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• JSF: Showing/Calling a dialog programatically

  - by Sway

  has anybody an idea to show/call a dialog programatically and add this to stage(actual browser window) ?! I am running in circles and cannot find a solution :/ More background what I want to do: I want to trigger a database update every 2 hours. This I have done with a TimerTask... This works fine for me, the Timertask gets all the data I want from the database... Before this TimerTask is triggered I want to "lock" the screen for some seconds that no user(session scoped) can access the database(this I also know how this will work) ... My problem is that I don't know/ cannot find a way/ i am to stupid to call a dialog programatically ... Any tips, hints would be very cool :) Thanks a lot ! UPDATE: I want to set this primefaces dialog: Dialog dialog = new Dialog(); dialog.setAppendToBody(true); dialog.setModal(true); dialog.setVisible(true); dialog.setWidgetVar("generatedDialog"); dialog.setId("fancyDialog"); dialog.setClosable(false); dialog.setHeader("Getting latest information from the database"); dialog.setDynamic(true); dialog.setResizable(false); dialog.setDraggable(false); How can I do that ? :/ How do I display it to my browser ? :o Regards

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• JVM to ignore certificate name mismatch

  - by Heavy Bytes

  I know there were a lot of questions/answers about how to ignore SSL error in the code. On our dev region dev.domain.tld we have configured a app server over SSL. The certificate that is displayed is for somedev.domain.tld. There is no way to change the certificate, it will always be a domain mismatch. So when I deploy a web-service to https://dev.domain.tld and try to connect/call my webservice I get an exception: Caused by: java.security.cert.CertificateException: No name matching dev.domain.tld found And I have the somedev.domain.tld CERT in my trust store. Now, I saw a lot of samples how to change that in the code (using a Trust Manager that accepts all domains), but how do I specify to the JVM to ignore the domain mismatch when connecting to the server? Is there a -Djavax.net.ssl argument or something? Thank you! UPDATE: Or, since I am using Spring-WS, is there a way to set some property in Spring for that? (WebServiceTemplate) UPDATE I guess I'll have to do use something from Spring Security: http://static.springsource.org/spring-ws/sites/1.5/reference/html/security.html

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• Entity Framework and WCf

  - by Nihilist

  Hi I am little confused on designing WCf services with EF. When using WCf and EF, where do we draw this line on what properties to return and what not to with the entity. Here is my scenario I have User. Here are the relations. User [1 to many] Address, User [ 1 to many] Email, User [ 1 to many] Phone So now on the webform, on page1 I can edit user information. say I can edit few properties on the user entity and can also edit address, phone, email entities[ like add / delete and update any] On page2, i can only update user properties and nothing related to navigation properties [ address, email, phone]. So when I return the User Entity [ OR DTO] should i be returning the navigation properties too? Or should the client make multiple calls to get navigation properites. Also, how does it go with Save? Like should the client make multiple calls to save user and related entites or just one call to save the graph? Lets say, if I just have a Save(User user) [ where user has all the related entities too] both page1 and page2 will call save and pass me the user. but one page1 i will need a lot more information. but on page2 i just need the user primitive properties. So my question is, where do we draw this line, how do we design theses services ? Is the WCF operation designed on the page and the fields it has ? I am hoping i explained my problem well enough.

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• Entity Framework 4 + POCO with custom classes and WCF contracts (serialization problem)

  - by eman

  Yesterday I worked on a project where I upgraded to Entity Framework 4 with the Repository pattern. In one post, I have read that it is necessary to turn off the custom tool generator classes and then write classes (same like entites) by hand. That I can do it, I used the POCO Entity Generator and then deleted the new generated files .tt and all subordinate .cs classes. Then I wrote the "entity classes" by myself. I added the repository pattern and implemented it in the business layer and then implemented a WCF layer, which should call the methods from the business layer. By calling an Insert (Add) method from the presentation layer and everything is OK. But if I call any method that should return some class, then I get an error like (the connection was interrupted by the server). I suppose there is a problem with the serialization or am I wrong? How can by this problem solved? I'm using Visual Studio S2010, Entity Framework 4, C#. UPDATE: I have uploaded the project and hope somebody can help me! link text UPDATE 2: My questions: Why is POCO good (pros/cons)? When should POCO be used? Is POCO + the repository pattern a good choice? Should POCO classes by written by myself or could I use auto generated POCO classes?

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• I have created a PHP script and I am lacking to extract the primary key, I have given flow below, pl

  - by Parth

  I am using MySQL DB, working for Joomla, My requirement is tracking the activity like insert/update/delete on any table and store it in another audit table using triggers, i.e. I am doing Auditing. DB's table structure: Few tables dont have any PK nor auto increment key Flow of my script is : I fetch out all table from DB. I check whether the table have any trigger or not. If yes then it moves to check nfor next table and so on. If it does'nt find any trigger then it creates the triggers for the table, such that, -it first checks if the table has any primary key or not(for inserting in Tracking audit table for every change made) if it has the primary key then it uses it further in creation of trigger. if it doesnt find any PK then it proceeds further in creating the trigger without inserting any id in audit table Now here, My problem is I need the PK every time so that I can record the id of any particular table in which the insert/update/delete is performed, so that further i can use this audit track table to replicate in production DB.. Now as I haave mentioned earlier that I am not available with PK/auto-incremented in some table, then what should I do get the particular id in which change is done? please guide me...GEEKS!!!

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• entity framework insert bug

  - by tmfkmoney

  I found a previous question which seemed related but there's no resolution and it's 5 months old so I've opened my own version. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1545583/entity-framework-inserting-new-entity-via-objectcontext-does-not-use-existing-e When I insert records into my database with the following it works fine for a while and then eventually it starts inserting null values in the referenced field. This typically happens after I do an update on my model from the database although not always after I do an update. I'm using a MySQL database for this. I have debugged the code and the values are being set properly before the save event. They're just not getting inserted properly. I can always fix this issue by re-creating the model without touching any of my code. I have to recreate the entire model, though. I can't just dump the relevant tables and re-add them. This makes me think it doesn't have anything to do with my code but something with the entity framework. Does anyone else have this problem and/or solved it? using (var db = new MyModel()) { var stocks = from record in query let ticker = record.Ticker select new { company = db.Companies.FirstOrDefault(c => c.ticker == ticker), price = Convert.ToDecimal(record.Price), date_stamp = Convert.ToDateTime(record.DateTime) }; foreach (var stock in stocks) { if (stock.company != null) { var price = new StockPrice { Company = stock.company, price = stock.price, date_stamp = stock.date_stamp }; db.AddToStockPrices(price); } } db.SaveChanges(); }

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• How to "push" updates to individual cells in a (ASP.NET) web page table/grid?

  - by dommer

  I'm building something similar to a price comparison site. This will be developed in ASP.NET/WebForms/C#/.NET 3.5. The site will be used by the public, so I have no control over the client side - and the application isn't so central to their lives that they'll go out of their way to make it work. I want to have a table/grid that displays products in rows, vendors in columns, and prices in the cells. Price updates will be arriving (at the server) continuously, and I'd like to "push" any updates to the clients' browsers - ideally only updating what has changed. So, if Vendor A changes their price on Product B, I'd want to immediately update the relevant cell in all the browsers that are viewing this information. I don't want to use any browser plug-ins (e.g. Silverlight). Javascript is fine. What's the best approach to take? Presumably my options are: 1) have the client page continuously poll the server for updates, locate the correct cell and update it; or 2) have the server be able to send updates to all the open browser pages which are listening for these updates. The first one would seem the most plausible, but I don't want to constrain the assembled wisdom of the SO community. I'm happy to purchase any third party components (e.g. a grid) that might help with this. I already have the DevExpress grid/ajax components if they provide anything useful.

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• Using SMO to call Database.ExecuteNonQuery() concurrently?

  - by JimDaniel

  I have been banging my head against the wall trying to figure out how I can run update scripts concurrently against multiple databases in a single SQL Server instance using SMO. Our environments have an ever-increasing number of databases which need updating, and iterating through one at a time is becoming a problem (too slow). From what I understand SMO does not support concurrent operations, and my tests have bore that out. There seems to be shared memory at the Server object level, for things like DataReader context, keeps throwing exceptions such as "reader is already open." I apologize for not having the exact exceptions I am getting. I will try to get them and update this post. I am no expert on SMO and just feeling my way through to be honest. Not really sure I am approaching it the right way, but it's something that has to be done, or our productivity will slow to a crawl. So how would you guys do something like this? Am I using the wrong technology with SMO? All I am wanting to do is execute sql scripts against databases in a single sql server instance in parallel. Thanks for any help you can give, Daniel

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• how to get this value on method post using asp.net mvc

  - by kumar

  I have a lable in the view <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<CDC.ITT.Info.StudentBE>" %> <label for="FollowupDate"> Follow-up: <span><input type="text" id="exc-flwup" name="fdate" /></span> </label> $("input[id^='exc-flwup']").datepicker({ duration: '', showTime: true, constrainInput: true, stepMinutes: 30, stepHours: 1, altTimeField: '', time24h: true, minDate: 0 }); when I click on the input field I am getting popupcalender to select the date. My method post is <% using (Html.BeginForm("Update", "home", FormMethod.Post, new { @id = "exc-"})) { %> <%= Html.ValidationSummary(true)%> then Followupdate user is goign to select the perticular date he wants.. when this method post to the method.. public ActionResult Update(StudentBE e) { return View(); } this e should have the date value but I am not able to see the date selected there.. is there anything wrong I am doing here? thanks

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• Trigger JavaScript action after Datatable is loaded

  - by perissf

  In a JSF 2.1 + PrimeFaces 3.2 web application, I need to trigger a JavaScript function after a p:dataTable is loaded. I know that there is no such event in this component, so I have to find a workaround. In order to better understand the scenario, on page load the dataTable is not rendered. It is rendered after a successful login: <p:commandButton value="Login" update=":aComponentHoldingMyDataTable" action="#{loginBean.login}" oncomplete="handleLoginRequest(xhr, status, args)"/> As you can see from the above code, I have a JavaScript hook after the successful login, if it can be of any help. Immediately after the oncomplete action has finished, the update attribute renders the dataTable: <p:dataTable var="person" value="#{myBean.lazyModel}" rendered="#{p:userPrincipal() != null}" /> After the datatable is loaded, I need to run a JavaScript function on each row item, in order to subscribe to a cometD topic. In theory I could use the oncomplete attribute of the login Button for triggering a property from myBean in order to retrieve once again the values to be displayed in the dataTable, but it doesn't seem very elegant. The JavaScript function should do something with the rowKey of each row of the dataTable: function javaScriptFunctionToBeTriggered(rowKey) { // do something }

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• Atomic operations on several transactionless external systems

  - by simendsjo

  Say you have an application connecting 3 different external systems. You need to update something in all 3. In case of a failure, you need to roll back the operations. This is not a hard thing to implement, but say operation 3 fails, and when rolling back, the rollback for operation 1 fails! Now the first external system is in an invalid state... I'm thinking a possible solution is to shut down the application and forcing a manual fix of the external system, but then again... It might already have used this information (and perhaps that's why it failed), or we might not have sufficient access. Or it might not even be a good way to rollback the action! Are there some good ways of handling such cases? EDIT: Some application details.. It's a multi user web application. Most of the work is done with scheduled jobs (through Quartz.Net), so most operations is run in it's own thread. Some user actions should trigger jobs that update several systems though. The external systems are somewhat unstable. I Was thinking of changing the application to use the Command and Unit Of Work pattern

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• How can I limit asp.net control actions based on user role?

  - by Duke

  I have several pages or views in my application which are essentially the same for both authenticated users and anonymous users. I'd like to limit the insert/update/delete actions in formviews and gridviews to authenticated users only, and allow read access for both authed and anon users. I'm using the asp.net configuration system for handling authentication and roles. This system limits access based on path so I've been creating duplicate pages for authed and anon paths. The solution that comes to mind immediately is to check roles in the appropriate event handlers, limiting what possible actions are displayed (insert/update/delete buttons) and also limiting what actions are performed (for users that may know how to perform an action in the absence of a button.) However, this solution doesn't eliminate duplication - I'd be duplicating security code on a series of pages rather than duplicating pages and limiting access based on path; the latter would be significantly less complicated. I could always build some controls that offered role-based configuration, but I don't think I have time for that kind of commitment right now. Is there a relatively easy way to do this (do such controls exist?) or should I just stick to path-based access and duplicate pages? Does it even make sense to use two methods of authorization? There are still some pages which are strictly for either role so I'll be making use of path-based authorization anyway. Finally, would using something other than path-based authorization be contrary to typical asp.net design practices, at least in the context of using the asp.net configuration system?

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• Validating a value for a DataColumn

  - by Richard Neil Ilagan

  Hello! I'm using a DataGrid with edit functionalities in my project. It's handy, compared to having to edit its source data manually, but sadly, that means that I'll have to deal with validating user input a bit more. And my problem is basically just that. When I set my DataGrid to EDIT mode, modify the values and then set it to UPDATE, what is the best way to check if a value that I've entered is, in fact, compatible with the corresponding column's data type? i.e. (simple example) // assuming DataTable dt = new DataTable(); dt.Columns.Add("aa",typeof(System.Int32)); DataGrid dg = new DataGrid(); dg.DataSource = dt; dg.DataBind(); dg.UpdateCommand += dg_Update; // this is the update handler protected void dg_Update(object src, DataGridCommandEventArgs e) { string newValue = (someValueIEnteredInTextBox); // HOW DO I CHECK IF [newValue] IS COMPATIBLE WITH COLUMN "aa" ABOVE? dt.LoadDataRow(newValue, true); } Thanks guys. Any leads would be so much help.

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• Another IE jQuery AJAX/post problem..

  - by Azzyh

  OK so i have this website, http://www.leinstein.dk. You will see "Hello World!" This is from ok.php, ive made a script that refreshes ok.php after 10 seconds. Anyways, This does not show in IE. I dont know why, and i hope you can help me out. Here's My script: function ajax_update() { cache: false /* var wrapperId = '#wtf'; */ var postFile = 'ok.php'; $.post("ok.php", function(data){ cache: false $("#wtf").html(data); }); setTimeout('ajax_update()', 10000); } And here's index.php: <? header("cache-control: no-cache"); ?> <html> <head> <link href="style.css" type="text/css" rel="stylesheet" /> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="ajax_framework.js" language="javascript" charset="UTF-8"></script> </head> <!-- AJAX UPDATE COMMENTS BEGIN --> <body onload="ajax_update();"> <!-- AJAX UPDATE END --> <br> <div id="wtf"></div> </body> </html> Thank you in forward..!

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• how to validate the dropdownlist box values on submit

  - by kumar

  Hello friends, I have validate_excpt on Form Before Submit I am doing this.. on the View I have two dropdown listboxes I am using On Submit I need to check.. If I selet ResolutionCode I need to validat ReasonCode Dropdownlist that It should select if not Pelase select ReasonCode I should Dispaly? Do I need to do this on Submit ButtonClick? or Can I do it on Validate_excpt? Can anybody help me out? <label for="ResolutionCode"> Resolution: <span> <%=Html.DropDownListFor(model => model.ResolutionCode, new SelectList(Model.LookupCodes["C_EXCPT_RESL"], "Key", "Value"))%> </span> </label> <label for="ReasonCode"> Reason: <span><%=Html.DropDownListFor(model => model.ReasonCode, new SelectList(Model.LookupCodes["C_EXCPT_RSN"], "Key", "Value"))%></span> </label> function validate_excpt(formData, jqForm, options) { var form = jqForm[0]; return true; } // post-submit callback function showResponse(responseText, statusText, xhr, $form) { if (responseText[0].substring(0, 16) != "System.Exception") { $('#error-msg-ID span:last').html('<strong>Update successful.</strong>'); } else { $('#error-msg-ID span:last').html('<strong>Update failed.</strong> ' + responseText[0].substring(0, 48)); } $('#error-msg-ID').removeClass('hide'); } $('#exc-').ajaxForm({ target: '#error-msg-ID', beforeSubmit: validate_excpt, success: showResponse, dataType: 'json' });

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• Loading Dimension Tables - Methodologies

  - by Nev_Rahd

  Hello, Recently I been working on project, where need to populated Dim Tables from EDW Tables. EDW Tables are of type II which does maintain historical data. When comes to load Dim Table, for which source may be multiple EDW Tables or would be single table with multi level pivoting (on attributes). Mean: There would be 10 records - one for each attribute which need to be pivoted on domain_code to make a single row in Dim. Out of these 10 records there would be some attributes with same domain_code but with different sub_domain_code, which needs further pivoting on subdomain code. Ex: if i got domain code: 01,02, 03 = which are straight pivot on domain code I would also have domain code: 10 with subdomain code / version as 2006,2007,2008,2009 That means I need to split my source table with above attributes into two = one for domain code and other for domain_code + version. so far so good. When it comes to load Dim Table: As per design specs for Dimensions (originally written by third party), what they want is: for every single change in EDW (attribute), it should assemble all the related records (for that NK) mean new one with other attribute values which are current = process them to create a new dim record and insert it. That mean if a single extract contains 100 records updated (one for each NK), it should assemble 100 + (100*9) records to insert / update dim table. How good is this approach. Other way I tried to do is just do a lookup into dim table for that NK get the value's of recent records (attributes which not changed) and insert it and update the current one. What would be the better approach assembling records at source side for one attribute change or looking into dim table's recent record and process it. If this doesn't make sense, would like to elaborate it further. Thanks

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• MySQL nested CASE error I need help with?

  - by AK

  What I am trying to do here is: IF the records in table todo as identified in $done have a value in the column recurinterval then THEN reset date_scheduled column ELSE just set status_id column to 6 for those records. This is the error I get from mysql_error() ... You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'CASE recurinterval != 0 AND recurinterval IS NOT NULL THEN SET date_sche' at line 2 How can I make this statement work? UPDATE todo CASE recurinterval != 0 AND recurinterval IS NOT NULL THEN SET date_scheduled = CASE recurunit WHEN 'DAY' THEN DATE_ADD(date_scheduled, INTERVAL recurinterval DAY) WHEN 'WEEK' THEN DATE_ADD(date_scheduled, INTERVAL recurinterval WEEK) WHEN 'MONTH' THEN DATE_ADD(date_scheduled, INTERVAL recurinterval MONTH) WHEN 'YEAR' THEN DATE_ADD(date_scheduled, INTERVAL recurinterval YEAR) END WHERE todo_id IN ($done) ELSE SET status_id = 6 WHERE todo_id IN ($done) END The following mySQL statement worked just fine before I revised like above. UPDATE todo SET date_scheduled = CASE recurunit WHEN 'DAY' THEN DATE_ADD(date_scheduled, INTERVAL recurinterval DAY) WHEN 'WEEK' THEN DATE_ADD(date_scheduled, INTERVAL recurinterval WEEK) WHEN 'MONTH' THEN DATE_ADD(date_scheduled, INTERVAL recurinterval MONTH) WHEN 'YEAR' THEN DATE_ADD(date_scheduled, INTERVAL recurinterval YEAR) END WHERE todo_id IN ($done) AND recurinterval != 0 AND recurinterval IS NOT NULL

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• How do the major C# DI/IoC frameworks compare?

  - by Slomojo

  At the risk of stepping into holy war territory, What are the strengths and weaknesses of these popular DI/IoC frameworks, and could one easily be considered the best? ..: Ninject Unity Castle.Windsor Autofac StructureMap Are there any other DI/IoC Frameworks for C# that I haven't listed here? In context of my use case, I'm building a client WPF app, and a WCF/SQL services infrastructure, ease of use (especially in terms of clear and concise syntax), consistent documentation, good community support and performance are all important factors in my choice. Update: The resources and duplicate questions cited appear to be out of date, can someone with knowledge of all these frameworks come forward and provide some real insight? I realise that most opinion on this subject is likely to be biased, but I am hoping that someone has taken the time to study all these frameworks and have at least a generally objective comparison. I am quite willing to make my own investigations if this hasn't been done before, but I assumed this was something at least a few people had done already. Second Update: If you do have experience with more than one DI/IoC container, please rank and summarise the pros and cons of those, thank you. This isn't an exercise in discovering all the obscure little containers that people have made, I'm looking for comparisons between the popular (and active) frameworks.

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• Is it possible in Perl to require a subroutine call is made?

  - by MitchelWB

  I don't know enough about Perl to even know what I'm asking for exactly, but I'm writing a series of subroutines to be available for many individual scripts that all process different incoming flat files. The process is far from perfect, but it's what I've got to deal with and I'm trying to build myself a small library of subs that make it easier for me to manage it all. Each script handles a different incoming flat file with it's own formatting, sorting, grouping and outputting requirements. One common aspect is that we have small text files that house counters that are used to name the output files so that we have no duplicate file names. Because the processing of the data is different for each file, I need to open the file to get my counter value, because this is a common operation, I'd like to put it in a sub to retrieve the counter. But then need to write specific code to process the data. And would like a second sub that allows me to update the counter with the counter once I've processed the data. Is there a way to make the second sub call a requirement if the first one is called? Ideally if it could even be an error that would prevent the script from running at all much like a syntax error. EDIT: Here is a little [ugly and simplified] psuedo-code to give a better feel for what the current process is: require "importLibrary.plx"; #open data source file open DataIn, $filename; #call getCounterInfo from importLibrary.plx to get the counter value from counter file $counter = &getCounterInfo($counterFileName); while (<DataIn>) { #Process data based on unique formatting and requirements #output to task files based on requirements and name files using the $counter #increment $counter } #update counter file with new value of $counter &updateCounterInfo($counter);

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• import csv file/excel into sql database asp.net

  - by kiev

  Hi everyone! I am starting a project with asp.net visual studio 2008 / SQL 2000 (2005 in future) using c#. The tricky part for me is that the existing DB schema changes often and the import files columns will all have to me matched up with the existing db schema since they may not be one to one match on column names. (There is a lookup table that provides the tables schema with column names I will use) I am exploring different ways to approach this, and need some expert advice. Is there any existing controls or frameworks that I can leverage to do any of this? So far I explored FileUpload .NET control, as well as some 3rd party upload controls to accomplish the upload such as SlickUpload but the files uploaded should be < 500mb Next part is reading of my csv /excel and parsing it for display to the user so they can match it with our db schema. I saw CSVReader and others but for excel its more difficult since I will need to support different versions. Essentially The user performing this import will insert and/or update several tables from this import file. There are other more advance requirements like record matching but and preview of the import records, but I wish to get through understanding how to do this first. Update: I ended up using csvReader with LumenWorks.Framework for uploading the csv files.

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• Get the equivalent time between "dynamic" time zones

  - by doctore

  I have a table providers that has three columns (containing more columns but not important in this case): starttime, start time in which you can contact him. endtime, final hour in which you can contact him. region_id, region where the provider resides. In USA: California, Texas, etc. In UK: England, Scotland, etc starttime and endtime are time without timezone columns, but, "indirectly", their value has time zone of the region in which the provider resides. For example: starttime | endtime | region_id (time zone of region) | "real" st | "real" et ----------|----------|---------------------------------|-----------|----------- 03:00:00 | 17:00:00 | 1 (EGT => -1) | 02:00:00 | 16:00:00 Often I need to get the list of suppliers whose time range is within the current server time (taking into account the time zone conversion). The problem is that the time zones aren't "constant", ie, they may change during the summer time. However, this change is very specific to the region and not always carried out at the same time: EGT <= EGST, ART <= ARST, etc. The question is: 1. Is it necessary to use a webservice to update every so often the time zones in the regions? Does anyone know of a web service that can serve? 2. Is there a better approach to solve this problem? Thanks in advance. UPDATE I will give an example to clarify what I'm trying to get. In the table providers I found this records: idproviders | starttime | endtime | region_id ------------|-----------|----------|----------- 1 | 03:00:00 | 17:00:00 | 23 (Texas) 2 | 04:00:00 | 18:00:00 | 23 (Texas) If I execute the query in January, with this information: Server time (UTC offset) = 0 hours Texas providers (UTC offset) = +1 hour Server time = 02:00:00 I should get the following results: idproviders = 1 If I execute the query in June, with this information: Server time (UTC offset) = 0 hours Texas providers (UTC offset) = +2 hours (their local time has not changed, but their time zone has changed) Server time = 02:00:00 I should get the following results: idproviders = 1 and 2

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• Rails problem with Delayed_Job and Active Record

  - by Michael Waxman

  I'm using Delayed_Job to grab a Twitter user's data from the API, but it's not saving it in the model for some reason! Please help! (code below) class BandJob < Struct.new(:band_id, :band_username) #parameter def perform require 'json' require 'open-uri' band = Band.find_by_id(band_id) t = JSON.parse(open("http://twitter.com/users/show/#{band_username}.json").read) band.screen_name = t['screen_name'] band.profile_background_image = t['profile_background_image_url'] band.url = 'http://' + band_username + '.com' band.save! end end To clarify, I'm actually not getting any errors, it's just not saving. Here's what my log looks like: * [JOB] acquiring lock on BandJob [4;36;1mDelayed::Job Update (3.1ms)[0m [0;1mUPDATE "delayed_jobs" SET locked_at = '2009-11-09 18:59:45', locked_by = 'host:dhcp128036151228.central.yale.edu pid:2864' WHERE (id = 10442 and (locked_at is null or locked_at < '2009-11-09 14:59:45') and (run_at <= '2009-11-09 18:59:45')) [0m [4;35;1mBand Load (1.5ms)[0m [0mSELECT * FROM "bands" WHERE ("bands"."id" = 34) LIMIT 1[0m [4;36;1mBand Update (0.6ms)[0m [0;1mUPDATE "bands" SET "updated_at" = '2009-11-09 18:59:45', "profile_background_image" = 'http://a3.twimg.com/profile_background_images/38193417/fbtile4.jpg', "url" = 'http://Coldplay.com', "screen_name" = 'coldplay' WHERE "id" = 34[0m [4;35;1mDelayed::Job Destroy (0.5ms)[0m [0mDELETE FROM "delayed_jobs" WHERE "id" = 10442[0m * [JOB] BandJob completed after 0.5448 1 jobs processed at 1.8011 j/s, 0 failed ... Thanks!

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• Draw a comparison between an integer in a specific row and a count

  - by XCoderX

  This is a follow-up question to this one: Check for specific integer in a row WHERE user = $name I want a user to be able to comment on my site for exactly five times a day. After this five times, the user has to wait 24 hours. In order to accomplish that I raise a counter in my MYSQL database, right next to the user. So where the name of the user is, there is where the counter gets raised. When it reaches 5 it should stop counting and reset after 24 hours. In order to check the time I use a timestamp. I check if the timestamp is older than 24 hours. If that is the case, the counter gets reseted (-5) and the user can comment again. In order to do that, I use the following code, however it never stops at five, my guess is that my comparison is wrong somehow: $counter = "SELECT FROM table VALUES CommentCounterReset WHERE Name = '$name'"; if(!isset($_SESSION['ts'])); { $_SESSION['ts'] = time(); } if ($counter >= 5) { if (time() - $_SESSION['ts'] <= 60*60*24){ echo "You already wrote five comments."; } else { $sql = "UPDATE table SET CommentCounterReset = CommentCounterReset-5 WHERE Name = '$name'"; } } else { $sql = "UPDATE table SET CommentCounterReset = CommentCounterReset+1 WHERE Name = '$name'"; echo "Your comment has been added."; }

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• error while updating a database in ASP.NET

  - by Viredae

  I am having trouble updating an SQL database, the problem is not that it doesn't update at all, but that particular parameters are being updated while the others are not. here is the code for updating the parameters: string EditRequest = "UPDATE Requests SET Description = @Desc, BJustif = @Justif, Priority = @Priority, Requested_System = @Requested, Request_Status = @Stat WHERE"; EditRequest += " Req_ID=@ID"; SqlConnection Submit_conn = new SqlConnection(WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["DBConn"].ConnectionString); SqlCommand Submit_comm = new SqlCommand(EditRequest, Submit_conn); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ID", Request.QueryString["reqid"]); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Desc", DescBox.Text); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Justif", JustifBox.Text); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Priority", PriorityList.SelectedValue); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Requested", RelatedBox.Text); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Stat", 1); Submit_conn.Open(); Submit_comm.ExecuteNonQuery(); Submit_comm.Dispose(); Submit_comm = null; Submit_conn.Close(); get_Description(); Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(this.GetType(), "Refresh", "ReloadPage();", true); this function is called by a button on a pop-up form which shows the parameters content that is being changed in a text box which is also used to submit the changes back to the database, but when I press submit, the parameters which are displayed on the form don't change, I can't find any problem wit the code, even though I've compared it to similar code which is working fine. In case you need to, here is one of the text boxes I'm using to display and edit the content: <asp:TextBox ID="JustifBox" TextMode="MultiLine" runat="server" Width="250" Height="50"></asp:TextBox> What exactly is wrong with the code?

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• How can I get an NPC to move randomly in XNA?

  - by Fishwaffles

  I basically want a character to walk in one direction for a while, stop, then go in another random direction. Right now my sprites look but don't move, randomly very quickly in all directions then wait and have another seizure. I will post the code I have so far in case that is useful. class NPC: Mover { int movementTimer = 0; public override Vector2 direction { get { Random rand = new Random(); int randDirection = rand.Next(8); Vector2 inputDirection = Vector2.Zero; if (movementTimer >= 50) { if (randDirection == 4) { inputDirection.X -= 1; movingLeft = true; } else movingLeft = false; if (randDirection == 1) { inputDirection.X += 1; movingRight = true; } else movingRight = false; if (randDirection == 2) { inputDirection.Y -= 1; movingUp = true; } else movingUp = false; if (randDirection == 3) { inputDirection.Y += 25; movingDown = true; } else movingDown = false; if (movementTimer >= 100) { movementTimer = 0; } } return inputDirection * speed; } } public NPC(Texture2D textureImage, Vector2 position, Point frameSize, int collisionOffset, Point currentFrame, Point sheetSize, Vector2 speed) : base(textureImage, position, frameSize, collisionOffset, currentFrame, sheetSize, speed) { } public NPC(Texture2D textureImage, Vector2 position, Point frameSize, int collisionOffset, Point currentFrame, Point sheetSize, Vector2 speed, int millisecondsPerframe) : base(textureImage, position, frameSize, collisionOffset, currentFrame, sheetSize, speed, millisecondsPerframe) { } public override void Update(GameTime gameTime, Rectangle clientBounds) { movementTimer++; position += direction; if (position.X < 0) position.X = 0; if (position.Y < 0) position.Y = 0; if (position.X > clientBounds.Width - frameSize.X) position.X = clientBounds.Width - frameSize.X; if (position.Y > clientBounds.Height - frameSize.Y) position.Y = clientBounds.Height - frameSize.Y; base.Update(gameTime, clientBounds); } }

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