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  • Seam @Factory in abstract base class?

    - by Shadowman
    I've got a series of web actions I'm implementing in Seam to perform create, read, update, etc. operations. For my read/update/delete actions, I'd like to have individual action classes that all extend an abstract base class. I'd like to put the @Factory method in the abstract base class to retrieve the item that is to be acted upon. For example, I have this as the base class: public abstract class BaseAction { @In(required=false)@Out(required=false) private MyItem item=null; public MyItem getItem(){...} public void setItem(...){...} @Factory("item") public void initItem(){...} } My subclasses would extend BaseAction, so that I don't have to repeat the logic to load the item that is to be viewed, deleted, updated, etc. However, when I start my application, Seam throws errors saying I have declared multiple @Factory's for the same object. Is there any way around this? Is there any way to provide the @Factory in the base class without encoutnering these errors?

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  • Class design when working with dataset

    - by MC
    If you have to retrieve data from a database and bring this dataset to the client, and then allow the user to manipulate the data in various ways before updating the database again, what is a good class design for this if the data tables will not have a 1:1 relationship with the class objects? Here are some I came up with: Just manipulate the DataSet itself on the client and then send it back to the database as is. This will work though obviously the code will be very dirty and not well-structured. Same as #1, but wrap the dataset code around classes. What I mean is that you may have a class that takes a dataset or a datatable in its constructor, and then provides public methods and properties to simplify the code. Inside these methods and properties it will be reading or manipulating the dataset. To update the database afterwards will be easy because you already have the updated dataset. Get rid of the dataset entirely on the client, convert to objects, then convert back to a dataset when needing to update the database. Is there any good resources where I can find information on this?

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  • Flash SWF not initializing until visible - can I force them to initialize?

    - by Jason
    I have an application that needs to render about 100 flash graphs (as well as other DOM stuff) in a series of rows that vertically extend many times beyond the current visible window - in other words, the users have to scroll down see see all the different graphs. This application is also dynamic and when a user changes a value in the DOM (anywhere on the page) it will need to propagate that change to all the Flash graphs at the same time. So I setup all the externalInterface callbacks and was careful to not let any JS start going until the ever-so-important "flashIsReady" call and...it worked great until I tried to update() the existing swf's with new data. Here was the behavior: - All the swfs load (initially) in both IE/Fox = good. - Updating swfs with new content works in IE but not in Fox = not good - Updating swfs with new content works in Fox --ONLY IF-- I scrolled down to the bottom of the page, then back to the top -- BEFORE -- I triggered an update(). So then I started tracing out each time a swf called the JS to say "flash is ready" and I realized, Firfox only renders swfs as they become visible. And To be honest - that's fine and actually, I am pretty sure that IE does this too. But the problem is that not only does Firefox not initialize the swf, Firefox doesn't even acknowledge the swf exists (expect for after onload) if it has not yet been visible. And the proof is that you get JS errors saying: "[FlashDOMID].FlashMethod is not a function". However, scroll down a little, wait until its visible and suddenly the trace starts lighting up "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready" and once they are all ready, everything works fine. Someone told me that FF does not init swf's until visible - can I force it? I can post code if you need...but its pretty heavy (hard to strip out the relevant from the rest) and I would like to avoid it (for your sakes) if possible. The question is simple - have you had this happen and if so, did you find a solution? Does anyone now how to force a not-yet-visible swf to initialize? Thanks guys.

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  • Should I use IDisposable for purely managed resources?

    - by John Gietzen
    Here is the scenario: I have an object called a Transaction that needs to make sure that only one entity has permission to edit it at any given time. In order to facilitate a long-lived lock, I have the class generating a token object that can be used to make the edits. You would use it like this: var transaction = new Transaction(); using (var tlock = transaction.Lock()) { transaction.Update(data, tlock); } Now, I want the TransactionLock class to implement IDisposable so that its usage can be clear. But, I don't have any unmanaged resources to dispose. however, the TransctionLock object itself is a sort of "unmanaged resource" in the sense that the CLR doesn't know how to properly finalize it. All of this would be fine and dandy, I would just use IDisposable and be done with it. However, my issue comes when I try to do this in the finalizer: ~TransactionLock() { this.Dispose(false); } I want the finalizer to release the transaction from the lock, if possible. How, in the finalizer, do I detect if the parent transaction (this.transaction) has already been finalized? Is there a better pattern I should be using? The Transaction class looks something like this: public sealed class Transaction { private readonly object lockMutex = new object(); private TransactionLock currentLock; public TransactionLock Lock() { lock (this.lockMutex) { if (this.currentLock != null) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); this.currentLock = new TransactionLock(this); return this.currentLock; } } public void Update(object data, TransactionLock tlock) { lock (this.lockMutex) { this.ValidateLock(tlock); // ... } } internal void ValidateLock(TransactionLock tlock) { if (this.currentLock == null) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); if (this.currentLock != tlock) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); } internal void Unlock(TransactionLock tlock) { lock (this.lockMutex) { this.ValidateLock(tlock); this.currentLock = null; } } }

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  • Accessing MS Access database from C#

    - by Abilash
    I want to use MS Access as database for my C# windows form application.I have used OleDb driver for connecting MS Access. I am able to select the records from the MS Access using OleDbConnection and ExecuteReader.But I am un able to insert,update and delete records. My code is as follows: OleDbConnection con=new OleDbConnection(strCon); try { con.Open(); OleDbCommand com = new OleDbCommand("INSERT INTO DPMaster(DPID,DPName,ClientID,ClientName) VALUES('53','we','41','aw')", con); int a=com.ExecuteNonQuery(); //OleDbCommand com = new OleDbCommand("SELECT * FROM DPMaster", con); //OleDbDataReader dr = com.ExecuteReader(); //while (dr.Read()) //{ // MessageBox.Show(dr[2].ToString()); //} MessageBox.Show(a.ToString()); } catch { MessageBox.Show("cannot"); } If I execute the commented block the application works.But the insert block doesnt works.Why I am unable to insert/update/delete the records into database? My Connection String is as follows: string strCon="Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=xyz.mdb;Persist Security Info=True";

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  • SQL Duplicates Issue SQL SERVER 2000

    - by jeff
    I have two tables : Product and ProductRateDetail. The parent table is Product. I have duplicate records in the product table which need to be unique. There are entries in the ProductRateDetail table which correspond to duplicate records in the product table. Somehow I need to update the ProductRateDetail table to match the original (older) ID from the Product table and then remove the duplicates from the product table. I would do this manually but there are 100's of records. i.e. something like UPDATE tbl_productRateDetail SET productID = (originalID from tbl_product) then something like DELETE from tbl_product WHERE duplicate ID and only delete the recently added ID data example: (sorry can't work out this formatting thing) tbl_Product select * from dbo.Product where ProductCode = '10003' ProductID ProductTypeID ProductDescription ProductCode ProductSize 365 1 BEND DOUBLE FLANGED 10003 80mmX90deg 1354 1 BEND DOUBLE FLANGED 10003 80mmX90deg tbl_ProductRateDetail SELECT * FROM [MSTS2].[dbo].[ProductRateDetail] WHERE ProductID in (365,1354) ProductRateDetailID ProductRateID ProductID UnitRate 365 1 365 16.87 1032 5 365 16.87 2187 10 365 16.87 2689 11 365 16.87 3191 12 365 16.87 7354 21 1354 21.30 7917 22 1354 21.30 8480 23 1354 21.30 9328 25 1354 21.30 9890 26 1354 21.30 10452 27 1354 21.30 Please help!

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  • Problems using (building?) native gem extensions on OS X

    - by goodmike
    I am having trouble with some of my rubygems, in particular those that use native extensions. I am on a MacBookPro, with Snow Leopard. I have XCode 3.2.1 installed, with gcc 4.2.1. Ruby 1.8.6, because I'm lazy and a scaredy cat and don't want to upgrade yet. Ruby is running in 32-bit mode. I built this ruby from scratch when my MBP ran OSX 10.4. When I require one of the affected gems in irb, I get a Load Error for the gem extension's bundle file. For example, here's nokogigi dissing me: > require 'rubygems' = true > require 'nokogiri' LoadError: Failed to load /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/nokogiri-1.4.1/lib/nokogiri/nokogiri.bundle This is also happening with the Postgres pg and MongoDB mongo gems. My first thought was that the extensions must not be building right. But gem install wasn't throwing any errors. So I reinstalled with the verbose flag, hoping to see some helpful warnings. I've put the output in a Pastie, and the only warning I see is a consistent one about "passing argument n of ‘foo’ with different width due to prototype." I suspect that this might be an issue from upgrading to Snow Leopard, but I'm a little surprised to experience it now, since I've updated my XCode. Could it stem from running Ruby in 1.8.6? I'm embarrassed that I don't know quite enough about my Mac and OSX to know where to look next, so any guidance, even just a pointer to some document I couldn't find via Google, would be most welcome. Michael

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  • Javascript timezone solution needed(taking into account the actual difference in UTC timestamps)

    - by user198729
    I have unix timestamps from time zone X which is not known, the current timestamp(now()) in TZ X is known 1275143019, how to approach a javascript function so that it can generate the datetime in the users current TZ in the format 2010-05-29 15:32:35 ? UPDATE I'm not a unix timestamp expert,if unix timestamp is always the same in different TZ, then I have to change the question a little,so that the current datetime in TZ X is known(like 2010-05-29 22:32:28),and the other datetime is also in this format,how to convert them to the user's TZ based on the difference between now() ? UPDATE Something strange from MySQL: On server: mysql> select now(); +---------------------+ | now() | +---------------------+ | 2010-05-29 18:34:30 | +---------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) mysql> select UNIX_TIMESTAMP(); +------------------+ | UNIX_TIMESTAMP() | +------------------+ | 1275143674 | +------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) On local: mysql> select now(); +---------------------+ | now() | +---------------------+ | 2010-05-29 22:41:30 | +---------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) mysql> select UNIX_TIMESTAMP(); +------------------+ | UNIX_TIMESTAMP() | +------------------+ | 1275144091 | +------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) Why the difference between now() (2010-05-29 22:41:30-2010-05-29 18:34:30=6hours) and UNIX_TIMESTAMP() (1275144091 - 1275143674 = 417seconds) is not the same ?

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  • How can I remove a JPanel from a JFrame?

    - by Roman
    Recently I asked here how to add a new JPanel to JFrame. The answer helped me to get a working code. But not I have a related question: "How can I remove an old JPanel". I need that because of the following problem. A new JPanel appears appears when I want (either time limit is exceeded or user press the "Submit" button). But in several seconds some element of the old JPanel appears together with the component of the new JPanel. I do not understand why it happens. I thought that it is because I have to other threads which update the window. But the first thread just add the old panel once (so, it should be finished). And in the second thread I have a loop which is broken (so, it also should be finished). Here is my code: private Thread controller = new Thread() { public void run() { // First we set the initial pane (for the selection of partner). SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { frame.getContentPane().add(generatePartnerSelectionPanel()); frame.invalidate(); frame.validate(); } }); // Update the pane for the selection of the parnter. for (int i=40; i>0; i=i-1) { final int sec = i; SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { timeLeftLabel.setText(sec + " seconds left."); } }); try {Thread.sleep(1000);} catch (InterruptedException e) {} if (partnerSubmitted) {break;} } // For the given user the selection phase is finished (either the time is over or form was submitted). SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { frame.getContentPane().add(generateWaitForGamePanel()); frame.invalidate(); frame.validate(); } }); } };

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  • Flex DataGridColumn with array of objects as data provider

    - by rforte
    I have a datagrid that uses an array of objects as the data provider. The objects are essentially key/value pairs: { foo:"something"} { bar:"hello"} { caca:"lorem"} The datagrid has 2 columns. The first column is the key and the second column is the value. Right now my grid looks like: My dataFormatter function makes sure that depending on the column (i.e. the dataField value) the correct key or value gets printed out. This works fine for displaying. However, as soon as I try and edit the value field it essentially adds a new value into the object with a key of '1'. For example, if I edit the {caca:"lorem"} object it will then contain the value {caca:"lorem",1:"new value"}. Is there any possible way I can set the DataGridColumn so that when I edit a value it will update the value associated with the key rather than inserting a new value? I've tried using a custom item editor but it still does the insert. It seems like I need to be able to update the 'dataField' with the actual key value but I'm not sure how to do that.

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  • how do I call a javacript function every 60 seconds?

    - by William
    So I'm trying to work on a Canvas demo, and I want this square to move from one side to the other, but I can't figure out how to call javascript in a way that repeats every 60 seconds. Here's what I got so far: <!DOCTYPE html> <html lang="en"> <head> <title>Canvas test</title> <meta charset="utf-8" /> <link href="/bms/style.css" rel="stylesheet" /> <style> body { text-align: center; background-color: #000000;} canvas{ background-color: #ffffff;} </style> <script type="text/javascript"> var x = 50; var y = 250; function update(){ draw(); x = x + 5; } function draw(){ var canvas = document.getElementById('screen1'); if (canvas.getContext){ var ctx = canvas.getContext('2d'); ctx.fillStyle = 'rgb(236,138,68)'; ctx.fillRect(x,y,24,24); } } </script> </head> <body onLoad="setTimeout(update(), 0);"> <canvas id="screen1" width="500" height="500"></canvas> </body> </html>

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  • Help me write my LISP :) LISP environments, Ruby Hashes...

    - by MikeC8
    I'm implementing a rudimentary version of LISP in Ruby just in order to familiarize myself with some concepts. I'm basing my implementation off of Peter Norvig's Lispy (http://norvig.com/lispy.html). There's something I'm missing here though, and I'd appreciate some help... He subclasses Python's dict as follows: class Env(dict): "An environment: a dict of {'var':val} pairs, with an outer Env." def __init__(self, parms=(), args=(), outer=None): self.update(zip(parms,args)) self.outer = outer def find(self, var): "Find the innermost Env where var appears." return self if var in self else self.outer.find(var) He then goes on to explain why he does this rather than just using a dict. However, for some reason, his explanation keeps passing in through my eyes and out through the back of my head. Why not use a dict, and then inside the eval function, when a new "sub-environment" needs to be created, just take the existing dict and update the key/value pairs that need to be updated, and pass that new dict into the next eval? Won't the Python interpreter keep track of the previous "outer" envs? And won't the nature of the recursion ensure that the values are pulled out from "inner" to "outer"? I'm using Ruby, and I tried to implement things this way. Something's not working though, and it might be because of this, or perhaps not. Here's my eval function, env being a regular Hash: def eval(x, env = $global_env) ........ elsif x[0] == "lambda" then ->(*args) { eval(x[2], env.merge(Hash[*x[1].zip(args).flatten(1)])) } ........ end The line that matters of course is the "lambda" one. If there is a difference, what's importantly different between what I'm doing here and what Norvig did with his Env class? If there's no difference, then perhaps someone can enlighten me as to why Norvig uses the Env class. Thanks :)

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  • How do you populate a UIImage view with ASIHTTPRequest given @2x?

    - by Jonathan Page
    I've been trying to load images from a url using ASIHTTPRequest but I always come up with a blank UIImage. I think it might have something to do with iOS automatically choosing the @2x named version of images or vica versa. [ASIHTTPRequest setDefaultCache:[ASIDownloadCache sharedCache]]; NSString *url_string = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://173.246.100.185/%@", [eventDictionary objectForKey:kEventDescriptionImageURLKey]]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:url_string]; __block ASIHTTPRequest *request = [ASIHTTPRequest requestWithURL:url]; [request setDownloadCache:[ASIDownloadCache sharedCache]]; [request setCachePolicy:ASIAskServerIfModifiedCachePolicy|ASIFallbackToCacheIfLoadFailsCachePolicy]; [request setCacheStoragePolicy:ASICachePermanentlyCacheStoragePolicy]; [request setSecondsToCache:86400]; [request setDelegate:self]; [request setCompletionBlock:^{ NSLog(@"Successful Update"); [self makeAssignment]; }]; [request setFailedBlock:^{ NSError *error = [request error]; NSLog(@"%@", [error localizedDescription]); UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Update Failed" message:[error localizedDescription] delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"OK" otherButtonTitles:nil]; [alert show]; [alert release]; }]; [request startAsynchronous]; NSLog(@"%@", url_string); The makeAssignment method is below. NSString *url_string = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://173.246.100.185/%@", [eventDictionary objectForKey:kEventDescriptionImageURLKey]]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:url_string]; downloadedImage = [[UIImage alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:[[ASIDownloadCache sharedCache] pathToCachedResponseDataForURL:url]]; NSLog(@"%@", downloadedImage); NSLog(@"%@", [[ASIDownloadCache sharedCache] pathToCachedResponseDataForURL:url]); Nothing I do, including naming images @2x on the server or providing both versions, gets it to load. Any ideas? Has anyone done this before? When I load them locally (from within the package) I don't have any issues. Thanks!

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  • What is best practice about having one-many hibernate

    - by Patrick
    Hi all, I believe this is a common scenario. Say I have a one-many mapping in hibernate Category has many Item Category: @OneToMany( cascade = {CascadeType.ALL},fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name="category_id") @Cascade( value = org.hibernate.annotations.CascadeType.DELETE_ORPHAN ) private List<Item> items; Item: @ManyToOne(targetEntity=Category.class,fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinColumn(name="category_id",insertable=false,updatable=false) private Category category; All works fine. I use Category to fully control Item's life cycle. But, when I am writing code to update Category, first I get Category out from DB. Then pass it to UI. User fill in altered values for Category and pass back. Here comes the problem. Because I only pass around Category information not Item. Therefore the Item collection will be empty. When I call saveOrUpdate, it will clean out all associations. Any suggestion on what's best to address this? I think the advantage of having Category controls Item is to easily main the order of Item and not to confuse bi-directly. But what about situation that you do want to just update Category it self? Load it first and merge? Thank you.

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  • JavaEE: Question about design

    - by Harry Pham
    I have a JSF page that will create a new Comment. I have the managed bean of that page to be RequestScoped managed bean. @ManagedBean(name="PostComment") @RequestScoped public class PostComment { private Comment comment = null; @ManagedProperty(value="#{A}") private A a; //A is a ViewScoped Bean @ManagedProperty(value="#{B}") private B b; //B is a ViewScoped Bean @PostConstruct public void init(){ comment = new Comment(); } // setters and getters for comment and all the managed property variable public void postComment(String location){ //persist the new comment ... if(location.equals("A")){ //update the comment list on page A }else if(location.equals("B")){ //update the comment list on page B } } } As you can see from the code above, 2 ViewScoped bean A and B will both use method postComment(), and getter getComment() from bean PostComment. The problem I am having right now is that, if I am on A, constructor of A will load, but it will also load constructor of bean B. This make my page load twice as slow. What would be the best way to solve this problem?

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  • Ajax with Jsf 1.1 implementation

    - by Rohan Ved
    I am using JSF1.1 in that, have this code_ <%@ taglib uri="http://java.sun.com/jsf/html" prefix="h"%> <%@ taglib uri="http://java.sun.com/jsf/core" prefix="f"%> <%@ taglib uri="http://www.azureworlds.org" prefix="azure"%> <%@ taglib uri="http://myfaces.apache.org/tomahawk" prefix="x"%> <%@ taglib uri="http://www.asifqamar.com/jsf/asif" prefix="a"%> ... <x:selectOneMenu value="#{hotelBean.state}"> <f:selectItem itemLabel="Select One" itemValue="" /> <f:selectItem value="#{hotelBean.mapStates }" /> <x:ajax update="city" listener="#{hotelBean.handleCityChange}" /> </x:selectOneMenu> <h:outputText value="City* " /> <x:selectOneMenu id="city" value="#{hotelBean.city}"> <f:selectItem itemLabel="Select One" itemValue="" /> <f:selectItem value="#{hotelBean.mapCities }" /> </x:selectOneMenu> line x:ajax update="city" listener="#{hotelBean.handleCityChange}" is not working , i searched but got JSF1.1 not support for Ajax. then what can i do for this? and i have less knowledge of JS. Thanx

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  • mysql row locking via php

    - by deezee
    I am helping a friend with a web based form that is for their business. I am trying to get it ready to handle multiple users. I have set it up so that just before the record is displayed for editing I am locking the record with the following code. $query = "START TRANSACTION;"; mysql_query($query); $query = "SELECT field FROM table WHERE ID = \"$value\" FOR UPDATE;"; mysql_query($query); (okay that is greatly simplified but that is the essence of the mysql) It does not appear to be working. However, when I go directly to mysql from the command line, logging in with the same user and execute START TRANSACTION; SELECT field FROM table WHERE ID = "40" FOR UPDATE; I can effectively block the web form from accessing record "40" and get the timeout warning. I have tried using BEGIN instead of START TRANSACTION. I have tried doing SET AUTOCOMMIT=0 first and starting the transaction after locking but I cannot seem to lock the row from the PHP code. Since I can lock the row from the command line I do not think there is a problem with how the database is set up. I am really hoping that there is some simple something that I have missed in my reading. FYI, I am developing on XAMPP version 1.7.3 which has Apache 2.2.14, MySQL 5.1.41 and PHP 5.3.1. Thanks in advance. This is my first time posting but I have gleaned alot of knowledge from this site in the past.

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  • Opa app does not load in Internet Explorer when compiled with Opa 1.1.1

    - by Marcin Skórzewski
    I did a minor update to the already working application and then had problems using new version of Opa compiler. First problem - runtime exception Since the original deployment Opa 1.1.1 has been released and it resulted in error: events.js:72 throw er; // Unhandled 'error' event ^ Error: listen EADDRINUSE at errnoException (net.js:901:11) at Server._listen2 (net.js:1039:14) at listen (net.js:1061:10) at Server.listen (net.js:1127:5) at global.BslNet_Http_server_init_server (/opt/mlstate/lib/opa/stdlib/server.opp/serverNodeJsPackage.js:223:1405) at global.BslNet_Http_server_init_server_cps (/opt/mlstate/lib/opa/stdlib/server.opp/serverNodeJsPackage.js:226:15) at __v1_bslnet_http_server_init_server_cps_b970f080 (/opt/mlstate/lib/opa/stdlib/stdlib.qmljs/stdlib.core.web.server.opx/main.js:1:175) at /opt/mlstate/lib/opa/stdlib/stdlib.qmljs/stdlib.core.web.server.opx/main.js:440:106 at global.execute_ (/opt/mlstate/lib/opa/static/opa-js-runtime-cps/main.js:19:49) at /opt/mlstate/lib/opa/static/opa-js-runtime-cps/main.js:17:78 I decided to build Opa from sources and it helped, but another problem occurred :( Second problem - stops to support the IE Application stopped to work in Internet Explorer. I tried two different machines (Windows XP and 7) with IE 8 and 10. Web page does not load at all (looks like the network problem, but the same URL works fine in Firefox). I confirmed the same problem with "Hello world" from the Opa tutorial compiled with both Opa stable 1.1.1 and build from sources. I suspected that the problem is due to Node.js update (Opa = 1.1.1 requires Node 0.10.* - now I am using 0.10.12, but I also tried other 0.10-s), but "Hello world" from the Node's from page works fine. I am running the app on OSX developer box and Linux Debian 7.0 server. Any suggestions what am I doing wrong? PS. I was off the business for a while. Anyone knows what happened to the Opa forum? Signing is seams not to work.

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  • SQL Server stored procedure return code oddity

    - by gbn
    Hello The client that calls this code is restricted and can only deal with return codes from stored procs. So, we modified our usual contract to RETURN -1 on error and default to RETURN 0 if no error If the code hits the inner catch block, then the RETURN code default to -4. Where does this come from, does anyone know...? IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.foo') IS NOT NULL DROP TABLE dbo.foo GO CREATE TABLE dbo.foo ( KeyCol char(12) NOT NULL, ValueCol xml NOT NULL, Comment varchar(1000) NULL, CONSTRAINT PK_foo PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED (KeyCol) ) GO IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.bar') IS NOT NULL DROP PROCEDURE dbo.bar GO CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.bar @Key char(12), @Value xml, @Comment varchar(1000) AS SET NOCOUNT ON DECLARE @StartTranCount tinyint; BEGIN TRY SELECT @StartTranCount = @@TRANCOUNT; IF @StartTranCount = 0 BEGIN TRAN; BEGIN TRY --SELECT @StartTranCount = 'fish' INSERT dbo.foo (KeyCol, ValueCol, Comment) VALUES (@Key, @Value, @Comment); END TRY BEGIN CATCH IF ERROR_NUMBER() = 2627 --PK violation UPDATE dbo.foo SET ValueCol = @Value, Comment = @Comment WHERE KeyCol = @Key; ELSE RAISERROR ('Tits up', 16, 1); END CATCH IF @StartTranCount = 0 COMMIT TRAN; END TRY BEGIN CATCH IF @StartTranCount = 0 AND XACT_STATE() <> 0 ROLLBACK TRAN; RETURN -1 END CATCH --Without this, we'll send -4 if we hit the UPDATE CATCH block above --RETURN 0 GO --Run with RETURN 0 and fish line commented out DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar />', 'testing' SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar2 />', 'testing2' --updated OK but we get @rtn = -4 SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo --uncomment fish line DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar />', 'testing' --Hit outer CATCH, @rtn = -1 as expected SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo

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  • JSF: Showing/Calling a dialog programatically

    - by Sway
    has anybody an idea to show/call a dialog programatically and add this to stage(actual browser window) ?! I am running in circles and cannot find a solution :/ More background what I want to do: I want to trigger a database update every 2 hours. This I have done with a TimerTask... This works fine for me, the Timertask gets all the data I want from the database... Before this TimerTask is triggered I want to "lock" the screen for some seconds that no user(session scoped) can access the database(this I also know how this will work) ... My problem is that I don't know/ cannot find a way/ i am to stupid to call a dialog programatically ... Any tips, hints would be very cool :) Thanks a lot ! UPDATE: I want to set this primefaces dialog: Dialog dialog = new Dialog(); dialog.setAppendToBody(true); dialog.setModal(true); dialog.setVisible(true); dialog.setWidgetVar("generatedDialog"); dialog.setId("fancyDialog"); dialog.setClosable(false); dialog.setHeader("Getting latest information from the database"); dialog.setDynamic(true); dialog.setResizable(false); dialog.setDraggable(false); How can I do that ? :/ How do I display it to my browser ? :o Regards

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  • Box2D in Flash runs quicker when drawing debug data than not

    - by bowdengm
    I've created a small game with Box2d for AS3 - I have sprites attached to the stage that take their position from the underlying Box2d world. These sprites are mostly PNGs. When the game runs with DrawDebugData() bening called every update, it runs nice and smoothly. However when I comment this out, it runs choppily. In both cases all my sprites are being rendered. So it seems that it's running faster when it's drawing the debug data additionaly (i.e. my sprites are on the screen in both cases!) What's going on? Does drawing the debug data flick some sort of 'render quick' switch? If so, what's the switch!? I can't see it in the Box2D code. function Update(e){ m_world.Step(m_timeStep, m_velocityIterations, m_positionIterations); // draw debug? m_world.DrawDebugData(); // with the above line in, I get 27fps, without it, I get 19fps. // that's the only change that's causing such a huge difference. doStuff(); } Interestingly, If i set the debug draw scale to something different to my world scale, it slows down to 19fps. So there's something happening when it draws the boxes under my sprites causing it to run quicker.. Cheers, Guy

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  • updating multiple nodes in xml with xquery and xdmp:node-replace

    - by morja
    Hi all, I wnat to update an XML document in my xml database (Marklogic). I have xml as input and want to replace each node that exists in the target xml. If a node does not exist it would be great if it gets added, but thats maybe another task. My XML in the database: <user> <username>username</username> <firstname>firstname</firstname> <lastname>lastname</lastname> <email>[email protected]</email> <comment>comment</comment> </user> The value of $user_xml: <user> <firstname>new firstname</firstname> <lastname>new lastname</lastname> </user> My function so far: declare function update-user ( $username as xs:string, $user_xml as node()) as empty-sequence() { let $uri := user-uri($username) return for $node in $user_xml/user return xdmp:node-replace(fn:doc($uri)/user/fn:node-name($node), $node) }; First of all I cannot iterate over $user_xml/user. If I try to iterate over $user_xml I get "arg1 is not of type node()" exception. But maybe its the wrong approach anyway? Does anybody maybe have sample code how to do this?

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  • Codeigniter: Library function--I'm stuck

    - by Kevin Brown
    I have a library function that sets up my forms, and submits data. They're long, and they work, so I'll spare you reading my code. :) I simply need a way for my functions to determine how to handle the data. Until now, the function did one thing: Submit a report for the current user. NOW, the client has requested that an administrator also be able to complete a form--this means that the form would be filled out, and it would CREATE a user at the same time, whereas the current function EDITS and is accessed by an EXISTING user. Do I need a separate function to do essentially the same thing? How do I make one function perform two tasks? One to update a user, and if there is no user, create one. Current controller: function survey() { $id = $this->session->userdata('id'); $data['member'] = $this->home_model->getUser($id); //Convert the db Object to a row array $data['manager'] = $data['member']->row(); $manager_id = $data['manager']->manager_id; $data['manager'] = $this->home_model->getUser($manager_id); $data['manager'] = $data['manager']->row(); $data['header'] = "Home"; $this->survey_form_processing->survey_form($this->_container,$data, $method); } Current Library: function survey_form($container) { //Lots of validation stuff $this->CI->validation->set_rules($rules); if ( $this->CI->validation->run() === FALSE ) { // Output any errors $this->CI->validation->output_errors(); } else { // Submit form $this->_submit(); } $this->CI->load->view($container,$data); The submit function is huge too. Basically says, "Update table with data where user_id=current user" I hope this wasn't too confusing. I'll create two functions if need be, but I'd like to keep redundancy down! }

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  • Entity Framework 4 + POCO with custom classes and WCF contracts (serialization problem)

    - by eman
    Yesterday I worked on a project where I upgraded to Entity Framework 4 with the Repository pattern. In one post, I have read that it is necessary to turn off the custom tool generator classes and then write classes (same like entites) by hand. That I can do it, I used the POCO Entity Generator and then deleted the new generated files .tt and all subordinate .cs classes. Then I wrote the "entity classes" by myself. I added the repository pattern and implemented it in the business layer and then implemented a WCF layer, which should call the methods from the business layer. By calling an Insert (Add) method from the presentation layer and everything is OK. But if I call any method that should return some class, then I get an error like (the connection was interrupted by the server). I suppose there is a problem with the serialization or am I wrong? How can by this problem solved? I'm using Visual Studio S2010, Entity Framework 4, C#. UPDATE: I have uploaded the project and hope somebody can help me! link text UPDATE 2: My questions: Why is POCO good (pros/cons)? When should POCO be used? Is POCO + the repository pattern a good choice? Should POCO classes by written by myself or could I use auto generated POCO classes?

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  • What should i do for accomodating large scale data storage and retrieval?

    - by kailashbuki
    There's two columns in the table inside mysql database. First column contains the fingerprint while the second one contains the list of documents which have that fingerprint. It's much like an inverted index built by search engines. An instance of a record inside the table is shown below; 34 "doc1, doc2, doc45" The number of fingerprints is very large(can range up to trillions). There are basically following operations in the database: inserting/updating the record & retrieving the record accoring to the match in fingerprint. The table definition python snippet is: self.cursor.execute("CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `fingerprint` (fp BIGINT, documents TEXT)") And the snippet for insert/update operation is: if self.cursor.execute("UPDATE `fingerprint` SET documents=CONCAT(documents,%s) WHERE fp=%s",(","+newDocId, thisFP))== 0L: self.cursor.execute("INSERT INTO `fingerprint` VALUES (%s, %s)", (thisFP,newDocId)) The only bottleneck i have observed so far is the query time in mysql. My whole application is web based. So time is a critical factor. I have also thought of using cassandra but have less knowledge of it. Please suggest me a better way to tackle this problem.

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