit) and would like some feedback on optimizing it, mostly for reuse and readability. The packet formats are always int, int, int, string, string. try { BinaryReader reader = new BinaryReader(clientStream); int packetsize = reader.ReadInt32(); int requestid = reader.ReadInt32(); int serverdata = reader.ReadInt32(); Console.WriteLine("Packet Size: {0} RequestID: {1} ServerData: {2}", packetsize, requestid, serverdata); List<byte> str = new List<byte>(); byte nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); while (nextByte != 0) { str.Add(nextByte); nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); } // Password Sent to be Authenticated string string1 = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(str.ToArray()); str.Clear(); nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); while (nextByte != 0) { str.Add(nextByte); nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); } // NULL string string string2 = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(str.ToArray()); Console.WriteLine("String1: {0} String2: {1}", string1, string2); // Reply to Authentication Request MemoryStream stream = new MemoryStream(); BinaryWriter writer = new BinaryWriter(stream); writer.Write((int)(1)); // Packet Size writer.Write((int)(requestid)); // Mirror RequestID if Authenticated, -1 if Failed byte[] buffer = stream.ToArray(); clientStream.Write(buffer, 0, buffer.Length); clientStream.Flush(); } I am going to be dealing with other packet types as well that are formatted the same (int/int/int/str/str), but different values. I could probably create a packet class, but this is a bit outside my scope of knowledge for how to apply it to this scenario. If it makes any difference, this is the Protocol I am implementing. http://developer.valvesoftware.com/wiki/Source_RCON_Protocol

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  • Use format strings that contain %1, %2 etc. instead of %d, %s etc. - Linux, C++

    - by rursw1
    Hello, As a follow-up of this question (Message compiler replacement in Linux gcc), I have the following problem: When using MC.exe on Windows for compiling and generating messages, within the C++ code I call FormatMessage, which retrieves the message and uses the va_list *Arguments parameter to send the varied message arguments. For example: messages.mc file: MessageId=1 Severity=Error SymbolicName=MULTIPLE_MESSAGE_OCCURED Language=English message %1 occured %2 times. . C++ code: void GetMsg(unsigned int errCode, wstring& message,unsigned int paramNumber, ...) { HLOCAL msg; DWORD ret; LANGID lang = GetUserDefaultLangID(); try { va_list argList; va_start( argList, paramNumber ); const TCHAR* dll = L"MyDll.dll"; _hModule = GetModuleHandle(dll); ret =::FormatMessage( FORMAT_MESSAGE_ALLOCATE_BUFFER | FORMAT_MESSAGE_FROM_HMODULE|FORMAT_MESSAGE_IGNORE_INSERTS, _hModule, errCode, lang, (LPTSTR) &msg, 0, &argList ); if ( 0 != ret ) { unsigned int count = 0 ; message = msg; if (paramNumber>0) { wstring::const_iterator iter; for (iter = message.begin();iter!=message.end();iter++) { wchar_t xx = *iter; if (xx ==L'%') count++; } } if ((count == paramNumber) && (count >0)) { ::LocalFree( msg ); ret =::FormatMessage( FORMAT_MESSAGE_ALLOCATE_BUFFER | FORMAT_MESSAGE_FROM_HMODULE, _hModule, errCode, GetUserDefaultLangID(), (LPTSTR) &msg, 0, &argList ); } else if (count != paramNumber) { wstringstream tmp; wstring messNumber; tmp << (errCode & 0xFFFF); tmp >> messNumber; message = message +L"("+ messNumber + L"). Bad Format String. "; } } ::LocalFree( msg ); } catch (...) { message << L"last error: " << GetLastError(); } va_end( argList ); } Caller code: wstring message; GetMsg(MULTIPLE_MESSAGE_OCCURED, message,2, "Error message", 5); Now, I wrote a simple script to generate a .msg file from the .mc file, and then I use gencat to generate a catalog from it. But is there a way to use the formatted strings as they contain %1, %2, etc. and NOT the general (%d, %s...) format? Please note, that the solution has to be generic enough for each possible message with each posible types\ arguments order... Is it possible at all? Thank you.

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  • Casting to derived type problem in C++

    - by GONeale
    Hey there everyone, I am quite new to C++, but have worked with C# for years, however it is not helping me here! :) My problem: I have an Actor class which Ball and Peg both derive from on an objective-c iphone game I am working on. As I am testing for collision, I wish to set an instance of Ball and Peg appropriately depending on the actual runtime type of actorA or actorB. My code that tests this as follows: // Actors that collided Actor *actorA = (Actor*) bodyA->GetUserData(); Actor *actorB = (Actor*) bodyB->GetUserData(); Ball* ball; Peg* peg; if (static_cast<Ball*> (actorA)) { // true ball = static_cast<Ball*> (actorA); } else if (static_cast<Ball*> (actorB)) { ball = static_cast<Ball*> (actorB); } if (static_cast<Peg*> (actorA)) { // also true?! peg = static_cast<Peg*> (actorA); } else if (static_cast<Peg*> (actorB)) { peg = static_cast<Peg*> (actorB); } if (peg != NULL) { [peg hitByBall]; } Once ball and peg are set, I then proceed to run the hitByBall method (objective c). Where my problem really lies is in the casting procedurel Ball casts fine from actorA; the first if (static_cast<>) statement steps in and sets the ball pointer appropriately. The second step is to assign the appropriate type to peg. I know peg should be a Peg type and I previously know it will be actorB, however at runtime, detecting the types, I was surprised to find actually the third if (static_cast<>) statement stepped in and set this, this if statement was to check if actorA was a Peg, which we already know actorA is a Ball! Why would it have stepped here and not in the fourth if statement? The only thing I can assume is how casting works differently from c# and that is it finds that actorA which is actually of type Ball derives from Actor and then it found when static_cast<Peg*> (actorA) is performed it found Peg derives from Actor too, so this is a valid test? This could all come down to how I have misunderstood the use of static_cast. How can I achieve what I need? :) I'm really uneasy about what feels to me like a long winded brute-casting attempt here with a ton of ridiculous if statements. I'm sure there is a more elegant way to achieve a simple cast to Peg and cast to Ball dependent on actual type held in actorA and actorB. Hope someone out there can help! :) Thanks a lot.

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  • CoreGraphics taking a while to show on a large view - can i get it to repeat pixels?

    - by Andrew
    This is my coregraphics code: void drawTopPaperBackground(CGContextRef context, CGRect rect) { CGRect paper3 = CGRectMake(10, 14, 300, rect.size.height - 14); CGRect paper2 = CGRectMake(13, 12, 294, rect.size.height - 12); CGRect paper1 = CGRectMake(16, 10, 288, rect.size.height - 10); //Shadow CGContextSetShadowWithColor(context, CGSizeMake(0,0), 10, [[UIColor colorWithWhite:0 alpha:0.5]CGColor]); CGPathRef path = createRoundedRectForRect(paper3, 0); CGContextSetFillColorWithColor(context, [[UIColor blackColor] CGColor]); CGContextAddPath(context, path); CGContextFillPath(context); //Layers of paper //CGContextSaveGState(context); drawPaper(context, paper3); drawPaper(context, paper2); drawPaper(context, paper1); //CGContextRestoreGState(context); } void drawPaper(CGContextRef context, CGRect rect) { //Shadow CGContextSaveGState(context); CGContextSetShadowWithColor(context, CGSizeMake(0,0), 1, [[UIColor colorWithWhite:0 alpha:0.5]CGColor]); CGPathRef path = createRoundedRectForRect(rect, 0); CGContextSetFillColorWithColor(context, [[UIColor blackColor] CGColor]); CGContextAddPath(context, path); CGContextFillPath(context); //CGContextRestoreGState(context); //Gradient //CGContextSaveGState(context); CGColorRef startColor = [UIColor colorWithWhite:0.92 alpha:1.0].CGColor; CGColorRef endColor = [UIColor colorWithWhite:0.94 alpha:1.0].CGColor; CGRect firstHalf = CGRectMake(rect.origin.x, rect.origin.y, rect.size.width / 2, rect.size.height); CGRect secondHalf = CGRectMake(rect.origin.x + (rect.size.width / 2), rect.origin.y, rect.size.width / 2, rect.size.height); drawVerticalGradient(context, firstHalf, startColor, endColor); drawVerticalGradient(context, secondHalf, endColor, startColor); //CGContextRestoreGState(context); //CGContextSaveGState(context); CGRect redRect = rectForRectWithInset(rect, -1); CGMutablePathRef redPath = createRoundedRectForRect(redRect, 0); //CGContextSaveGState(context); CGContextSetStrokeColorWithColor(context, [[UIColor blackColor] CGColor]); CGContextAddPath(context, path); CGContextClip(context); CGContextAddPath(context, redPath); CGContextSetShadowWithColor(context, CGSizeMake(0, 0), 15.0, [[UIColor colorWithWhite:0 alpha:0.1] CGColor]); CGContextStrokePath(context); CGContextRestoreGState(context); } The view is a UIScrollView, which contains a textview. Every time the user types something and goes onto a new line, I call [self setNeedsDisplay]; and it redraws the code. But when the view starts to get long - around 1000 height, it has very noticeable lag. How can i make this code more efficient? Can i take a line of pixels and make it just repeat that, or stretch it, all the way down?

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  • Can I write a test that succeeds if and only if a statement does not compile?

    - by Billy ONeal
    I'd like to prevent clients of my class from doing something stupid. To that end, I have used the type system, and made my class only accept specific types as input. Consider the following example (Not real code, I've left off things like virtual destructors for the sake of example): class MyDataChunk { //Look Ma! Implementation! }; class Sink; class Source { virtual void Run() = 0; Sink *next_; void SetNext(Sink *next) { next_ = next; } }; class Sink { virtual void GiveMeAChunk(const MyDataChunk& data) { //Impl }; }; class In { virtual void Run { //Impl } }; class Out { }; //Note how filter and sorter have the same declaration. Concrete classes //will inherit from them. The seperate names are there to ensure only //that some idiot doesn't go in and put in a filter where someone expects //a sorter, etc. class Filter : public Source, public Sink { //Drop objects from the chain-of-command pattern that don't match a particular //criterion. }; class Sorter : public Source, public Sink { //Sorts inputs to outputs. There are different sorters because someone might //want to sort by filename, size, date, etc... }; class MyClass { In i; Out o; Filter f; Sorter s; public: //Functions to set i, o, f, and s void Execute() { i.SetNext(f); f.SetNext(s); s.SetNext(o); i.Run(); } }; What I don't want is for somebody to come back later and go, "Hey, look! Sorter and Filter have the same signature. I can make a common one that does both!", thus breaking the semantic difference MyClass requires. Is this a common kind of requirement, and if so, how might I implement a test for it?

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  • Having trouble wrapping functions in the linux kernel

    - by Corey Henderson
    I've written a LKM that implements Trusted Path Execution (TPE) into your kernel: https://github.com/cormander/tpe-lkm I run into an occasional kernel OOPS (describe at the end of this question) when I define WRAP_SYSCALLS to 1, and am at my wit's end trying to track it down. A little background: Since the LSM framework doesn't export its symbols, I had to get creative with how I insert the TPE checking into the running kernel. I wrote a find_symbol_address() function that gives me the address of any function I need, and it works very well. I can call functions like this: int (*my_printk)(const char *fmt, ...); my_printk = find_symbol_address("printk"); (*my_printk)("Hello, world!\n"); And it works fine. I use this method to locate the security_file_mmap, security_file_mprotect, and security_bprm_check functions. I then overwrite those functions with an asm jump to my function to do the TPE check. The problem is, the currently loaded LSM will no longer execute the code for it's hook to that function, because it's been totally hijacked. Here is an example of what I do: int tpe_security_bprm_check(struct linux_binprm *bprm) { int ret = 0; if (bprm->file) { ret = tpe_allow_file(bprm->file); if (IS_ERR(ret)) goto out; } #if WRAP_SYSCALLS stop_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); ret = cs_security_bprm_check.ptr(bprm); start_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); #endif out: return ret; } Notice the section between the #if WRAP_SYSCALLS section (it's defined as 0 by default). If set to 1, the LSM's hook is called because I write the original code back over the asm jump and call that function, but I run into an occasional kernel OOPS with an "invalid opcode": invalid opcode: 0000 [#1] SMP RIP: 0010:[<ffffffff8117b006>] [<ffffffff8117b006>] security_bprm_check+0x6/0x310 I don't know what the issue is. I've tried several different types of locking methods (see the inside of start/stop_my_code for details) to no avail. To trigger the kernel OOPS, write a simple bash while loop that endlessly starts a backgrounded "ls" command. After a minute or so, it'll happen. I'm testing this on a RHEL6 kernel, also works on Ubuntu 10.04 LTS (2.6.32 x86_64). While this method has been the most successful so far, I have tried another method of simply copying the kernel function to a pointer I created with kmalloc but when I try to execute it, I get: kernel tried to execute NX-protected page - exploit attempt? (uid: 0). If anyone can tell me how to kmalloc space and have it marked as executable, that would also help me solve the above problem. Any help is appreciated!

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  • changing restriction on simple type in extended complex type

    - by rotary_engine
    I am trying to create a schema that has 2 address types. The first AdressType requires an element Line 1 to have a value at least 10 characters. The second type OtherAdressType derives from this with the same elements, but does not require a value for Line 1. I've tried different ways but always get schema errors, this error is: Invalid particle derivation by restriction - 'Derived element '{namespace}:Line1' is not a valid restriction of base element '{namespace}:Line1' according to Elt:Elt -- NameAndTypeOK.'. If I add a type xs:string to OtherAdressType:Line1 then I get other errors. <xs:complexType name="AdressType"> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="Line1" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1"> <xs:simpleType> <xs:restriction base="xs:string"> <xs:minLength value="10" /> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> </xs:element> <xs:element name="Line2" type="xs:string" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1" /> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> <xs:complexType name="OtherAdressType"> <xs:complexContent> <xs:restriction base="AdressType"> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="Line1" nillable="true"> <xs:simpleType> <xs:restriction base="xs:string"> <xs:minLength value="0" /> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> </xs:element> <xs:element name="Line2" type="xs:string" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1" /> </xs:sequence> </xs:restriction> </xs:complexContent> </xs:complexType>

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  • Loading datasets from datastore and merge into single dictionary. Resource problem.

    - by fredrik
    Hi, I have a productdatabase that contains products, parts and labels for each part based on langcodes. The problem I'm having and haven't got around is a huge amount of resource used to get the different datasets and merging them into a dict to suit my needs. The products in the database are based on a number of parts that is of a certain type (ie. color, size). And each part has a label for each language. I created 4 different models for this. Products, ProductParts, ProductPartTypes and ProductPartLabels. I've narrowed it down to about 10 lines of code that seams to generate the problem. As of currently I have 3 Products, 3 Types, 3 parts for each type, and 2 languages. And the request takes a wooping 5500ms to generate. for product in productData: productDict = {} typeDict = {} productDict['productName'] = product.name cache_key = 'productparts_%s' % (slugify(product.key())) partData = memcache.get(cache_key) if not partData: for type in typeData: typeDict[type.typeId] = { 'default' : '', 'optional' : [] } ## Start of problem lines ## for defaultPart in product.defaultPartsData: for label in labelsForLangCode: if label.key() in defaultPart.partLabelList: typeDict[defaultPart.type.typeId]['default'] = label.partLangLabel for optionalPart in product.optionalPartsData: for label in labelsForLangCode: if label.key() in optionalPart.partLabelList: typeDict[optionalPart.type.typeId]['optional'].append(label.partLangLabel) ## end problem lines ## memcache.add(cache_key, typeDict, 500) partData = memcache.get(cache_key) productDict['parts'] = partData productList.append(productDict) I guess the problem lies in the number of for loops is too many and have to iterate over the same data over and over again. labelForLangCode get all labels from ProductPartLabels that match the current langCode. All parts for a product is stored in a db.ListProperty(db.key). The same goes for all labels for a part. The reason I need the some what complex dict is that I want to display all data for a product with it's default parts and show a selector for the optional one. The defaultPartsData and optionaPartsData are properties in the Product Model that looks like this: @property def defaultPartsData(self): return ProductParts.gql('WHERE __key__ IN :key', key = self.defaultParts) @property def optionalPartsData(self): return ProductParts.gql('WHERE __key__ IN :key', key = self.optionalParts) When the completed dict is in the memcache it works smoothly, but isn't the memcache reset if the application goes in to hibernation? Also I would like to show the page for first time user(memcache empty) with out the enormous delay. Also as I said above, this is only a small amount of parts/product. What will the result be when it's 30 products with 100 parts. Is one solution to create a scheduled task to cache it in the memcache every hour? It this efficient? I know this is alot to take in, but I'm stuck. I've been at this for about 12 hours straight. And can't figure out a solution. ..fredrik

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  • How do you programmatically set a Style on a View?

    - by Greg
    I would like to do something like this: <Button android:id="@+id/button" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_cotent" style="@style/SubmitButtonType" /> But in code The xml approach works fine provided that SubmitButtonType is defined. Now what I assume happens is that the appt parser runs through this xml, generates an AttributeSet. That AttributeSet when passed to context/theme#obtainStyledAttributes() will have the style ref mask anything that is not written inline in this tag. Great that's fine! Now how do we do this programmatically. Button, as well as other View types, has a constructor that has the form: <Widget>(Context context, AttributeSet set, int defStyle). So I thought this would work. Button button = new Button(context, null, R.style.SubmitButtonType); However, I am finding that defStyle is badly documented as it really should be written to be a resourceId to an attribute (from R.attrs) that will be passed to obtainStyledAttributes() as the attribute resource, and not the style resource. After looking at the code, all the view implementations seem to pass 0 as the styleRef. I don't see the harm in having it passed as both the attr and the style resource (more flexible and negligible overhead) However I might be approaching this all wrong. How do you do this in code then other than by setting each individual element of the style to the specific widget you want to style (only possible by looking a the code to see what param maps to which method or set of methods). The only way I have found to do this is: <declare-styleable> <attr name="totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case" format="reference"> </declare-styleable> <style name="MyAlreadyExistantTheme" > ... ... <item name="totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case">@style/SubmitButtonType</item> </style> And instead of passing R.style.SubmitButtonType as defStyle, I pass the new R.attr.totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case. Button button = new Button(context, null, R.attr.totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case); This works but sounds way too complicated.

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  • Why does Rails with Passenger/nginx only works in development mode? No logs available

    - by Michael W.
    Hey folks, I have a serious problem with one of our webservers... after having an internal alpha-testing with a mongrel/haproxy-cluster that worked well, we wanted to use nginx with passenger for our first production server (customers will access this server). However, I can only run the rails app via development mode with passenger/nginx. The app itself runs perfect with mongrel or webrick in production mode. My biggest problem with this case is that I don't find ANY information in the nginx or rails-logs (only when I use mongrel or webrick). Permissions are correct. Passenger-status shows that the app is running, but I always get the static 500.html-error page... It would be so nice if you guys could give me a hint and help me solve the problem. I put the config at the bottom of the post... This exact config works with rails_env development;but I'd like to use the production mode ;-) Thank you very much for your help! Version: Ubuntu 8.04.2 64bit / nginx-0.7.64 (compiled and installed via passenger-2.2.11) cat /opt/nginx/conf/nginx.conf user www-data; worker_processes 4; error_log logs/error.log; #pid logs/nginx.pid; events { worker_connections 1024; } http { passenger_root /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/passenger-2.2.11; passenger_ruby /usr/bin/ruby1.8; passenger_log_level 3; include mime.types; default_type application/octet-stream; #log_format main '$remote_addr - $remote_user [$time_local] "$request" ' # '$status $body_bytes_sent "$http_referer" ' # '"$http_user_agent" "$http_x_forwarded_for"'; access_log logs/access.log; sendfile on; #tcp_nopush on; #keepalive_timeout 0; keepalive_timeout 65; #gzip on; server { listen 80; server_name <<servername>>; root /srv/app01/public; passenger_enabled on; }

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  • current_user.user_type_id = @employer ID

    - by sscirrus
    I am building a system with a User model (authenticated using AuthLogic) and three user types in three models: one of these models is Employer. Each of these three models has_many :users, :as = :authenticable. I start by having a new visitor to the site create their own 'User' record with username, password, which user type they are, etc. Upon creation, the user is sent to the 'new' action for one of the three models. So, if they tell us they are an employer, we redirect_to :controller = "employers, :action = "new". Question: When the employer has submitted, I want to set the current_user.user_type_id equal to the employer ID. This should be simple... but it's not working. # Employers Controller / new def new @employer = Employer.new 1.times {@employer.addresses.build} render :layout => 'forms' end # Employers Controller / create def create @employer = Employer.new(params[:employer]) if @employer.save if current_user.blank? redirect_to :controller => "users", :action => "new" else current_user.user_type_id = @employer.id current_user.user_type = "Employer" redirect_to :action => "home", :id => current_user.user_type_id end else render :action => "new" end end ------UPDATE------ Hi guys. In response: I am using this table structure because each of my three user type models have lots of different fields and each has different relationships to the other models, which is why I've avoided STI. By 1.times (@employer.addresses.build) I'm connecting the employer model to the address polymorphic table in one form, so I'm asking the controller to build a new address to go along with the new employer. Averell: you mentioned encapsulating... something in the model using a 'setter' method. I have no idea what you mean by this - could you please explain how this works (or direct me to an example elsewhere)? With tsdbrown's answer I have managed to create the behavior I want... if there's a more elegant way to accomplish the same thing I'd love to learn how. Thanks very much. Thanks to tsdbrown for answering the current_user.save problem!

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  • Working with Multiple Layers - KineticJS

    - by Bruno Sampaio
    I'm using KineticJS 4.0.5 and I'm currently trying to draw the contents of several layers but only the last one added to stage is drawn... If I understood the documentation correctly this should be possible, otherwise why would we need a layer? I have three different layers: a background layer with just a Kinectic.Rect object; a elements layer with several types of shapes; and a top layer with elements I want to be always on top of everything. I populate those layers inside a draw function I have inside a object I created, this object also has a shape attribute which refers to the background and a contents attribute with the elements to add to the elements layer. My code for the draw function is the following: this.draw = function() { var stage = E.game.stage, layers = E.game.layers; stage.clear(); // Add Background this.shape.setSize(stage.getWidth(), stage.getHeight()); layers.background.add(this.shape); // Iterate over contents for(var i = 0; i < this.contents.length; i++) { layers.elements.add(this.contents[i].shape); } // Draw Everything stage.add(layers.background); stage.add(layers.elements); stage.add(layers.top); // This one is currently empty stage.draw(); } After running this function, only layers.top is drawn in the canvas, and if I comment the line where it is added only layers.elements is drawn. However the stage has 3 childrens (I checked it with inspect element on chrome) and in the documentation it says the draw function draws all layers... Am I doing something wrong here? Or it isn't possible? And if it's not possible why would I need a layer and a stage? Wouldn't one be enough? Thank you in advance. Edit: I was able to solve the problem, I was applying a white background color with css to the canvas element and since each layer creates a new canvas element above the others I could only see the contents for the top most layer (in this case just white). However, I still have a problem related with multiple layers that I didn't have before with just one layer. When I use the clear function on the stage it should clear the layers right? But instead the layers remain exactly the same, even if I try to call clear on each individual layer they won't change... I'm also using the stage draw function after clearing them but still no changes at all... The only solution I found until now was by removing the layer from the stage and adding it again :s Is there a better way to reset the layers contents? Thank you again and sorry for the confusion with the first question.

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  • Generate A Simple Read-Only DAL?

    - by David
    I've been looking around for a simple solution to this, trying my best to lean towards something like NHibernate, but so far everything I've found seems to be trying to solve a slightly different problem. Here's what I'm looking at in my current project: We have an IBM iSeries database as a primary repository for a third party software suite used for our core business (a financial institution). Part of what my team does is write applications that report on or key off of a lot of this data in some way. In the past, we've been manually creating ADO .NET connections (we're using .NET 3.5 and Visual Studio 2008, by the way) and manually writing queries, etc. Moving forward, I'd like to simplify the process of getting data from there for the development team. Rather than creating connections and queries and all that each time, I'd much rather a developer be able to simply do something like this: var something = (from t in TableName select t); And, ideally, they'd just get some IQueryable or IEnumerable of generated entities. This would be done inside a new domain core that I'm building where these entities would live and the applications would interface with it through a request/response service layer. A few things to note are: The entities that correspond to the database tables should be generated once and we'd prefer to manually keep them updated over time. That is, if columns/tables are added to the database then we shouldn't have to do anything. (If some are deleted, of course, it will break, but that's fine.) But if we need to use a new column, we should be able to just add it to the necessary class(es) without having to re-gen the whole thing. The whole thing should be SELECT-only. We're not doing a full DAL here because we don't want to be able to break anything in the database (even accidentally). We don't need any kind of mapping between our domain objects and the generated entity types. The domain barely covers a fraction of the data that's in there, most of it we'll never need, and we would rather just create re-usable maps manually over time. I already have a logical separation for the DAL where my "repository" classes return domain objects, I'm just looking for a better alternative to manual ADO to be used inside the repository classes. Any suggestions? It seems like what I'm doing is just enough outside the normal demand for DAL/ORM tools/tutorials online that I haven't been able to find anything. Or maybe I'm just overlooking something obvious?

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  • Change Label Control Property Based on Data from SqlDataSource Inside a Repeater

    - by Furqan Muhammad Khan
    I am using a repeater control to populate data from SqlDataSource into my custom designed display-box. <asp:Repeater ID="Repeater1" runat="server" DataSourceID="SqlDataSource1" OnDataBinding="Repeater_ItemDataBound"> <HeaderTemplate> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <div class="bubble-content"> <div style="float: left;"> <h2 class="bubble-content-title"><%# Eval("CommentTitle") %></h2> </div> <div style="text-align: right;"> <asp:Label ID="lbl_category" runat="server" Text=""><%# Eval("CommentType") %> </asp:Label> </div> <div style="float: left;"> <p><%# Eval("CommentContent") %></p> </div> </div> </ItemTemplate> <FooterTemplate> </FooterTemplate> </asp:Repeater> <asp:SqlDataSource ID="mySqlDataSource" runat="server" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:myConnectionString %>" SelectCommand="SELECT [CommentTitle],[CommentType],[CommentContent] FROM [Comments] WHERE ([PostId] = @PostId)"> <SelectParameters> <asp:QueryStringParameter Name="PostId" QueryStringField="id" Type="String" /> </SelectParameters> </asp:SqlDataSource> Now, there can be three types of "CommentTypes" in the database. I want to change the CssClass property of "lbl_category" based on the value of [CommentType]. I tried doing this: <asp:Label ID="lbl_category" runat="server" CssClass="<%# Eval("CommentType") %>" Text=""><%# Eval("CommentType") %></asp:Label> But this gives an error: "The server control is not well formed" and haven't been able to find a way to achieve this in the code behind. Can someone please help?

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  • I have to do two seemingly mutually exclusive things on leaving an asp:textbox. Please help me get

    - by aape
    This project has gone from being a simple '99 Ford F-150 to the Homer. I've got controls with a gridview with textboxes for data entry. All the user controls on the pages are in AJAX updatepanels. User types in a database column or budget entity or some other financial thing they want to include in the report. The textboxes in the gridview have autopostback = true set. overly long background info When the user leaves the textbox, during the postback (triggered by onTextChanged) I do some validation back on the server on their entry - regexs, do they have rights to that column, is that column locked, etc. If it fails, I put a error message next to the textbox. If it passes, I wipe out any title or error that used to be next to the code. Focus is getting lost from the postback if they're tabbing out of the box, rather than going to the next textbox in the gridview. So to fix that I need, if their leaving the tb via the tab key, to also figure out what textbox or gridviewrow they're on, if they're not on the last row, and after the validation and labeling, put the focus on the textbox in the next row. I can't figure out how, in ontextchanged, to find what caused me to leave the textbox, so I'm thinking use javascript onkeyup to test the key pressed and then find the next box etc, but the ontextchanged fires first and then the js never does, and also, since the control is all AJAXed, the javascript can't find the textboxes because when you enter the page everything is collapsed (the requirements people loooove to collapse and expand things), and so when it's expanded, all the 'new' textboxes are up in the viewstate stuff in the page source, and not down where javascript can see them. The questions So I'm wondering if I can have an onblur in the javascript that can trigger a postback where I can do my validation and such, and either 1) include the keypressed or pick it out of sender in the event or 2) followup the onblur with onkeyup and somehow figure out what textbox is next on the grid and throw focus there. Or, is there another .NET based approach that could work for this? In terms of tearing the whole thing down and starting from scratch, I couldn't sell that to the bosses, I'm past the point of no return as far as that goes.

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  • Is it any loose coupling mechanism in Objective-C + Cocoa like C# delegates or C++Qt signals+slots?

    - by Eye of Hell
    Hello. For a large programs, the standard way to chalenge a complexity is to divide a program code into small objects. Most of the actual programming languages offer this functionality via classes, so is Objective-C. But after source code is separated into small object, the second challenge is to somehow connect them with each over. Standard approaches, supported by most languages are compositon (one object is a member field of another), inheritance, templates (generics) and callbacks. More cryptic techniques include method-level delagates (C#) and signals+slots (C++Qt). I like the delegates / signals idea, since while connecting two objects i can connect individual methods with each over, without objects knowing anything of each over. For C#, it will look like this: var object1 = new CObject1(); var object2 = new CObject2(); object1.SomethingHappened += object2.HandleSomething; In this code, is object1 calls it's SomethingHappened delegate (like a normal method call) the HandleSomething method of object2 will be called. For C++Qt, it will look like this: var object1 = new CObject1(); var object2 = new CObject2(); connect( object1, SIGNAL(SomethingHappened()), object2, SLOT(HandleSomething()) ); The result will be exactly the same. This technique has some advantages and disadvantages, but generally i like it more than interfaces since if program code base grows i can change connections and add new ones without creating tons of interfaces. After examination of Objective-C i havn't found any way to use this technique i like :(. It seems that Objective-C supports message passing perfectly well, but it requres for object1 to have a pointer to object2 in order to pass it a message. If some object needs to be connected to lots of other objects, in Objective-C i will be forced to give him pointers to each of the objects it must be connected. So, the question :). Is it any approach in Objective-C programming that will closely resemble delegate / signal+slot types of connection, not a 'give first object an entire pointer to second object so it can pass a message to it'. Method-level connections are a bit more preferable to me than object-level connection ^_^.

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  • Visual Studio 2010 and Test Driven Development

    - by devoured elysium
    I'm making my first steps in Test Driven Development with Visual Studio. I have some questions regarding how to implement generic classes with VS 2010. First, let's say I want to implement my own version of an ArrayList. I start by creating the following test (I'm using in this case MSTest): [TestMethod] public void Add_10_Items_Remove_10_Items_Check_Size_Is_Zero() { var myArrayList = new MyArrayList<int>(); for (int i = 0; i < 10; ++i) { myArrayList.Add(i); } for (int i = 0; i < 10; ++i) { myArrayList.RemoveAt(0); } int expected = 0; int actual = myArrayList.Size; Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); } I'm using VS 2010 ability to hit ctrl + . and have it implement classes/methods on the go. I have been getting some trouble when implementing generic classes. For example, when I define an .Add(10) method, VS doesn't know if I intend a generic method(as the class is generic) or an Add(int number) method. Is there any way to differentiate this? The same can happen with return types. Let's assume I'm implementing a MyStack stack and I want to test if after I push and element and pop it, the stack is still empty. We all know pop should return something, but usually, the code of this test shouldn't care for it. Visual Studio would then think that pop is a void method, which in fact is not what one would want. How to deal with this? For each method, should I start by making tests that are "very specific" such as is obvious the method should return something so I don't get this kind of ambiguity? Even if not using the result, should I have something like int popValue = myStack.Pop() ? How should I do tests to generic classes? Only test with one generic kind of type? I have been using ints, as they are easy to use, but should I also test with different kinds of objects? How do you usually approach this? I see there is a popular tool called TestDriven for .NET. With VS 2010 release, is it still useful, or a lot of its features are now part of VS 2010, rendering it kinda useless? Thanks

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  • C# Type Casting at Runtimefor Array.SetValue

    - by sprocketonline
    I'm trying to create an array using reflection, and insert values into it. I'm trying to do this for many different types so would like a createAndFillArray function capable of this : Type t1 = typeof(A); Type t2 = typeof(B); double exampleA = 22.5; int exampleB = 43; Array arrA = createAndFillArray(t1, exampleA); Array arrB = createAndFillArray(t2, exampleB); private Array createAndFillArray(Type t, object val){ Array arr = Array.CreateInstance( t, 1); //length 1 in this example only, real-world is of variable length. arr.SetValue( val, 0 ); //this causes the following error: "System.InvalidCastException : Object cannot be stored in an array of this type." return arr; } with the class A being as follows: public class A{ public A(){} private double val; public double Value{ get{ return val; } set{ this.val = value; } } public static implicit operator A(double d){ A a = new A(); a.Value = d; return a; } } and class B being very similar, but with int: public class B{ public B(){} private double val; public double Value{ get{ return val; } set{ this.val = value; } } public static implicit operator B(double d){ B b = new B(); b.Value = d; return b; } } I hoped that the implicit operator would have ensured that the double be converted to class A, or the int to class B, and the error avoided; but this is obviously not so. The above is used in a custom deserialization class, which takes data from a custom data format and fills in the corresponding .Net object properties. I'm doing this via reflection and at runtime, so I think both are unavoidable. I'm targeting the C# 2.0 framework. I've dozens, if not hundreds, of classes similar to A and B, so would prefer to find a solution which improved on the createAndFillArray method rather than a solution which altered these classes.

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  • Is typeid of type name always evaluated at compile time in c++ ?

    - by cyril42e
    I wanted to check that typeid is evaluated at compile time when used with a type name (ie typeid(int), typeid(std::string)...). To do so, I repeated in a loop the comparison of two typeid calls, and compiled it with optimizations enabled, in order to see if the compiler simplified the loop (by looking at the execution time which is 1us when it simplifies instead of 160ms when it does not). And I get strange results, because sometimes the compiler simplifies the code, and sometimes it does not. I use g++ (I tried different 4.x versions), and here is the program: #include <iostream> #include <typeinfo> #include <time.h> class DisplayData {}; class RobotDisplay: public DisplayData {}; class SensorDisplay: public DisplayData {}; class RobotQt {}; class SensorQt {}; timespec tp1, tp2; const int n = 1000000000; int main() { int avg = 0; clock_gettime(CLOCK_REALTIME, &tp1); for(int i = 0; i < n; ++i) { // if (typeid(RobotQt) == typeid(RobotDisplay)) // (1) compile time // if (typeid(SensorQt) == typeid(SensorDisplay)) // (2) compile time if (typeid(RobotQt) == typeid(RobotDisplay) || typeid(SensorQt) == typeid(SensorDisplay)) // (3) not compile time ???!!! avg++; else avg--; } clock_gettime(CLOCK_REALTIME, &tp2); std::cout << "time (" << avg << "): " << (tp2.tv_sec-tp1.tv_sec)*1000000000+(tp2.tv_nsec-tp1.tv_nsec) << " ns" << std::endl; } The conditions in which this problem appear are not clear, but: - if there is no inheritance involved, no problem (always compile time) - if I do only one comparison, no problem - the problem only appears only with a disjunction of comparisons if all the terms are false So is there something I didn't get with how typeid works (is it always supposed to be evaluated at compilation time when used with type names?) or may this be a gcc bug in evaluation or optimization? About the context, I tracked down the problem to this very simplified example, but my goal is to use typeid with template types (as partial function template specialization is not possible). Thanks for your help!

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  • How to send a Java integer in four bytes to another application?

    - by user1468729
    public void routeMessage(byte[] data, int mode) { logger.debug(mode); logger.debug(Integer.toBinaryString(mode)); byte[] message = new byte[8]; ByteBuffer byteBuffer = ByteBuffer.allocate(4); ByteArrayOutputStream baoStream = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); DataOutputStream doStream = new DataOutputStream(baoStream); try { doStream.writeInt(mode); } catch (IOException e) { logger.debug("Error converting mode from integer to bytes.", e); return; } byte [] bytes = baoStream.toByteArray(); bytes[0] = (byte)((mode >>> 24) & 0x000000ff); bytes[1] = (byte)((mode >>> 16) & 0x000000ff); bytes[2] = (byte)((mode >>> 8) & 0x00000ff); bytes[3] = (byte)(mode & 0x000000ff); //bytes = byteBuffer.array(); for (byte b : bytes) { logger.debug(b); } for (int i = 0; i < 4; i++) { //byte tmp = (byte)(mode >> (32 - ((i + 1) * 8))); message[i] = bytes[i]; logger.debug("mode, " + i + ": " + Integer.toBinaryString(message[i])); message[i + 4] = data[i]; } broker.routeMessage(message); } I've tried different ways (as you can see from the commented code) to convert the mode to four bytes to send it via a socket to another application. It works well with integers up to 127 and then again with integers over 256. I believe it has something to do with Java types being signed but don't seem to get it to work. Here are some examples of what the program prints. 127 1111111 0 0 0 127 mode, 0: 0 mode, 1: 0 mode, 2: 0 mode, 3: 1111111 128 10000000 0 0 0 -128 mode, 0: 0 mode, 1: 0 mode, 2: 0 mode, 3: 11111111111111111111111110000000 211 11010011 0 0 0 -45 mode, 0: 0 mode, 1: 0 mode, 2: 0 mode, 3: 11111111111111111111111111010011 306 100110010 0 0 1 50 mode, 0: 0 mode, 1: 0 mode, 2: 1 mode, 3: 110010 How is it suddenly possible for a byte to store 32 bits? How could I fix this?

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  • How to infer the type of a derived class in base class?

    - by enzi
    I want to create a method that allows me to change arbitrary properties of classes that derive from my base class, the result should look like this: SetPropertyValue("size.height", 50); – where size is a property of my derived class and height is a property of size. I'm almost done with my implementation but there's one final obstacle that I want to solve before moving on, to describe this I will first have to explain my implementation a bit: Properties that can be modified are decorated with an attribute There's a method in my base class that searches for all derived classes and their decorated properties For each property I generate a "property modifier", a class that contains 2 delegates: one to set and one to get the value of the property. Property Modifiers are stored in a dictionary, with the name of the property as key In my base class, there is another dictionary that contains all property-modifier-dictionaries, with the Type of the respective class as key. What the SetPropertyValue method does is this: Get the correct property-modifier-dictionary, using the concrete type of the derived class (<- yet to solve) Get the property modifier of the property to change (e.g. of the property size) Use the get or set delegate to modify the property's value Some example code to clarify further: private static Dictionary<RuntimeTypeHandle, object> EditableTypes; //property-modifier-dictionary protected void SetPropertyValue<T>(EditablePropertyMap<T> map, string property, object value) { var property = map[property]; // get the property modifier property.Set((T)this, value); // use the set delegate (encapsulated in a method) } In the above code, T is the Type of the actual (derived) class. I need this type for the get/set delegates. The problem is how to get the EditablePropertyMap<T> when I don't know what T is. My current (ugly) solution is to pass the map in an overriden virtual method in the derived class: public override void SetPropertyValue(string property, object value) { base.SetPropertyValue((EditablePropertyMap<ExampleType>)EditableTypes[typeof(ExampleType)], property, value); } What this does is: get the correct dictionary containing the property modifiers of this class using the class's type, cast it to the appropiate type and pass it to the SetPropertyValue method. I want to get rid of the SetPropertyValue method in my derived class (since there are a lot of derived classes), but don't know yet how to accomplish that. I cannot just make a virtual GetEditablePropertyMap<T> method because I cannot infer a concrete type for T then. I also cannot acces my dictionary directly with a type and retrieve an EditablePropertyMap<T> from it because I cannot cast to it from object in the base class, since again I do not know T. I found some neat tricks to infere types (e.g. by adding a dummy T parameter), but cannot apply them to my specific problem. I'd highly appreciate any suggestions you may have for me.

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  • JNA array structure

    - by Burny
    I want to use a dll (IEC driver) in Java, for that I am using JNA. The problem in pseudo code: start the server allocate new memory for an array (JNA) client connect writing values from an array to the memory sending this array to the client client disconnect new client connect allocate new memory for an array (JNA) - JVM crash (EXCEPTION_ACCESS_VIOLATION) The JVM crash not by primitve data types and if the values will not writing from the array to the memory. the code in c: struct DataAttributeData CrvPtsArrayDAData = {0}; CrvPtsArrayDAData.ucType = DATATYPE_ARRAY; CrvPtsArrayDAData.pvData = XYValDAData; XYValDAData[0].ucType = FLOAT; XYValDAData[0].uiBitLength = sizeof(Float32)*8; XYValDAData[0].pvData = &(inUpdateValue.xVal); XYValDAData[1].ucType = FLOAT; XYValDAData[1].uiBitLength = sizeof(Float32)*8; XYValDAData[1].pvData = &(inUpdateValue.yVal); Send(&CrvPtsArrayDAData, 1); the code in Java: DataAttributeData[] data_array = (DataAttributeData[]) new DataAttributeData() .toArray(d.bitLength); for (DataAttributeData d_temp : data_array) { d_temp.data = new Memory(size / 8); d_temp.type = type_iec; d_temp.bitLength = size; d_temp.write(); } d.data = data_array[0].getPointer(); And then writing values whith this code: for (int i = 0; i < arraySize; i++) { DataAttributeData dataAttr = new DataAttributeData(d.data.share(i * d.size())); dataAttr.read(); dataAttr.data.setFloat(0, f[i]); dataAttr.write(); } the struct in c: struct DataAttributeData{ unsigned char ucType; int iArrayIndex; unsigned int uiBitLength; void * pvData;}; the struct in java: public static class DataAttributeData extends Structure { public DataAttributeData(Pointer p) { // TODO Auto-generated constructor stub super(p); } public DataAttributeData() { // TODO Auto-generated constructor stub super(); } public byte type; public int iArrayIndex; public int bitLength; public Pointer data; @Override protected List<String> getFieldOrder() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return Arrays.asList(new String[] { "type", "iArrayIndex", "bitLength", "data" }); } } Can anybody help me?

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