Search Results

Search found 10352 results on 415 pages for 'context switching'.

Page 356/415 | < Previous Page | 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360 361 362 363  | Next Page >

  • Server.TransferRequest returns blank page on specific server

    - by jishi
    I'm facing an issue that seems to be related to configuration. I have a webapplication based on MonoRail, where we utilize the routing feature from MonoRail. On the first request after the application has started, the routing isn't initialized. To circumvent this, I have the following code in Application_OnError(): public virtual void Application_OnError() { if ( // identified as routing error ) Server.TransferRequest( Context.Request.RawUrl, false ); return; } Problem beeing that on our development server (which runs server 2008 R2, with IIS 7.5 and .NET 3.5) returns a blank page without headers, but on my workstation (which runs win7, IIS 7.5 and .NET 3.5) it works fine. What could be the cause of this? If the code in Application_OnError() throws an exception, what would be the expected output? I have verified the following: The access-log shows one entry, I'm not sure if a TransferRequest would show up as a second entry when invoked successfully The application actually do some work according to my internal logs, and it doesn't die since a subsequent requests works flawlessly (because routing will be active) Any hints on what to look for would be greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • How can I handle unread push notifications in iOS?

    - by Bartserk
    I have a iOS 5.1 application that registers to the APNS service to receive notifications. The register is successful and I receive the notifications correctly. The problem comes when I try to handle the notifications. Once the application is running, the method didReceiveRemoteNotification in the AppDelegate is called correctly and so the notification is handled as intended. This, however, only happens when the application is running on the foreground. However, when the application is running on the background or is simply stopped, that method is not called. I've read that you should add some lines to the method didFinishLaunchingWithOptions method to obtain the notification from the userInfo dictionary, and handle it. This works just fine, but ONLY when the application is opened by clicking on the notification at the Notification Center. This means that if you open the application by clicking on its badge, or simply by changing context if you were running it on the background, the app never realises that a notification came in. Additionally, if more than one notification was received, we can only handle one of them at once by clicking on the Notification Center, which is a pain :-) Is there any way to read the pending notifications in the Notification Center? I know there is a way to flush them using the method cancelAllLocalNotifications but I haven't found a way to just read them. And I really need to handle all of them. I thought of implementing a communication protocol with the third-party notification server to retrieve the information again when the application comes to the foreground, but since the information is already in the operating system I would find it strange if it's impossible to access it somehow. So, does anybody know a way to do it? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Access 2007 not allowing user to delete record in subform

    - by Todd McDermid
    Good day... The root of my issue is that there's no context menu allowing the user to delete a row from a form. The "delete" button on the ribbon is also disabled. In Access 2003, apparently this function was available, but since our recent "upgrade" to 2007 (file is still in MDB format) it's no longer there. Please keep in mind I'm not an Access dev, nor did I create this app - I inherited support for it. ;) Now for the details, and what I've tried. The form in question is a subform on a larger form. I've tried turning "AllowDeletes" on on both forms. I've checked the toolbar and ribbon properties on the forms to see if they loaded some custom stuff, but no. I've tried changing the "record locks" to "on edit", no joy. I examined the query to see if it was "too complicated" to permit a delete - as far as I can tell, it's a very simple two (linked) table join. Compared to another form in this app that does permit row deletes, it has a much more complicated (multi-join, built on queries) query. Is there a resource that would describe the required conditions for allowing deletes? Thanks in advance...

    Read the article

  • Insert or Update using Oracle and PL/SQL

    - by Shane
    I have a PL/SQL function that performs an update/insert on an Oracle database that maintains a target total and returns the difference between the existing value and the new value. Here is the code I have so far: FUNCTION calcTargetTotal(accountId varchar2, newTotal numeric ) RETURN number is oldTotal numeric(20,6); difference numeric(20,6); begin difference := 0; begin select value into oldTotal from target_total WHERE account_id = accountId for update of value; if (oldTotal != newTotal) then update target_total set value = newTotal WHERE account_id = accountId difference := newTotal - oldTotal; end if; exception when NO_DATA_FOUND then begin difference := newTotal; insert into target_total ( account_id, value ) values ( accountId, newTotal ); -- sometimes a race condition occurs and this stmt fails -- in those cases try to update again exception when DUP_VAL_ON_INDEX then begin difference := 0; select value into oldTotal from target_total WHERE account_id = accountId for update of value; if (oldTotal != newTotal) then update target_total set value = newTotal WHERE account_id = accountId difference := newTotal - oldTotal; end if; end; end; end; return difference end calcTargetTotal; This works as expected in unit tests with multiple threads never failing. However when loaded on a live system we have seen this fail with a stack trace looking like this: ORA-01403: no data found ORA-00001: unique constraint () violated ORA-01403: no data found The line numbers (which I have removed since they are meaningless out of context) verify that the first update fails due to no data, the insert fail due to uniqueness, and the 2nd update is failing with no data, which should be impossible. From what I have read on other thread a MERGE statement is also not atomic and could suffer similar problems. Does anyone have any ideas how to prevent this from occurring?

    Read the article

  • How do you populate a NSArrayController with CoreData rows programmatically?

    - by Andrew McCloud
    After several hours/days of searching and diving into example projects i've concluded that I need to just ask. If I bind the assetsView (IKImageBrowserView) directly to an IB instance of NSArrayController everything works just fine. - (void) awakeFromNib { library = [[NSArrayController alloc] init]; [library setManagedObjectContext:[[NSApp delegate] managedObjectContext]]; [library setEntityName:@"Asset"]; NSLog(@"%@", [library arrangedObjects]); NSLog(@"%@", [library content]); [assetsView setDataSource:library]; [assetsView reloadData]; } Both NSLogs are empty. I know i'm missing something... I just don't know what. The goal is to eventually allow multiple instances of this view's "library" filtered programmatically with a predicate. For now i'm just trying to have it display all of the rows for the "Asset" entity. Addition: If I create the NSArrayController in IB and then try to log [library arrangedObjects] or manually set the data source for assetsView I get the same empty results. Like I said earlier, if I bind library.arrangedObjects to assetsView.content (IKImageBrowserView) in IB - with same managed object context and same entity name set by IB - everything works as expected. - (void) awakeFromNib { // library = [[NSArrayController alloc] init]; // [library setManagedObjectContext:[[NSApp delegate] managedObjectContext]]; // [library setEntityName:@"Asset"]; NSLog(@"%@", [library arrangedObjects]); NSLog(@"%@", [library content]); [assetsView setDataSource:library]; [assetsView reloadData]; }

    Read the article

  • GPS not update location after close and reopen app on android

    - by mrmamon
    After I closed my app for a while then reopen it again,my app will not update location or sometime it will take long time( about 5min) before update. How can I fix it? This is my code private LocationManager lm; private LocationListener locationListener; public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); lm = (LocationManager) getSystemService(Context.LOCATION_SERVICE); locationListener = new mLocationListener(); lm.requestLocationUpdates( LocationManager.GPS_PROVIDER, 0, 0, locationListener); } private class myLocationListener implements LocationListener { @Override public void onLocationChanged(Location loc) { if (loc != null) { TextView gpsloc = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.widget28); gpsloc.setText("Lat:"+loc.getLatitude()+" Lng:"+ loc.getLongitude()); } } @Override public void onProviderDisabled(String provider) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub TextView gpsloc = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.widget28); gpsloc.setText("GPS OFFLINE."); } @Override public void onProviderEnabled(String provider) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void onStatusChanged(String provider, int status, Bundle extras) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } }

    Read the article

  • What does it mean for an OS to "execute within user processes"? Do any modern OS's use that approach

    - by Chris Cooper
    I have recently become interested in operating system, and a friend of mine lent me a book called Operating Systems: Internals and Design Principles (I have the third edition), published in 1998. It's been a very interesting book so far, but I have come to the part dealing with process control, and it's using UNIX System V as one of its examples of an operating system that executes within user processes. This concept has struck me as a little strange. First of all, does this mean that OS instructions and data are stored in each user of the processes? Probably not, because that would be an absurdly redundant scheme. But if not, then what does it mean to "execute within" a user process? Do any modern operating systems use this approach? It seems much more logical to have the operating system execute as its own process, or even independently of all processes, if you're short on memory. All the inter-accessiblilty of process data required for this layout seems to greatly complicate things. (But maybe that's just because I don't quite get the concept ;D) Here is what the book says: "Execution within User Processes: An alternative that is common with operation systems on smaller machines is to execute virtually all operating system software in the context of a user process. ... "

    Read the article

  • Code smells galore. Can this be a good company?

    - by Paperflyer
    I am currently doing some contract work for a company. Now they want to hire me for real. I have been reading on SO about code smells lately. The thing is, I have worked with some of their code and it smells. Badly. They use incredibly old versions of MSVC (2003), they do not seem to use version control systems, most code is completely undocumented, variable names with more than three letters are a rarity, there is commented out code all over the place, some methods take huge amounts of arguments, UI design is seemingly done by blind people... Yet they seem to be quite successful with what they do and their actual algorithms seem to be pretty sound and rather sophisticated. Since they mostly do DSP stuff, I am willing to ignore the UI side of things, but really these code smells are worrying. What would you think of a company that doesn't seem to value readable code? The people are nice enough and payment would be good. How much would you value code smells in this context? You see, this is my first job and SO got me worried, so I turn to you for suggestions ;-)

    Read the article

  • How to use libavformat for a separate encoder?

    - by Brendon Tsai
    I've build a encoder based on the sample of QUALCOMM, which captures the video and compresses it into h264 file. I am using Android 4.2.2. Now I want to add a mp4 muxer into this encoder(actually, just video will be fine, I don't need audio). I want to use FFMpeg. But after I read the example, I found out that the muxer was using the encoder of FFMpeg. I don't know how to use the muxer part for another encoder. I've read this post, but I don't understand how the code provide video stream to the muxer. I think that mainly because I don't understand these code: AVCodecContext * strmCodec = oFmtCtx->streams[0]->codec; // Fill the required properties for codec context. // *from the documentation: // *The user sets codec information, the muxer writes it to the output. // *Mandatory fields as specified in AVCodecContext // *documentation must be set even if this AVCodecContext is // *not actually used for encoding. my_tune_codec(strmCodec); Can anyone give me a hint? Thank you!

    Read the article

  • IOS : BAD ACCESS when trying to add a new Entity object

    - by Maverick447
    So i'm using coredata to model my relationships . This is the model in brief Type A can have one or more types of type B Type B has a inverse relationship of being associated with one of type A Type B can have one or more types of type C Type C has a inverse relationship of being associated with one of type B From a UI standpoint , I have a Navigation controller with controllers that successively sets up the first A object (VC-1) , then another viewcontroller (VC-2) creates a B object ( I pass in the A object to this controller) and the B object is added to the A object . Similarly the same thing happens with B and C . The third Viewcontroller (VC3) first creates a C object and assigns it to the passed B Object . Also between these viewcontrollers the managedObjectCOntext is also passed . SO my use case is such that while viewcontroller (VC-3) is the top controller a button action will keep creating multiple objects of type C and add them to the same type B object that was passed . Also as part of this function I save the managedObject context after saving each type C . e.g. code in viewcontroller 3 - (void) SaveNewTypeC { TypeC *newtypeC = (Question*)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"TypeC" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [newtypeC setProp1:] ; [newtypeC setProp2:] .. .. **[typeBObject addTypeCInTypeBObject:newtypeC];** [section setTotalCObjectCount:[ NSNumber numberWithInt:typeCIndex++]]; NSError *error = nil; if (![managedObjectContext save:&error]) { // Handle error NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@, %@", error, [error userInfo],[error localizedDescription]); exit(-1); // Fail } [newtypeC release]; } - (IBAction)selectedNewButton:(id)sender { [self SaveNewTypeC]; [self startRepeatingTimer]; } The BAD ACCESS seems to appear when the bold line above executes Relating to some HashValue . Any clues on resolving this would be helpful .

    Read the article

  • Trait, FunctionN, or trait-inheriting-FunctionN in Scala?

    - by Willis Blackburn
    I have a trait in Scala that has a single method. Call it Computable and the single method is compute(input: Int): Int. I can't figure out whether I should Leave it as a standalone trait with a single method. Inherit from (Int = Int) and rename "compute" to "apply." Just get rid of Computable and use (Int = Int). A factor in favor of it being a trait is that I could usefully add some additional methods. But of course if they were all implemented in terms of the compute method then I could just break them out into a separate object. A factor in favor of just using the function type is simplicity and the fact that the syntax for an anonymous function is more concise than that for an anonymous Computable instance. But then I've no way to distinguish objects that are actually Computable instances from other functions that map Int to Int but aren't meant to be used in the same context as Computable. How do other people approach this type of problem? No right or wrong answers here; I'm just looking for advice.

    Read the article

  • Why does mobile first responsive design tend to not use max-width queries alongside the min-width queries?

    - by Sam
    First off, I understand the basic principles behind mobile first responsive web design, and totally agree with them. But one thing I don't understand: In my experience, not all styles for small screens can be used for the larger version of a website. For example, usually smaller versions tend to have larger clickable areas, hamburger navigation, etc. So I sometimes have to override these specific styles, aside from just progressively enhancing the base styles. So I was wondering: why is max-width rarely mentioned (or used) in the context of mobile-first responsive web design? Because it looks like it could be used to isolate styles for smaller screens that are not useful for larger screens, and would thus prevent unnecessary duplication of code. A quote which mentions min-width as typically mobile-first, but not max-width: Mobile first, from a coding perspective, means that your base style is typically a single-column, fully-fluid layout. You use @media (min-width: whatever) to add a grid-based layout on top of that. from: http://gomakethings.com/mobile-first-and-internet-explorer/ EDIT: So to be more specific: I was wondering if there is a reason to exclude max-width from a mobile-first responsive design (as it seems like it can be useful for writing your css as DRY as possible, as some styles for small screens will not be used for bigger screens).

    Read the article

  • How do you perform arithmetic calculations on symbols in Scheme/Lisp?

    - by kunjaan
    I need to perform calculations with a symbol. I need to convert the time which is of hh:mm form to the minutes passed. ;; (get-minutes symbol)->number ;; convert the time in hh:mm to minutes ;; (get-minutes 6:19)-> 6* 60 + 19 (define (get-minutes time) (let* ((a-time (string->list (symbol->string time))) (hour (first a-time)) (minutes (third a-time))) (+ (* hour 60) minutes))) This is an incorrect code, I get a character after all that conversion and cannot perform a correct calculation. Do you guys have any suggestions? I cant change the input type. Context: The input is a flight schedule so I cannot alter the data structure. ;; ---------------------------------------------------------------------- Edit: Figured out an ugly solution. Please suggest something better. (define (get-minutes time) (let* ((a-time (symbol->string time)) (hour (string->number (substring a-time 0 1))) (minutes (string->number (substring a-time 2 4)))) (+ (* hour 60) minutes)))

    Read the article

  • Query String to Object with strongly typed properties

    - by Kamar
    Let’s say we track 20 query string parameters in our site. Each request which comes will have only a subset of those 20 parameters. But we definitely look for all/most of the parameters which comes in each request. We do not want to loop through the collection each time we are looking for a particular parameter initially or somewhere down the pipeline in the code. So we loop once through the query string collection, convert string values to their respective types (enums, int, string etc.), populate to QueryString object which is added to the context. After that wherever its needed we will have a strongly typed properties in the QueryString object which is easy to use and we maintain a standard. public class QueryString { public int Key1{ get; private set; } public SomeType Key2{ get; private set; } private QueryString() { } public static QueryString GetQueryString() { QueryString l_QS = new QueryString(); foreach (string l_Key in HttpContext.Current.Request.QueryString.AllKeys) { switch (l_Key) { case "key1": l_QS.Key1= DoSomething(l_Key, HttpContext.Current.Request.QueryString[l_Key]); break; case "key2": l_QS.Key2 = DoAnotherThing(l_Key, HttpContext.Current.Request.QueryString[l_Key]); break; } } return l_QS; } } Any other solution to achieve this?

    Read the article

  • Renderbuffer Width (Open GL ES)

    - by Josh Elsasser
    I'm currently experiencing an issue with an Open GL ES renderbuffer where the backing and width are are both set to 15. Is there any way to set them to the width of 320 and 480? My project is built up on Apple's EAGLView class and ES1Renderer, but I've moved it from the app delegate to a controller. I also moved the CADisplayLink outside of it (I update my game logic with the timestamp from this) Any help would be greatly appreciated. I add the glview to the window as follows: CGRect applicationFrame = [[UIScreen mainScreen] applicationFrame]; [window addSubview:gameController.glview]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; I synthesize the controller and the glview within it. The EAGLView and Renderer are otherwise unmodified. Renderer Initialization: // Get the layer CAEAGLLayer *eaglLayer = (CAEAGLLayer *)self.layer; eaglLayer.opaque = TRUE; eaglLayer.drawableProperties = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithBool:FALSE], kEAGLDrawablePropertyRetainedBacking, kEAGLColorFormatRGBA8, kEAGLDrawablePropertyColorFormat, nil]; renderer = [[ES1Renderer alloc] init]; Render "resize from layer" Method - (BOOL)resizeFromLayer:(CAEAGLLayer *)layer { // Allocate color buffer backing based on the current layer size glBindRenderbufferOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, colorRenderbuffer); [context renderbufferStorage:GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES fromDrawable:layer]; glGetRenderbufferParameterivOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, GL_RENDERBUFFER_WIDTH_OES, &backingWidth); glGetRenderbufferParameterivOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, GL_RENDERBUFFER_HEIGHT_OES, &backingHeight); NSLog(@"Backing Width:%i and Height: %i", backingWidth, backingHeight); if (glCheckFramebufferStatusOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES) != GL_FRAMEBUFFER_COMPLETE_OES) { NSLog(@"Failed to make complete framebuffer object %x", glCheckFramebufferStatusOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES)); return NO; } return YES; }

    Read the article

  • WHY JSLint complains: "someFunction() was used before it was defined"?

    - by 7hi4g0
    Searching for the JSLint error "was used before it was defined" i've found these: JSLint: Using a function before it's defined error Function was used before it was defined - JSLint JSLint: was used before it was defined jsLint error: “somefunction() was used before it was defined” jslint - Should we tolerate misordered definitions? Problem None of those answers WHY the error is shown. Elaboration According to the ECMA-262 Specification functions are evaluated before execution starts, hence all functions declared using the function keyword are available to all the code idenpendent of the place they were declared (assuming they are acessible on that scope). This is otherwise known as hoisting. Douglas Crockford seems to think it is better to declare every function before the code that uses it regardless of the hoisting effect. According to StackOverflowNewbie in his question, this raises some code organization problems. Not to mention some people, like me, prefer to declare their functions underneath the main/init code. On those questions there are some ways to avoid or fix the error, such as using function expressions vs function declarations. But none of them showed me the reason of the error. Not even Crockford's site. Question(s) Why is it an error to call a function before the declaration, even if it was declared using the function keyword? Is it better to use function expressions instead of function declaration in the JSLint context? If one is preferred, why? Note Not looking for answers like: Crockford is a tyrant Is just Crockford's opinion Thank you :*

    Read the article

  • C++ Implicit Conversion Operators

    - by Imbue
    I'm trying to find a nice inheritance solution in C++. I have a Rectangle class and a Square class. The Square class can't publicly inherit from Rectangle, because it cannot completely fulfill the rectangle's requirements. For example, a Rectangle can have it's width and height each set separately, and this of course is impossible with a Square. So, my dilemma. Square obviously will share a lot of code with Rectangle; they are quite similar. For examlpe, if I have a function like: bool IsPointInRectangle(const Rectangle& rect); it should work for a square too. In fact, I have a ton of such functions. So in making my Square class, I figured I would use private inheritance with a publicly accessible Rectangle conversion operator. So my square class looks like: class Square : private Rectangle { public: operator const Rectangle&() const; }; However, when I try to pass a Square to the IsPointInRectangle function, my compiler just complains that "Rectangle is an inaccessible base" in that context. I expect it to notice the Rectangle operator and use that instead. Is what I'm trying to do even possible? If this can't work I'm probably going to refactor part of Rectangle into MutableRectangle class. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • opengl + glew in Eclipse (for windows)

    - by echo
    I'm trying to get glew to work under eclipse (mingw) in windows. Seems as if it is extremely unusual not to use Visual Studio in this context. The install instructions for glew is simply "use the project file in build/vc6/"... The glew readme also writes: "If you wish to build GLEW from scratch (update the extension data from the net or add your own extension information), you need a Unix environment (including wget, perl, and GNU make). The extension data is regenerated from the top level source directory with: make extensions" In order to get glew to work in eclipse and windows I have to compile it in a unix environment? Is there no other way? Sure, it would probably be a learning experience to pull that off (if I were to succeed) but I feel that my time is best spent actually working on my project. And even if I did manage to crosscompile everything, would it work in anything but Visual Studio? Is the whole thing unfeasible and the best solution is to install Visual Studio? Google haven't been of much help, I feel like I am the only one that has ever attempted to do this (is there a good reason this?).

    Read the article

  • DDSteps date question.

    - by Srini
    DDStep Date Question: Currently trying to pass just the date from excel. But getting the below error while doing it. Failed to convert property value of type [java.lang.String] to required type [java.util.Date] for property ...no matching editors or conversion strategy found spring for date conversion I even tried to add customEditorConfigurer in the ddsteps-context file. Still getting error. But in their pet store example looks like it works fine. Any help is appreciated. <entry key="java.util.Date"> <bean class="org.springframework.beans.propertyeditors.CustomDateEditor"> <constructor-arg> <bean class="java.text.SimpleDateFormat"> <constructor-arg value="yyyy-MM-dd" /> </bean> </constructor-arg> <constructor-arg value="false" /> </bean> </entry>

    Read the article

  • VB.NET Syntax Coding

    - by Yiu Korochko
    I know many people ask how some of these are done, but I do not understand the context in which to use the answers, so... I'm building a code editor for a subversion of Python language, and I found a very decent way of highlighting keywords in the RichTextBox through this: bluwords.Add(KEYWORDS GO HERE) If scriptt.Text.Length > 0 Then Dim selectStart2 As Integer = scriptt.SelectionStart scriptt.Select(0, scriptt.Text.Length) scriptt.SelectionColor = Color.Black scriptt.DeselectAll() For Each oneWord As String In bluwords Dim pos As Integer = 0 Do While scriptt.Text.ToUpper.IndexOf(oneWord.ToUpper, pos) >= 0 pos = scriptt.Text.ToUpper.IndexOf(oneWord.ToUpper, pos) scriptt.Select(pos, oneWord.Length) scriptt.SelectionColor = Color.Blue pos += 1 Loop Next scriptt.SelectionStart = selectStart2 End If (scriptt is the richtextbox) But when any decent amount of code is typed (or loaded via OpenFileDialog) chunks of the code go missing, the syntax selection falls apart, and it just plain ruins it. I'm looking for a more efficient way of doing this, maybe something more like visual studio itself...because there is NO NEED to highlight all text, set it black, then redo all of the syntaxing, and the text begins to over-right if you go back to insert characters between text. Also, in this version of Python, hash (#) is used for comments on comment only lines and double hash (##) is used for comments on the same line. Now I saw that someone had asked about this exact thing, and the working answer to select to the end of the line was something like: ^\'[^\r\n]+$|''[^\r\n]+$ which I cannot seem to get into practice. I also wanted to select text between quotes and turn it turquoise, such as between the first quotation mark and the second, the text is turquoise, and the same between the 3rd and 4th etcetera... Any help is appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Passing session between jsf backing bean and model

    - by Rachel
    Background : I am having backing bean which has upload method that listen when file is uploaded. Now I pass this file to parser and in parser am doing validation check for row present in csv file. If validation fails, I have to log information and saving in logging table in database. My end goal : Is to get session information in logging bean so that I can get initialContext and make call to ejb to save data to database. What is happening : In my upload backing bean, am getting session but when i call parser, I do not pass session information as I do not want parser to be dependent on session as I want to unit test parser individually. So in my parser, I do not have session information, from parser am making call to logging bean(just a bean with some ejb methods) but in this logging bean, i need session because i need to get initial context. Question Is there a way in JSF, that I can get the session in my logging bean that I have in my upload backing bean? I tried doing: FacesContext ctx = FacesContext.getCurrentInstance(); HttpSession session = (HttpSession) ctx.getExternalContext().getSession(false); but session value was null, more generic question would be : How can I get session information in model bean or other beans that are referenced from backing beans in which we have session? Do we have generic method in jsf using which we can access session information throughout JSF Application?

    Read the article

  • Are there any downsides in using C++ for network daemons?

    - by badcat
    Hey guys! I've been writing a number of network daemons in different languages over the past years, and now I'm about to start a new project which requires a new custom implementation of a properitary network protocol. The said protocol is pretty simple - some basic JSON formatted messages which are transmitted in some basic frame wrapping to have clients know that a message arrived completely and is ready to be parsed. The daemon will need to handle a number of connections (about 200 at the same time) and do some management of them and pass messages along, like in a chat room. In the past I've been using mostly C++ to write my daemons. Often with the Qt4 framework (the network parts, not the GUI parts!), because that's what I also used for the rest of the projects and it was simple to do and very portable. This usually worked just fine, and I didn't have much trouble. Being a Linux administrator for a good while now, I noticed that most of the network daemons in the wild are written in plain C (of course some are written in other languages, too, but I get the feeling that 80% of the daemons are written in plain C). Now I wonder why that is. Is this due to a pure historic UNIX background (like KISS) or for plain portability or reduction of bloat? What are the reasons to not use C++ or any "higher level" languages for things like daemons? Thanks in advance! Update 1: For me using C++ usually is more convenient because of the fact that I have objects which have getter and setter methods and such. Plain C's "context" objects can be a real pain at some point - especially when you are used to object oriented programming. Yes, I'm aware that C++ is a superset of C, and that C code is basically C++. But that's not the point. ;)

    Read the article

  • Windows Server 2008 R2 File Permissions

    - by Fly_Trap
    I’m having some problems understanding some particular file permissions behaviour. Here are the steps to reproduce: Log into the server using the default Administrator account Create a text file (testfile.txt) in C:\ProgramData containing some arbitrary text Create a new user account and make it a member of the Administrators group Log in using new account and open C:\ProgramData\testfile.txt Edit the text and try to save Upon clicking save I’m presented with the save as dialog, which indicates that i do not have the necessary permissions to edit the file. This seems odd considering that the new user account is a member of Administrators. When I view the permissions of the file I can see the there are three groups listed, System, Administrators and Users. SYSTEM and Administrators have full permissions, however, Users only has the Read & Execute and Read permissions checked. It would appear that when I open the testfile.txt from the new users account, it opens in the context of the Users group, despite being a member of Administrators, is this correct? It would certainly explain the behaviour. The reason that this is an issue for me is that if I deploy an application via 'Run as Administrator', will normal users be able to edit the text files I install to ProgramData. Is this behaviour confined to Windows server or is it the same in Vista and Win7.

    Read the article

  • You are only allowed to have a single MapView in a MapActivity

    - by ProNeticas
    I have a function that shows a map page so I can get the user to choose their current location. But if you run this function twice it crashes the App with the Single MapView in a MapActivity error (i.e. opening that settings view again). public void showMapSetterPage(View v) { Log.i(DEBUG_TAG, "Settings screen, set map center launched"); // Set which view object we fired off from set_pv(v); // Show Map Settings Screen setContentView(R.layout.set_map_center); // Initiate the center point map if (mapView == null) { mapView = (MapView) findViewById(R.id.mapview); } mapView.setLongClickable(true); mapView.setStreetView(true); mapView.setBuiltInZoomControls(false); mapView.setSatellite(false); mapController = mapView.getController(); mapController.setZoom(18); LocationManager lm = (LocationManager) getSystemService(Context.LOCATION_SERVICE); Location location = lm .getLastKnownLocation(LocationManager.GPS_PROVIDER); int lat = (int) (location.getLatitude() * 1E6); int lng = (int) (location.getLongitude() * 1E6); Log.i(DEBUG_TAG, "The LAT and LONG is: " + lat + " == " + lng); point = new GeoPoint(lat, lng); // mapController.setCenter(point); mapController.animateTo(point); } So I have a button that shows this View and onClick="showMapSetterPage". But if you go back to the settings screen out of the map and click the button again I get this error: 03-06 20:55:54.091: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(28014): Caused by: java.lang.IllegalStateException: You are only allowed to have a single MapView in a MapActivity How can I delete the MapView and recreate it?

    Read the article

  • Issue scrolling table view with content inset

    - by Rog
    Hi all, I am experiencing a weird scrolling issue and I was hoping someone could give me a hand in trying to identify why this is happening. I have included the part of my code that I think is relevant to the question but am happy to update this post with whatever else is needed. I have implemented a pull to refresh view in the tableview's content inset area. The refresh fires an Async NSURLConnection that pulls data from a webserver, parses the relevant information and refreshes the table as required. This is where the refresh process kicks off: - (void)scrollViewDidEndDragging:(UIScrollView *)scrollView willDecelerate:(BOOL)decelerate{ if (scrollView.contentOffset.y <= - 65.0f && !self.reloading) { self.reloading = YES; [self reloadTableViewDataSource]; [refreshHeaderView setState:EGOOPullRefreshLoading]; [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.2]; self.tableView.contentInset = UIEdgeInsetsMake(60.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); [UIView commitAnimations]; } } Problem is if I start to scroll whilst the content inset is "visible" (i.e. during reload) I get this weird behaviour where my table sections do not scroll all the way to the top - see screenshot for a clear visual of what I am trying to describe here. I have included a couple of screenshots below that clearly identify what is happening at the moment. Has anyone experienced this before? Any ideas on what I should be looking at to try and fix it? Many thanks in advance, Rog And this is the result if I start scrolling the table. The orange bit at the top of the image is the actual navigation bar, where I would expect the table section (date 1 December 2010) to be.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360 361 362 363  | Next Page >