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  • Class template specializations with shared functionality

    - by Thomas
    I'm writing a simple maths library with a template vector type: template<typename T, size_t N> class Vector { public: Vector<T, N> &operator+=(Vector<T, N> const &other); // ... more operators, functions ... }; Now I want some additional functionality specifically for some of these. Let's say I want functions x() and y() on Vector<T, 2> to access particular coordinates. I could create a partial specialization for this: template<typename T> class Vector<T, 3> { public: Vector<T, 3> &operator+=(Vector<T, 3> const &other); // ... and again all the operators and functions ... T x() const; T y() const; }; But now I'm repeating everything that already existed in the generic template. I could also use inheritance. Renaming the generic template to VectorBase, I could do this: template<typename T, size_t N> class Vector : public VectorBase<T, N> { }; template<typename T> class Vector<T, 3> : public VectorBase<T, 3> { public: T x() const; T y() const; }; However, now the problem is that all operators are defined on VectorBase, so they return VectorBase instances. These cannot be assigned to Vector variables: Vector<float, 3> v; Vector<float, 3> w; w = 5 * v; // error: no conversion from VectorBase<float, 3> to Vector<float, 3> I could give Vector an implicit conversion constructor to make this possible: template<typename T, size_t N> class Vector : public VectorBase<T, N> { public: Vector(VectorBase<T, N> const &other); }; However, now I'm converting from Vector to VectorBase and back again. Even though the types are the same in memory, and the compiler might optimize all this away, it feels clunky and I don't really like to have potential run-time overhead for what is essentially a compile-time problem. Is there any other way to solve this?

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  • Should I add try/catch around when casting on an attribute of JSP implicit object?

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: Basically what I mean is like this: List<String[]> routes = (List<String[]>)application.getAttribute("routes"); For the above code, it tries to get an attribute named "routes" from the JSP implicit object - application. But as everyone knows, after this line of code, routes may very well contains a null - which means this application hasn't got an attribute named "routes". Is this "casting on null" good programming practice in Java or not? Basically I try to avoid exceptions such as java.io.InvalidCastException I reckon things like this are more as "heritage" of Java 1.4 when generic types were not introduced to this language. So I guess everything stored in application attributes as Objects (Similar to traditional ArrayList). And when you do "downcast", there might be invalid casts. What would you do in this case? Update: Just found that although in the implicit object application I did store a List of String arrays, when I do this : List<double[]> routes = (List<double[]>)application.getAttribute("routes"); It doesn't produce any error... And I felt not comfortable already... And even with this code: out.print(routes.get(0)); It does print out something strange : [Ljava.lang.String;@18b352f Am I printing a "pointer to String"? I can finally get an exception like this: out.print(routes.get(0)[1]); with error : java.lang.ClassCastException: [Ljava.lang.String; Because it was me to add the application attribute, I know which type should it be cast to. I feel this is not "good enough", what if I forget the exact type? I know there are still some cases where this sort of thing would happen, such as in JSP/Servlet when you do casting on session attributes. Is there a better way to do this? Before you say:"OMG, why you don't use Servlets???", I should justify my reason as this: - because my uni sucks, its server can only work with Servlets generated by JSP, and I don't really want to learn how to fix issues like that. look at my previous question on this , and this is uni homework, so I've got no other choice, forget all about war, WEB-INF,etc, but "code everything directly into JSP" - because the professors do that too. :)

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  • xsl:variable contains nodeset. How to output nth node of variable?

    - by dnagirl
    I am transforming an XML document. There is an attribute @prettydate that is a string similar to "Friday, May 7, 2010". I want to split that string and add links to the month and the year. I am using the exslt:strings module and I can add any other necessary EXSLT module. This is my code so far: <xsl:template match="//calendar"> <xsl:variable name="prettyparts"> <xsl:value-of select="str:split(@prettydate,', ')"/> </xsl:variable> <table class='day'> <thead> <caption><xsl:value-of select="$prettyparts[1]"/>, <a> <xsl:attribute name='href'><xsl:value-of select="$baseref"/>?date=<xsl:value-of select="@highlight"/>&amp;per=m</xsl:attribute> <xsl:value-of select='$prettyparts[2]'/> </a> <xsl:value-of select='$prettyparts[3]'/>, <a> <xsl:attribute name='href'><xsl:value-of select="$baseref"/>?date=<xsl:value-of select="@highlight"/>&amp;per=y</xsl:attribute> <xsl:value-of select='$prettyparts[4]'/> </a> </caption> <!--etcetera--> I have verified, by running $prettyparts through a <xml:for-each/> that I am getting the expected nodeset: <token>Friday</token> <token>May</token> <token>7</token> <token>2010</token> But no matter which way I attempt to refer to a particular <token> directly (not in a foreach) I get nothing or various errors to do with invalid types. Here's some of the syntax I've tried: <xsl:value-of select="$prettyparts[2]"/> <xsl:value-of select="$prettyparts/token[2]"/> <xsl:value-of select="exsl:node-set($prettyparts/token[2])"/> <xsl:value-of select="exsl:node-set($prettyparts/token)[2]"/> Any idea what the expression ought to be?

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  • What would you suggest as a high school first language?

    - by ldigas
    Edit by OA: After reading some answers I'll just update the question a little. At first I put it a little bluntly, but some of those gave me some good arguments which have to be taken into consideration while making a stand on this one. (these are mostly picked up from comments and answers below). A few things to take into account: to many pupils this is a first programming language - at this stage most of them have trouble grasping a difference between data types, variable passing, ... and whatnot, less alone pointers and similar 'low level stuff' :) they will all have to pass this to get into next grade (well, big majority of them anyway) not all of them have computers at home, not all of them are willing to learn this, less alone interested in - so the concepts have to be taught on a finite time scale in school hours (as well as practice on computers) free literature is a bonus - the teacher will make some scripts and handaways, but still ... I wouldn't like to bear the parents with the burden of buying expensive literature (also, english is not a native language here ... and although they are all learning it, their ability to read it fluently is somewhat questionable) somebody gave an argument - "a language which does not get in the way of ideas" - good one accessibility on different platforms in not expecially important at this point - although most of the suggested ones are available on win as well as linux - not many macs in this part of europe (their prices are sky high for anything but specialised usage) I will check what are the licencing issues on ms express editions about using it massively in high schools for purposes like this - if someone has any info about this, please, do not be shy with it :) A friend of mine, informatics teacher - in EU it comes as something as junior cs teacher, in a local high school asked me what I thought about what should be the first language pupils should be taught? It is a technical school (a little more oriented towards mathematics than the gymnasium, but not computer oriented totally). So I'm asking you - what do you think should be the first language pupils are exposed to in highschool? They have been teaching Pascal so far, but she's not sure that's a good course. She thought about switching to C (which I resented; considering not all pupils have interests in programming, to start with, and should be taught something higher level since they are just gripping the idea of a loop and such ... for a start), I suggested python or ruby (preferably py since it handles all paradigms). What is your opinion on this one? I looked, but didn't find a similar question on SO, so if there is one, please just point me towards it. Edit: The assumption is that none of the pupils have been exposed to any programming in junior school. See also: What is the best way to teach young kids some basic programming concepts? Best ways to teach a beginner to program How and when do you teach a kid to code What is the easiest language to start with? High School Programming

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  • Alert on gridview edit based on permission

    - by Vicky
    I have a gridview with edit option at the start of the row. Also I maintain a seperate table called Permission where I maintain user permissions. I have three different types of permissions like Admin, Leads, Programmers. These all three will have access to the gridview. Except admin if anyone tries to edit the gridview on clicking the edit option, I need to give an alert like This row has important validation and make sure you make proper changes. When I edit, the action with happen on table called Application. The table has a column called Comments. Also the alert should happen only when they try to edit rows where the Comments column have these values in them. ManLog datas Funding Approved Exported Applications My try so far. public bool IsApplicationUser(string userName) { return CheckUser(userName); } public static bool CheckUser(string userName) { string CS = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["ConnectionString"].ToString(); DataTable dt = new DataTable(); using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(CS)) { SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(); command.Connection = connection; string strquery = "select * from Permissions where AppCode='Nest' and UserID = '" + userName + "'"; SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(strquery, connection); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd); da.Fill(dt); } if (dt.Rows.Count >= 1) return true; else return true; } protected void Details_RowCommand(object sender, GridViewCommandEventArgs e) { string currentUser = HttpContext.Current.Request.LogonUserIdentity.Name; string str = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["ConnectionString"].ToString(); string[] words = currentUser.Split('\\'); currentUser = words[1]; bool appuser = IsApplicationUser(currentUser); if (appuser) { DataSet ds = new DataSet(); using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(str)) { SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(); command.Connection = connection; string strquery = "select Role_Cd from User_Role where AppCode='PM' and UserID = '" + currentUser + "'"; SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(strquery, connection); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd); da.Fill(ds); } if (e.CommandName.Equals("Edit") && ds.Tables[0].Rows[0]["Role_Cd"].ToString().Trim() != "ADMIN") { int index = Convert.ToInt32(e.CommandArgument); GridView gvCurrentGrid = (GridView)sender; GridViewRow row = gvCurrentGrid.Rows[index]; string strID = ((Label)row.FindControl("lblID")).Text; string strAppName = ((Label)row.FindControl("lblAppName")).Text; Response.Redirect("AddApplication.aspx?ID=" + strID + "&AppName=" + strAppName + "&Edit=True"); } } } Kindly let me know if I need to add something. Thanks for any suggestions.

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  • Foreign key pointing to different tables

    - by Álvaro G. Vicario
    I'm implementing a table per subclass design I discussed in a previous question. It's a product database where products can have very different attributes depending on their type, but attributes are fixed for each type and types are not manageable at all. I have a master table that holds common attributes: product_type ============ product_type_id INT product_type_name VARCHAR E.g.: 1 'Magazine' 2 'Web site' product ======= product_id INT product_name VARCHAR product_type_id INT -> Foreign key to product_type.product_type_id valid_since DATETIME valid_to DATETIME E.g. 1 'Foo Magazine' 1 '1998-12-01' NULL 2 'Bar Weekly Review' 1 '2005-01-01' NULL 3 'E-commerce App' 2 '2009-10-15' NULL 4 'CMS' 2 '2010-02-01' NULL ... and one subtable for each product type: item_magazine ============= item_magazine_id INT title VARCHAR product_id INT -> Foreign key to product.product_id issue_number INT pages INT copies INT close_date DATETIME release_date DATETIME E.g. 1 'Foo Magazine Regular Issue' 1 89 52 150000 '2010-06-25' '2010-06-31' 2 'Foo Magazine Summer Special' 1 90 60 175000 '2010-07-25' '2010-07-31' 3 'Bar Weekly Review Regular Issue' 2 12 16 20000 '2010-06-01' '2010-06-02' item_web_site ============= item_web_site_id INT name VARCHAR product_id INT -> Foreign key to product.product_id bandwidth INT hits INT date_from DATETIME date_to DATETIME E.g. 1 'The Carpet Store' 3 10 90000 '2010-06-01' NULL 2 'Penauts R Us' 3 20 180000 '2010-08-01' NULL 3 'Springfield Cattle Fair' 4 15 150000 '2010-05-01' '2010-10-31' Now I want to add some fees that relate to one specific item. Since there are very little subtypes, it's feasible to do this: fee === fee_id INT fee_description VARCHAR item_magazine_id INT -> Foreign key to item_magazine.item_magazine_id item_web_site_id INT -> Foreign key to item_web_site.item_web_site_id net_price DECIMAL E.g.: 1 'Front cover' 2 NULL 1999.99 2 'Half page' 2 NULL 500.00 3 'Square banner' NULL 3 790.50 4 'Animation' NULL 3 2000.00 I have tight foreign keys to handle cascaded editions and I presume I can add a constraint so only one of the IDs is NOT NULL. However, my intuition suggests that it would be cleaner to get rid of the item_WHATEVER_id columns and keep a separate table: fee_to_item =========== fee_id INT -> Foreign key to fee.fee_id product_id INT -> Foreign key to product.product_id item_id INT -> ??? But I can't figure out how to create foreign keys on item_id since the source table varies depending on product_id. Should I stick to my original idea?

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  • What to name 2 methods with same signatures

    - by coffeeaddict
    Initially I had a method in our DL that would take in the object it's updating like so: internal void UpdateCash(Cash Cash) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set captureID = @captureID, ac_code = @acCode, captureDate = @captureDate, errmsg = @errorMessage, isDebit = @isDebit, SourceInfoID = @sourceInfoID, PayPalTransactionInfoID = @payPalTransactionInfoID, CreditCardTransactionInfoID = @CreditCardTransactionInfoID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@captureID", cash.CaptureID); conn.AddParam("@acCode", cash.ActionCode); conn.AddParam("@captureDate", cash.CaptureDate); conn.AddParam("@errorMessage", cash.ErrorMessage); conn.AddParam("@isDebit", cyberCash.IsDebit); conn.AddParam("@PayPalTransactionInfoID", cash.PayPalTransactionInfoID); conn.AddParam("@CreditCardTransactionInfoID", cash.CreditCardTransactionInfoID); conn.AddParam("@sourceInfoID", cash.SourceInfoID); conn.AddParam("@cashID", cash.Id); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } My boss felt that creating an object every time just to update one or two fields is overkill. But I had a couple places in code using this. He recommended using just UpdateCash and sending in the ID for CAsh and field I want to update. Well the problem is I have 2 places in code using my original method. And those 2 places are updating 2 completely different fields in the Cash table. Before I was just able to get the existing Cash record and shove it into a Cash object, then update the properties I wanted to be updated in the DB, then send back the cash object to my method above. I need some advice on what to do here. I have 2 methods and they have the same signature. I'm not quite sure what to rename these because both are updating 2 completely different fields in the Cash table: internal void UpdateCash(int cashID, int paypalCaptureID) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set CaptureID = @paypalCaptureID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@captureID", paypalCaptureID); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } internal void UpdateCash(int cashID, int PayPalTransactionInfoID) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set PaymentSourceID = @PayPalTransactionInfoID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@PayPalTransactionInfoID", PayPalTransactionInfoID); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } So I thought hmm, maybe change the names to these so that they are now unique and somewhat explain what field its updating: UpdateCashOrderID UpdateCashTransactionInfoID ok but that's not really very good names. And I can't go too generic, for example: UpdateCashTransaction(int cashID, paypalTransactionID) What if we have different types of transactionIDs that the cash record holds besides just the paypalTransactionInfoID? such as the creditCardInfoID? Then what? Transaction doesn't tell me what kind. And furthermore what if you're updating 2 fields so you have 2 params next to the cashID param: UpdateCashTransaction(int cashID, paypalTransactionID, someOtherFieldIWantToUpdate) see my frustration? what's the best way to handle this is my boss doesn't like my first route?

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  • Rails 3 - development errors in production mode

    - by skrafi
    Im using Rails, Passenger (both are 3.0.5) and Nginx on my production server. As I heard, Rails should show public/404.html or public/500.html instead of development errors like ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound or Unknown action but that doesn't happen. I've tried to delete config.ru file and set rack_env or rails_env in nginx.conf but nothing helped. Here is my nginx.conf: worker_processes 1; events { worker_connections 1024; } http { passenger_root /home/makk/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p0/gems/passenger-3.0.5; passenger_ruby /home/makk/.rvm/bin/passenger_ruby; #passenger_ruby /home/makk/.rvm/wrappers/ruby-1.9.2-p0/ruby; include mime.types; default_type application/octet-stream; sendfile on; keepalive_timeout 65; server { listen 80; server_name localhost; location / { root /home/makk/projects/1server/deploy/current/public; index index.html index.htm; passenger_enabled on; rack_env production; recursive_error_pages on; if (-f /home/makk/projects/1server/maintenance.html) { return 503; } error_page 404 /404.html; error_page 500 502 504 /500.html; error_page 503 @503; } location @503 { error_page 405 = /maintenance.html; # Serve static assets if found. if (-f $request_filename) { break; } rewrite ^(.*)$ /maintenance.html break; } location ~ ^(\/phpmyadmin\/)(.*)$ { fastcgi_pass 127.0.0.1:9000; fastcgi_index index.php; fastcgi_split_path_info ^(\/phpmyadmin\/)(.*)$; fastcgi_param SCRIPT_FILENAME /usr/share/phpmyadmin/$fastcgi_path_info; include fastcgi_params; } } } It seems that this question duplicates this one but there are no working suggestions. UPD: I have both development and production apps on same PC. In production Rails ignores config.consider_all_requests_local = false (in /config/environments/production.rb) due to local_request? method. So one of possible solutions is listed below (taken from here): # config/initializers/local_request_override.rb module CustomRescue def local_request? return false if Rails.env.production? || Rails.env.staging? super end end ActionController::Base.class_eval do include CustomRescue end Or for Rails 3: class ActionDispatch::Request def local? false end end

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  • [c++] upload image to imageshack

    - by cinek1lol
    Hi! I would like to send pictures via a program written in C + +. - OK WinExec("C:\\curl\\curl.exe -H Expect: -F \"fileupload=@C:\\curl\\ok.jpg\" -F \"xml=yes\" -# \"http://www.imageshack.us/index.php\" -o data.txt -A \"Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 5.1; en-US; rv:1.8.1.1) Gecko/20061204 Firefox/2.0.0.1\" -e \"http://www.imageshack.us\"", NULL); It works, but I would like to send the pictures from pre-loaded carrier to a variable char (you know what I mean? First off, I load the pictures into a variable and then send the variable), cause now I have to specify the path of the picture on a disk. I wanted to write this program in c++ by using the curl library, not through exe. extension. I have also found such a program (which has been modified by me a bit) #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> #include <iostream> #include <curl/curl.h> #include <curl/types.h> #include <curl/easy.h> int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { CURL *curl; CURLcode res; struct curl_httppost *formpost=NULL; struct curl_httppost *lastptr=NULL; struct curl_slist *headerlist=NULL; static const char buf[] = "Expect:"; curl_global_init(CURL_GLOBAL_ALL); /* Fill in the file upload field */ curl_formadd(&formpost, &lastptr, CURLFORM_COPYNAME, "send", CURLFORM_FILE, "nowy.jpg", CURLFORM_END); curl_formadd(&formpost, &lastptr, CURLFORM_COPYNAME, "nowy.jpg", CURLFORM_COPYCONTENTS, "nowy.jpg", CURLFORM_END); curl_formadd(&formpost, &lastptr, CURLFORM_COPYNAME, "submit", CURLFORM_COPYCONTENTS, "send", CURLFORM_END); curl = curl_easy_init(); headerlist = curl_slist_append(headerlist, buf); if(curl) { curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_URL, "http://www.imageshack.us/index.php"); if ( (argc == 2) && (!strcmp(argv[1], "xml=yes")) ) curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, headerlist); curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_HTTPPOST, formpost); res = curl_easy_perform(curl); curl_easy_cleanup(curl); curl_formfree(formpost); curl_slist_free_all (headerlist); } system("pause"); return 0; }

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  • Searching in Ruby on Rails - How do I search on each word entered and not the exact string?

    - by bgadoci
    I have built a blog application w/ ruby on rails and I am trying to implement a search feature. The blog application allows for users to tag posts. The tags are created in their own table and belong_to :post. When a tag is created, so is a record in the tag table where the name of the tag is tag_name and associated by post_id. Tags are strings. I am trying to allow a user to search for any word tag_name in any order. Here is what I mean. Lets say a particular post has a tag that is 'ruby code controller'. In my current search feature, that tag will be found if the user searches for 'ruby', 'ruby code', or 'ruby code controller'. It will not be found if the user types in 'ruby controller'. Essentially what I am saying is that I would like each word entered in the search to be searched for, not necessarily the 'string' that is entered into the search. I have been experimenting with providing multiple textfields to allow the user to type in multiple words, and also have been playing around with the code below, but can't seem to accomplish the above. I am new to ruby and rails so sorry if this is an obvious question and prior to installing a gem or plugin I thought I would check to see if there was a simple fix. Here is my code: View: /views/tags/index.html.erb <% form_tag tags_path, :method => 'get' do %> <p> <%= text_field_tag :search, params[:search], :class => "textfield-search" %> <%= submit_tag "Search", :name => nil, :class => "search-button" %> </p> <% end %> TagsController def index @tags = Tag.search(params[:search]).paginate :page => params[:page], :per_page => 5 @tagsearch = Tag.search(params[:search]) @tag_counts = Tag.count(:group => :tag_name, :order => 'count_all DESC', :limit => 100) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @tags } end end Tag Model class Tag < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :post validates_length_of :tag_name, :maximum=>42 validates_presence_of :tag_name def self.search(search) if search find(:all, :order => "created_at DESC", :conditions => ['tag_name LIKE ?', "%#{search}%"]) else find(:all, :order => "created_at DESC") end end end

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  • SEO Help with Pages Indexed by Google

    - by Joe Majewski
    I'm working on optimizing my site for Google's search engine, and lately I've noticed that when doing a "site:www.joemajewski.com" query, I get results for pages that shouldn't be indexed at all. Let's take a look at this page, for example: http://www.joemajewski.com/wow/profile.php?id=3 I created my own CMS, and this is simply a breakdown of user id #3's statistics, which I noticed is indexed by Google, although it shouldn't be. I understand that it takes some time before Google's results reflect accurately on my site's content, but this has been improperly indexed for nearly six months now. Here are the precautions that I have taken: My robots.txt file has a line like this: Disallow: /wow/profile.php* When running the url through Google Webmaster Tools, it indicates that I did, indeed, correctly create the disallow command. It did state, however, that a page that doesn't get crawled may still get displayed in the search results if it's being linked to. Thus, I took one more precaution. In the source code I included the following meta data: <meta name="robots" content="noindex,follow" /> I am assuming that follow means to use the page when calculating PageRank, etc, and the noindex tells Google to not display the page in the search results. This page, profile.php, is used to take the $_GET['id'] and find the corresponding registered user. It displays a bit of information about that user, but is in no way relevant enough to warrant a display in the search results, so that is why I am trying to stop Google from indexing it. This is not the only page Google is indexing that I would like removed. I also have a WordPress blog, and there are many category pages, tag pages, and archive pages that I would like removed, and am doing the same procedures to attempt to remove them. Can someone explain how to get pages removed from Google's search results, and possibly some criteria that should help determine what types of pages that I don't want indexed. In terms of my WordPress blog, the only pages that I truly want indexed are my articles. Everything else I have tried to block, with little luck from Google. Can someone also explain why it's bad to have pages indexed that don't provide any new or relevant content, such as pages for WordPress tags or categories, which are clearly never going to receive traffic from Google. Thanks!

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  • ASP.NET MVC: How can I explain an invalid type violation to an end-user with Html.ValidationSummary?

    - by Terminal Frost
    Serious n00b warning here; please take mercy! So I finished the Nerd Dinner MVC Tutorial and I'm now in the process of converting a VB.NET application to ASP.NET MVC using the Nerd Dinner program as a sort of rough template. I am using the "IsValid / GetRuleViolations()" pattern to identify invalid user input or values that violate business rules. I am using LINQ to SQL and am taking advantage of the "OnValidate()" hook that allows me to run the validation and throw an application exception upon trying to save changes to the database via the CustomerRepository class. Anyway, everything works well, except that by the time the form values reach my validation method invalid types have already been converted to a default or existing value. (I have a "StreetNumber" property that is an integer, though I imagine this would be a problem for DateTime or any other non-strings as well.) Now, I am guessing that the UpdateModel() method throws an exception and then alters the value because the Html.ValidationMessage is displayed next to the StreetNumber field but my validation method never sees the original input. There are two problems with this: While the Html.ValidationMessage does signal that something is wrong, there is no corresponding entry in the Html.ValidationSummary. If I could even get the exception message to show up there indicating an invalid cast or something that would be better than nothing. My validation method which resides in my Customer partial class never sees the original user input so I do not know if the problem is a missing entry or an invalid type. I can't figure out how I can keep my validation logic nice and neat in one place and still get access to the form values. I could of course write some logic in the View that processes the user input, however that seems like the exact opposite of what I should be doing with MVC. Do I need a new validation pattern or is there some way to pass the original form values to my model class for processing? CustomerController Code // POST: /Customers/Edit/[id] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection formValues) { Customer customer = customerRepository.GetCustomer(id); try { UpdateModel(customer); customerRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = customer.AccountID }); } catch { foreach (var issue in customer.GetRuleViolations()) ModelState.AddModelError(issue.PropertyName, issue.ErrorMessage); } return View(customer); }

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  • Schema to support dynamic properties

    - by Johan Fredrik Varen
    Hi people. I'm working on an editor that enables its users to create "object" definitions in real-time. A definition can contain zero or more properties. A property has a name a type. Once a definition is created, a user can create an object of that definition and set the property values of that object. So by the click of a mouse-button, the user should ie. be able to create a new definition called "Bicycle", and add the property "Size" of type "Numeric". Then another property called "Name" of type "Text", and then another property called "Price" of type "Numeric". Once that is done, the user should be able to create a couple of "Bicycle" objects and fill in the "Name" and "Price" property values of each bike. Now, I've seen this feature in several software products, so it must be a well-known concept. My problem started when I sat down and tried to come up with a DB schema to support this data structure, because I want the property values to be stored using the appropriate column types. Ie. a numeric property value is stored as, say, an INT in the database, and a textual property value is stored as VARCHAR. First, I need a table that will hold all my object definitions: Table obj_defs id | name | ---------------- 1 | "Bicycle" | 2 | "Book" | Then I need a table for holding what sort of properties each object definition should have: Table prop_defs id | obj_def_id | name | type | ------------------------------------ 1 | 1 | "Size" | ? | 2 | 1 | "Name" | ? | 3 | 1 | "Price" | ? | 4 | 2 | "Title" | ? | 5 | 2 | "Author" | ? | 6 | 2 | "ISBN" | ? | I would also need a table that holds each object: Table objects id | created | updated | ------------------------------ 1 | 2011-05-14 | 2011-06-15 | 2 | 2011-05-14 | 2011-06-15 | 3 | 2011-05-14 | 2011-06-15 | Finally, I need a table that will hold the actual property values of each object, and one solution is for this table to have one column for each possible value type, such as this: Table prop_vals id | prop_def_id | object_id | numeric | textual | boolean | ------------------------------------------------------------ 1 | 1 | 1 | 27 | | | 2 | 2 | 1 | | "Trek" | | 3 | 3 | 1 | 1249 | | | 4 | 1 | 2 | 26 | | | 5 | 2 | 2 | | "GT" | | 6 | 3 | 2 | 159 | | | 7 | 4 | 3 | | "It" | | 8 | 5 | 3 | | "King" | | 9 | 6 | 4 | 9 | | | If I implemented this schema, what would the "type" column of the prop_defs table hold? Integers that each map to a column name, varchars that simply hold the column name? Any other possibilities? Would a stored procedure help me out here in some way? And what would the SQL for fetching the "name" property of object 2 look like?

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  • Deserialization error in a new environment

    - by cerhart
    I have a web application that calls a third-party web service. When I run it locally, I have no problems, but when I move it to my production environment, I get the following error: There is an error in XML document (2, 428). Stack: at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer.Deserialize(XmlReader xmlReader, String encodingStyle, XmlDeserializationEvents events) at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer.Deserialize(XmlReader xmlReader, String encodingStyle) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.ReadResponse(SoapClientMessage message, WebResponse response, Stream responseStream, Boolean asyncCall) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.Invoke(String methodName, Object[] parameters) at RMXClasses.RMXContactService.ContactService.getActiveSessions(String user, String pass) in C:\Users\hp\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\ReklamStore\RMXClasses\Web References\RMXContactService\Reference.cs:line 257 at I have used the same web config file from the production environment but it still works locally. My local machine is a running vista home edition and the production environment is windows server 2003. The application is written in asp.net 3.5, wierdly under the asp.net config tab in iis, 3.5 doesn't show up in the drop down list, although that version of the framework is installed. The error is not being thrown in my code, it happens during serialization. I called the method on the proxy, I have checked the arguments and they are OK. I have also logged the SOAP request and response, and they both look OK as well. I am really at a loss here. Any ideas? SOAP log: This is the soap response that the program seems to have trouble parsing only on server 2003. On my machine the soap is identical, and yet it parses with no problems. SoapResponse BeforeDeserialize; <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <SOAP-ENV:Envelope xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:ns1="urn:ContactService" xmlns:ns2="http://api.yieldmanager.com/types" xmlns:SOAP-ENC="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" SOAP-ENV:encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/"><SOAP-ENV:Body><ns1:getActiveSessionsResponse> <sessions SOAP-ENC:arrayType="ns2:session[1]" xsi:type="ns2:array_of_session"> <item xsi:type="ns2:session"> <token xsi:type="xsd:string">xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx1ae12517584b</token> <creation_time xsi:type="xsd:dateTime">2009-09-25T05:51:19Z</creation_time> <modification_time xsi:type="xsd:dateTime">2009-09-25T05:51:19Z</modification_time> <ip_address xsi:type="xsd:string">xxxxxxxxxx</ip_address> <contact_id xsi:type="xsd:long">xxxxxx</contact_id></item></sessions> </ns1:getActiveSessionsResponse></SOAP-ENV:Body></SOAP-ENV:Envelope>

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  • Trouble passing a string as a SQLite ExecSQL command

    - by Hackbrew
    I keep getting the ERROR: near "PassWord": syntax error when trying to execute the ExecSQL() statement. The command looks good in the output of the text file. In fact, I copied & pasted the command directly into SQLite Database Browser and the commend executed properly. Here's the code that's producing the error: procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); var i, iFieldSize: integer; sFieldName, sFieldType, sFieldList, sExecSQL: String; names: TStringList; f1: Textfile; begin //Open Source table - Table1 has 8 fields but has only two different field types ftString and Boolean Table1.TableName:= 'PWFile'; Table1.Open; //FDConnection1.ExecSQL('drop table PWFile'); sFieldList := ''; names := TStringList.Create; for i := 0 to Table1.FieldCount - 1 do begin sFieldName := Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].Name; sFieldType := GetEnumName(TypeInfo(TFieldType),ord(Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].DataType)); iFieldSize := Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].Size; if sFieldType = 'ftString' then sFieldType := 'NVARCHAR' + '(' + IntToStr(iFieldSize) + ')'; if sFieldType = 'ftBoolean' then sFieldType := 'INTEGER'; names.Add(sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType); if sFieldList = '' then sFieldList := sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType else sFieldList := sFieldList + ', ' + sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType; end; ListBox1.Items.Add(sFieldList); sExecSQL := 'create table IF NOT EXISTS PWFile (' + sFieldList + ')'; // 08/18/2014 - Entered this to log the SQLite FDConnection1.ExecSQL Command to a file AssignFile(f1, 'C:\Users\Test User\Documents\SQLite_Command.txt'); Rewrite(f1); Writeln(f1, sExecSQL); { insert code here that would require a Flush before closing the file } Flush(f1); { ensures that the text was actually written to file } CloseFile(f1); FDConnection1.ExecSQL(sFieldList); Table1.Close; end; Here's the actual command that gets executed: create table IF NOT EXISTS PWFile (PassWord NVARCHAR(10), PassName NVARCHAR(10), Dept NVARCHAR(10), Active NVARCHAR(1), Admin INTEGER, Shred INTEGER, Reports INTEGER, Maintain INTEGER)

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  • Good design of mapping Java Domain objects to Tables (using Hibernate)

    - by M. McKenzie
    Hey guys, I have a question that is more in the realm of design, than implementation. I'm also happy for anyone to point out resources for the answer and I'll gladly, research for myself. Highly simplified Java and SQL: Say I have a business domain POJO called 'Picture' with three attributes. class Picture int idPicture String fileName long size Say I have another business domain POJO called "Item" with 3 attributes Class Item int idItem String itemName ArrayList itemPictures These would be a normal simple relationship. You could say that 'Picture' object, will never exist outside an 'Item' object. Assume a picture belongs only to a specific item, but that an item can have multiple pictures Now - using good database design (3rd Normal Form), we know that we should put items and pictures in their own tables. Here is what I assume would be correct. table Item int idItem (primary key) String itemName table Picture int idPicture (primary key) varchar(45) fileName long size int idItem (foreign key) Here is my question: If you are making Hibernate mapping files for these objects. In the data design, your Picture table needs a column to refer to the Item, so that a foreign key relation can be maintained. However,in your business domain objects - your Picture does not hold a reference/attribute to the idItem - and does not need to know it. A java Picture instance is always instantiated inside an Item instance. If you want to know the Item that the Picture belongs to you are already in the correct scope. Call myItem.getIdItem() and myItem.getItemPictures(),and you have the two pieces of information you need. I know that Hibernate tools have a generator that can auto make your POJO's from looking at your database. My problem stems from the fact that I planned out the data design for this experiment/project first. Then when I went to make the domain java objects, I realized that good design dictated that the objects hold other objects in a nested way. This is obviously different from the way that a database schema is - where all objects(tables) are flat and hold no other complex types within them. What is a good way to reconcile this? Would you: (A) Make the hibernate mapping files so that Picture.hbm.xml has a mapping to the POJO parent's idItem Field (if it's even possible) (B) Add an int attribute in the Picture class to refer to the idItem and set it at instantiation, thus simplifying the hbm.xml mapping file by having all table fields as local attributes in the class (C) Fix the database design because it is wrong, dork. I'd truly appreciate any feedback

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  • [Reloaded] Error while sorting filtered data from a GridView

    - by Bogdan M
    Hello guys, I have an error I cannot solve, on a ASP.NET website. One of its pages - Countries.aspx, has the following controls: a CheckBox called "CheckBoxNAME": < asp:CheckBox ID="CheckBoxNAME" runat="server" Text="Name" /> a TextBox called "TextBoxName": < asp:TextBox ID="TextBoxNAME" runat="server" Width="100%" Wrap="False"> < /asp:TextBox> a SQLDataSource called "SqlDataSourceCOUNTRIES", that selects all records from a Table with 3 columns - ID (Number, PK), NAME (Varchar2(1000)), and POPULATION (Number) called COUNTRIES < asp:SqlDataSource ID="SqlDataSourceCOUNTRIES" runat="server" ConnectionString="< %$ ConnectionStrings:myDB %> " ProviderName="< %$ ConnectionStrings:myDB.ProviderName %> " SelectCommand="SELECT COUNTRIES.ID, COUNTRIES.NAME, COUNTRIES.POPULATION FROM COUNTRIES ORDER BY COUNTRIES.NAME, COUNTRIES.ID"> < /asp:SqlDataSource> a GridView called GridViewCOUNTRIES: < asp:GridView ID="GridViewCOUNTRIES" runat="server" AllowPaging="True" AllowSorting="True" AutoGenerateColumns="False" DataSourceID="SqlDataSourceCOUNTRIES" DataKeyNames="ID" DataMember="DefaultView"> < Columns> < asp:CommandField ShowSelectButton="True" /> < asp:BoundField DataField="ID" HeaderText="Id" SortExpression="ID" /> < asp:BoundField DataField="NAME" HeaderText="Name" SortExpression="NAME" /> < asp:BoundField DataField="POPULATION" HeaderText="Population" SortExpression="POPULATION" /> < /Columns> < /asp:GridView> a Button called ButtonFilter: < asp:Button ID="ButtonFilter" runat="server" Text="Filter" onclick="ButtonFilter_Click"/> This is the onclick event: protected void ButtonFilter_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Redirect("Countries.aspx?" + (this.CheckBoxNAME.Checked ? string.Format("NAME={0}", this.TextBoxNAME.Text) : string.Empty)); } Also, this is the main onload event of the page: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Page.IsPostBack == false) { if (Request.QueryString.Count != 0) { Dictionary parameters = new Dictionary(); string commandTextFormat = string.Empty; if (Request.QueryString["NAME"] != null) { if (commandTextFormat != string.Empty && commandTextFormat.EndsWith("AND") == false) { commandTextFormat += "AND"; } commandTextFormat += " (UPPER(COUNTRIES.NAME) LIKE '%' || :NAME || '%') "; parameters.Add("NAME", Request.QueryString["NAME"].ToString()); } this.SqlDataSourceCOUNTRIES.SelectCommand = string.Format("SELECT COUNTRIES.ID, COUNTRIES.NAME, COUNTRIES.POPULATION FROM COUNTRIES WHERE {0} ORDER BY COUNTRIES.NAME, COUNTRIES.ID", commandTextFormat); foreach (KeyValuePair parameter in parameters) { this.SqlDataSourceCOUNTRIES.SelectParameters.Add(parameter.Key, parameter.Value.ToUpper()); } } } } Basicly, the page displays in the GridViewCOUNTRIES all the records of table COUNTRIES. The scenario is the following: - the user checks the CheckBox; - the user types a value in the TextBox (let's say "ch"); - the user presses the Button; - the page loads displaying only the records that match the filter criteria (in this case, all the countries that have names containing "Ch"); - the user clicks on the header of the column called "Name" in order to sort the data in the GridView Then, I get the following error: ORA-01036: illegal variable name/number. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Data.OracleClient.OracleException: ORA-01036: illegal variable name/number Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Any help is greatly appreciated, tnks. PS: I'm using ASP.NET 3.5, under Visual Studio 2008, with an OracleXE database.

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  • C++ game designing & polymorphism question

    - by Kotti
    Hi! I'm trying to implement some sort of 'just-for-me' game engine and the problem's plot goes the following way: Suppose I have some abstract interface for a renderable entity, e.g. IRenderable. And it's declared the following way: interface IRenderable { // (...) // Suppose that Backend is some abstract backend used // for rendering, and it's implementation is not important virtual void Render(Backend& backend) = 0; }; What I'm doing right now is something like declaring different classes like class Ball : public IRenderable { virtual void Render(Backend& backend) { // Rendering implementation, that is specific for // the Ball object // (...) } }; And then everything looks fine. I can easily do something like std::vector<IRenderable*> items, push some items like new Ball() in this vector and then make a call similiar to foreach (IRenderable* in items) { item->Render(backend); } Ok, I guess it is the 'polymorphic' way, but what if I want to have different types of objects in my game and an ability to manipulate their state, where every object can be manipulated via it's own interface? I could do something like struct GameState { Ball ball; Bonus bonus; // (...) }; and then easily change objects state via their own methods, like ball.Move(...) or bonus.Activate(...), where Move(...) is specific for only Ball and Activate(...) - for only Bonus instances. But in this case I lose the opportunity to write foreach IRenderable* simply because I store these balls and bonuses as instances of their derived, not base classes. And in this case the rendering procedure turns into a mess like ball.Render(backend); bonus.Render(backend); // (...) and it is bad because we actually lose our polymorphism this way (no actual need for making Render function virtual, etc. The other approach means invoking downcasting via dynamic_cast or something with typeid to determine the type of object you want to manipulate and this looks even worse to me and this also breaks this 'polymorphic' idea. So, my question is - is there some kind of (probably) alternative approach to what I want to do or can my current pattern be somehow modified so that I would actually store IRenderable* for my game objects (so that I can invoke virtual Render method on each of them) while preserving the ability to easily change the state of these objects? Maybe I'm doing something absolutely wrong from the beginning, if so, please point it out :) Thanks in advance!

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  • Jquery: how to trigger td a when tr is clicked

    - by Poku
    Hey, I have a table where the first td in the trs contains a link. I want this anchor to be triggered (clicked) no matter where i click in the containing tr. I have read and tried alot of recents post and suggentions on this topic but i can't get this to work. I tried the trigger() and triggerHandle() functions, but it does not trigger the anchor click that i want. There must be others who have had the need to trigger a anchor click when a tr is clicked, so that the user doesn't have to click the tds anchor link. It sure is a nice UI feature if its possible? Here is the code i have tried: <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="javascripts/jquery-1.4.2.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> /* Initialise the table with the required column sorting data types */ jQuery(document).ready(function () { jQuery("#rowClick tr").click(function (e) { jQuery("#clickevent", this).trigger("click"); }); }); </script> </head> <body id="dt_example"> <table id="rowClick"> <thead> <tr> <th style="width: 30px">id</th> <th style="width: 200px">navn</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> <tr> <td><a href="datatabletext.asp?test=1" id="clickevent">1</a></td> <td>Jesper</td> </tr> <tr> <td><a href="datatabletext.asp?test=2" id="clickevent">2</a></td> <td>Bjarne</td> </tr> <tr> <td><a href="datatabletext.asp?test=3" id="clickevent">3</a></td> <td>Søren</td> </tr> </tbody> </table> </body>

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  • xmlns='' was not expected when deserializing nested classes

    - by Mavrik
    I have a problem when attempting to serialize class on a server, send it to the client and deserialize is on the destination. On the server I have the following two classes: [XmlRoot("StatusUpdate")] public class GameStatusUpdate { public GameStatusUpdate() {} public GameStatusUpdate(Player[] players, Command command) { this.Players = players; this.Update = command; } [XmlArray("Players")] public Player[] Players { get; set; } [XmlElement("Command")] public Command Update { get; set; } } and [XmlRoot("Player")] public class Player { public Player() {} public Player(PlayerColors color) { Color = color; ... } [XmlAttribute("Color")] public PlayerColors Color { get; set; } [XmlAttribute("X")] public int X { get; set; } [XmlAttribute("Y")] public int Y { get; set; } } (The missing types are all enums). This generates the following XML on serialization: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-16"?> <StatusUpdate> <Players> <Player Color="Cyan" X="67" Y="32" /> </Players> <Command>StartGame</Command> </StatusUpdate> On the client side, I'm attempting to deserialize that into following classes: [XmlRoot("StatusUpdate")] public class StatusUpdate { public StatusUpdate() { } [XmlArray("Players")] [XmlArrayItem("Player")] public PlayerInfo[] Players { get; set; } [XmlElement("Command")] public Command Update { get; set; } } and [XmlRoot("Player")] public class PlayerInfo { public PlayerInfo() { } [XmlAttribute("X")] public int X { get; set; } [XmlAttribute("Y")] public int Y { get; set; } [XmlAttribute("Color")] public PlayerColor Color { get; set; } } However, the deserializer throws an exception: There is an error in XML document (2, 2). <StatusUpdate xmlns=''> was not expected. What am I missing or doing wrong?

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  • One Controller is Sometimes Bound Twice with Ninject

    - by Dusda
    I have the following NinjectModule, where we bind our repositories and business objects: /// <summary> /// Used by Ninject to bind interface contracts to concrete types. /// </summary> public class ServiceModule : NinjectModule { /// <summary> /// Loads this instance. /// </summary> public override void Load() { //bindings here. //Bind<IMyInterface>().To<MyImplementation>(); Bind<IUserRepository>().To<SqlUserRepository>(); Bind<IHomeRepository>().To<SqlHomeRepository>(); Bind<IPhotoRepository>().To<SqlPhotoRepository>(); //and so on //business objects Bind<IUser>().To<Data.User>(); Bind<IHome>().To<Data.Home>(); Bind<IPhoto>().To<Data.Photo>(); //and so on } } And here are the relevant overrides from our Global.asax, where we inherit from NinjectHttpApplication in order to integrate it with Asp.Net Mvc (The module lies in a separate dll called Thing.Web.Configuration): protected override void OnApplicationStarted() { base.OnApplicationStarted(); //routes and areas AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); //Initializes a singleton that must reference this HttpApplication class, //in order to provide the Ninject Kernel to the rest of Thing.Web. This //is necessary because there are a few instances (currently Membership) //that require manual dependency injection. NinjectKernel.Instance = new NinjectKernel(this); //view model factory. NinjectKernel.Instance.Kernel.Bind<IModelFactory>().To<MasterModelFactory>(); } protected override NinjectControllerFactory CreateControllerFactory() { return base.CreateControllerFactory(); } protected override Ninject.IKernel CreateKernel() { var kernel = new StandardKernel(); kernel.Load("Thing.Web.Configuration.dll"); return kernel; } Now, everything works great, with one exception: For some reason, sometimes Ninject will bind the PhotoController twice. This leads to an ActivationException, because Ninject can't discern which PhotoController I want. This causes all requests for thumbnails and other user images on the site to fail. Here is the PhotoController in it's entirety: public class PhotoController : Controller { public PhotoController() { } public ActionResult Index(string id) { var dir = Server.MapPath("~/" + ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["UserPhotos"]); var path = Path.Combine(dir, id); return base.File(path, "image/jpeg"); } } Every controller works in exactly the same way, but for some reason the PhotoController gets double-bound. Even then, it only happens occasionally (either when re-building the solution, or on staging/production when the app pool kicks in). Once this happens, it continues to happen until I redeploy without changing anything. So...what's up with that?

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  • Helping linqtosql datacontext use implicit conversion between varchar column in the database and tab

    - by user213256
    I am creating an mssql database table, "Orders", that will contain a varchar(50) field, "Value" containing a string that represents a slightly complex data type, "OrderValue". I am using a linqtosql datacontext class, which automatically types the "Value" column as a string. I gave the "OrderValue" class implicit conversion operators to and from a string, so I can easily use implicit conversion with the linqtosql classes like this: // get an order from the orders table MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); Order order = db.Orders(o => o.id == 1); // use implicit converstion to turn the string representation of the order // value into the complex data type. OrderValue value = order.Value; // adjust one of the fields in the complex data type value.Shipping += 10; // use implicit conversion to store the string representation of the complex // data type back in the linqtosql order object order.Value = value; // save changes db.SubmitChanges(); However, I would really like to be able to tell the linqtosql class to type this field as "OrderValue" rather than as "string". Then I would be able to avoid complex code and re-write the above as: // get an order from the orders table MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); Order order = db.Orders(o => o.id == 1); // The Value field is already typed as the "OrderValue" type rather than as string. // When a string value was read from the database table, it was implicity converted // to "OrderValue" type. order.Value.Shipping += 10; // save changes db.SubmitChanges(); In order to achieve this desired goal, I looked at the datacontext designer and selected the "Value" field of the "Order" table. Then, in properties, I changed "Type" to "global::MyApplication.OrderValue". The "Server Data Type" property was left as "VarChar(50) NOT NULL" The project built without errors. However, when reading from the database table, I was presented with the following error message: Could not convert from type 'System.String' to type 'MyApplication.OrderValue'. at System.Data.Linq.DBConvert.ChangeType(Object value, Type type) at Read_Order(ObjectMaterializer1 ) at System.Data.Linq.SqlClient.ObjectReaderCompiler.ObjectReader2.MoveNext() at System.Linq.Buffer1..ctor(IEnumerable1 source) at System.Linq.Enumerable.ToArray[TSource](IEnumerable`1 source) at Example.OrdersProvider.GetOrders() at ... etc From the stack trace, I believe this error is happening while reading the data from the table. When presented with converting a string to my custom data type, even though the implicit conversion operators are present, the DBConvert class gets confused and throws an error. Is there anything I can do to help it not get confused and do the implicit conversion? Thanks in advance, and apologies if I have posted in the wrong forum. cheers / Ben

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  • small scale web site - global javascript file style/format/pattern - improving maintainability

    - by yaya3
    I frequently create (and inherit) small to medium websites where I have the following sort of code in a single file (normally named global.js or application.js or projectname.js). If functions get big, I normally put them in a seperate file, and call them at the bottom of the file below in the $(document).ready() section. If I have a few functions that are unique to certain pages, I normally have another switch statement for the body class inside the $(document).ready() section. How could I restructure this code to make it more maintainable? Note: I am less interested in the functions innards, more so the structure, and how different types of functions should be dealt with. I've also posted the code here - http://pastie.org/999932 in case it makes it any easier var ProjectNameEnvironment = {}; function someFunctionUniqueToTheHomepageNotWorthMakingConfigurable () { $('.foo').hide(); $('.bar').click(function(){ $('.foo').show(); }); } function functionThatIsWorthMakingConfigurable(config) { var foo = config.foo || 700; var bar = 200; return foo * bar; } function globallyRequiredJqueryPluginTrigger (tooltip_string) { var tooltipTrigger = $(tooltip_string); tooltipTrigger.tooltip({ showURL: false ... }); } function minorUtilityOneLiner (selector) { $(selector).find('li:even').not('li ul li').addClass('even'); } var Lightbox = {}; Lightbox.setup = function(){ $('li#foo a').attr('href','#alpha'); $('li#bar a').attr('href','#beta'); } Lightbox.init = function (config){ if (typeof $.fn.fancybox =='function') { Lightbox.setup(); var fade_in_speed = config.fade_in_speed || 1000; var frame_height = config.frame_height || 1700; $(config.selector).fancybox({ frameHeight : frame_height, callbackOnShow: function() { var content_to_load = config.content_to_load; ... }, callbackOnClose : function(){ $('body').height($('body').height()); } }); } else { if (ProjectNameEnvironment.debug) { alert('the fancybox plugin has not been loaded'); } } } // ---------- order of execution ----------- $(document).ready(function () { urls = urlConfig(); (function globalFunctions() { $('.tooltip-trigger').each(function(){ globallyRequiredJqueryPluginTrigger(this); }); minorUtilityOneLiner('ul.foo') Lightbox.init({ selector : 'a#a-lightbox-trigger-js', ... }); Lightbox.init({ selector : 'a#another-lightbox-trigger-js', ... }); })(); if ( $('body').attr('id') == 'home-page' ) { (function homeFunctions() { someFunctionUniqueToTheHomepageNotWorthMakingConfigurable (); })(); } });

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  • basic operations for modifying a source document with XSLT

    - by SpliFF
    All the tutorials and examples I've found of XSLT processing seem to assume your destination will be a significantly different format/structure to your source and that you know the structure of the source in advance. I'm struggling with finding out how to perform simple "in-place" modifications to a HTML document without knowing anything else about its existing structure. Could somebody show me a clear example that, given an arbitrary unknown HTML source will: 1.) delete the classname 'foo' from all divs 2.) delete a node if its empty (ie <p></p>) 3.) delete a <p> node if its first child is <br> 4.) add newattr="newvalue" to all H1 5.) replace 'heading' in text nodes with 'title' 6.) wrap all <u> tags in <b> tags (ie, <u>foo</u> -> <b><u>foo</u></b>) 7.) output the transformed document without changing anything else The above examples are the primary types of transform I wish to accomplish. Understanding how to do the above will go a long way towards helping me build more complex transforms. To help clarify/test the examples here is a sample source and output, however I must reiterate that I want to work with arbitrary samples without rewriting the XSLT for each source: <!doctype html> <html> <body> <h1>heading</h1> <p></p> <p><br>line</p> <div class="foo bar"><u>baz</u></div> <p>untouched</p> </body> </html> output: <!doctype html> <html> <body> <h1 newattr="newvalue">title</h1> <div class="bar"><b><u>baz</u></b></div> <p>untouched</p> </body> </html>

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  • Can someone who understands C code help me understand this code?

    - by Benjamin
    INT GetTree (HWND hWnd, HTREEITEM hItem, HKEY *pRoot, TCHAR *pszKey, INT nMax) { TV_ITEM tvi; TCHAR szName[256]; HTREEITEM hParent; HWND hwndTV = GetDlgItem (hWnd, ID_TREEV); memset (&tvi, 0, sizeof (tvi)); hParent = TreeView_GetParent (hwndTV, hItem); if (hParent) { // Get the parent of the parent of the... GetTree (hWnd, hParent, pRoot, pszKey, nMax); // Get the name of the item. tvi.mask = TVIF_TEXT; tvi.hItem = hItem; tvi.pszText = szName; tvi.cchTextMax = dim(szName); TreeView_GetItem (hwndTV, &tvi); //send the TVM_GETITEM message? lstrcat (pszKey, TEXT ("\\")); lstrcat (pszKey, szName); } else { *pszKey = TEXT ('\0'); szName[0] = TEXT ('\0'); // Get the name of the item. tvi.mask = TVIF_TEXT | TVIF_PARAM; tvi.hItem = hItem; tvi.pszText = szName; tvi.cchTextMax = dim(szName); if (TreeView_GetItem (hwndTV, &tvi)) //*pRoot = (HTREEITEM)tvi.lParam; //original hItem = (HTREEITEM)tvi.lParam; else { INT rc = GetLastError(); } } return 0; } The block of code that begins with the comment "Get the name of the item" does not make sense to me. If you are getting the listview item why does the code set the parameters of the item being retrieved, because if you already had the values there would be no need to retrieve them. Secondly near the comment "original" is the original line of code which will compile with a varning under embedded visual c++, but if you copy the exact same code into visual studio 2008 it will not compile. Since I did not write any of this code and am trying to learn is it possible the original author made a mistake on this line, since the *pRoot should point to and HKEY type yet he is casting to an HTREEITEM type which should never work since the data types don't match? (Side note someone with a better reputation should add a windows ce tag to SO since windows mobile is not the same as windows ce.)

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