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  • What can I do to avoid losing original resolution when uploading or exporting photos from Picasa?

    - by Janet Levin
    I'm not a programmer, and/but after multiple email discussions and google searches confirmed the problem I'm describing, and after making changes in picasa preferences with no change in resolution loss (from say, 800kb original image to 235kb after export or upload), I'm at a dead end and thinking the answer may lie among you folks, even though I barely understand the language here.

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  • How do you clear a CustomValidator Error on a Button click event?

    - by George
    I have a composite User control for entering dates: The CustomValidator will include server sided validation code. I would like the error message to be cleared via client sided script if the user alters teh date value in any way. To do this, I included the following code to hook up the two drop downs and the year text box to the validation control: <script type="text/javascript"> ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= ddlMonth.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= ddlDate.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= txtYear.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); </script> However, I would also like the Validation error to be cleared when the user clicks the clear button. When the user clicks the Clear button, the other 3 controls are reset. To avoid a Post back, the Clear button is a regular HTML button with an OnClick event that resets the 3 controls. Unfortunately, the ValidatorHookupControlID method does not seem to work on HTML controls, so I thought to change the HTML Button to an ASP button and to Hookup to that control instead. However, I cannot seem to eliminate the Postback functionality associated by default with the ASP button control. I tried to set the UseSubmitBehavior to False, but it still submits. I tried to return false in my btnClear_OnClick client code, but the code sent to the browser included a DoPostback call after my call. btnClear.Attributes.Add("onClick", "btnClear_OnClick();") Instead of adding OnClick code, I tried overwriting it, but the DoPostBack code was still included in the final code that was sent to the browser. What do I have to do to get the Clear button to clear the CustomValidator error when clicked and avoid a postback? btnClear.Attributes.Item("onClick") = "btnClear_OnClick();"

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  • Reading a .dat file as "rb" read binary

    - by donpal
    I have a web-accessible php script that accesses a folder above the webroot (not web accessible) called \folder\. This is done via setting the path to \folder\ in .htaccess the usual way so that \folder\ becomes part of the project. \folder\ contains a .php script (communicates with the web-accessible script inside the webroot) some .inc files (used by the .php in the same folder, above the webroot) a dat file (used by the .inc in the same folder, above the webroot) All files are accessible to each other as needed: the web-accessible php inside the webroot can communicate with the php above the webroot the php above the webroot can communicate with the inc in the same folder But the inc above the webroot can't communicate with the dat in the same folder, and I have no idea why that's the case The inc myinc.inc is supposed to open the dat mydat.dat in the same folder like this fopen('mydat.dat', "rb"); but I get an error that no file called mydat.dat exists inside \folder\myinc.inc. Of course it does not, the .dat is sibling to .inc and is not supposed to be inside it. Why is php expecting to find the .dat file inside the .inc. The stranger thing is that if I move the .dat in the web-accessible folder, it becomes readable now. Any ideas why php is trying to find the .dat inside the .inc?

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  • jQuery working in everything but IE7. (checked my commas)

    - by deadlyhifi
    The following code works in IE8, FF, Safari, Chrome etc. (not bothering with IE6 for this one), but doesn't work in IE7. I've been through the code with a fine tooth-comb. Checked the commas, messed around with ; but it's not going anywhere. I'm using the jQuery Validate and Uploadify scripts. Can anyone see the problem here? Thanks. <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $("#validateform").validate({ errorClass: 'invalid', rules: { bike_url: { required: true, url: true } } }) $("#uploadify").uploadify({ 'uploader' : '<?php echo $url . '/wp-content/plugins/biketest/includes/uploadify/uploadify.swf'; ?>', 'script' : '<?php echo $url . '/wp-content/plugins/biketest/class/class.uploadify.php'; ?>', 'folder' : '<?php echo $url . '/wp-content/plugins/biketest/uploads'; ?>', 'cancelImg' : '<?php echo $url . '/wp-content/plugins/biketest/includes/uploadify/cancel.png'; ?>', 'auto' : true, 'fileDesc' : '.jpg or .png files only please.', 'fileExt' : '*.jpg;*.jpeg;*.png;', 'sizeLimit' : '2097152', 'buttonText': 'Choose Image', 'scriptData': { 'random': '<?php $rand = rand(0, 999999); echo $rand ?>' }, 'onComplete': function(event, queueID, fileObj, response, data) { var image = '<?php echo $rand; ?>-' + ((fileObj.name).toLowerCase()).replace(' ', ''); setTimeout(function(){ $(".uploaded").attr('src', '<?php echo $url; ?>/wp-content/plugins/biketest/uploads/s-' + image); }, 500); $("[name=bike_img]").val(image); } }) }); </script>

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  • Replace delimited block of text in file with the contents of another file

    - by rmarimon
    I need to write a simple script to replace a block of text in a configuration file with the contents of another file. Let's assume with have the following simplified files: server.xml <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8'?> <Server port="8005" shutdown="SHUTDOWN"> <Service name="Catalina"> <Connector port="80" protocol="HTTP/1.1"/> <Engine name="Catalina" defaultHost="localhost"> <!-- BEGIN realm --> <sometags/> <sometags/> <!-- END realm --> <Host name="localhost" appBase="webapps"/> </Engine> </Service> </Server> realm.xml <Realm className="org.apache.catalina.realm.UserDatabaseRealm" resourceName="UserDatabase"/> I want to run a script and have realm.xml replace the contents between the <!-- BEGIN realm --> and <!-- END realm --> lines. If realm.xml changes then whenever the script is run again it will replace the lines again with the new contents of realm.xml. This is intended to be run in /etc/init.d/tomcat on startup of the service on multiple installations on which the realm is going to be different. I'm not so sure how can I do this simply with awk or sed.

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  • How do I run a command as a different user from a root cronjob?

    - by rob
    I seem to be stuck between an NFS limitation and a Cron limitation. So I've got root cron (on RHEL5) running a shell script that, among other things, needs to rsync some files over an NFS mount. And the files on the NFS mount are owned by the apache user with mode 700, so only the apache user can run the rsync command -- running as root yields a permission error (NFS being a rare case, apparently, where the root user is not all-powerful?) When I just want to run the rsync by hand, I can use "sudo -u apache rsync ..." But sudo no workie in cron -- it says "sudo: sorry, you must have a tty to run sudo". I don't want to run the whole script as apache (i.e. from apache's crontab) because other parts of the script do require root -- it's just that one command that needs to run as apache. And I would really prefer not to change the mode on the files, as that will involve significant changes to other applications. There's gotta be a way to accomplish "sudo -u apache" from cron?? thanks! rob

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  • jQuery carousel in a div with display:none

    - by Fred Kafka
    I have to use on my site a jQuery responsive carousel with 4 displayed items that slide one at a time, etc etc. The point is: this carousel is placed in a div with display:none and it appears clicking on a button with a slideToggle script (jQuery). Well, when the div appears the carousel is not displayed. Nothing! Notice that if I remove the display:none the carousel shows perfectly. I've tried a bunch of carousel plugin (bxslider, caroufredsel, elastislide, flexslider) and this issue happens for all of them. And then... I'm going crazy!! Excuse meSorry friends, here is the code: HTML (here is the case of FlexSlider but the code is similar for the other plugins) <div id="hiddenDiv"> <div id="hiddenDivInner"> <div class="flexslider"> <ul class="slides"> <li>...</li> <li>...</li> <li>...</li> </ul> </div> </div> </div> CSS #hiddenDiv{ display:none; padding-bottom:10px; background: url("../img/xxx.gif") repeat left bottom #FFFFFF; } SCRIPT (copy-paste from the site. This script is between $(document).ready together with other scripts. Alredy tried to remove the load function) $(window).load(function() { $('.flexslider').flexslider({ animation: "slide", animationLoop: false, itemWidth: 300, itemMargin: 5, minItems: 1, maxItems: 4 }); }); $("#trigger").click(function () { $("#hiddenDiv").slideToggle(400, "easeInOutExpo"); }); I remind you that with this code and no display:none every carousels work, also if I slide up and then down the div using the slideToggle button (#trigger).

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  • Security implications of writing files using PHP

    - by susmits
    I'm currently trying to create a CMS using PHP, purely in the interest of education. I want the administrators to be able to create content, which will be parsed and saved on the server storage in pure HTML form to avoid the overhead that executing PHP script would incur. Unfortunately, I could only think of a few ways of doing so: Setting write permission on every directory where the CMS should want to write a file. This sounds like quite a bad idea. Setting write permissions on a single cached directory. A PHP script could then include or fopen/fread/echo the content from a file in the cached directory at request-time. This could perhaps be carried out in a Mediawiki-esque fashion: something like index.php?page=xyz could read and echo content from cached/xyz.html at runtime. However, I'll need to ensure the sanity of $_GET['page'] to prevent nasty variations like index.php?page=http://www.bad-site.org/malicious-script.js. I'm personally not too thrilled by the second idea, but the first one sounds very insecure. Could someone please suggest a good way of getting this done?

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  • What are the security implications of making a clientaccesspolicy proxy workaround?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I wanted to use a published GoogleDocs document as the datasource of a Silverlight application but ran into clientaccesspolicy issues. I read many articles like this and this about how difficult it is to get around the clientaccesspolicy issue. So I wrote this 15-line CURL script and put it on my PHP site and now I can get the text of any GoogleDocs document and any text from any URL into my Silverlight application: <?php $url = filter_input(INPUT_GET, 'url',FILTER_SANITIZE_STRING); $user_agent = 'Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 5.01; Windows NT 5.0)'; $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, "/tmp/cookie"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, "/tmp/cookie"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url ); // set url to post to curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FAILONERROR, 1); // Fail on errors curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, 0); // allow redirects curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER,1); // return into a variable curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 15); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, $user_agent); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, 0); echo curl_exec($ch); ?> So it makes me wonder: Why is there so much discussion about whether or not URLs support clientaccesspolicy or not, since you just have to write a simple proxy script and get the information through it? Why aren't there services, e.g. like the URL shortening services, which supply this functionality? What are the security implications of having a script like this?

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  • What is the best way to auto-generate INSERT statements for a SQL Server table?

    - by JosephStyons
    We are writing a new application, and while testing, we will need a bunch of dummy data. I've added that data by using MS Access to dump excel files into the relevant tables. Every so often, we want to "refresh" the relevant tables, which means dropping them all, re-creating them, and running a saved MS Access append query. The first part (dropping & re-creating) is an easy sql script, but the last part makes me cringe. I want a single setup script that has a bunch of INSERTs to regenerate the dummy data. I have the data in the tables now. What is the best way to automatically generate a big list of INSERT statements from that dataset? I'm thinking of something like in TOAD (for Oracle) where you can right-click on a grid and click Save As-Insert Statements, and it will just dump a big sql script wherever you want. The only way I can think of doing it is to save the table to an excel sheet and then write an excel formula to create an INSERT for every row, which is surely not the best way. I'm using the 2008 Management Studio to connect to a SQL Server 2005 database.

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  • Javascript not showing up on Facebook Application's Profile Tab

    - by prateekdayal
    Hi, This may sound very noobish but I have tried to read the forum posts and docs on javascript behavior on Facebook's profile tabs. I understand that profile tabs don't support referencing external javascript but even my inline tags are not showing up on profile pages. In fact I am trying the fbjs-swf bridge and the code needed to instantiate the swf does not show up on the page <fb:fbjs_bridge/> <div id="swfContainer"></div> <script> var swf = document.createElement('fb:swf'); swf.setId('my_swf_id'); swf.setWidth('630'); swf.setHeight('520'); swf.setSWFSrc('http://www.muziboo.com/swf/player4-2.swf'); document.getElementById('swfContainer').appendChild(swf); document.getElementById('my_swf_id').callSWF('asMethod', 'one', 'two'); </script> I see a swf embedded (the one for the fbjs bridge) but I don't see any script tag containing the above javascript code. What am I missing? I can see the javascript code on canvas page though Thanks

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  • Javascript "this" variable confusion

    - by Assaf M
    Hi I am currently reading the book "Javascript: The Good Parts" and was playing with Functions. I produced a test script to test some properties and I am somewhat confused by the results. Here is the code: <h3>Object</h3> <div style="padding-left: 10px;"> <script type="text/javascript"> function outterF() { document.writeln("outterF.this = " + this + "<br>"); function innerF() { document.writeln("innerF.this = " + this + "<br>"); return this; }; var inner = innerF(); return this; } document.writeln("<b>From Inside:</b><br>"); var outF = outterF(); var inF = outF.inner; document.writeln("<br>"); document.writeln("<b>From Outside:</b><br>"); document.writeln("outterF.this = " + outF + "<br>"); document.writeln("innerF.this = " + inF + "<br>"); </script> </div> Result is: Object From Inside: outterF.this = [object Window] innerF.this = [object Window] From Outside: outterF.this = [object Window] innerF.this = undefined Notice that outF.inner returns "undefined", is that some kind of a language bug? Obviously, outF.inner points to Window object that has nothing to do with my object but shouldn't it be at least pointing to a Function object instead? Thanks -Assaf

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  • How to write a custom solution using a python package, modules etc

    - by morpheous
    I am writing a packacge foobar which consists of the modules alice, bob, charles and david. From my understanding of Python packages and modules, this means I will create a folder foobar, with the following subdirectories and files (please correct if I am wrong) foobar/ __init__.py alice/alice.py bob/bob.py charles/charles.py david/david.py The package should be executable, so that in addition to making the modules alice, bob etc available as 'libraries', I should also be able to use foobar in a script like this: python foobar --args=someargs Question1: Can a package be made executable and used in a script like I described above? Question 2 The various modules will use code that I want to refactor into a common library. Does that mean creating a new sub directory 'foobar/common' and placing common.py in that folder? Question 3 How will the modules foo import the common module ? Is it 'from foobar import common' or can I not use this since these modules are part of the package? Question 4 I want to add logic for when the foobar package is being used in a script (assuming this can be done - I have only seen it done for modules) The code used is something like: if __name__ == "__main__": dosomething() where (in which file) would I put this logic ?

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  • How do I process the configure file when cross-compiling with mingw?

    - by vy32
    I have a small open source program that builds with an autoconf configure script. I ran configure I tried to compile with: make CC="/opt/local/bin/i386-mingw32-g++" That didn't work because the configure script found include files that were not available to the mingw system. So then I tried: ./configure CC="/opt/local/bin/i386-mingw32-g++" But that didn't work; the configure script gives me this error: ./configure: line 5209: syntax error near unexpected token `newline' ./configure: line 5209: ` *_cv_*' Because of this code: # The following way of writing the cache mishandles newlines in values, # but we know of no workaround that is simple, portable, and efficient. # So, we kill variables containing newlines. # Ultrix sh set writes to stderr and can't be redirected directly, # and sets the high bit in the cache file unless we assign to the vars. ( for ac_var in `(set) 2>&1 | sed -n 's/^\(a-zA-Z_a-zA-Z0-9_*\)=.*/\1/p'`; do eval ac_val=\$$ac_var case $ac_val in #( *${as_nl}*) case $ac_var in #( *_cv_* fi Which is generated then the AC_OUTPUT is called. Any thoughts? Is there a correct way to do this?

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  • Is it possible to unstick a remote IIS ASP server after an exception hangs the session?

    - by user89691
    I have been coding an app in classic ASP that accesses 2 Access databases. I had a page I was working on throw an exception, which is normal during development and causes no lasting problems. This time however, after the exception any attempt to open either of the databases would freeze the session with an infinite script timeout. If I delete the session cookie I an able to access ASP pages again until I try to open the database again. The database that was open when the exception was thrown is left open. There is a LDB lock file and I can't rename or delete either the LDB or MDB file, though I can download the MDB file with FTP. The 2nd access database is not open but any attempt to read this also hangs the session. Accessing HTML pages is fine. The site is hosted with Hostway and they are not interested ("Coding problem = Your problem" even though it leaves my site dead in the water, I suspect until the next reboot, whenever that might be). Here is the dump from the relevant ASP page that threw the exception: Active Server Pages error 'ASP 0115' Unexpected error /translatestats.asp A trappable error (C0000005) occurred in an external object. The script cannot continue running. Active Server Pages error 'ASP 0240' Script Engine Exception /translatestats.asp A ScriptEngine threw exception 'C0000005' in 'IActiveScript::Close()' from 'CActiveScriptEngine::FinalRelease()'. Is there any way I can unstick the site / force close the database remotely ?

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  • Facebook og:url ignored in favour of a Facebook hosted page about the og entity

    - by Dan
    I am trying to implement the Like button on my pages. Those pages represent the review page for a product. When a user Likes the page, it shows up in Facebook (not as a link, but as liking an entity), however when you click on the entity in Facebook it links through to a facebook.com hosted page representing the page. I want the user to be redirected to the og:url page? This happens for example when you Like an artist page on Grroveshar: http://grooveshark.com/#!/artist/Elbow/4795 I am clearly "doing it wrong". I am using the following markup to include the SDK. MYAPPID is included by the code generator Facebook provides so I assume it is required. <div id="fb-root"></div> <script>(function(d, s, id) { var js, fjs = d.getElementsByTagName(s)[0]; if (d.getElementById(id)) return; js = d.createElement(s); js.id = id; js.src = "//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js#xfbml=1&appId=MYAPPID"; fjs.parentNode.insertBefore(js, fjs); }(document, 'script', 'facebook-jssdk'));</script> Then my code to render the Like button. <div class="fb-like" data-send="false" data-width="450" data-show-faces="true"></div> And finally my og tags: <meta property="og:title" content="My product" /> <meta property="og:type" content="product" /> <meta property="og:url" content="http://site.com/product_1/" /> <meta property="og:image" content="http://site.com/image1.jpg" /> <meta property="og:site_name" content="My-Site-Name.com" /> <meta property="fb:admins" content="MYFACEBOOKID" /> <meta property="fb:app_id" content="MYAPPID" /> Thanks!

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  • response.Text is undefined when returning variable

    - by George
    Not sure if the problem is related to Ajax or something silly about JavaScript that I'm overlooking in general, but I have the following script where fox.html is just plain text that reads, "The quick brown fox jumped over the lazy dog." : function loadXMLDoc() { if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.open("GET","fox.html",true); xmlhttp.send(); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { fox = xmlhttp.responseText; alert(fox); } } } onload = loadXMLDoc; The above script alerts the contents of fox.html onload just fine. However if I change the script so that: { fox = xmlhttp.responseText; alert(fox); } becomes: { fox = xmlhttp.responseText; return fox; } and alert(loadXMLDoc()); onload I get 'undefined'. I'm wondering why this is so.

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  • Moving a large number of files in one directory to multiple directories

    - by Axsuul
    I am looking to create a Windows batch script to move about 2,000 files and splitting them up so that there are 10 files per folder. I have attempted creating a batch script but the syntax really boggles my mind. Here is what I have so far @echo off :: Config parameters set /a groupsize = 10 :: initial counter, everytime counter is 1, we create new folder set /a n = 1 :: folder counter set /a nf = 1 for %%f in (*.txt) do ( :: if counter is 1, create new folder if %n% == 1 ( md folder%nf% set /a n += 1 ) :: move file into folder mv -Y %%f folder%nf%\%%f :: reset counter if larger than group size if %n% == %groupsize% ( set /a n = 1 ) else ( set /a n += 1 ) ) pause Basically what this script does is loop through each .txt file in the directory. It creates a new directory in the beginning and moves 10 files into that directory, then creates a new folder again and moves another 10 files into that directory, and so on. However, I'm having problems where the n variable is not being incremented in the loop? I'm sure there's other errors too since the CMD window closes on me even with pause. Any help or guidance is appreciated, thanks for your time!

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  • Cannot upload media via Wordpress uploader

    - by Justin Johnson
    This has to do with media uploading in Wordpress. Every time WP creates a folder for new uploads (it organizes uploads by year and month: yyyy/mm), it creates it with the "apache:apache' user and group, with full access to all (777 or drwxrwxrwx). However, after that, WP cannot create a folder within that folder (e.g.: mkdir 2011 succeeds, but mkdir 2011/01 fails). Also, uploads cannot be moved into these newly created folders even though the permissions are 777 (rwxrwxrwx). Once a month, I have to chown the newly created folders to be the same as user:group as the rest of the files. Once I do that, uploading works fine (which doesn't make sense to me The really frustrating part is that this problem doesn't exist in other WP installs on other domains on the same server. * I wasn't sure if this should be here or on serverfault. Edit: The containing directory /.../httpdocs/blog/wp-content/uploads has the correct ownership drwxrwxrwx 5 myuser psaserv 4096 Jun 3 18:38 uploads This is a Plesk/CentOS environment hosted by Media Temple (dv). I've written the following test script to simulate the problem <pre><?php $d = "d" . mt_rand(100, 500); var_dump( get_current_user(), $d, mkdir($d), chmod($d, 0777), mkdir("$d/$d"), chmod("$d/$d", 0777), fileowner($d), getmyuid() ); The script always creates the first directory mkdir($d) successfully. On domain A, where the WP problem is, it cannot create the nested directory mkdir("$d/$d"). However, on domain B, both directories are successfully created. I am running each script at /var/www/vhosts/domainA/httpdocs/tmp/t.php and /var/www/vhosts/domainB/httpdocs/tmp/t.php respectively I checked the permissions on tmp, httpdocs, and domain[AB] and they are the same for each path. The only thing that differs is the user.

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  • Loosing Textbox value on postback

    - by Dusty Roberts
    Hi Peeps i have an href that once clicking on it, it opens a dialog and sets a textbox value for that dialog. however, once i click on submit in that dialog, the textbox value is null. Link: <a href="#" onclick="javascript:expand('https://me.yahoo.com'); jQuery('#openiddialog').dialog('open'); return false;"><img id="yahoo" class="spacehw" src="/Content/Images/spacer.gif" /></a> Script: <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery(document).ready(function () { jQuery("#openiddialog").dialog({ autoOpen: false, width: 600, modal: true, buttons: { "Cancel": function () { $(this).dialog("close"); } } }); }); function expand(obj) { $("#<%=openIdBox.ClientID %>").val(obj); } </script> Dialog:<div id="openiddialog" title="Log in using OpenID"> <p> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text="OpenID Login" /> <asp:TextBox ID="openIdBox" EnableViewState="true" runat="server" /> <asp:JButton Icon="ui-icon-key" ID="loginButton" runat="server" Text="Authenticate" OnClick="loginButton_Click" /> <asp:CustomValidator runat="server" ID="openidValidator" ErrorMessage="Invalid OpenID Identifier" ControlToValidate="openIdBox" EnableViewState="false" OnServerValidate="openidValidator_ServerValidate" /> <br /> <asp:Label ID="loginFailedLabel" runat="server" EnableViewState="False" Text="Login failed" Visible="False" /> <asp:Label ID="loginCanceledLabel" runat="server" EnableViewState="False" Text="Login canceled" Visible="False" /> </p> </div> ... sorry... can't fix formatting ?!?

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  • VBScript: Disable caching of response from server to HTTP GET URL request

    - by Rob
    I want to turn off the cache used when a URL call to a server is made from VBScript running within an application on a Windows machine. What function/method/object do I use to do this? When the call is made for the first time, my Linux based Apache server returns a response back from the CGI Perl script that it is running. However, subsequent runs of the script seem to be using the same response as for the first time, so the data is being cached somewhere. My server logs confirm that the server is not being called in those subsequent times, only in the first time. This is what I am doing. I am using the following code from within a commercial application (don't wish to mention this application, probably not relevant to my problem): With CreateObject("MSXML2.XMLHTTP") .open "GET", "http://myserver/cgi-bin/nsr/nsr.cgi?aparam=1", False .send nsrresponse =.responseText End With Is there a function/method on the above object to turn off caching, or should I be calling a method/function to turn off the caching on a response object before making the URL? I looked here for a solution: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms535874(VS.85).aspx - not quite helpful enough. And here: http://www.w3.org/TR/XMLHttpRequest/ - very unfriendly and hard to read. I am also trying to force not using the cache using http header settings and html document header meta data: Snippet of server-side Perl CGI script that returns the response back to the calling client, set expiry to 0. print $httpGetCGIRequest-header( -type = 'text/html', -expires = '+0s', ); Http header settings in response sent back to client: <html><head><meta http-equiv="CACHE-CONTROL" content="NO-CACHE"></head> <body> response message generated from server </body> </html> The above http header and html document head settings haven't worked, hence my question.

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  • How to stay financially organized easily when running a small web development company

    - by jls33fsls
    So I'm a programmer and I run my own web development company. In the past I have been able to get away with just doing some simple number crunching at the end of each year to do my taxes, but my company has grown substantially over the last year, and now that I am sitting down to do my taxes it has become an absolute nightmare because none of my information is organized at all. I want to be abel to easily keep track of my monthly and yearly financial data for my company (I use a Mac), any suggestions?

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  • Generating MySQL UPDATE statements containing BLOB image data

    - by Bob
    I'm trying to write an SQL statement that will generate an SQL script that will update a BLOB field with an IMAGE being selected from the database. This is what I have: select concat( 'UPDATE `IMAGE` SET THUMBNAIL = ', QUOTE( THUMBNAIL ), ' WHERE ID = ', ID, ';' ) as UPDATE_STATEMENT from IMAGE; In the above, THUMBNAIL is a BLOB field containing raw image data. When I run the resulting script I get the following error: ERROR at line 2: Unknown command '\\'. I first tried this without the QUOTE() function, like so: select concat( 'UPDATE `IMAGE` SET THUMBNAIL = \'', THUMBNAIL, '\' WHERE ID = ', ID, ';' ) as UPDATE_STATEMENT from IMAGE; Running the resulting script produces this error: ERROR at line 2: Unknown command '\0'. What is the proper function to apply to this BLOB field in the select, so the UPDATE statements will work? If context is required, I'm looking to migrate thumbnails generated on one server to another server for certain image IDs only. I would use mysqldump, but I don't want to clobber the entire table. Any help is greatly appreciated!

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