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• Lucene raise document score if sibling entity matches query

  - by Pitagoras

  I have the following design situation. I use hibernate search (lucene in the back). Tha application manages ITEMs which have title, description and tags. These are full text indexed. On the other hand, we have COLLECTION of ITEMs. The user can create a COLLECTION and add as many ITEMs as she wants. ITEMs can also belong to many COLLECTIONs. I have a boosted query so that search terms that appear in the tags are more important than in the title, and lastly in the description. But I need an additional matching criteria: for a given ITEM, it whould rank better if other documents in some COLLECTION where the ITEM belongs, also match the query. This is like to say: the title/tags/description of "fellow" items (i.e. items in some shared collection) make the item rank better. I was thinking that adding an ITEM to a COLLECTION would add something like "extra tags" to every other ITEM in the collection, being these extra tags the elements to match in the added ITEM. I feel a more clever solution lucene-wise should exists. Any ideas/pointers are welcome. Thanks.

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• batch: replace a line in a text file

  - by sasamimasas

  I'm trying to replace this line: # forward-socks5 / 127.0.0.1:9050 . with this one: forward-socks5 / 127.0.0.1:9050 . this line belongs to a config file that has to be enabled (UN-commented) by deleting the # sign from the beginning and I could not thought of a better way other than replacing the line with another without the # sign. any other thoughts or ways would be very useful. btw, the spaces before the text are there also.I have pasted the text as it was in the original file. thanks in advance EDIT: I have somehow managed to do the line addition and removing using two peaces of code that I've found. my only problem is that the following code removes every bit of exclamation in the output file! @echo off :Variables SETLOCAL ENABLEDELAYEDEXPANSION set InputFile=config.txt set OutputFile=config-new.txt set _strFind=# forward-socks5 / 127.0.0.1:9050 . set _strInsert= forward-socks5 / 127.0.0.1:9050 . set i=0 :Replace for /f "usebackq tokens=1 delims=[]" %%A in (`find /n "%_strFind%" "%InputFile%"`) do (set _strNum=%%A) for /f "usebackq delims=" %%A in ("%InputFile%") do ( set /a i = !i! + 1 echo %%A>>"%OutputFile%" if [!i!] == [%_strNum%] (echo %_strInsert%>>"%OutputFile%") ) type %OutputFile% | findstr /i /v /c:"%_strFind%">config-new2.txt I was wondering if there is any way to do both the find/delete/add line in one step (not two steps as mine)...

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• Firing PropertyChanged event in a complex, nested type in WPF

  - by John

  Hey I have a question about the PropertyChanged vent firing in WPF whne it is used in a complex type. I have a class called DataStore and a list of Departments (an ObservableCollection), and each department again has a list of Products. Properties in the Product class that are changed also affect properties in the Department and DataStore class. How does each Product notify the Department it belongs to, and the DataStore (which is the mother class of all) that one or more of its properties have changed their values? Example: a product has a property NumberSoldToday and is bound. The Department has a property called TotalNumberOfProductsSold: public int TotalNumberOfProductsSold { get { int result = 0; foreach(Product p in this.products) result += p.NumberSoldToday; return result; } } And the data store has a property TotalProductsSold (for all departments): public int TotalProductsSold { get { int result = 0; foreach(Product p in this.deparments) result += p.TotalNumberOfProductsSold; return result; } } If all these properties are bound, and the innermost property changes, it must somehow notify that the value of the other 2 changed as well. How? The only way I can see this happening is to hook up the PropertyChanged event in each class. Th event must also fire when deleting, adding to the collection of products and deparments, respectively. Is there a better, more clever way to do this?

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• Need an advice for ASP.NET MVC2 Newsletter Project

  - by ck3g

  I'm new in ASP.NET MVC2. But I want to develop a simply Newsletter site. The main problem which stuck me is how correctly use MVC pattern in News details and comments list. For example: I have a NewsController and action Details inside. And two model classes News and Comments. I want show all comments belongs to this News record and textarea for adding new comments. I wand display all this content in /News/Details/ How can i do it? I tried use PartialViews in Details View: one for Adding Comment and another for Comment list. I have passed comment object thorough ViewData["Comment"]. But i have problems with my models (think I cant use two models in View) Again. How can I display Single Post + Comments + add comment view at single page using ASP.NET MVC2? Another Example is stackoverflow.com. Here is an question + answers + write answer. I need same structure

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• find and replace values in csv using PHP

  - by peirix

  I'd think there was a question on this already, but I can't find one. Maybe the solution is too easy... Anyway, I have a csv and want to let the user change the values based on a name. I've already sorted out creating new name+value-pairs using the fopen('a') mode, using jQuery to send the AJAX call with newValue and newName. But say the content looks like this: host|http:www.stackoverflow.com folder|/questions/ folder2|/users/ And now I want to change the folder value. So I'll send in folder as oldName and /tags/ as newValue. What's the best way to overwrite the value? The order in the list doesn't matter, and the name will always be on the left, followed by a |(pipe), the value and then a new-line. My first thought was to read the list, store it in an array, search all the [0]'s for oldName, then change the [1] that belongs to it, and then write it back to a file. But I feel there is a better way around this? Any ideas? Maybe regex?

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• Best practices for "search data class" in ASP.NET MVC

  - by Tim Ridgely

  Hi everybody, I'm hoping this isn't too subjective, but I'm new to ASP.NET MVC and I'm trying to figure out how others may have solved similar problems. Basically, I have two entities, Customers and Orders. A customer has many orders; an order belongs to exactly one customer. I'm making an Order Search feature that should allow a user to search for orders based on order or customer information. Pretty straightforward, I think. I've read in other posts that the search controller should use GET, but I think it makes more sense to use POST because of the large number of search params. I'm using Entity Framework to create my models, and that's in a separate class library project and namespace. This article talks about using binding instead of Request.Form to get at the POST data. Would it make decent sense to make a class to hold all the search data that could be materialized by the magic model binding? Otherwise I'd just be poking through the FormCollection to pull out particular values, which might be fine. Where would you recommend making such a class?

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• Read data from form

  - by Superhuman

  This is a strange question, I've never tried to do this before. I have a repetitive process requiring that I copy and paste data from text boxes in one program into another program for further processing. I'd like to automate this process using VB .NET. The application from which the data is gathered isn't mine, so I don't have ActiveX-like access to its controls. How would you write an application to gain access to a form from another application, to be able to find the controls on the form, and gather the values from them? Just experimenting, I've used the following code. This resulted in only the name of the form to which this code belongs. It didn't find the names of any other forms I have open, and I have a lot open to choose from. This is frustrating because it's only step one of what I'll need to do to make my life easier... Public Declare Function EnumWindows Lib "user32" (ByVal lpEnumFunc As CallBack, ByVal lParam As Integer) As Integer Public Delegate Function CallBack(ByVal hwnd As IntPtr, ByVal lParam As IntPtr) As Boolean Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim cb As New CallBack(AddressOf MyCallBack) EnumWindows(cb, 8) End Sub Public Function MyCallBack(ByVal hwnd As Long, ByVal lparam As Long) As Boolean Dim frm As System.Windows.Forms.Control frm = System.Windows.Forms.Form.FromHandle(hwnd) If frm Is Nothing Then Return True If frm.Text <> "" Then TextBox1.Text += frm.Text & ", " End If Return True End Function Does anyone have a recommendation? Thanks, SH

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• Get parent attribute within new child form?

  - by dannymcc

  I have a simple Rails 3 application and I am trying to create a new record that belongs to it's owner. It's working by passing the id to a hidden field in the new form of the child record. This works well and once the new child form submitted it correctly gets associated in the child/parent relationship. What I am trying to do, is lookup values form the parent within the new child form. The problem is that the child relationship is not yet created. Is there anyway I can use a .where lookup in the view? Or, is there a better way of doing this? At the moment I am passing the animal_id though to the new Claim form and it's inserted into a hidden field labelled animal_id. What I am trying to do: <%= @animal.where(:animal_id => params[:animal_id]).id %> The above would ideally get the animal ID from the soon-to-be-associated animal. Is there any sort of before_filter or anything that could take the passed params from the URL and temporarily create the relationship just for the new form view and then permanently create the relationship once the form is submitted? I've tried adding the following to my Claims controller and then called @animal.AnimalName in the view but I get NoMethodError: before_filter :find_animal protected def find_animal if params[:animal_id] Animal.find(params[:animal_id]) end end The URL of the new claim is correctly showing the animal ID so I'm not sure why it's not finding it: http://localhost:3000/claims/new?animal_id=1 The model relations are as follows: animal has_many claims animal has_one exclusion claim has_one animal exception has_one animal

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• Optimising ruby regexp -- lots of match groups

  - by Farcaller

  I'm working on a ruby baser lexer. To improve performance, I joined up all tokens' regexps into one big regexp with match group names. The resulting regexp looks like: /\A(?<__anonymous_-1038694222803470993>(?-mix:\n+))|\A(?<__anonymous_-1394418499721420065>(?-mix:\/\/[\A\n]*))|\A(?<__anonymous_3077187815313752157>(?-mix:include\s+"[\A"]+"))|\A(?<LET>(?-mix:let\s))|\A(?<IN>(?-mix:in\s))|\A(?<CLASS>(?-mix:class\s))|\A(?<DEF>(?-mix:def\s))|\A(?<DEFM>(?-mix:defm\s))|\A(?<MULTICLASS>(?-mix:multiclass\s))|\A(?<FUNCNAME>(?-mix:![a-zA-Z_][a-zA-Z0-9_]*))|\A(?<ID>(?-mix:[a-zA-Z_][a-zA-Z0-9_]*))|\A(?<STRING>(?-mix:"[\A"]*"))|\A(?<NUMBER>(?-mix:[0-9]+))/ I'm matching it to my string producing a MatchData where exactly one token is parsed: bigregex =~ "\n ... garbage" puts $~.inspect Which outputs #<MatchData "\n" __anonymous_-1038694222803470993:"\n" __anonymous_-1394418499721420065:nil __anonymous_3077187815313752157:nil LET:nil IN:nil CLASS:nil DEF:nil DEFM:nil MULTICLASS:nil FUNCNAME:nil ID:nil STRING:nil NUMBER:nil> So, the regex actually matched the "\n" part. Now, I need to figure the match group where it belongs (it's clearly visible from #inspect output that it's _anonymous-1038694222803470993, but I need to get it programmatically). I could not find any option other than iterating over #names: m.names.each do |n| if m[n] type = n.to_sym resolved_type = (n.start_with?('__anonymous_') ? nil : type) val = m[n] break end end which verifies that the match group did have a match. The problem here is that it's slow (I spend about 10% of time in the loop; also 8% grabbing the @input[@pos..-1] to make sure that \A works as expected to match start of string (I do not discard input, just shift the @pos in it). You can check the full code at GH repo. Any ideas on how to make it at least a bit faster? Is there any option to figure the "successful" match group easier?

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• Entity Framework - Store parent reference on child relationship (one -> many)

  - by contactmatt

  I have a setup like this: [Table("tablename...")] public class Branch { public Branch() { Users = new List<User>(); } [Key] public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public List<User> Users { get; set; } } [Table("tablename...")] public class User { [Key] public int Id {get; set; } public string Username { get; set; } public string Password { get; set; } [ForeignKey("ParentBranch")] public int? ParentBranchId { get; set; } // Is this possible? public Branch ParentBranch { get; set; } // ??? } Is it possible for the User to know what parent branch it belongs to? The code above is not working. Entity Framework version 5.0 .NET 4.0 c#

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• MVC design pattern in complex iPad app: is one fat controller acceptable?

  - by nutsmuggler

  I am building a complex iPad application; think of it as a scrapbook. For the purpose of this question, let's consider a page with two images over it. My main view displays my doc data rendered as a single UIImage; this because I need to do some global manipulation over them. This is my DisplayView. When editing I need to instantiate an EditorView with my two images as subviews; this way I can interact with a single image, (rotate it, scale it, move it). When editing is triggered, I hide my DisplayView and show my EditorView. In a iPhone app, I'd associate each main view (that is, a view filling the screen) to a view controller. The problem is here there is just one view controller; I've considered passing the EditorView via a modal view controller, but it's not an option (there a complex layout with a mask covering everything and palettes over it; rebuilding it in the EditorView would create duplicate code). Presently the EditorView incorporates some logic (loads data from the model, invokes some subviews for fine editing, saves data back to the model); EditorView subviews also incorporate some logic (I manipulate images and pass them back to the main EditorView). I feel this logic belongs more to a controller. On the other hand, I am not sure making my only view controller so fat a good idea. What is the best, cocoa-ish implementation of such a class structure? Feel free to ask for clarifications. Cheers.

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• How can I use SQL Server's full text search across multiple rows at once?

  - by Morbo

  I'm trying to improve the search functionality on my web forums. I've got a table of posts, and each post has (among other less interesting things): PostID, a unique ID for the individual post. ThreadID, an ID of the thread the post belongs to. There can be any number of posts per thread. Text, because a forum would be really boring without it. I want to write an efficient query that will search the threads in the forum for a series of words, and it should return a hit for any ThreadID for which there are posts that include all of the search words. For example, let's say that thread 9 has post 1001 with the word "cat" in it, and also post 1027 with the word "hat" in it. I want a search for cat hat to return a hit for thread 9. This seems like a straightforward requirement, but I don't know of an efficient way to do it. Using the regular FREETEXT and CONTAINS capabilities for N'cat AND hat' won't return any hits in the above example because the words exist in different posts, even though those posts are in the same thread. (As far as I can tell, when using CREATE FULLTEXT INDEX I have to give it my index on the primary key PostID, and can't tell it to index all posts with the same ThreadID together.) The solution that I currently have in place works, but sucks: maintain a separate table that contains the entire concatenated post text of every thread, and make a full text index on THAT. I'm looking for a solution that doesn't require me to keep a duplicate copy of the entire text of every thread in my forums. Any ideas? Am I missing something obvious?

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• App_Themes Not Loading on Initial Load

  - by Jason Heine

  Hello, I have an application where different users can log in via a single portal login. When they log in, if they belong to more than 1 company they have to select the company they belong to. The theme will change if there is a custom theme for that company. Each page my application has inherits a "CustomPage" class Here is the code for the custom page: public class CustomPage : Page { protected void Page_PreInit(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Globals.Company != null && Directory.Exists(Page.MapPath("~/App_Themes/" + Globals.Company.CompanyName))) { Page.Theme = Globals.Company.CompanyName; } else { Page.Theme = "Default"; } } } When the customer belongs to more than 1 company, and they select the company they belong to, the theme loads just fine. So, the problem I am having is this: If they belong to just 1 company, the company is automatically selected but the theme does not load right away. However, if I refresh the page, the theme loads just fine. Even the default theme will not load. The page has no css at all until I refresh. I am not using forms authentication and the default theme in the web config is "Default" <pages theme="Default"> Any thoughts to what might be going on? If you need clarification on anything, please ask. Thanks!

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• CodeGolf: Find the Unique Paths

  - by st0le

  Here's a pretty simple idea, in this pastebin I've posted some pair of numbers. These represent Nodes of a directed graph. The input to stdin will be of the form, (they'll be numbers, i'll be using an example here) c d q r a b b c d e p q so x y means x is connected to y (not viceversa) There are 2 paths in that example. a->b->c->d->e and p->q->r. You need to print all the unique paths from that graph The output should be of the format a->b->c->d->e p->q->r Notes You can assume the numbers are chosen such that one path doesn't intersect the other (one node belongs to one path) The pairs are in random order. They are more than 1 paths, they can be of different lengths. All numbers are less than 1000. If you need more details, please leave a comment. I'll amend as required. Shameless-Plug For those who enjoy Codegolf, please Commit at Area51 for its very own site:) (for those who don't enjoy it, please support it as well, so we'll stay out of your way...)

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• Ruby on Rails: temporarily update an attribute into cache without saving it?

  - by randombits

  I have a bit of code that depicts this hypothetical setup below. A class Foo which contains many Bars. Bar belongs to one and only one Foo. At some point, Foo can do a finite loop that lapses 2+ iterations. In that loop, something like the following happens: bar = Bar.find_where_in_use_is_zero bar.in_use = 1 Basically what find_where_in_use_is_zero does something like this in as far as SQL goes: SELECT * from bars WHERE in_use = 0 Now the problem I'm facing is that I cannot run the following line of code after bar.in_use =1 is invoked: bar.save The reason is clear, I'm still looping and the new Foo hasn't been created, so we don't have a foo_id to put into bars.foo_id. Even if I set to allow foo_id to be NULL, we have a problem where one of the bars can fail validation and the existing one was saved to the database. In my application, that doesn't work. The entire request is atomic, either all succeeds or fails together. What happens next, is that in my loop, I have the potential to select the same exact bar that I did on a previous iteration of the loop since the in_use flag will not be set to 1 until @foo.save is called. Is there anyway to work around this condition and temporarily set the in_use attribute to 1 for subsequent iterations of the loop so that I retrieve an available bar instance?

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• Show image on hover with PHP

  - by Sorosh

  I have a small problem with my PHP code and It would be very nice if someone could help me. I want to display an image when hovering over a link. This is the link with the PHP code that I have now: <a href="<?php the_permalink(); ?>"><?php if ( has_post_thumbnail() ) {the_post_thumbnail();} else if ( has_post_video() ) {the_post_video_image();}?></a> This code shows a image, but I want to execute this code when hovering over the link with the image: <?php echo print_image_function(); ?> The code also shows a image that belongs to a category. I don't want the initial image to disappear I simply want to show the second image on top off the first image when hovering over the first image. I don't know if it is helpful but I use Wordpress and I am not a PHP expert. I even don't know if this is going to work. Thats why I am asking if somebody can help me with this. Thanks in advance

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• Wrong class type in objective C

  - by Max Hui

  I have a parent class and a child class. GameObjectBase (parent) GameObjectPlayer(child). When I override a method in Child class and call it using [myPlayerClass showNextFrame] It is calling the parent class one. It turns out in the debugger, I see the myPlayerClass was indeed class type GameObjectBase (which is the parent class) How come? GameObjectBase.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "cocos2d.h" @class GameLayer; @interface GameObjectBase : NSObject { /* CCSprite *gameObjectSprite; // Sprite representing this game object GameLayer *parentGameLayer; */ // Reference of the game layer this object // belongs to } @property (nonatomic, assign) CCSprite *gameObjectSprite; @property (nonatomic, assign) GameLayer *parentGameLayer; // Class method. Autorelease + (id) initWithGameLayer:(GameLayer *) gamelayer imageFileName:(NSString *) fileName; // "Virtual methods" that the derived class should implement. // If not implemented, this method will be called and Assert game - (void) update: (ccTime) dt; - (void) showNextFrame; @end GameObjectPlayer.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "GameObjectBase.h" @interface GameObjectPlayer : GameObjectBase { int direction; } @property (nonatomic) int direction; @end GameLayer.h #import "cocos2d.h" #import "GameObjectPlayer.h" @interface GameLayer : CCLayer { } // returns a CCScene that contains the GameLayer as the only child +(CCScene *) scene; @property (nonatomic, strong) GameObjectPlayer *player; @end When I call examine in debugger what type "temp" is in this function inside GameLayer class, it's giving parent class GameObjectBase instead of subclass GameObjectPlayer - (void) update:(ccTime) dt { GameObjectPlayer *temp = _player; [temp showNextFrame]; }

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• Why is 50.22.53.71 hitting my localhost node.js in an attempt to find a php setup

  - by laggingreflex

  I just created a new app using angular-fullstack yeoman generator, edited it a bit to my liking, and ran it with grunt on my localhost, and immediately upon starting up I get this flood of requests to paths that I haven't even defined. Is this a hacking attempt? And if so, how does the hacker (human or bot) immediately know where my server is and when it came online? Note that I haven't made anything online, it's just a localhost setup and I'm merely connected to the internet. (Although my router does allow 80 port incoming.) Whois shows that the IP address belongs to a SoftLayer Technologies. Never heard of it. Express server listening on 80, in development mode GET / [200] | 127.0.0.1 (Chrome 31.0.1650) GET /w00tw00t.at.blackhats.romanian.anti-sec:) [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /scripts/setup.php [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /admin/scripts/setup.php [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /admin/pma/scripts/setup.php [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /admin/phpmyadmin/scripts/setup.php [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /db/scripts/setup.php [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /dbadmin/scripts/setup.php [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /myadmin/scripts/setup.php [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /mysql/scripts/setup.php [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /mysqladmin/scripts/setup.php [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /typo3/phpmyadmin/scripts/setup.php [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /phpadmin/scripts/setup.php [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /phpMyAdmin/scripts/setup.php [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /phpmyadmin/scripts/setup.php [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /phpmyadmin1/scripts/setup.php [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /phpmyadmin2/scripts/setup.php [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /pma/scripts/setup.php [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /web/phpMyAdmin/scripts/setup.php [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /xampp/phpmyadmin/scripts/setup.php [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /web/scripts/setup.php [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /php-my-admin/scripts/setup.php [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /websql/scripts/setup.php [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /phpmyadmin/scripts/setup.php [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /phpMyAdmin/scripts/setup.php [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /phpMyAdmin-2/scripts/setup.php [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /php-my-admin/scripts/setup.php [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /phpMyAdmin-2.5.5/index.php [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /phpMyAdmin-2.5.5-pl1/index.php [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /phpMyAdmin/ [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /phpmyadmin/ [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other) GET /mysqladmin/ [404] | 50.22.53.71 (Other)

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• How to bind old user's SID to new user to remain NTFS file ownership and permissions after freshly reinstall of Windows?

  - by LiuYan ??

  Each time we reinstalled Windows, it will create a new SID for user even the username is as same as before. // example (not real SID format, just show the problem) user SID -------------------- liuyan S-old-501 // old SID before reinstall liuyan S-new-501 // new SID after reinstall The annoying problem after reinstall is NTFS file owership and permissions on hard drive disk are still associated with old user's SID. I want to keep the ownership and permission setting of NTFS files, then want to let the new user take the old user's SID, so that I can access files as before without permission problem. The cacls command line tool can't be used in such situation, because the file does belongs to new user, so it will failed with Access is denied error. and it can't change ownership. Even if I can change the owership via SubInACL tool, cacls can't remove the old user's permission because the old user does not exist on new installation, and can't copy the old user's permission to new user. So, can we simply bind old user's SID to new user on the freshly installed Windows ? Sample test batch @echo off REM Additional tools used in this script REM PsGetSid http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/sysinternals/bb897417 REM SubInACL http://www.microsoft.com/en-us/download/details.aspx?id=23510 REM REM make sure these tools are added into PATH set account=MyUserAccount set password=long-password set dir=test set file=test.txt echo Creating user [%account%] with password [%password%]... pause net user %account% %password% /add psgetsid %account% echo Done ! echo Making directory [%dir%] ... pause mkdir %dir% dir %dir%* /q echo Done ! echo Changing permissions of directory [%dir%]: only [%account%] and [%UserDomain%\%UserName%] has full access permission... pause cacls %dir% /G %account%:F cacls %dir% /E /G %UserDomain%\%UserName%:F dir %dir%* /q cacls %dir% echo Done ! echo Changing ownership of directory [%dir%] to [%account%]... pause subinacl /file %dir% /setowner=%account% dir %dir%* /q echo Done ! echo RunAs [%account%] user to write a file [%file%] in directory [%dir%]... pause runas /noprofile /env /user:%account% "cmd /k echo some text %DATE% %TIME% > %dir%\%file%" dir %dir% /q echo Done ! echo Deleting and Recreating user [%account%] (reinstall simulation) ... pause net user %account% /delete net user %account% %password% /add psgetsid %account% echo Done ! %account% is recreated, it has a new SID now echo Now, use this "same" account [%account%] to access [%dir%], it will failed with "Access is denied" pause runas /noprofile /env /user:%account% "cmd /k cacls %dir%" REM runas /noprofile /env /user:%account% "cmd /k type %dir%\%file%" echo Done ! echo Changing ownership of directory [%dir%] to NEW [%account%]... pause subinacl /file %dir% /setowner=%account% dir %dir%* /q cacls %dir% echo Done ! As you can see, "Account Domain not found" is actually the OLD [%account%] user echo Deleting user [%account%] ... pause net user %account% /delete echo Done ! echo Deleting directory [%dir%]... pause rmdir %dir% /s /q echo Done !

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• Secure, efficient, version-preserving, filename-hiding backup implemented in this way?

  - by barrycarter

  I tried writing a "perfect" backup program (below), but ran into problems (also below). Is there an efficient/working version of this?: Assumptions: you're backing up from 'local', which you own and has limited disk space to 'remote', which has infinite disk space and belongs to someone else, so you need encryption. Network bandwidth is finite. 'local' keeps a db of backed-up files w/ this data for each file: filename, including full path file's last modified time (mtime) sha1sum of file's unencrypted contents sha1sum of file's encrypted contents Given a list of files to backup (some perhaps already backed up), the program runs 'find' and gets the full path/mtime for each file (this is fairly efficient; conversely, computing the sha1sum of each file would NOT be efficient) The program discards files whose filename and mtime are in 'local' db. The program now computes the sha1sum of the (unencrypted contents of each remaining file. If the sha1sum matches one in 'local' db, we create a special entry in 'local' db that points this file/mtime to the file/mtime of the existing entry. Effectively, we're saying "we have a backup of this file's contents, but under another filename, so no need to back it up again". For each remaining file, we encrypt the file, take the sha1sum of the encrypted file's contents, rsync the file to its sha1sum. Example: if the file's encrypted sha1sum was da39a3ee5e6b4b0d3255bfef95601890afd80709, we'd rsync it to /some/path/da/39/a3/da39a3ee5e6b4b0d3255bfef95601890afd80709 on 'remote'. Once the step above succeeds, we add the file to the 'local' db. Note that we efficiently avoid computing sha1sums and encrypting unless absolutely necessary. Note: I don't specify encryption method: this would be user's choice. The problems: We must encrypt and backup 'local' db regularly. However, 'local' db grows quickly and rsync'ing encrypted files is inefficient, since a small change in 'local' db means a big change in the encrypted version of 'local' db. We create a file on 'remote' for each file on 'local', which is ugly and excessive. We query 'local' db frequently. Even w/ indexes, these queries are slow, since we're often making one query for each file. Would be nice to speed this up by batching queries or something. Probably other problems that I've now forgotten.

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• Got Hacked. Want to understand how.

  - by gaoshan88

  Someone has, for the second time, appended a chunk of javascript to a site I help run. This javascript hijacks Google adsense, inserting their own account number, and sticking ads all over. The code is always appended, always in one specific directory (one used by a third party ad program), affects a number of files in a number of directories inside this one ad dir (20 or so) and is inserted at roughly the same overnight time. The adsense account belongs to a Chinese website (located in a town not an hour from where I will be in China next month. Maybe I should go bust heads... kidding, sort of), btw... here is the info on the site: http://serversiders.com/fhr.com.cn So, how could they append text to these files? Is it related to the permissions set on the files (ranging from 755 to 644)? To the webserver user (it's on MediaTemple so it should be secure, yes?)? I mean, if you have a file that has permissions set to 777 I still can't just add code to it at will... how might they be doing this? Here is a sample of the actual code for your viewing pleasure (and as you can see... not much to it. The real trick is how they got it in there): <script type="text/javascript"><!-- google_ad_client = "pub-5465156513898836"; /* 728x90_as */ google_ad_slot = "4840387765"; google_ad_width = 728; google_ad_height = 90; //--> </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://pagead2.googlesyndication.com/pagead/show_ads.js"> </script> Since a number of folks have mentioned it, here is what I have checked (and by checked I mean I looked around the time the files were modified for any weirdness and I grepped the files for POST statements and directory traversals: access_log (nothing around the time except normal (i.e. excessive) msn bot traffic) error_log (nothing but the usual file does not exist errors for innocuous looking files) ssl_log (nothing but the usual) messages_log (no FTP access in here except for me)

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• Group traffic shaping with traffic control?

  - by mmcbro

  I'm trying to limit the output bandwidth generated by an application with linux tc. This application sends me the source port of the request that I use has a filter to limit each user at a given downloadspeed. I feel that my setup could be managed way better if I had a better knowledge of linux tc. At the application level users are categorized as members of a group, each group have a limited bandwidth. Example : Members of group A : 512kbit/s Members of group B : 1Mbit/s Members of group C : 2Mbit/s When a user connects to the application, it retrieves the source port to the origin of the request from the user and sends me the source port and the bandwidth at which the user must be limited depending on group to which it belongs. With these informations I must add the appropriate rules so that the user (the source port in reality) is limited to the right bandwidth. If the user that connect isn't a member of any group it should be limited at a default bandwidth speed. I'm actually managing this by using a self made daemon that add or remove rules from when it receive a request from the application. With my little knowledge of tc I'm not able to limit other users (ones that aren't in a group, all others in fact) at a default speed and my configuration seems awful to me. Here is the base of my tc qdisc and classes : tc qdisc add dev eth0 root handle 1: htb tc class add dev eth0 parent 1: classid 1:1 htb rate 100mbps ceil 125mbps To classify a user at a given speed I have to add one subclass and then associate one filter to it : # a member of group A tc class add dev eth0 parent 1:1 classid 1:11 htb rate 512kbps ceil 512kbps # tts associated filter to match his source port tc filter add dev eth0 protocol ip parent 1:0 prio 1 u32 match ip sport 50001 flowid 1:11 # a member of group A again tc class add dev eth0 parent 1:1 classid 1:12 htb rate 512kbps ceil 512kbps # tts associated filter to match his source port tc filter add dev eth0 protocol ip parent 1:0 prio 1 u32 match ip sport 61524 flowid 1:12 # a member of group B again tc class add dev eth0 parent 1:1 classid 1:13 htb rate 1000kbps ceil 1000kbps # tts associated filter to match his source port tc filter add dev eth0 protocol ip parent 1:0 prio 1 u32 match ip sport 57200 flowid 1:13 I already know that a source port could be the same if its coming from a different IP address the thing is the application is behind a proxy so I don't have to manage any IP address in that situation. I would like to know how to manage the fact that for all other users (request/source port, whatever you name it) could be limited at a given speed each. I mean that each connection should be able to use at max 100kbit/s for example, not a shared 100kbit/s. I also would like to know if there is a way to simplify my rules. I don't know if it is possible to use only one class per group and associate multiple filters to the same class so each users could be handled by one class and not one class per user. I appreciate any advice, thanks.

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• Why won't IE let users login to a website unless in In Private mode?

  - by Richard Fawcett

  I'm not entirely sure this belongs on SuperUser.com. I also considered ServerFault.com and StackOverflow.com, but on balance, I think it should belong here? We host a website which has the same code responding to multiple domain names. On 28th December (without any changes deployed to the website) a percentage of users suddenly could not login, and the blank login page was just rendered again even when the correct credentials were entered. The issue is still ongoing. After remote controlling an affected user's PC, we've found the following: The issue affects Internet Explorer 9. The user can login from the same machine on Chrome. The user can login from an In Private browser session using IE9. The user can login if the website is added to the Trusted Sites security zone. The user can NOT login from an IE session in safe mode (started with iexplore -extoff). Only one hostname that the website responds to prevents login, the same user account on the other hostname works fine (note that this is identical code and database running server side), even though that site is not in trusted sites zone. Series of HTTP requests in the failure case: GET request to protected page, returns a 302 FOUND response to login page. GET request to login page. POST to login page, containing credentials, returns redirect to protected page. GET request to protected page... for some reason auth fails and browser is redirected to login page, as in step 1. Other information: Operating system is Windows 7 Ultimate Edition. AV system is AVG Internet Security 2012. I can think of lots of things that could be going wrong, but in every case, one of the findings above is incompatible with the theory. Any ideas what is causing login to fail? Update 06-Jan-2012 Enhanced logging has shown that the .ASPXAUTH cookie is being set in step 3. Its expiry date is 28 days in the future, its path is /, the domain is mysite.com, and its value is an encrypted forms ticket, as expected. However, the cookie is not being received by the web server during step 4. Other cookies are being presented to the server during step 4, it's just this one that is missing. I've seen that cookies are usually set with a domain starting with a period, but mine isn't. Should it be .mysite.com instead of mysite.com? However, if this was wrong, it would presumably affect all users?

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• A proper way to create non-interactive accounts?

  - by AndreyT

  In order to use password-protected file sharing in a basic home network I want to create a number of non-interactive user accounts on a Windows 8 Pro machine in addition to the existing set of interactive accounts. The users that corresponds to those extra accounts will not use this machine interactively, so I don't want their accounts to be available for logon and I don't want their names to appear on welcome screen. In older versions of Windows Pro (up to Windows 7) I did this by first creating the accounts as members of "Users" group, and then including them into "Deny logon locally" list in Local Security Policy settings. This always had the desired effect. However, my question is whether this is the right/best way to do it. The reason I'm asking is that even though this method works in Windows 8 Pro as well, it has one little quirk: interactive users from "User" group are still able to see these extra user names when they go to the Metro screen and hit their own user name in the top-right corner (i.e. open "Sign out/Lock" menu). The command list that drops out contains "Sign out" and "Lock" commands as well as the names of other users (for "switch user" functionality). For some reason that list includes the extra users from "Deny logon locally" list. It is interesting to note that this happens when the current user belongs to "Users" group, but it does not happen when the current user is from "Administrators". For example, let's say I have three accounts on the machine: "Administrator" (from "Administrators", can logon locally), "A" (from "Users", can logon locally), "B" (from "Users", denied logon locally). When "Administrator" is logged in, he can only see user "A" listed in his Metro "Sign out/Lock" menu, i.e. all works as it should. But when user "A" is logged in, he can see both "Administrator" and user "B" in his "Sign out/Lock" menu. Expectedly, in the above example trying to switch from user "A" to user "B" by hitting "B" in the menu does not work: Windows jumps to welcome screen that lists only "Administrator" and "A". Anyway, on the surface this appears to be an interface-level bug in Windows 8. However, I'm wondering if going through "Deny logon locally" setting is the right way to do it in Windows 8. Is there any other way to create a hidden non-interactive user account?

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• FTP script needs blank line

  - by Ones and Zeroes

  I am trying to determine the reason for some FTP servers requiring a blank line in the script as follows: open server.com username ftp_commands bye Refer to blank line required after username credentials. Example from: FTP from batch file another reference to the same: http://newsgroups.derkeiler.com/Archive/Comp/comp.sys.ibm.as400.misc/2008-05/msg00227.html Also discussed here: archive.midrange.com/midrange-l/200601/msg00048.html "The behavior I'm observing is the same as if I didn't specify the password to login." with an answer referring to our same fix... archive.midrange.com/midrange-l/200601/msg00053.html and archive.midrange.com/midrange-l/200601/msg00065.html Note: It is my experience that FTP questions attract uncouth responses. Admittedly FTP is outdated, but many clients still have legacy systems, which they cannot upgrade or replace. The reason thereof should not be discussed here. The intention of this question is to invite a positive response. Please do not respond if you disagree with the above. If you have never encountered this same issue, please do not respond. I suspect this may be limited to FTP scripts executed from Windows machines, but have been told that this happens often and with many different servers. My specific interest is to understand what may cause this as I have a real world example of a production system suddenly requiring this as a workaround fix, after running for many years without issue. The server belongs to a third party who claims no change on their end. Server details unknown and cannot be determined. Any help or encouragement from someone who has come across the same, would be appreciated. ps. Sorry for the many words and references to painful responses, but I have asked similar questions on serverfault and elsewhere and unfortunately got back kneejerk responses to FTP and respondents debating the validity of the question. I would truly not ask, or re-post this question online if I had a better understanding of the issue. I know of people who have seen this issue, but don't know what causes it. I am wary that this question would again turn into another irrelevant discussion. Please, I ask very nicely: Please do not respond if you have not encountered a similar issue. FURTHER EDIT: Please do not suggest changing the product. The problem is not the blank line requirement. We know this fixes the issue. The problem is not being able to explain the reason for the blank line in the first place. Slight difference, but a critical point to note wrt the answering of this question.

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