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  • Entity Framework 5 Enum Naming

    - by Tyrel Van Niekerk
    I am using EF 5 with migrations and code first. It all works rather nicely, but there are some issues/questions I would like to resolve. Let's start with a simple example. Lets say I have a User table and a user type table. The user type table is an enum/lookup table in my app. So the user table has a UserTypeId column and a foreign key ref etc to UserType. In my poco, I have a property called UserType which has the enum type. To add the initial values to the UserType table (or add/change values later) and to create the table in the initial migrator etc. I need a UserType table poco to represent the actual table in the database and to use in the map files. I mapped the UserType property in the User poco to UserTypeId in the UserType poco. So now I have a poco for code first/migrations/context mapping etc and I have an enum. Can't have the same name for both, so do I have a poco called UserType and something else for the enum or have the poco for UserType be UserTypeTable or something? More importantly however, am I missing some key element in how code first works? I tried the example above, ran Add-Migration and it does not add the lookup table for the enum.

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  • Set Renderbuffer Width and Height (Open GL ES)

    - by Josh Elsasser
    I'm currently experiencing an issue with an Open GL ES renderbuffer where the backing and width are are both set to 15. Is there any way to set them to the width of 320 and 480? My project is built up on Apple's EAGLView class and ES1Renderer, but I've moved it from the app delegate to a controller. I also moved the CADisplayLink outside of it (I update my game logic with the timestamp from this) Any help would be greatly appreciated. I add the glview to the window as follows: CGRect applicationFrame = [[UIScreen mainScreen] applicationFrame]; [window addSubview:gameController.glview]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; I synthesize the controller and the glview within it. The EAGLView and Renderer are otherwise unmodified. Renderer Initialization: // Get the layer CAEAGLLayer *eaglLayer = (CAEAGLLayer *)self.layer; eaglLayer.opaque = TRUE; eaglLayer.drawableProperties = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithBool:FALSE], kEAGLDrawablePropertyRetainedBacking, kEAGLColorFormatRGBA8, kEAGLDrawablePropertyColorFormat, nil]; renderer = [[ES1Renderer alloc] init]; Render "resize from layer" Method - (BOOL)resizeFromLayer:(CAEAGLLayer *)layer { // Allocate color buffer backing based on the current layer size glBindRenderbufferOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, colorRenderbuffer); [context renderbufferStorage:GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES fromDrawable:layer]; glGetRenderbufferParameterivOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, GL_RENDERBUFFER_WIDTH_OES, &backingWidth); glGetRenderbufferParameterivOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, GL_RENDERBUFFER_HEIGHT_OES, &backingHeight); NSLog(@"Backing Width:%i and Height: %i", backingWidth, backingHeight); if (glCheckFramebufferStatusOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES) != GL_FRAMEBUFFER_COMPLETE_OES) { NSLog(@"Failed to make complete framebuffer object %x", glCheckFramebufferStatusOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES)); return NO; } return YES; }

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  • Issue scrolling table view with content inset

    - by Rog
    Hi all, I am experiencing a weird scrolling issue and I was hoping someone could give me a hand in trying to identify why this is happening. I have included the part of my code that I think is relevant to the question but am happy to update this post with whatever else is needed. I have implemented a pull to refresh view in the tableview's content inset area. The refresh fires an Async NSURLConnection that pulls data from a webserver, parses the relevant information and refreshes the table as required. This is where the refresh process kicks off: - (void)scrollViewDidEndDragging:(UIScrollView *)scrollView willDecelerate:(BOOL)decelerate{ if (scrollView.contentOffset.y <= - 65.0f && !self.reloading) { self.reloading = YES; [self reloadTableViewDataSource]; [refreshHeaderView setState:EGOOPullRefreshLoading]; [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.2]; self.tableView.contentInset = UIEdgeInsetsMake(60.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); [UIView commitAnimations]; } } Problem is if I start to scroll whilst the content inset is "visible" (i.e. during reload) I get this weird behaviour where my table sections do not scroll all the way to the top - see screenshot for a clear visual of what I am trying to describe here. I have included a couple of screenshots below that clearly identify what is happening at the moment. Has anyone experienced this before? Any ideas on what I should be looking at to try and fix it? Many thanks in advance, Rog And this is the result if I start scrolling the table. The orange bit at the top of the image is the actual navigation bar, where I would expect the table section (date 1 December 2010) to be.

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  • How to use a rewrite rule to force calls for "domain.tld/subdir/file.html" to show as "subdir.domain.tld/file.html"?

    - by Wion
    Hi! First time poster. Very new to mod_rewrite. I'm on a shared server and the context of this problem is with a virtual directory under my root account. The domain (domain.tld) will have subdirectories representing annual mini-sites of static .html files. Subdirectory names (yyyy) will be the 4-digit year (e.g., "2010"). I want any call to domain.tld/yyyy/file.html to appear as yyyy.domain.tld/file.html in the browser address bar, and (of course) for the page to load properly. I already force dropping “www” by using… RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www\.domain\.tld [NC] RewriteRule (.*) http://domain.tld/$1 [R=301,L] So far so good. But no matter what I try after that, I can’t get the subdomain to force to the front of the domain. Here’s one of the more complicated examples I’ve tried (no doubt wrong)… RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^domain\.tld/([0-9]+)/([a-z-]+)\.html [NC] RewriteRule (.*) %1.domain.tld/%2.html [NC] This doesn’t break anything (that I can tell), but it doesn’t do what I want either. I.e., if I type yyyy.domain.tld, I’ll see yyyy.domain.tld in the address bar, and navigating around will give me yyyy.domain.tld/file.html, etc. Fine. But if also type domain.tld/yyyy I’ll see domain.tld/yyyy, etc, which is not how I want people to see it. It doesn’t redirect or mask or alias or whatever you call it. Is it even possible to force one look over the other like that? Should I be handling this with DNS instead? Thanks in advance!

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  • Specifying different initial values for fields in inherited models (django)

    - by Shawn Chin
    Question : What is the recommended way to specify an initial value for fields if one uses model inheritance and each child model needs to have different default values when rendering a ModelForm? Take for example the following models where CompileCommand and TestCommand both need different initial values when rendered as ModelForm. # ------ models.py class ShellCommand(models.Model): command = models.Charfield(_("command"), max_length=100) arguments = models.Charfield(_("arguments"), max_length=100) class CompileCommand(ShellCommand): # ... default command should be "make" class TestCommand(ShellCommand): # ... default: command = "make", arguments = "test" I am aware that one can used the initial={...} argument when instantiating the form, however I would rather store the initial values within the context of the model (or at least within the associated ModelForm). My current approach What I'm doing at the moment is storing an initial value dict within Meta, and checking for it in my views. # ----- forms.py class CompileCommandForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = CompileCommand initial_values = {"command":"make"} class TestCommandForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = TestCommand initial_values = {"command":"make", "arguments":"test"} # ------ in views FORM_LOOKUP = { "compile": CompileCommandFomr, "test": TestCommandForm } CmdForm = FORM_LOOKUP.get(command_type, None) # ... initial = getattr(CmdForm, "initial_values", {}) form = CmdForm(initial=initial) This feels too much like a hack. I am eager for a more generic / better way to achieve this. Suggestions appreciated. Other attempts I have toyed around with overriding the constructor for the submodels: class CompileCommand(ShellCommand): def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): kwargs.setdefault('command', "make") super(CompileCommand, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) and this works when I try to create an object from the shell: >>> c = CompileCommand(name="xyz") >>> c.save() <CompileCommand: 123> >>> c.command 'make' However, this does not set the default value when the associated ModelForm is rendered, which unfortunately is what I'm trying to achieve. Update 2 (looks promising) I now have the following in forms.py which allow me to set Meta.default_initial_values without needing extra code in views. class ModelFormWithDefaults(forms.ModelForm): def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): if hasattr(self.Meta, "default_initial_values"): kwargs.setdefault("initial", self.Meta.default_initial_values) super(ModelFormWithDefaults, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) class TestCommandForm(ModelFormWithDefaults): class Meta: model = TestCommand default_initial_values = {"command":"make", "arguments":"test"}

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  • Using JQuery in an AJAX control and avoiding conflicts

    - by Rich Andrews
    Hi, I am using JQuery within a custom AJAX user control (part of a home grown toolkit) and I need to ensure that JQuery is present on the hosting page. There can be multiple instances of the control on a page and some controls may need to use different versions of JQuery. At the moment I am using the following code to load in JQuery when the control initializes... Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude(Page.GetType(), "jquery-1.4.4.min.js", this.ResolveUrl("TextControlPlugin/lib/jquery-1.4.4.min.js")); This works because the scriptmanager handles not putting multiple copies of the same script into he page. Problems... I cannot use JQuery statically in the calling page (I may not have a control on the page but need to use JQuery) The scriptmanager appears to handle only duplicate URL's and I will need to deploy it from potentially 2 different URL's (the calling page's copy and the controls copy) So, is there a way to isolate a version of JQuery to the context of my control that doesnt interfear with any use of JQuery from the calling page? The developer writing the page may not have access to the internals of the control. I have looked at JQuery.noConflict() but cannot seem to get it to work correctly - I believe I'm having problems with the order in which the scripts are injected into the page - I keep getting JQuery is undefined errors. Any help would be much appreciated

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  • What does it mean for an OS to "execute within user processes"? Do any modern OS's use that approach

    - by Chris Cooper
    I have recently become interested in operating system, and a friend of mine lent me a book called Operating Systems: Internals and Design Principles (I have the third edition), published in 1998. It's been a very interesting book so far, but I have come to the part dealing with process control, and it's using UNIX System V as one of its examples of an operating system that executes within user processes. This concept has struck me as a little strange. First of all, does this mean that OS instructions and data are stored in each user of the processes? Probably not, because that would be an absurdly redundant scheme. But if not, then what does it mean to "execute within" a user process? Do any modern operating systems use this approach? It seems much more logical to have the operating system execute as its own process, or even independently of all processes, if you're short on memory. All the inter-accessiblilty of process data required for this layout seems to greatly complicate things. (But maybe that's just because I don't quite get the concept ;D) Here is what the book says: "Execution within User Processes: An alternative that is common with operation systems on smaller machines is to execute virtually all operating system software in the context of a user process. ... "

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  • Why won't WPF databindings show text when ToString() has a collaborating object?

    - by Jay
    In a simple form, I bind to a number of different objects -- some go in listboxes; some in textblocks. A couple of these objects have collaborating objects upon which the ToString() method calls when doing its work -- typically a formatter of some kind. When I step through the code I see that when the databinding is being set up, ToString() is called the collaborating object is not null and returns the expected result when inspected in the debugger, the objects return the expected result from ToString() BUT the text does not show up in the form. The only common thread I see is that these use a collaborating object, whereas the other bindings that show up as expected simply work from properties and methods of the containing object. If this is confusing, here is the gist in code: public class ThisThingWorks { private SomeObject some_object; public ThisThingWorks(SomeObject s) { some_object = s; } public override string ToString() { return some_object.name; } } public class ThisDoesntWork { private Formatter formatter; private SomeObject some_object; public ThisDoesntWork(SomeObject o, Formatter f) { formatter = f; some_object = o; } public override string ToString() { return formatter.Format(some_object.name); } } Again, let me reiterate -- the ToString() method works in every other context -- but when I bind to the object in WPF and expect it to display the result of ToString(), I get nothing. Update: The issue seems to be what I see as a buggy behaviour in the TextBlock binding. If I bind the Text property to a property of the DataContext that is declared as an interface type, ToString() is never called. If I change the property declaration to an implementation of the interface, it works as expected. Other controls, like Label work fine when binding the Content property to a DataContext property declared as either the implementation or the interface. Because this is so far removed from the title and content of this question, I've created a new question here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2917878/why-doesnt-textblock-databinding-call-tostring-on-a-property-whose-compile-tim

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  • Return value mapping on Stored Procedures in Entity Framework

    - by Yucel
    Hi, I am calling a stored procedure with EntityFramework. But custom property that i set in partial entity class is null. I have Entities in my edmx (I called edmx i dont know what to call for this). For example I have a "User" table in my database and so i have a "User" class on my Entity. I have a stored procedure called GetUserById(@userId) and in this stored procedure i am writing a basic sql statement like below "SELECT * FROM Users WHERE Id=@userId" in my edmx i make a function import to call this stored procedure and set its return value to Entities (also select User from dropdownlist). It works perfectly when i call my stored procedure like below User user = Context.SP_GetUserById(123456); But i add a custom new column to stored procedure to return one more column like below SELECT *, dbo.ConcatRoles(U.Id) AS RolesAsString FROM membership.[User] U WHERE Id = @id Now when i execute it from SSMS new column called RolesAsString appear in result. To work this on entity framework i added a new property called RolesAsString to my User class like below. public partial class User { public string RolesAsString{ get; set; } } But this field isnt filled by stored procedure when i call it. I look to the Mapping Detail windows of my SP_GetUserById there isnt a mapping on this window. I want to add but window is read only i cant map it. I looked to the source of edmx cant find anything about mapping of SP. How can i map this custom field?

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  • How to change the width of displayed text nested in a div?

    - by romaintaz
    Hello, Imagine I have the following code (simplified regarding my real context of course): <div id="box" style="width: 120px;" onmouseover="this.style.width='200px'" onmouseout="this.style.width='120px'"> <div>A label</div> <div>Another label</div> <div>Another label, but a longer label</div> </div> What I want to achieve is the following: My div box has a fixed width (120px by default). In this configuration, every label nested in the box must be written in a single line. If the text is too long, then the overflow must be hidden. In my example, the third item will be displayed Another label, but a or Another label, but a .... When the cursor is entering the div box, the width of the box is modified (for example to 200px). In this configuration, the labels that were shorten in the first configuration are now displayed in the whole space. With my code snippet, the third label is displayed in two lines when the box has a 120px, and I do not want that... How can I achieve that? Note that I would be great if the solution works also for IE6! Even if I prefer a pure CSS/HTML solution, (simple) Javascript (and jQuery) is allowed!

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  • sorting a gridview in class

    - by user175084
    ok i have a project which has many gridview in its pages... now i am sorting the fridveiw using the sorting function like this: protected void GridView1_Sorting(object sender, GridViewSortEventArgs e) { DataTable dt = Session["TaskTable2"] as DataTable; if (dt != null) { //Sort the data. dt.DefaultView.Sort = e.SortExpression + " " + GetSortDirection(e.SortExpression); GridView1.DataSource = Session["TaskTable2"]; GridView1.DataBind(); } } private string GetSortDirection(string column) { // By default, set the sort direction to ascending. string sortDirection2 = "ASC"; // Retrieve the last column that was sorted. string sortExpression2 = ViewState["SortExpression2"] as string; if (sortExpression2 != null) { // Check if the same column is being sorted. // Otherwise, the default value can be returned. if (sortExpression2 == column) { string lastDirection = ViewState["SortDirection2"] as string; if ((lastDirection != null) && (lastDirection == "ASC")) { sortDirection2 = "DESC"; } } } // Save new values in ViewState. ViewState["SortDirection2"] = sortDirection2; ViewState["SortExpression2"] = column; return sortDirection2; } but this code is being repeated in many pages so i tried to put this function in a C# class and try to call it but i get errors.... for starters i get the viewstate error saying :| "viewstate does not exist in the current context" so how do i go about doing this ....?? thanks

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  • Angularjs throws TypeError: Cannot read property 'indexOf' of undefined

    - by Ali
    I'm trying to debug the above code which I feel like this is very useful .< I can't even find what is wrong in my code and don't really know where to start since Angularjs still very new to me. I'm trying to localize Angularjs app. I know this is missing a lot of context in order to get a help, but I'm trying to see what information that I should give that would help on this debugging. I've gone through any indexOf in angularjs file and I can see few things is undefined but don't know if that would be helpful. So I've traced the problem here and this is what I have figured is the problem, but still counldn't figure out why... config(['$routeProvider', '$locationProvider', function ($routeProvider, $locationProvider) { $routeProvider.when('/:locale?/:username/badges', { templateUrl: '_partials/badges.html', controller: 'badges' }) .when('/:username/badges', { templateUrl: '_partials/badges.html', controller: 'badges' }) .when('/:username/teaching-resources', { templateUrl: '_partials/teaching-resources.html', controller: 'teachingResources' }) .when('/:username/makes', { templateUrl: '_partials/makes.html', controller: 'makes' }) .when('/:username/likes', { templateUrl: '_partials/likes.html', controller: 'likes' }) .when('/:username/events', { templateUrl: '_partials/events.html', controller: 'events' }) .when('/:username', { templateUrl: '_partials/badges.html', controller: 'badges' }); $routeProvider.otherwise({ redirectTo: '/error/404' }); The URL that I'm visiting for default page is: This will fail and throw the error. http://localhost:1969/en-US/user/someUserName This will work fine http://localhost:1969/user/someUserName UPDATE I figured out! This is the problem: $locationProvider.html5Mode(true); But why!?

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  • WHY JSLint complains: "someFunction() was used before it was defined"?

    - by 7hi4g0
    Searching for the JSLint error "was used before it was defined" i've found these: JSLint: Using a function before it's defined error Function was used before it was defined - JSLint JSLint: was used before it was defined jsLint error: “somefunction() was used before it was defined” jslint - Should we tolerate misordered definitions? Problem None of those answers WHY the error is shown. Elaboration According to the ECMA-262 Specification functions are evaluated before execution starts, hence all functions declared using the function keyword are available to all the code idenpendent of the place they were declared (assuming they are acessible on that scope). This is otherwise known as hoisting. Douglas Crockford seems to think it is better to declare every function before the code that uses it regardless of the hoisting effect. According to StackOverflowNewbie in his question, this raises some code organization problems. Not to mention some people, like me, prefer to declare their functions underneath the main/init code. On those questions there are some ways to avoid or fix the error, such as using function expressions vs function declarations. But none of them showed me the reason of the error. Not even Crockford's site. Question(s) Why is it an error to call a function before the declaration, even if it was declared using the function keyword? Is it better to use function expressions instead of function declaration in the JSLint context? If one is preferred, why? Note Not looking for answers like: Crockford is a tyrant Is just Crockford's opinion Thank you :*

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  • How to remove erroneous dependency from tycho build?

    - by sfinnie
    Context: Have built an eclipse update site using tycho but trying to install into target IDE fails. The update site builds fine; I can see it from a target eclipse installation and select the feature for installation. However, the dependency check fails at start of install as it can't find a declared dependency (org.eclipselabs.xtext.utils.unittesting). This shouldn't be a dependency: it was erroneously included in MANIFEST.MF for one of my eclipse plugin projects. I removed the dependency from the manifest and run mvn clean install. Build reported success. However when I try to use the newly built update site it still complains that the dependency to org.eclipselabs.xtext.utils.unittesting (a) exists and (b) can't be satisfied. So the question is: what else do I need to do to remove the dependency from the generated update site? Thanks for any pointers. PS: I know I could add the site for o.e.x.u.unittesting in the target eclipse installation so it can satisfy the dependency. However I don't want to do that; it's not needed for the feature to work and I don't want other users to have to add an unnecessary dependency.

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  • Using ms: xpath functions inside XPathExpression

    - by Filini
    I am trying to use Microsoft XPath Extension Functions (such as ms:string-compare http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms256114.aspx) inside an XPathExpression object. These functions are extensions inside the MSXML library, and if I use them in an XslCompiledTransform (simply adding the "ms" namespace) they work like a charm: var xsl = @" <?xml version=""1.0"" encoding=""UTF-8""?> <xsl:stylesheet version=""2.0"" xmlns:xsl=""http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"" xmlns:xs=""http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"" xmlns:fn=""http://www.w3.org/2005/xpath-functions"" xmlns:ms=""urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xslt""> <xsl:output method=""xml"" version=""1.0"" encoding=""UTF-8"" indent=""yes""/> <xsl:template match=""/Data""> <xsl:element name=""Result""> <xsl:value-of select=""ms:string-compare(@timeout1, @timeout2)""/> </xsl:element> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet>"; var xslDocument = new XmlDocument(); xslDocument.LoadXml(xsl); var transform = new XslCompiledTransform(); transform.Load(xslDocument); Then I tried using them in an XPathExpression: XPathNavigator nav = document.DocumentElement.CreateNavigator(); XPathExpression expr = nav.Compile("ms:string-compare(/Data/@timeout1, /Data/@timeout2)"); XmlNamespaceManager manager = new XmlNamespaceManager(document.NameTable); manager.AddNamespace("ms", "urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xslt"); expr.SetContext(manager); nav.Evaluate(expr); But I get an exception "XsltContext is needed for this query because of an unknown function". XsltContext is a specific XmlNamespaceManager, but I don't know if it's possible to instantiate it without an actual XslCompiledTransform (it's abstract) and use it as my expression context. Is there any way to do this (or any other way to use ms: extensions inside an XPathExpression)?

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  • Windows Server 2008 R2 File Permissions

    - by Fly_Trap
    I’m having some problems understanding some particular file permissions behaviour. Here are the steps to reproduce: Log into the server using the default Administrator account Create a text file (testfile.txt) in C:\ProgramData containing some arbitrary text Create a new user account and make it a member of the Administrators group Log in using new account and open C:\ProgramData\testfile.txt Edit the text and try to save Upon clicking save I’m presented with the save as dialog, which indicates that i do not have the necessary permissions to edit the file. This seems odd considering that the new user account is a member of Administrators. When I view the permissions of the file I can see the there are three groups listed, System, Administrators and Users. SYSTEM and Administrators have full permissions, however, Users only has the Read & Execute and Read permissions checked. It would appear that when I open the testfile.txt from the new users account, it opens in the context of the Users group, despite being a member of Administrators, is this correct? It would certainly explain the behaviour. The reason that this is an issue for me is that if I deploy an application via 'Run as Administrator', will normal users be able to edit the text files I install to ProgramData. Is this behaviour confined to Windows server or is it the same in Vista and Win7.

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  • Evaluating expressions using Visual Studio 2005 SDK rather than automation's Debugger::GetExpression

    - by brone
    I'm looking into writing an addin (or package, if necessary) for Visual Studio 2005 that needs watch window type functionality -- evaluation of expressions and examination of the types. The automation facilities provide Debugger::GetExpression, which is useful enough, but the information provided is a bit crude. From looking through the docs, it sounds like an IDebugExpressionContext2 would be more useful. With one of these it looks as if I can get more information from an expression -- detailed information about the type and any members and so on and so forth, without having everything come through as strings. I can't find any way of actually getting a IDebugExpressionContext2, though! IDebugProgramProvider2 sort of looks relevant, in that I could start with IDebugProgramProvider2::GetProviderProcessData and then slowly drill down until reaching something that can supply my expression context -- but I'll need to supply a port to this, and it's not clear how to retrieve the port corresponding to the current debug session. (Even if I tried every port, it's not obvious how to tell which port is the right one...) I'm becoming suspicious that this simply isn't a supported use case, but with any luck I've simply missed something crashingly obvious. Can anybody help?

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  • Passing session between jsf backing bean and model

    - by Rachel
    Background : I am having backing bean which has upload method that listen when file is uploaded. Now I pass this file to parser and in parser am doing validation check for row present in csv file. If validation fails, I have to log information and saving in logging table in database. My end goal : Is to get session information in logging bean so that I can get initialContext and make call to ejb to save data to database. What is happening : In my upload backing bean, am getting session but when i call parser, I do not pass session information as I do not want parser to be dependent on session as I want to unit test parser individually. So in my parser, I do not have session information, from parser am making call to logging bean(just a bean with some ejb methods) but in this logging bean, i need session because i need to get initial context. Question Is there a way in JSF, that I can get the session in my logging bean that I have in my upload backing bean? I tried doing: FacesContext ctx = FacesContext.getCurrentInstance(); HttpSession session = (HttpSession) ctx.getExternalContext().getSession(false); but session value was null, more generic question would be : How can I get session information in model bean or other beans that are referenced from backing beans in which we have session? Do we have generic method in jsf using which we can access session information throughout JSF Application?

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  • MMGR Questions, code use and thread-saftey

    - by chadb
    1) Is MMGR thread safe? 2) I was hoping someone could help me understand some code. I am looking at something where a macro is used, but I don't understand the macro. I know it contains a function call and an if check, however, the function is a void function. How does wrapping "(m_setOwner (FILE,_LINE_,FUNCTION),false)" ever change return types? #define someMacro (m_setOwner(__FILE__,__LINE__,__FUNCTION__),false) ? NULL : new ... void m_setOwner(const char *file, const unsigned int line, const char *func); 3) What is the point of the reservoir? 4) On line 770 ("void *operator new(size_t reportedSize)" there is the line "// ANSI says: allocation requests of 0 bytes will still return a valid value" Who/what is ANSI in this context? Do they mean the standards? 5) This is more of C++ standards, but where does "reportedSize" come from for "void *operator new(size_t reportedSize)"? 6) Is this the code that is actually doing the allocation needed? "au-actualAddress = malloc(au-actualSize);"

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  • LLVM: Passing a pointer to a struct, which holds a pointer to a function, to a JIT function

    - by Rusky
    I have an LLVM (version 2.7) module with a function that takes a pointer to a struct. That struct contains a function pointer to a C++ function. The module function is going to be JIT-compiled, and I need to build that struct in C++ using the LLVM API. I can't seem get the pointer to the function as an LLVM value, let alone pass a pointer to the ConstantStruct that I can't build. I'm not sure if I'm even on the track, but this is what I have so far: void print(char*); vector<Constant*> functions; functions.push_back(ConstantExpr::getIntToPtr( ConstantInt::get(Type::getInt32Ty(context), (int)print), /* function pointer type here, FunctionType::get(...) doesn't seem to work */ )); ConstantStruct* struct = cast<ConstantStruct>(ConstantStruct::get( cast<StructType>(m->getTypeByName("printer")), functions )); Function* main = m->getFunction("main"); vector<GenericValue> args; args[0].PointerVal = /* not sure what goes here */ ee->runFunction(main, args);

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  • Null Pointer Exception in my BroadcastReceiver class

    - by user1760007
    I want to search a db and toast a specific column on the startup of the phone. The app keeps crashing and getting an exception even though I feel as the code is correct. @Override public void onReceive(Context ctx, Intent intent) { Log.d("omg", "1"); DBAdapter do = new DBAdapter(ctx); Log.d("omg", "2"); Cursor cursor = do.fetchAllItems(); Log.d("omg", "3"); if (cursor.moveToFirst()) { Log.d("omg", "4"); do { Log.d("omg", "5"); String title = cursor.getString(cursor.getColumnIndex("item")); Log.d("omg", "6"); // i = cursor.getInt(cursor.getColumnIndex("id")); Toast.makeText(ctx, title, Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } while (cursor.moveToNext()); } cursor.close(); } The frustrating part is that I don't see any of my "omg" logs show up in logcat. I only see when my application crashes. I get three lines of errors in logcat. 10-19 12:31:11.656: E/AndroidRuntime(1471): java.lang.RuntimeException: Unable to start receiver com.test.toaster.MyReciever: java.lang.NullPointerException 10-19 12:31:11.656: E/AndroidRuntime(1471): at com.test.toaster.DBAdapter.fetchAllItems(DBAdapter.java:96) 10-19 12:31:11.656: E/AndroidRuntime(1471): at com.test.toaster.MyReciever.onReceive(MyReciever.java:26) For anyone interested, here is my DBAdapter fetchAllItems code: public Cursor fetchAllItems() { return mDb.query(DATABASE_TABLE, new String[] { KEY_ITEM, KEY_PRIORITY, KEY_ROWID }, null, null, null, null, null); }

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  • JRuby app throws exception in Spring

    - by mat3001
    I am trying to run a JRuby app in Spring. I use Eclipse to run it. But it doesn't compile. Does anybody know what's going on here? Exception in thread "Launcher:/oflaDemo" [INFO] [Launcher:/oflaDemo] org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory - Destroying singletons in org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory@4a009ab0: defining beans [placeholderConfig,web.context,web.scope,web.handler,demoService.service]; parent: org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory@f5d8d75 [INFO] [Launcher:/installer] org.red5.server.service.Installer - Installer service created org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'web.scope' defined in ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/red5-web.xml]: Initialization of bean failed; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.TypeMismatchException: Failed to convert property value of type [org.springframework.scripting.jruby.JRubyScriptFactory] to required type [org.red5.server.api.IScopeHandler] for property 'handler'; nested exception is java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Cannot convert value of type [org.springframework.scripting.jruby.JRubyScriptFactory] to required type [org.red5.server.api.IScopeHandler] for property 'handler': no matching editors or conversion strategy found at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.doCreateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:480) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory$1.run(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:409) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) I don't have a lot of experience with Spring, so I would really appreciate hits. If you're familiar with red5 - yes it's the oflademo app supplied by red5.

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  • Select rows from table1 and all the children from table2 into an object

    - by Patrick
    I want to pull data from table "Province_Notifiers" and also fetch all corresponding items from table "Province_Notifier_Datas". The table "Province_Notifier" has a guid to identify it (PK), table "Province_Notifier_Datas" has a column called BelongsToProvinceID witch is a foreign key to the "Province_Notifier" tables guid. I tried something like this: var records = from data in ctx.Province_Notifiers where DateTime.Now >= data.SendTime && data.Sent == false join data2 in ctx.Province_Notifier_Datas on data.Province_ID equals data2.BelongsToProvince_ID select new Province_Notifier { Email = data.Email, Province_ID = data.Province_ID, ProvinceName = data.ProvinceName, Sent = data.Sent, UserName = data.UserName, User_ID = data.User_ID, Province_Notifier_Datas = (new List<Province_Notifier_Data>().AddRange(data2)) }; This line is not working and i am trying to figure out how topull the data from table2 into that Province_Notifier_Datas variable. Province_Notifier_Datas = (new List<Province_Notifier_Data>().AddRange(data2)) I can add a record easily by adding the second table row into the Province_Notifier_Datas but i can't fetch it back. Province_Notifier dbNotifier = new Province_Notifier(); // set some values for dbNotifier dbNotifier.Province_Notifier_Datas.Add( new Province_Notifier_Data { BelongsToProvince_ID = userInput.Value.ProvinceId, EventText = GenerateNotificationDetail(notifierDetail) }); This works and inserts the data correctly into both tables. Edit: These error messages is thrown: Cannot convert from 'Province_Notifier_Data' to 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable' If i look in Visual Studio, the variable "Province_Notifier_Datas" is of type System.Data.Linq.EntitySet The best overloaded method match for 'System.Collections.Generic.List.AddRange(System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable)' has some invalid arguments Edit: var records = from data in ctx.Province_Notifiers where DateTime.Now >= data.SendTime && data.Sent == false join data2 in ctx.Province_Notifier_Datas on data.Province_ID equals data2.BelongsToProvince_ID into data2list select new Province_Notifier { Email = data.Email, Province_ID = data.Province_ID, ProvinceName = data.ProvinceName, Sent = data.Sent, UserName = data.UserName, User_ID = data.User_ID, Province_Notifier_Datas = new EntitySet<Province_Notifier_Data>().AddRange(data2List) }; Error 3 The name 'data2List' does not exist in the current context.

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  • Form iteration function not working properly

    - by Moses
    My function is supposed to iterate all forms in the document, and bind an onclick function to each 'calculate' element int he form. The problem is, the function that executes on any of the click events executes in the context of the the last i in the loop. Here is the JavaScript that I'm using: window.onload = function(){ calculateSavings(); } function calculateSavings(){ for (i = 0; i < document.forms.length; i++) { var e = document.forms[i]; e.calculate.onclick = function() { var hours = e.hours.value; var rate = e.rate.value; alert(hours * rate); } } } And here is the HTML it is attached to: <!doctype html> <html> <body> <form> <label for="hours">Hours: </label><input type="text" id="hours" name="hours"> <label for="rate">Rate: </label><input type="text" id="rate" name="rate"> <input type="button" name="calculate" value="Calculate"> <div id="savings"></div> </form> <form> <label for="hours">Hours: </label><input type="text" id="hours" name="hours"> <label for="rate">Rate: </label><input type="text" id="rate" name="rate"> <input type="button" name="calculate" value="Calculate"> <div id="savings"></div> </form> </body> </html> I'm sure this is a really basic question but the solution is completely eluding me at this point.

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  • Why does mobile first responsive design tend to not use max-width queries alongside the min-width queries?

    - by Sam
    First off, I understand the basic principles behind mobile first responsive web design, and totally agree with them. But one thing I don't understand: In my experience, not all styles for small screens can be used for the larger version of a website. For example, usually smaller versions tend to have larger clickable areas, hamburger navigation, etc. So I sometimes have to override these specific styles, aside from just progressively enhancing the base styles. So I was wondering: why is max-width rarely mentioned (or used) in the context of mobile-first responsive web design? Because it looks like it could be used to isolate styles for smaller screens that are not useful for larger screens, and would thus prevent unnecessary duplication of code. A quote which mentions min-width as typically mobile-first, but not max-width: Mobile first, from a coding perspective, means that your base style is typically a single-column, fully-fluid layout. You use @media (min-width: whatever) to add a grid-based layout on top of that. from: http://gomakethings.com/mobile-first-and-internet-explorer/ EDIT: So to be more specific: I was wondering if there is a reason to exclude max-width from a mobile-first responsive design (as it seems like it can be useful for writing your css as DRY as possible, as some styles for small screens will not be used for bigger screens).

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