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  • Routing trouble for RESTful API - Rails

    - by aressidi
    I'm building out an API for web app that I've been working on for some time. I've started with the User model. The user portion of the API will allow remote clients to a) retrieve user data, b) update user information and c) create new users. I've gotten all of this to work, but it doesn't seem like its setup correctly. Here are my questions: Should the API endpoint be users or user? What's the best practice? I have to add the action to the end, which I would expect to be picked up instead by the request type so I don't have to specify it explicitly. How do I get my routes setup properly as not to have to include the method for protected actions? Let me give some examples: Get request for show - want it to work without the "show" curl -u rmbruno:blah http://app.local/api/users/show Put request for update - want it to work without the "update" curl -X put -F 'user[forum_notifications]=true' -u rmbruno:blah http://app.local/api/users/update Create - works with or without 'create' which is what I want for all these actions curl -X post -F 'user[login]=mamafatta' -F 'user[email][email protected]' -F 'user[password]=12345678' http://twye.local/api/users/ How do I structure routes to not require the action name? Isn't that the common way to to RESTful APIs? Here is my route for the API now: map.namespace :api do |route| route.resources :users route.resources :weight end I'm using restful authentication which is handling the http auth in curl. Any guidance on the routes issues and best practice on singular versus plural would be really helpful. Thanks! -A

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  • Initial text and paperclipped-URL for action in UIActivityViewController & UIActivityItemSource?

    - by Benjamin Kreeger
    Finally been making it through Apple's (rather dismal) documentation on the new UIActivityViewController class and the UIActivityItemSource protocol, and I'm trying to send different data sets to different actions called from the activity view. To simplify things, I'm looking at two things. A Facebook posting action, which should say "Check this out!" and also attach a URL to the post (with that cute little paperclip). A Twitter posting action, which should say "Check this out, with #hashtag!" and also attach that same URL (with the same paperclip). Here's the code I've got implemented right now. - (id)activityViewController:(UIActivityViewController *)activityViewController itemForActivityType:(NSString *)activityType { if ([activityType isEqualToString:UIActivityTypePostToFacebook]) { return @"Check this out!"; } else if ([activityType isEqualToString:UIActivityTypePostToTwitter]) { return @"Check this out, with #hashtag!"; } return @""; } - (id)activityViewControllerPlaceholderItem:(UIActivityViewController *)activityViewController { return @""; } And then when I set up this activity view controller (it's in the same class), this is what I do. UIActivityViewController *activityView = [[UIActivityViewController alloc] initWithActivityItems:@[self] applicationActivities:nil]; [self presentViewController:activityView animated:YES completion:nil]; My dilemma is how to attach that NSURL object. It's relatively easy when calling the iOS 6 SL-class posting modals; you just call the individual methods to attach a URL or an image. How would I go about doing this here? I'll note that instead of returning NSString objects from -activityViewController:itemForActivityType, if I return just NSURL objects, they show up with that paperclip, with no body text in the post. If I return an array of those two items, nothing shows up at all.

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  • Cookie add in the Global.asax warning in application log

    - by Ioxp
    In my Global.ASAX file i have the following: System.Web.HttpCookie isAccess = new System.Web.HttpCookie("IsAccess"); isAccess.Expires = DateTime.Now.AddDays(-1); isAccess.Value = ""; System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.Cookies.Add(isAccess); So every time this method this is logged in the application events as a warning: Event code: 3005 Event message: An unhandled exception has occurred. Event time: 5/25/2010 12:23:20 PM Event time (UTC): 5/25/2010 4:23:20 PM Event ID: c515e27a28474eab8d99720c3f5a8e90 Event sequence: 4148 Event occurrence: 332 Event detail code: 0 Application information: Application domain: /LM/W3SVC/2100509645/Root-1-129192259222289896 Trust level: Full Application Virtual Path: / Application Path: <PathRemoved>\www\ Machine name: TIPPER Process information: Process ID: 6936 Process name: w3wp.exe Account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Exception information: Exception type: NullReferenceException Exception message: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Request information: Request URL: Request path: User host address: User: Is authenticated: False Authentication Type: Thread account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Thread information: Thread ID: 7 Thread account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Is impersonating: False Stack trace: at ASP.global_asax.Session_End(Object sender, EventArgs e) in <PathRemoved>\Global.asax:line 113 Any idea why this code would cause this error?

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  • What MS technology to use for HTTP service returning XML?

    - by Borek
    I need to create a service that: accepts HTTP requests (with query string or HTTP POST parameters) does some processing on the requests (checking if the request is valid, authentication etc.) reads data from a custom store (another HTTP call in our case) returns the result as custom XML (defined with XSD) I'm trying to think of various MS technologies that could help me and how good they would be for this scenario (pretty standard one I guess). The tasks above are relatively separate, this is what comes to mind: HTTP front-end: ASP.NET Web Forms ASP.NET MVC (seems more appropriate here as I won't need server controls, view state etc.) WCF? Don't know much about it or how well it would suit my task. Custom logic on the server: this will probably be a generic C# code in all cases (sometimes "plugged into" or called from MVC controllers or some equivalent place in other technologies) Reading data from internal data stores: As said, this is another HTTP server in our case. Options that come to mind: Just read the data using something like WebClient (Just theoretically) implement a LINQ provider (Just even more theoretically) implement an EF provider Output the data as custom XML: Linq2XML Serialization? Is it flexible enough? Does WCF provide some tools for this? Some "OXM" - Object/XML mapper if there is something like that for .NET I may be wrong in many of my assumptions, this is just a quick list that comes to mind after a quick research. Some general notes / questions: Testing is important Solution with a clear domain model would be much preferred over the one without Can Entity Framework actually help somewhere in my scenario? If so, where and how? Would WCF be an appropriate technology for this? I don't know much about it.

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  • SiteMap control based on user roles doesn't works

    - by nCdy
    <siteMapNode roles="*"> <siteMapNode url="~/Default.aspx" title=" Main" description="Main" roles="*"/> <siteMapNode url="~/Items.aspx" title=" Adv" description="Adv" roles="Administrator"/> .... any user can see Adv page. That is a trouble and a qustion : why and how to hide out of role sitenodes. but if I do HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Administrator") it shows me if user in Administrator role or not. web config : <authentication mode="Forms"/> <membership defaultProvider="SqlProvider" userIsOnlineTimeWindow="20"> <providers> <add connectionStringName="FlowWebSQL" enablePasswordRetrieval="false" enablePasswordReset="true" requiresQuestionAndAnswer="true" passwordFormat="Hashed" applicationName="/" name="SqlProvider" type="System.Web.Security.SqlMembershipProvider"/> </providers> </membership> <roleManager enabled="true" defaultProvider="SqlProvider"> <providers> <add connectionStringName="FlowWebSQL" name="SqlProvider" type="System.Web.Security.SqlRoleProvider" /> </providers> </roleManager>

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  • How to suppress/control logging of Wagon-FTP Maven extension?

    - by Vincenzo
    I'm deploying Maven site by FTP, using Wagon-FTP. Works fine, but output is full of FTP connection/authentication details, which effectively expose logins and passwords to everybody (especially if the project is open source and its CI protocols are publicly accessible): [...] [INFO] [INFO] --- maven-site-plugin:3.0-beta-3:deploy (default-deploy) @ rempl --- Reply received: 220---------- Welcome to Pure-FTPd [privsep] [TLS] ---------- 220-You are user number 1 of 50 allowed. 220-Local time is now 09:08. Server port: 21. 220 You will be disconnected after 15 minutes of inactivity. Command sent: USER **** Reply received: 331 User **** OK. Password required Command sent: PASS ******** Reply received: 230-User **** has group access to: *** 230 OK. Current restricted directory is / [...] Is it possible to suppress this logging? Or configure it... This is a section of my pom.xml, where Wagon-FTP is used: [...] <build> <extensions> <extension> <groupId>org.apache.maven.wagon</groupId> <artifactId>wagon-ftp</artifactId> <version>1.0-beta-7</version> </extension> </extensions> [...] </build> [...]

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  • Preset value of HTML Forms

    - by laura
    Hi. I'm trying to preset the value of a dropdown menu and the value of a text box in an HTML form. As soon as the user taps the button in my iPhone app, it enters the webview and I was hoping to preset one of the dropdown menus and text field. How do I go about this? I want to set the dropdown to value "4" and the text field to "Giro Apps" Here's the relevant HTML form code: <select id="advSrcId" class="list" onchange="showOther($('advSrcId').options[$('advSrcId').selectedIndex].value)" name="advSrcId"> <option selected="" value="">Select</option> <option value="1">Google</option> <option value="2">Facebook</option> <option value="3">Friend Referral</option> <option value="4">Other</option> </select> <div id="otherAdvsrc" style=""> <p> Please give details here: <br/> <input class="text" type="text" value="" name="advsrc"/> <br/> </p> </div> TIA!

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  • Check for modification failure in content Integration using visualSvn sever and cruise control.net

    - by harun123
    I am using CruiseControl.net for continous integration. I've created a repository for my project using VisualSvn server (uses Windows Authentication). Both the servers are hosted in the same system (Os-Microsoft Windows Server 2003 sp2). When i force build the project using CruiseControl.net "Failed task(s): Svn: CheckForModifications" is shown as the message. When i checked the build report, it says as follows: BUILD EXCEPTION Error Message: ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.CruiseControlException: Source control operation failed: svn: OPTIONS of 'https://sp-ci.sbsnetwork.local:8443/svn/IntranetPortal/Source': **Server certificate verification failed: issuer is not trusted** (https://sp-ci.sbsnetwork.local:8443). Process command: C:\Program Files\VisualSVN Server\bin\svn.exe log **sameUrlAbove** -r "{2010-04-29T08:35:26Z}:{2010-04-29T09:04:02Z}" --verbose --xml --username ccnetadmin --password cruise --non-interactive --no-auth-cache at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.Sourcecontrol.ProcessSourceControl.Execute(ProcessInfo processInfo) at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.Sourcecontrol.Svn.GetModifications (IIntegrationResult from, IIntegrationResult to) at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.Sourcecontrol.QuietPeriod.GetModifications(ISourceControl sourceControl, IIntegrationResult lastBuild, IIntegrationResult thisBuild) at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.IntegrationRunner.GetModifications(IIntegrationResult from, IIntegrationResult to) at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.IntegrationRunner.Integrate(IntegrationRequest request) My SourceControl node in the ccnet.config is as shown below: <sourcecontrol type="svn"> <executable>C:\Program Files\VisualSVN Server\bin\svn.exe</executable> <trunkUrl> check out url </trunkUrl> <workingDirectory> C:\ProjectWorkingDirectories\IntranetPortal\Source </workingDirectory> <username> ccnetadmin </username> <password> cruise </password> </sourcecontrol> Can any one suggest how to avoid this error?

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  • How to use Profile in asp.net?

    - by Phsika
    i try to learn asp.net Profile management. But i added below xml firstName,LastName and others. But i cannot write Profile. if i try to write Profile property. drow my editor Profile : Error 1 The name 'Profile' does not exist in the current context C:\Documents and Settings\ykaratoprak\Desktop\Security\WebApp_profile\WebApp_profile\Default.aspx.cs 18 13 WebApp_profile How can i do that? <authentication mode="Windows"/> <profile> <properties> <add name="FirstName"/> <add name="LastName"/> <add name="Age"/> <add name="City"/> </properties> </profile> protected void Button1_Click(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { Profile.FirstName = TextBox1.Text; Profile.LastName = TextBox2.Text; Profile.Age = TextBox3.Text; Profile.City = TextBox4.Text; Label1.Text = "Profile stored successfully!<br />" + "<br />First Name: " + Profile.FirstName + "<br />Last Name: " + Profile.LastName + "<br />Age: " + Profile.Age + "<br />City: " + Profile.City; }

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  • cookie name is truncated in Servlet 3.0 HttpServletRequest (Glassfish V3)

    - by idplmal
    I'm porting our Web authentication/authorization middleware for use in containers implementing the new servlet 3.0 API (Glassfish V3 in this case). The middleware pulls cookies from the HttpServletRequest filtering on cookies with names of the form "DACS:FEDERATION::JURISDICTION:username". This works fine in the version 2.5 servlet API but is broken in 3.0. The cookie names in 3.0 are being truncated at the first ":" in the name. I understand that the servlet 3.0 implementation defaults to RFC 2109 cookies which are more restrictive about cookie names than the old Netscape spec (":" is among the characters not allowed in RFC 2109 cookie names). Digging into the servlet 3.0 source code, it appears that the use of RFC2109 names can be disabled by setting a System property "org.glassfish.web.rfc2109.cookie_names_enforced" to false. I've tried this to no avail. But besides that, the code that uses checks cookie names is in the constructor for Cookie, and it would appear that the truncation is occurring elsewhere. So - finally - the question. Have others bumped into such issues in the servlet 3.0 API and have you found a work around?

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  • Creating an API for an ASP.NET MVC site with rate-limiting and caching

    - by Maxim Z.
    Recently, I've been very interested in APIs, specifically in how to create them. For the purpose of this question, let's say that I have created an ASP.NET MVC site that has some data on it; I want to create an API for this site. I have multiple questions about this: What type of API should I create? I know that REST and oData APIs are very popular. What are the pros and cons of each, and how do I implement them? From what I understand so far, REST APIs with ASP.NET MVC would just be actions that return JSON instead of Views, and oData APIs are documented here. How do I handle writing? Reading from both API types is quite simple. However, writing is more complex. With the REST approach, I understand that I can use HTTP POST, but how do I implement authentication? Also, with oData, how does writing work in the first place? How do I implement basic rate-limiting and caching? From my past experience with APIs, these are very important things, so that the API server isn't overloaded. What's the best way to set these two things up? Can I get some sample code? Any code that relates to C# and ASP.NET MVC would be appreciated. Thanks in advance! While this is a broad question, I think it's not too broad... :) There are some similar questions to this one that are about APIs, but I haven't found any that directly address the questions I outlined here.

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  • backbone.js Model.get() returns undefined, scope using coffeescript + coffee toaster?

    - by benipsen
    I'm writing an app using coffeescript with coffee toaster (an awesome NPM module for stitching) that builds my app.js file. Lots of my application classes and templates require info about the current user so I have an instance of class User (extends Backbone.Model) stored as a property of my main Application class (extends Backbone.Router). As part of the initialization routine I grab the user from the server (which takes care of authentication, roles, account switching etc.). Here's that coffeescript: @user = new models.User @user.fetch() console.log(@user) console.log(@user.get('email')) The first logging statement outputs the correct Backbone.Model attributes object in the console just as it should: User _changing: false _escapedAttributes: Object _pending: Object _previousAttributes: Object _silent: Object attributes: Object account: Object created_on: "1983-12-13 00:00:00" email: "[email protected]" icon: "0" id: "1" last_login: "2012-06-07 02:31:38" name: "Ben Ipsen" roles: Object __proto__: Object changed: Object cid: "c0" id: "1" __proto__: ctor app.js:228 However, the second returns undefined despite the model attributes clearly being there in the console when logged. And just to make things even more interesting, typing "window.app.user.get('email')" into the console manually returns the expected value of "[email protected]"... ? Just for reference, here's how the initialize method compiles into my app.js file: Application.prototype.initialize = function() { var isMobile; isMobile = navigator.userAgent.match(/(iPhone|iPod|iPad|Android|BlackBerry)/); this.helpers = new views.DOMHelpers().initialize().setup_viewport(isMobile); this.user = new models.User(); this.user.fetch(); console.log(this.user); console.log(this.user.get('email')); return this; }; I initialize the Application controller in my static HTML like so: jQuery(document).ready(function(){ window.app = new controllers.Application(); }); Suggestions please and thank you!

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  • IHttpModule not being applied to virtual directory

    - by arthurdent510
    I have a network folder that is mapped to my iis app as a virtual directory and I'm trying to do some authentication for files that are located there with an ihttpmodule. I've verified that the ihttpmodule is firing properly for anything else in my app, just not the files located in virtual directory. Most of what I've found is that the directory can't be listed as an application (which it isn't), and everything should work. The other solution that I found was to add the the module tag to the tag, but that didn't seem to help either. Everything that I've found talks about stopping this from happening. So my question is what could be set that is causing this to not work? Is there a certain execute permission that needs to be set? Any other iis settings that could cause this? It is an mvc app, and this is how my directory structure is laid out: server/app <- my application folder server/app/content/downloads <- downloads is the virtual directory Do I have to add the virtual directory directly under my app directory? Is that part of the problem? I don't have direct control of the server my code is running on, so testing things out is a bit of a pain... so I was looking for some more thoughts before starting to send emails off to my operations people. Thanks!

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  • Java Client .class File Protection

    - by Zac
    I am in the requirements phase of building a JEE application that will most likely run on a GlassFish/JBoss backend (doesn't matter for now). I know I shouldn't be thinking about architecture at requirements time, but one can't help but start to imagine how the components would all snap together :-) Here are some hard, non-flexible requirements on the client-side: (1) The client application will be a Swing box (2) The client is free to download, but will use a subscription model (thus requiring a login mechanism with server-side authentication/authorization, etc.) (3) Yes, Java is the best platform solution for the problem at hand for reasons outside the scope of this post (4) The client-side .class files need safeguarding against decompiling That last (4th) requirement is the basis of this post. I'm not really worried about someone actually decompiling and getting at my source code: in the end, it's just Swing controls driven by some lightweight business logic. I'm worried about a scenario where someone decompiles my code, modifies it to exploit/attack the server, re-compiles, and fires it up. I've envisioned all sorts of nasty solutions, but didn't know if this was a common problem with a common solution for JEE developers. Any thoughts? Not interested in "code obfuscation" techniques! Thanks for any input!

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  • Dual usage of asp.net mvc and php under same domain

    - by jim
    Hello all, I've got a scenario where we have a customer who has a linux hosted php app (joomla) that they wish to integrate with some back-end asp.net mvc functionality that was created for a 'sister' site. Basically, the mvc site has prices and stock availability methods which (in the sister site) populates dropdown lists and other 'order' style info on the pages. I've been tasked with looking at the integration options to allow the php site to use this info as a 'service'. (as ever, these guys are looking at cost of ownership, maintenence etc, so this is their preferred route) Has anyone done anything similar with success?? I'd imagine (much like the sister site) liberal doses of ajax will be employed in order to populate portions of the page on demand. So this may have a bearing on any suggestions that you may have. Also, the methods that are being called ultimately end up populating the same database, so there are no issues with correlating the ID's across the different platforms. I don't really want to go down any 'iframe' type route if at all possible, tho' reality may dictate this as being an option. I'm possibly (naively) imagining that i could simply invoke the mvc functions directly from the php app with some sort of 'session' variable being passed for authentication. pretty tall order or pretty straightfwd?? cheers jim

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  • WCF service consuming passively issued SAML token

    - by Neillyboy
    What is the best way to pass an existing SAML token from a website already authenticated via a passive STS? We have built an Identity Provider which is issuing passive claims to the website for authentication. We have this working. Now we would like to add some WCF services into the mix - calling them from the context of the already authenticated web application. Ideally we would just like to pass the SAML token on without doing anything to it (i.e. adding new claims / re-signing). All of the examples I have seen require the ActAs sts implementation - but is this really necessary? This seems a bit bloated for what we want to achieve. I would have thought a simple implementation passing the bootstrap token into the channel - using the CreateChannelActingAs or CreateChannelWithIssuedToken mechanism (and setting ChannelFactory.Credentials.SupportInteractive = false) to call the WCF service with the correct binding (what would that be?) would have been enough. We are using the Fabrikam example code as reference, but as I say, think the ActAs functionality here is overkill for what we are trying to achieve.

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  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Group

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, Customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.) In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on their account. When calling something like ValidateUser, I have access to their affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to which to compare it. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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  • SQL Server 2008 - db mail issue

    - by Chris
    Hello. I have two instances of SQL Server 2008. One was upgraded from SQL Server 2000 and one was a clean, new install. SQL Mail operates perfectly on both instances. DB Mail operates perfectly on the newly installed instance. On the upgraded instance, DB Mail does not send any mail. Of course, I am not positive that the fact this instance is upgraded has anything to do with the issue, but it might. The configuration of my db mail profile and account looks identical to my functioning instance. In the configuration of the 'alerts' tab in the SQL Agent properties i have tried selecting both DB Mail and SQL Mail to no avail. Both instances use the same SMTP server with the same authentication (domain with db engine account). All messages sent via sp_send_db mail and those sent via the 'test email' option are visible in the sysmail_allitems queue and remain there as 'unsent'. The send_status eventually changes to 'failed'. The only messages in the sysmail_event_log are 'mail queue stopped by login domain\myuser', 'mail queue started by login domain/myuser' and 'activiation successful.'. selecting from the externalmailqueue has the same number of rows as sysmail_allitems. i have tried bouncing the agent, the entire instance and moving the other functioning instance to the other node in the cluster. any thoughts? thx.

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  • Modeling objects with multiple table relationships in Zend Framework

    - by andybaird
    I'm toying with Zend Framework and trying to use the "QuickStart" guide against a website I'm making just to see how the process would work. Forgive me if this answer is obvious, hopefully someone experienced can shed some light on this. I have three database tables: CREATE TABLE `users` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, `email` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `username` varchar(255) NOT NULL default '', `first` varchar(128) NOT NULL default '', `last` varchar(128) NOT NULL default '', `gender` enum('M','F') default NULL, `birthyear` year(4) default NULL, `postal` varchar(16) default NULL, `auth_method` enum('Default','OpenID','Facebook','Disabled') NOT NULL default 'Default', PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY `email` (`email`), UNIQUE KEY `username` (`username`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 CREATE TABLE `user_password` ( `user_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `password` varchar(16) NOT NULL default '', PRIMARY KEY (`user_id`), UNIQUE KEY `user_id` (`user_id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 CREATE TABLE `user_metadata` ( `user_id` int(11) NOT NULL default '0', `signup_date` datetime default NULL, `signup_ip` varchar(15) default NULL, `last_login_date` datetime default NULL, `last_login_ip` varchar(15) default NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`user_id`), UNIQUE KEY `user_id` (`user_id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 I want to create a User model that uses all three tables in certain situations. E.g., the metadata table is accessed if/when the meta data is needed. The user_password table is accessed only if the 'Default' auth_method is set. I'll likely be adding a profile table later on that I would like to be able to access from the user model. What is the best way to do this with ZF and why?

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  • PHP News Feed Database & Design

    - by pws5068
    I'm designing a News Feed system using PHP/MySQL similar to facebook's. I have asked a similar question before but now I've changed the design and I'm looking for feedback. Example News: User_A commented on User_B's new album. "Hey man nice pictures!" User_B added a new Photo to [his/her] profile. [show photo thumbnail] Initially, I implemented this using excessive columns for Obj1:Type1 | Obj2:Type2 | etc.. Now the design is set up using a couple special keywords, and actor/receiver relationships. My database uses a table of messages joined on a table containing userid,actionid,receiverid,receiverObjectTypeID, Here's a condensed version of what it will look like once joined: News_ID | User_ID | Message | Timestamp 2643 A %a commented on %o's new %r. SomeTimestamp 2644 B %a added a new %r to [his/her] profile. SomeTimestamp %a = the User_ID of the person doing the action %r = the receiving object %o = the owner of the receiving object (for example the owner of the album) (NULL if %r is a user) Questions: Is this a smart (efficient/scalable) way to move forward? How can I show messages like: "User_B added 4 new photos to his profile."?

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  • How to handle authenticated user access to resources in document oriented system?

    - by Jeremy Raymond
    I'm developing a document oriented application and need to manage user access to the documents. I have a module that handles user authentication, and another module that handles document CRUD operations on the data store. Once a user is authenticated I need to enforce what operations the user can and cannot perform to documents based upon the user's permissions. The best option I could think of to integrate these two pieces together would be to create another module that duplicates the data API but that also takes the authenticated user as a parameter. The module would delegate the authorization check to the auth module and delegate the document operation to the data access module. Something like: -module(auth_data_access). % User is authenticated (logged into the system) % save_doc validates if user is allowed to save the given document and if so % saves it returning ok, else returns {error, permission_denied} save_doc(Doc, User) -> case auth:save_allowed(Doc, User) of ok -> data_access:save_doc(Doc); denied -> {error, permission_denied} end end. Is there a better way I can handle this?

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  • Tricky MySQL Query for messaging system in Rails - Please Help

    - by ole_berlin
    Hi, I'm writing a facebook style messaging system for a Rails App and I'm having trouble selecting the Messages for the inbox (with will_paginate). The messages are organized in threads, in the inbox the most recent message of a thread will appear with a link to it's thread. The thread is organized via a parent_id 1-n relationship with itself. So far I'm using something like this: class Message < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :sender, :class_name => 'User', :foreign_key => "sender_id" belongs_to :recipient, :class_name => 'User', :foreign_key => "recipient_id" has_many :children, :class_name => "Message", :foreign_key => "parent_id" belongs_to :thread, :class_name => "Message", :foreign_key => "parent_id" end class MessagesController < ApplicationController def inbox @messages = current_user.received_messages.paginate :page => params[:page], :per_page => 10, :order => "created_at DESC" end end That gives me all the messages, but for one thread the thread itself and the most recent message will appear (and not only the most recent message). I can also not use the GROUP BY clause, because for the thread itself (the parent so to say) the parent_id = nil of course. Anyone got an idea on how to solve this in an elegant way? I already thought about adding the parent_id to the parent itself and then group by parent_id, but I'm not sure if that works. Thanks

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  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Subdomain

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.). In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on the customer represented in the URL. When calling something like the MembershipProvider.ValidateUser, I have access to the user's customer affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to compare whether it is a data request for the same customer as the user. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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  • "NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON" error in Windows 7 (ASP.NET & Web Service)

    - by Tony_Henrich
    I have an asp.net web app which works fine in Windows XP machine in a domain. I am porting it to a Windows 7 stand alone machine. The app uses a web service which makes a call to sql server. The web server (IIS 7.5) and SQL Server are on the same stand alone machine. I enabled Windows authentication for the website and web service. The web service uses a trusted connection connection string. The web service credentials uses System.Net.CredentialCache.DefaultCredentials. I noticed username, password and domainname are blank after the call! The webservice and web site use an application pool with identity "Network Service". I am getting an exception "NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON" in the database call in the web service. I am assuming it's related to the blank credentials. I am expecting ASPNET user to be the security token to the database. Why is this not happening? (Usually this happens when sql server and web server are on two different machines in a domain, delegation & double hopping, but in my case everything is on a dev box)

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  • How to disable other touch gestures after adding another tap gesture to the view?

    - by Hudson Duan
    I have a view with some tables and buttons on it, and then I want to add a tap gesture to the entire view, but I only want that gesture recognizer to recognize taps. Ideally, I want to do something when the added gesture recognizer is tapped, then remove that gesture recognizer after so the other buttons and tables can be accessed. Basically a tap to dismiss functionality that replicates something like the facebook notifications window, tap outside to dismiss, but not interfere with the buttons outside of the notifications view. Can anybody help? My current code is: NotificationsWindow *customView = [[[NSBundle mainBundle]loadNibNamed:@"NotificationsWindow" owner:self options:nil]objectAtIndex:0]; customView.frame= CGRectMake(12, 12, customView.frame.size.width, customView.frame.size.height); UITapGestureRecognizer *recognizerForSubView = [[UITapGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget:self action:@selector(handleTapBehindAgain:)]; [recognizerForSubView setNumberOfTapsRequired:1]; recognizerForSubView.cancelsTouchesInView = NO; //So the user can still interact with controls in the modal view [customView addGestureRecognizer:recognizerForSubView]; [self.view addSubview:customView]; UITapGestureRecognizer *recognizerForSuperView = [[UITapGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget:self action:@selector(handleTapBehind:)]; [recognizerForSuperView setNumberOfTapsRequired:1]; recognizerForSuperView.cancelsTouchesInView = NO; //So the user can still interact with controls in the modal view [customView.superview addGestureRecognizer:recognizerForSuperView]; (void)handleTapBehind:(UITapGestureRecognizer *)sender { NSLog(@"tapped"); [[self.view.subviews lastObject] removeFromSuperview]; [self.view removeGestureRecognizer:sender]; } I want to make it so that the recognizer for the super view dismisses the subview, but not to interfere with the other taps on the super view.

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