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  • Visual Studio soft-crashing when encountering XAML Errors in initialize.

    - by Aren
    I've been having some serious issues with Visual Studio 2010 as of late. It's been crashing in a peculiar way when I encounter certain types of XAML errors during the InitializeComponent() of a control/window. The program breaks and visual studio gears up like it's catching an exception (because it is) and then stops midway displaying a broken highlight in my XAML file with no details as to what is wrong. Example: There is not pop outs, or details Anywhere about what is wrong, only a callstack that points to my InitializeComponent() call. Now normally I'd just do some trial and error to fix this problem, and find out where i messed up, but the real problem isn't my code. Visual Studio is rendered completely useless at this point. It reports my application still in "Running" mode. The Stop/Break/Restart buttons on the toolbar or in the menus don't do anything (but grey out). Closing the application does not stop this behaviour, closing visual studio gets it stuck in a massive loop where it yells at me complaining every file open is not in the debug project, then repeats this process when i have exausted every open file. I have to force-close devenv.exe, and after this happening 3-4 times in a row it's a lot of wasted time (as my projects are usually pretty big and studio can be quite slow @ loading). To the point Has anyone else experienced this? How can I stop studio from locking up. Can I at LEAST get information out of this beast another way so i can fix my XAML error sooner rather than after 3-4 trial-and-error compiles yielding the same crash? Any & All help would be appreciated. Visual Studio 2010 version: 10.0.30319.1RTM Edit & Update FWIW, mostly the errors that cause this are XamlParseExceptions (I figured this out after i found what was wrong with my XAML). I think I need to be clearer though, Im not looking for the solution to my code problem, as these are usually typos / small things, I'm looking for a solution to VStudio getting all buggered up as a result. The particular error in the above image that 100% for sure caused this was a XamlParseException caused by forgetting a Value attribute on a data trigger. I've fixed that part but it still doesn't tell my why my studio becomes a lump of neutered program when a perfectly normal exception is thrown in the parsing of the XAML. Code that will cause this issue (at least for me) This is the base template WPF Application, with the following Window.xaml code. The problem is a missing Value="True" on the <DataTrigger ...> in the template. It generates a XamlParseException and Visual Studio Crashes as described above when debugging it. Final Notes The following solutions did not help me: Restarting Visual Studio Rebooting Reinstalling Visual Studio

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  • set equal height on multiple divs

    - by Greenie
    I need to set equal height on a series of divs inside another div wrapper. The problem is that I dont want the same height on all of them. The page kind of have 3 columns and the floating divs can be 1, 2 or 3 columns wide. The divs float left, so the following example will give me three rows of divs in my wrapper. How can I set equal height on the divs that are in the same row? In my example I want nr 1 and 2 to have equal height and 3, 4 and 5 another equal height? I cant know beforehand how many divs there is or how wide or high they are. Edit: They can be for instance 300, 600 or 900 px wide and the page width is 900px <div id="wrapper"> <div class="one-wide">nr1</div> <div class="two-wide">nr2</div> <div class="one-wide">nr3</div> <div class="one-wide">nr4</div> <div class="one-wide">nr5</div> <div class="three-wide">nr6</div> </div> Im thinking I somehow need to figure out when the added width of the divs is at the full page width and set equal height on those. Then do the same on the next divs. But I cant wrap my head around it. Currently im just using this to set the height on the children of the wrapper: $.fn.equalHeights = function(px) { $(this).each(function(){ var currentTallest = 0; $(this).children().each(function(i){ if ($(this).height() > currentTallest) { currentTallest = $(this).height(); } }); // for ie6, set height since min-height isn't supported if ($.browser.msie && $.browser.version == 6.0) { $(this).children().css({'height': currentTallest}); } $(this).children('div').css({'min-height': currentTallest}); }); return this; };

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  • How to limit results in a SharePoint XSL query

    - by David
    Hello all, I am creating a SharePoint site that we will use to report issues with trucks used in our business. Linked to the list I have created will be a page that will display an overview of the trucks and a little truck icon will show the trucks current status. Green and the truck is okay (no open issues), Red and the truck have an open issue with status "Undrivable", Orange and there is two issues open that requires the user to look further into the truck before using it and finally a Gray truck for when there is a new issue created that has not been looked into (not sure if it is drivable or not). I have managed to create the "Dashboard" and with my limit XSL/XPATH knowledge been able to add a truck and replicate the description above but... in my test I have created 4 issues, for example if three of them are changed to status Closed and one left to Undrivable I will get four icons on the page, three with Green trucks and the last one Red. So in theory it works but I obviously only want to see the last truck, one truck. I am not interested in seeing the others. <xsl:template name="dvt_1.rowview"> <xsl:variable name="CountReport" select="count(/dsQueryResponse/Rows/Row[@Highloader='GGEU12' and @Status!='Closed'])" /> <xsl:variable name="MoreThan" select="$CountReport &gt; 1" /> <xsl:variable name="NoReports" select="$CountReport = 0" /> <xsl:variable name="Closed" select=" @Highloader='GGEU12' and @Status='Closed'" /> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test="$MoreThan"> <div class="ms-vb"><img title='More than one report exist!' border='0' alt='In Progress' src='highloader/Library/hl-orange.png' /></div> </xsl:when> <xsl:otherwise> <div class="ms-vb"><xsl:value-of disable-output-escaping="yes" select="@Icon" /></div> </xsl:otherwise> </xsl:choose> </xsl:template> My hope is that someone with slightly more knowledge can find the last piece of the puzzle for me! Thanks for reading and asking questions to fill any gap I left above. David

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  • ASP.NET MVC: How to display strongly typed view model, containing list of items, which also contain

    - by Sam Delaney
    Hi, I'm building an app using ASP.NET MVC which I want to use a strongly type view model, which contains a List called items which contains an id int and itemName string. The view model also conatins a List called people, and the Person class contains a List. The way I want to display the information is as a table, with each row having a column of Person name, then n number of columns which contain checkboxes, one for each of the List, and checked based on whether the Person's List (called items) contains the id of the Item. I have the display working fine, but I'm struggling to understand how to name the items so that the posted method can read the data. This is what I have in the BeginForm: <table cellpadding="20"> <thead> <th>Person name</th> <!-- for each of the items, create a column with the item name --> <% foreach( var i in Model.items ) { %> <th><%= Html.Encode(i.itemName) %></th> <% } %> </thead> <% foreach( var p in Model.people ) { %> <tr> <td><%= Html.Encode(p.name) %></td> <!-- for each item, create a column with a checkbox --> <% foreach( var i in Model.items ) { %> <td> <% if( p.items.Contains(i.id) ) { %> <!-- vm is the name of the view model passed to the view --> <%= Html.CheckBox( "vm.people[" + p.id + "].items[" + i.id + "]", true ) %> <% } else { %> <%= Html.CheckBox( "vm.people[" + p.id + "].items[" + i.id + "]", false ) %> <% } %> </td> <% } %> </tr> <% } %> </table> And this code displays the information perfectly. When I click submit, however, I get an Object Reference Not Set.. error message. Can anyone help with this please?

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  • Find location using only distance and bearing?

    - by pinnacler
    Triangulation works by checking your angle to three KNOWN targets. "I know the that's the Lighthouse of Alexandria, it's located here (X,Y) on a map, and it's to my right at 90 degrees." Repeat 2 more times for different targets and angles. Trilateration works by checking your distance from three KNOWN targets. "I know the that's the Lighthouse of Alexandria, it's located here (X,Y) on a map, and I'm 100 meters away from that." Repeat 2 more times for different targets and ranges. But both of those methods rely on knowing WHAT you're looking at. Say you're in a forest and you can't differentiate between trees, but you know where key trees are. These trees have been hand picked as "landmarks." You have a robot moving through that forest slowly. Do you know of any ways to determine location based solely off of angle and range, exploiting geometry between landmarks? Note, you will see other trees as well, so you won't know which trees are key trees. Ignore the fact that a target may be occluded. Our pre-algorithm takes care of that. 1) If this exists, what's it called? I can't find anything. 2) What do you think the odds are of having two identical location 'hits?' I imagine it's fairly rare. 3) If there are two identical location 'hits,' how can I determine my exact location after I move the robot next. (I assume the chances of having 2 occurrences of EXACT angles in a row, after I reposition the robot, would be statistically impossible, barring a forest growing in rows like corn). Would I just calculate the position again and hope for the best? Or would I somehow incorporate my previous position estimate into my next guess? If this exists, I'd like to read about it, and if not, develop it as a side project. I just don't have time to reinvent the wheel right now, nor have the time to implement this from scratch. So if it doesn't exist, I'll have to figure out another way to localize the robot since that's not the aim of this research, if it does, lets hope it's semi-easy.

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  • Model Fit of Binary GLM with more than 1 or 2 predictors

    - by Salmo salar
    I am trying to predict a binary GLM with multiple predictors. I can do it fine with one predictor variable however struggle when I use multiple Sample data: structure(list(attempt = structure(c(1L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 1L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 1L, 1L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 2L), .Label = c("1", "2"), class = "factor"), searchtime = c(137, 90, 164, 32, 39, 30, 197, 308, 172, 48, 867, 117, 63, 1345, 38, 122, 226, 397, 0, 106, 259, 220, 170, 102, 46, 327, 8, 10, 23, 108, 315, 318, 70, 646, 69, 97, 117, 45, 31, 64, 125, 17, 240, 63, 549, 1651, 233, 406, 334, 168, 127, 47, 881), mean.search.flow = c(15.97766667, 14.226, 17.15724762, 14.7465, 39.579, 23.355, 110.2926923, 71.95709524, 72.73666667, 32.37466667, 50.34905172, 27.98471429, 49.244, 109.1759778, 77.71733333, 37.446875, 101.23875, 67.78534615, 21.359, 36.54257143, 34.13961111, 64.35253333, 80.98554545, 61.50857143, 48.983, 63.81072727, 26.105, 46.783, 23.0605, 33.61557143, 46.31042857, 62.37061905, 12.565, 42.31983721, 15.3982, 14.49625, 23.77425, 25.626, 74.62485714, 170.1547778, 50.67125, 48.098, 66.83644444, 76.564875, 80.63189189, 136.0573243, 136.3484, 86.68688889, 34.82169565, 70.00415385, 64.67233333, 81.72766667, 57.74522034), Pass = structure(c(1L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 2L), .Label = c("0", "1"), class = "factor")), .Names = c("attempt", "searchtime", "mean.search.flow", "Pass"), class = "data.frame", row.names = c(1L, 2L, 3L, 4L, 5L, 6L, 7L, 8L, 12L, 13L, 14L, 15L, 16L, 17L, 18L, 19L, 20L, 21L, 22L, 23L, 24L, 25L, 26L, 28L, 29L, 30L, 31L, 32L, 33L, 34L, 35L, 36L, 37L, 38L, 39L, 40L, 50L, 51L, 53L, 54L, 60L, 61L, 62L, 63L, 64L, 65L, 66L, 67L, 68L, 69L, 70L, 71L, 72L)) First model with single predictor M2 <- glm(Pass ~ searchtime, data = DF3, family = binomial) summary(M2) drop1(M2, test = "Chi") Plot works fine P1 <- predict(M2, newdata = MyData, type = "link", se = TRUE) plot(x=MyData$searchtime, exp(P1$fit) / (1+exp(P1$fit)), type = "l", ylim = c(0,1), xlab = "search time", ylab = "pobability of passage") lines(MyData$searchtime, exp(P1$fit+1.96*P1$se.fit)/ (1 + exp(P1$fit + 1.96 * P1$se.fit)), lty = 2) lines(MyData$searchtime, exp(P1$fit-1.96*P1$se.fit)/ (1 + exp(P1$fit - 1.96 * P1$se.fit)), lty = 2) points(DF3$searchtime, DF3$Search.and.pass) Second model M2a <- glm(Pass ~ searchtime + mean.search.flow+ attempt, data = DF3, family = binomial) summary(M2a) drop1(M2a, test = "Chi") How do I plot this with "dummy" data? I have tried along the lines of Model.matrix and expand.grid, as you would do with glmer, but fail straight away due to the two categorical variables along with factor(attempt)

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  • Advice on software / database design to avoid using cursors when updating database

    - by Remnant
    I have a database that logs when an employee has attended a course and when they are next due to attend the course (courses tend to be annual). As an example, the following employee attended course '1' on 1st Jan 2010 and, as the course is annual, is due to attend next on the 1st Jan 2011. As today is 20th May 2010 the course status reads as 'Complete' i.e. they have done the course and do not need to do it again until next year: EmployeeID CourseID AttendanceDate DueDate Status 123456 1 01/01/2010 01/01/2011 Complete In terms of the DueDate I calculate this in SQL when I update the employee's record e.g. DueDate = AttendanceDate + CourseFrequency (I pull course frequency this from a separate table). In my web based app (asp.net mvc) I pull back this data for all employees and display it in a grid like format for HR managers to review. This allows HR to work out who needs to go on courses. The issue I have is as follows. Taking the example above, suppose today is 2nd Jan 2011. In this case, employee 123456 is now overdue for the course and I would like to set the Status to Incomplete so that the HR manager can see that they need to action this i.e. get employee on the course. I could build a trigger in the database to run overnight to update the Status field for all employees based on the current date. From what I have read I would need to use cursors to loop over each row to amend the status and this is considered bad practice / inefficient or at least something to avoid if you can??? Alternatively, I could compute the Status in my C# code after I have pulled back the data from the database and before I display it on screen. The issue with this is that the Status in the database would not necessarily match what is shown on screen which just feels plain wrong to me. Does anybody have any advice on the best practice approach to such an issue? It helps, if I did use a cursor I doubt I would be looping over more than 1000 records at any given time. Maybe this is such small volume that using cursors is okay?

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  • how to get latest entry from a table for an item and do arithmatic operation on it?

    - by I Like PHP
    i have below tables tbl_rcv_items st_id | item_id |stock_opening_qnty |stock_received_qnty |stock_rcvd_date 14 1 0 70 2010-05-18 15 16 0 100 2010-05-06 16 10 0 59 2010-05-20 17 14 0 34 2010-05-20 20 1 70 5 2010-05-12 tbl_issu_items issue_id refer_issue_id item_id item_qntt item_updated 51 1 1 5 2010-05-18 19:34:29 52 1 16 6 2010-05-18 19:34:29 53 1 10 7 2010-05-18 19:34:29 54 1 14 8 2010-05-18 19:34:29 75 7 1 12 2010-05-18 19:40:52 76 7 16 1 2010-05-18 19:40:52 77 7 10 1 2010-05-18 19:40:52 78 7 14 1 2010-05-18 19:40:52 79 8 1 3 2010-05-19 11:28:50 80 8 16 5 2010-05-19 11:28:50 81 8 10 6 2010-05-19 11:28:50 82 8 14 7 2010-05-19 11:28:51 87 10 1 2 2010-05-19 12:51:03 88 10 16 0 2010-05-19 12:51:03 89 10 10 0 2010-05-19 12:51:03 90 10 14 0 2010-05-19 12:51:03 91 14 1 1 2010-05-19 18:43:58 92 14 14 3 2010-05-19 18:43:58 tbl_item_detail item_id item_name 1 shirt 2 belt 10 ball pen 14 vim powder 16 pant NOW if i want total available quantity for each item till today using both table total available quantity for an item =stock_opening_qnty+stock_received_qnty(LATEST ENTRY FROM (tbl_rcv_item) for that item id according to stock_rcvd_date) - SUM(item_qntt) for eg: if i want to know the available quantity for item_id=1 till today(25-05-2010) then it shoud be 70+5(latest entry for item_id till 25/5/2010)-23( issued till 25/5/2010)=52 i write below query , SELECT tri.item_id, tid.item_name, (tri.stock_opening_qnty + tri.stock_received_qnty) AS totalRcvQntt, SUM( tii.item_qntt ) AS totalIsudQntt FROM tbl_rcv_items tri JOIN tbl_issu_items tii ON tii.item_id = tri.item_id JOIN tbl_item_detail tid ON tid.item_id=tri.item_id WHERE tri.stock_rcvd_date <= CURDATE() GROUP BY (tri.item_id) which results Array ( [0] => Array ( [item_id] => 1 [item_name] => shirt [totalRcvQntt] => 70 [totalIsudQntt] => 46 ) [1] => Array ( [item_id] => 10 [item_name] => ball pen [totalRcvQntt] => 59 [totalIsudQntt] => 16 ) [2] => Array ( [item_id] => 14 [item_name] => vim powder [totalRcvQntt] => 34 [totalIsudQntt] => 20 ) [3] => Array ( [item_id] => 16 [item_name] => pant [totalRcvQntt] => 100 [totalIsudQntt] => 17 ) ) in above result total isuse quantity for shirt(item_id=1) shoube be 23 whereas results reflects 46 bcoz there are two row regrading item_id=1 in tbl_rcv_items, i only need the latest one(means which stock_rcvd_date is less than tommorow) please tell me where i doing mistake?? or rewrite the best query. thanks a lot!

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  • CSS3's border-radius property and border-collapse:collapse don't mix. How can I use border-radius to

    - by vamin
    Edit - Original Title: Is there an alternative way to achieve border-collapse:collapse in CSS (in order to have a collapsed, rounded corner table)? Since it turns out that simply getting the table's borders to collapse does not solve the root problem, I have updated the title to better reflect the discussion. I am trying to make a table with rounded corners using the CSS3 border-radius property. The table styles I'm using look something like this: table { -moz-border-radius:10px; -webkit-border-radius:10px; border-radius:10px} Here's the problem. I also want to set the border-collapse:collapse property, and when that is set border-radius no longer works (at least in Firefox)(edit- I thought this might just be a difference in mozilla's implementation, but it turns out this is the way it's supposed to work according to the w3c). Is there a CSS-based way I can get the same effect as border-collapse:collapse without actually using it? Edits: I've made a simple page to demonstrate the problem here (Firefox/Safari only). It seems that a large part of the problem is that setting the table to have rounded corners does not affect the corners of the corner td elements. If the table was all one color, this wouldn't be a problem since I could just make the top and bottom td corners rounded for the first and last row respectively. However, I am using different background colors for the table to differentiate the headings and for striping, so the inner td elements would show their rounded corners as well. Summary of proposed solutions: Surrounding the table with another element with round corners doesn't work because the table's square corners "bleed through." Specifying border width to 0 doesn't collapse the table. Bottom td corners still square after setting cellspacing to zero. Using javascript instead- works by avoiding the problem. Possible solutions: The tables are generated in php, so I could just apply a different class to each of the outer th/tds and style each corner separately. I'd rather not do this, since it's not very elegant and a bit of a pain to apply to multiple tables, so please keep suggestions coming. Possible solution 2 is to use javascript (jQuery, specifically) to style the corners. This solution also works, but still not quite what I'm looking for (I know I'm picky). I have two reservations: 1) this is a very lightweight site, and I'd like to keep javascript to the barest minimum 2) part of the appeal that using border-radius has for me is graceful degradation and progressive enhancement. By using border-radius for all rounded corners, I hope to have a consistently rounded site in CSS3-capable browsers and a consistently square site in others (I'm looking at you, IE). I know that trying to do this with CSS3 today may seem needless, but I have my reasons. I would also like to point out that this problem is a result of the w3c speficication, not poor CSS3 support, so any solution will still be relevant and useful when CSS3 has more widespread support.

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  • navigator.onLine

    - by cf_PhillipSenn
    I'm playing with the incomplete example found at http://www.w3.org/TR/offline-webapps/ But I'm distressed to see comments in it like: "renders the note somewhere", and "report error", and "// …" So, will someone please help me write a valid example? Here's what I've got so far: <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html manifest="cache-manifest"> <head> <script> var db = openDatabase("notes", "", "The Example Notes App!", 1048576); function renderNote(row) { // renders the note somewhere } function reportError(source, message) { // report error } function renderNotes() { db.transaction(function(tx) { tx.executeSql('CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS Notes(title TEXT, body TEXT)', []); tx.executeSql(‘SELECT * FROM Notes’, [], function(tx, rs) { for(var i = 0; i < rs.rows.length; i++) { renderNote(rs.rows[i]); } }); }); } function insertNote(title, text) { db.transaction(function(tx) { tx.executeSql('INSERT INTO Notes VALUES(?, ?)', [ title, text ], function(tx, rs) { // … }, function(tx, error) { reportError('sql', error.message); }); }); } </script> <style> label { display:block; } </style> </head> <body> <form> <label for="mytitle">Title:</label> <input name="mytitle"> <label for="mytext">Text:</label> <textarea name="mytext"></textarea> <!-- There is no submit button because I want to save the info on every keystroke --> </form> </body> </html> I also know that I have to incorporate this in there somewhere: if (navigator.onLine) { // Send data using XMLHttpRequest } else { // Queue data locally to send later } But I'm not sure what even I would tie that too.

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  • Proper way to use Linq with WPF

    - by Ingó Vals
    I'm looking for a good guide into the right method of using Linq to Sql together with WPF. Most guides only go into the bare basics like how to show data from a database but noone I found goes into how to save back to the database. Can you answer or point out to me a guide that can answer these questions. I have a separate Data project because the same data will also be used in a web page so I have the repository method. That means I have a seperate class that uses the DataContext and there are methods like GetAllCompanies() and GetCompanyById ( int id ). 1) Where there are collections is it best to return as a IQueryable or should I return a list? Inside the WPF project I have seen reccomendations to wrap the collection in a ObservabgleCollection. 2) Why should I use ObservableCollection and should I use it even with Linq / IQueryable Some properties of the linq entities should be editable in the app so I set them to two-way mode. That would change the object in the observableCollection. 3) Is the object in the ObservableCollection still a instance of the original linq entity and so is the change reflected in the database ( when submitchanges is called ) I should have somekind of save method in the repository. But when should I call it? What happens if someone edits a field but decides not to save it, goes to another object and edits it and then press save. Doesn't the original change also save? When does it not remember the changes to a linq entity object anymore. Should I instance the Datacontext class in each method so it loses scope when done. 4) When and how to call the SubmitChanges method 5) Should I have the DataContext as a member variable of the repository class or a method variable To add a new row I should create a new object in a event ( "new" button push ) and then add it to the database using a repo method. 6) When I add the object to the database there will be no new object in the ObservableCollection. Do I refresh somehow. 7) I wan't to reuse the edit window when creating new but not sure how to dynamically changing from referencing selected item from a listview to this new object. Any examples you can point out.

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  • Can I create a custom class that inherits from a strongly typed DataRow?

    - by Calvin Fisher
    I'm working on a huge, old project with a lot of brittle code, some of which has been around since the .NET 1.0 era, and it has been and will be worked on by other people... so I'd like to change as little as possible. I have one project in my solution that contains DataSet.xsd. This project compiles to a separate assembly (Data.dll). The database schema includes several tables arranged more or less hierarchically, but the only way the tables are actually linked together is through joins. I can get, e.g. DepartmentRow and EmployeeRow objects from the autogenerated code. EmployeeRow contains information from the employee's corresponding DepartmentRow through a join. I'm making a new report to view multiple departments and all their employees. If I use the existing data access scheme, all I will be able to get is a spreadsheet-like output where each employee is represented on one line, with department information repeated over and over in its appropriate columns. E.g.: Department1...Employee1... Department1...Employee2... Department2...Employee3... But what the customer would like is to have each department render like a heading, with a list of employees beneath each. E.g.: - Department1... Employee1... Employee2... + Department2... I'm trying to do this by inheriting hierarchical objects from the autogenerated Row objects. E.g.: public class Department : DataSet.DepartmentRow { public List<Employee> Employees; } That way I could nest the data in the report by using a collection of Department objects as the DataSource, each of which will put its list of Employees in a subreport. The problem is that this gives me a The type Data.DataSet.DepartmentRow has no constructors defined error. And when I try to make a constructor, e.g. public class Department : DataSet.DepartmentRow { private Department() { } public List<Employee> Employees; } I get a 'Data.DataSet.DepartmentRow(System.Data.DataRowBuilder)' is inaccessible due to its protection level. error in addition to the first one. Is there a way to accomplish what I'm trying to do? Or is there something else I should be trying entirely?

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  • FluentNHibernate Many-To-One References where Foreign Key is not to Primary Key and column names are

    - by Todd Langdon
    I've been sitting here for an hour trying to figure this out... I've got 2 tables (abbreviated): CREATE TABLE TRUST ( TRUSTID NUMBER NOT NULL, ACCTNBR VARCHAR(25) NOT NULL ) CONSTRAINT TRUST_PK PRIMARY KEY (TRUSTID) CREATE TABLE ACCOUNTHISTORY ( ID NUMBER NOT NULL, ACCOUNTNUMBER VARCHAR(25) NOT NULL, TRANSAMT NUMBER(38,2) NOT NULL POSTINGDATE DATE NOT NULL ) CONSTRAINT ACCOUNTHISTORY_PK PRIMARY KEY (ID) I have 2 classes that essentially mirror these: public class Trust { public virtual int Id {get; set;} public virtual string AccountNumber { get; set; } } public class AccountHistory { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual Trust Trust {get; set;} public virtual DateTime PostingDate { get; set; } public virtual decimal IncomeAmount { get; set; } } How do I do the many-to-one mapping in FluentNHibernate to get the AccountHistory to have a Trust? Specifically, since it is related on a different column than the Trust primary key of TRUSTID and the column it is referencing is also named differently (ACCTNBR vs. ACCOUNTNUMBER)???? Here's what I have so far - how do I do the References on the AccountHistoryMap to Trust??? public class TrustMap : ClassMap<Trust> { public TrustMap() { Table("TRUST"); Id(x => x.Id).Column("TRUSTID"); Map(x => x.AccountNumber).Column("ACCTNBR"); } } public class AccountHistoryMap : ClassMap<AccountHistory> { public AccountHistoryMap() { Table("TRUSTACCTGHISTORY"); Id (x=>x.Id).Column("ID"); References<Trust>(x => x.Trust).Column("ACCOUNTNUMBER").ForeignKey("ACCTNBR").Fetch.Join(); Map(x => x.PostingDate).Column("POSTINGDATE"); ); I've tried a few different variations of the above line but can't get anything to work - it pulls back AccountHistory data and a proxy for the Trust; however it says no Trust row with given identifier. This has to be something simple. Anyone? Thanks in advance.

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  • Need help with auto-scaffolding template in ASP.NET MVC

    - by DanM
    I'm trying to write an auto-scaffolder for Index views. I'd like to be able to pass in a collection of models or view-models (e.g., IQueryable<MyViewModel>) and get back an HTML table that uses the DisplayName attribute for the headings (th elements) and Html.Display(propertyName) for the cells (td elements). Each row should correspond to one item in the collection. Here's what I have so far: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl" %> <% var items = (IQueryable<TestProj.ViewModels.TestViewModel>)Model; // Should be generic! var properties = items.First().GetMetadata().Properties .Where(pm => pm.ShowForDisplay && !ViewData.TemplateInfo.Visited(pm)); %> <table> <tr> <% foreach(var property in properties) { %> <th> <%= property.DisplayName %> </th> <% } %> </tr> <% foreach(var item in items) { %> <tr> <% foreach(var property in properties) { %> <td> <%= Html.Display(property.DisplayName) %> // This doesn't work! </td> <% } %> </tr> <% } %> </table> Two problems with this: I'd like it to be generic. So, I'd like to replace var items = (IQueryable<TestProj.ViewModels.TestViewModel>)Model; with var items = (IQueryable<T>)Model; or something to that effect. The <td> elements are not working because the Html in <%= Html.Display(property.DisplayName) %> contains the model for the view, which is a collection of items, not the item itself. Somehow, I need to obtain an HtmlHelper object whose Model property is the current item, but I'm not sure how to do that. How do I solve these two problems?

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  • Postgresql: Implicit lock acquisition from foreign-key constraint evaluation

    - by fennec
    So, I'm being confused about foreign key constraint handling in Postgresql. (version 8.4.4, for what it's worth). We've got a couple of tables, mildly anonymized below: device: (id, blah, blah, blah, blah, blah x 50)… primary key on id whooooole bunch of other junk device_foo: (id, device_id, left, right) Foreign key (device_id) references device(id) on delete cascade; primary key on id btree index on 'left' and 'right' So I set out with two database windows to run some queries. db1> begin; lock table device in exclusive mode; db2> begin; update device_foo set left = left + 1; The db2 connection blocks. It seems odd to me that an update of the 'left' column on device_stuff should be affected by activity on the device table. But it is. In fact, if I go back to db1: db1> select * from device_stuff for update; *** deadlock occurs *** The pgsql log has the following: blah blah blah deadlock blah. CONTEXT: SQL statement "SELECT 1 FROM ONLY "public"."device" x WHERE "id" OPERATOR(pg_catalog.=) $1 FOR SHARE OF X: update device_foo set left = left + 1; I suppose I've got two issues: the first is that I don't understand the precise mechanism by which this sort of locking occurs. I have got a couple of useful queries to query pg_locks to see what sort of locks a statement invokes, but I haven't been able to observe this particular sort of locking when I run the update device_foo command in isolation. (Perhaps I'm doing something wrong, though.) I also can't find any documentation on the lock acquisition behavior of foreign-key constraint checks. All I have is a log message. Am I to infer from this that any change to a row will acquire an update lock on all the tables which it's foreign-keyed against? The second issue is that I'd like to find some way to make it not happen like that. I'm ending up with occasional deadlocks in the actual application. I'd like to be able to run big update statements that impact all rows on device_foo without acquiring a big lock on the device table. (There's a lot of access going on in the device table, and it's kind of an expensive lock to get.)

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  • Hibernate mapping to object that already exists

    - by teehoo
    I have two classes, ServiceType and ServiceRequest. Every ServiceRequest must specify what kind of ServiceType it is. All ServiceType's are predefined in the database, and ServiceRequest is created at runtime by the client. Here are my .hbm files: <hibernate-mapping> <class dynamic-insert="false" dynamic-update="false" mutable="true" name="xxx.model.entity.ServiceRequest" optimistic-lock="version" polymorphism="implicit" select-before-update="false"> <id column="USER_ID" name="id"> <generator class="native"/> </id> <property name="quantity"> <column name="quantity" not-null="true"/> </property> <many-to-one cascade="all" class="xxx.model.entity.ServiceType" column="service_type" name="serviceType" not-null="false" unique="false"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping> and <hibernate-mapping> <class dynamic-insert="false" dynamic-update="false" mutable="true" name="xxx.model.entity.ServiceType" optimistic-lock="version" polymorphism="implicit" select-before-update="false"> <id column="USER_ID" name="id"> <generator class="native"/> </id> <property name="description"> <column name="description" not-null="false"/> </property> <property name="cost"> <column name="cost" not-null="true"/> </property> <property name="enabled"> <column name="enabled" not-null="true"/> </property> </class> </hibernate-mapping> When I run this, I get com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.MySQLIntegrityConstraintViolationException: Cannot add or update a child row: a foreign key constraint fails I think my problem is that when I create a new ServiceRequest object, ServiceType is one of its properties, and therefore when I'm saving ServiceRequest to the database, Hibernate attempts to insert the ServiceType object once again, and finds that it is already exists. If this is the case, how do I make it so that Hibernate points to the exists ServiceType instead of trying to insert it again?

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  • jquery two ajax call asynchrounsly in asp.net not working...

    - by eswaran
    Hi all, I am developed an web application in asp.net. In this application I have used jquery ajax for some pages. In this application, when I make two ajax call asynchrounoulsy that would not do as I expceted. what is happening is even the second ajax call finishes i can see the result when the maximum time out ajax call finished. I mean i can see the both results in the same time, not one by one. for an example. I have 3 pages 1) main.aspx - for make two ajax request. 2) totalCount.aspx - to find the total count. (max it takes 7 seconds to return, as corresponding table contains 3 lak records) 3) rowCount.aspx - to find the row details. (max it takes 5 seconds to return result). due to this scene, I have planed to make asyn call in jquery ajax in asp.net. here is my code... function getResult() { getTotalCount(); getRows(); } // it takes max 7 seconds to complete // as it take 7 seconds it should display second.( I mean after the rows dispaying) // but displaying both at the same time after the max time consuming ajax call completed. function getTotalCount() { $.ajax({ type : "POST", async : true, url : "totalCount.aspx?data1=" + document.getElementById("data").value, success : function(responseText) { $("#totalCount").attr("value", responseText); } }) } // it takes max 5 seconds to complete. // after finished, this should display first.( i mean before total count displays) // but displaying both at the same time after the max time consuming ajax call completed. function getRows() { $.ajax({ type : "POST", url : "getrows.aspx?data1=" + document.getElementById("data").value, async : true, success : function(responseText) { $("#getRows").attr("value", responseText); } }); } I would like to know, If there is any possible to make asyn call in jquery ajax in asp.net. I searched in net, I got some points that says we cannot do this in asp.net ref link: http://www.mail-archive.com/[email protected]/msg55125.html if we can do this in asp.net How to do that? thanks r.eswaran.

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  • How do you delete rows from UITableView?

    - by James
    This has been bugging me for hours now and i have not been able to figure it out. I am importing data into a tableview using core data and NSMutableArray. As shown below. CORE DATA ARRAY NSMutableArray *mutableFetchResults = [CoreDataHelper getObjectsFromContext:@"Spot" :@"Name" :YES :managedObjectContext]; self.entityArray = mutableFetchResults; TABLE VIEW - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSManagedObject *object = (NSManagedObject *)[entityArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleSubtitle reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } NSString *lat1 = [object valueForKey:@"Email"]; //NSLog(@"Current Spot Latitude:%@",lat1); float lat2 = [lat1 floatValue]; //NSLog(@"Current Spot Latitude Float:%g", lat2); NSString *long1 = [object valueForKey:@"Description"]; //NSLog(@"Current Spot Longitude:%@",long1); float long2 = [long1 floatValue]; //NSLog(@"Current Spot Longitude Float:%g", long2); //Getting current location from NSDictionary CoreDataTestAppDelegate *appDelegate = (CoreDataTestAppDelegate *) [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; NSString *locLat = [NSString stringWithFormat:appDelegate.latitude]; float locLat2 = [locLat floatValue]; //NSLog(@"Lat: %g",locLat2); NSString *locLong = [NSString stringWithFormat:appDelegate.longitude]; float locLong2 = [locLong floatValue]; //NSLog(@"Long: %g",locLong2); //Distance Shizzle //Prime's Location CLLocation *loc1 = [[CLLocation alloc] initWithLatitude:lat2 longitude:long2]; //Home Location CLLocation *loc2 = [[CLLocation alloc] initWithLatitude:locLat2 longitude:locLong2]; double distance = [loc1 getDistanceFrom: loc2] / 1000; int myInt = (int)(distance + (distance>0 ? 0.5 : -0.5)); //NSLog(@"INT VAL :%i", myInt); NSMutableString* converted = [NSMutableString stringWithFormat:@"%.1f", distance]; [converted appendString: @" Km"]; //NSLog(@"Distance between Prime and home = %g", converted); if (myInt < 11) { cell.textLabel.text = [object valueForKey:@"Name"]; cell.detailTextLabel.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:converted]; } else { } // Configure the cell... return cell; } I am trying to get the table only to display results that are within a certain distance. This method here works apart from the fact that the results over a certain distance are still in the table, they are just not graphically visible. I am led to believe that i have to carry out the filtering process before the formatting the table but i can not seem to do this. Please help. My xcode skills are not brilliant so code suggestions would be helpfull.

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  • Favorite Visual Studio keyboard remappings?

    - by hoytster
    Stack Overflow has covered favorite short-cuts and add-ins, optimizations and preferences -- great topics all. If this one has been covered, I can't find it -- so thanks in advance for the link. What are your favorite Visual Studio keyboard remappings? Mine are motivated by the fact that I'm a touch-typist. Mouse, function keys, arrow keys, Home, End -- bleh. These are commands I do all day every day, so I've remapped them to sequences I can execute without moving my hands from the home row. The command that is remapped in Tools = Customize = [Keyboard] is shown in parentheses. I'm 100% positive that there are better remappings than these, so please post yours! Please include the command; oft times, figuring it out is a challenge. -- Hoytster Running the app and operating the debugger Ctrl+Q + Ctrl+R Run the application, in debug mode (Debug.Start) Ctrl+Q + Ctrl+Q Quit (stop) the application (Debug.StopDebugging) Ctrl+T Toggle a breakpoint at the current line (Debug.ToggleBreakpoint) Ctrl+K + Ctrl+I Step Into the method (Debug.StepInto) Ctrl+K + Ctrl+O Step Out of the method (Debug.StepOut) Ctrl+N Step over the method to the Next statement (Debug.StepOver) Ctrl+K + Ctrl+C Run the code, stopping at the Cursor position (Debug.RunToCursor) Ctrl+K + Ctrl+E Set then next statement to Execute (Debug.SetNextStatement) Navigating the code Ctrl+S Move a character LEFT (Edit.CharLeft) Ctrl+D Move a character RIGHT (Edit.CharRight) Ctrl+Q + Ctrl+S Move to the LEFT END of the current line (Edit.LineStart) Ctrl+Q + Ctrl+D Move to the RIGHT END of the current line (Edit.LineEnd) Ctrl+E Move a line UP (Edit.LineUp) Ctrl+X Move a line DOWN (Edit.LineDown) Ctrl+K + Ctrl+K Toggle (add or remove) bookmark (Edit.ToggleBookmark) Ctrl+K + Ctrl+N Move to the NEXT bookmark (Edit.NextBookmark) Ctrl+K + Ctrl+P Move to the PREVIOUS bookmark (Edit.PreviousBookmark) Ctrl+Q + Ctrl+W Save all modified Windows (File.SaveAll) Ctrl+L Find the NEXT instance of the search string (Edit.FindNext) Ctrl+K + Ctrl+L Find the PREVIOUS instance of the search string (Edit.FindPrevious) Ctrl+Q + Ctrl+L Drop down the list of open files (Window.ShowEzMDIFileList) The last sequence is like clicking the downward-facing triangle in the upper-right corner of the code editor window. VS will display a list of all the open windows. You can select from the list by typing the file name; the matching file will be selected as you type. Pause for a second and resume typing, and the matching process starts over, so you can select a different file. Nice, VS Team. The key takes you to the tab for the selected file.

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  • Validating against a Schema with JAXB

    - by fwgx
    I've been looking for solutions to this problem for far too long considering how easy it sounds so I've come for some help. I have an XML Schema which I have used with xjc to create my JAXB binding. This works fine when the XML is well formed. Unfortunately it also doesn't complain when the XML is not well formed. I cannot figure out how to do proper full validation against the schema when I try to unmarshall an XML file. I have managed to use a ValidationEventCollector to handle events, which works for XML parsing errors such as mismatched tags but doesn't raise any events when there is a tag that is required but is completely absent. From what I have seen validation can be done againsta schema, but you must know the path to the schema in order to pass it into the setSchema() method. The problem I have is that the path to the schema is stored in the XML header and I can't knwo at run time where the schema is going to be. Which is why it's stored in the XML file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <DDSSettings xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:noNamespaceSchemaLocation="/a/big/long/path/to/a/schema/file/DDSSettings.xsd"> <Field1>1</Field1> <Field2>-1</Field2> ...etc Every example I see uses setValidating(true), which is now deprecated, so throws an exception. This is the Java code I have so far, which seems to only do XML validation, not schema validation: try { JAXBContext jc = new JAXBContext() { private final JAXBContext jaxbContext = JAXBContext.newInstance("blah"); @Override public Unmarshaller createUnmarshaller() throws JAXBException { Unmarshaller unmarshaller = jaxbContext.createUnmarshaller(); ValidationEventCollector vec = new ValidationEventCollector() { @Override public boolean handleEvent(ValidationEvent event) throws RuntimeException { ValidationEventLocator vel = event.getLocator(); if (event.getSeverity() == event.ERROR || event.getSeverity() == event.FATAL_ERROR) { String error = "XML Validation Exception: " + event.getMessage() + " at row: " + vel.getLineNumber() + " column: " + vel.getColumnNumber(); System.out.println(error); } m_unmarshallingOk = false; return false; } }; unmarshaller.setEventHandler(vec); return unmarshaller; } @Override public Marshaller createMarshaller() throws JAXBException { throw new UnsupportedOperationException("Not supported yet."); } @Override @SuppressWarnings("deprecation") public Validator createValidator() throws JAXBException { throw new UnsupportedOperationException("Not supported yet."); } }; Unmarshaller unmarshaller = jc.createUnmarshaller(); m_ddsSettings = (com.ultra.DDSSettings)unmarshaller.unmarshal(new File(xmlfileName)); } catch (UnmarshalException ex) { Logger.getLogger(UniversalDomainParticipant.class.getName()).log( Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } catch (JAXBException ex) { Logger.getLogger(UniversalDomainParticipant.class.getName()).log( Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } So what is the proper way to do this validation? I was expecting there to be a validate() method on the JAXB generated classes, but I guess that would be too simple for Java.

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  • MS Access MSChart.Graph.8 not printing

    - by Tanj
    Software: Microsoft Access 2007 SP2 Database File Version: Access 2000 I have an access program that I inherited from a previous employee. It uses forms for reports and since I don't have much experience in access I have continued to do this. I have created a copy of the program for another project and modified it to suit. I am having trouble getting more then one chart to print. All the charts display in form view, they all have the same properties (excepting data, position, etc.) For some reason they are not printing. They don't even show up in the print preview. I am thinking it must be something with the graphs themselves as they sometimes lose all information. I have to open the graphs in edit mode and change the data source from column to row and back again so that it gets redrawn. (Refresh doesn't fix it) So right now I don't even have a clue as to where to look so ideas are welcome. Edit #1 It seems to be a problem with linking to an unbound form. Subform Field Linker: Can't build a link between unbound forms. The query for the main form is SELECT tTest.ixTest, tMotorTypes.ixMotorType, tMotorTypes.asMotorType, tMotorTypes.fDeprecated, tTestType.asTest, tTest.asSerialNum, tTest.asOrderNum, tTest.asFrameNum, tTest.asRotorNum, tTest.asOperator, tTest.iStation, tTest.dtTestDate, tTest.ixTestType FROM tMotorTypes INNER JOIN (tTestType INNER JOIN tTest ON tTestType.ixTestType=tTest.ixTestType) ON tMotorTypes.ixMotorType=tTest.ixMotorType; The query for the chart is: SELECT qGraphRSTTemperatures.Frequency, qGraphRSTTemperatures.[Drive End], qGraphRSTTemperatures.[Non Drive End], qGraphRSTTemperatures.[Air In], qGraphRSTTemperatures.Core FROM qGraphRSTTemperatures ORDER BY qGraphRSTTemperatures.ixTemperature; Query qGraphRSTTemperatures: SELECT tElectricalData.dblFrequency AS Frequency, tTemperatures.dblDrvEnd AS [Drive End], tTemperatures.dblNonDrvEnd AS [Non Drive End], tTemperatures.dblAirIn AS [Air In], tTemperatures.dblCore AS Core, tSubTest.ixTest, tTemperatures.ixTemperature FROM (tSubTest INNER JOIN tElectricalData ON tSubTest.ixSubTest = tElectricalData.ixSubTest) LEFT JOIN tTemperatures ON tElectricalData.ixElectrical = tTemperatures.ixElectrical WHERE (((tSubTest.ixSubTestType)=5)) ORDER BY tSubTest.ixTest, tTemperatures.ixTemperature; So how come, in the form view it shows the graph with the correct data when linked thus: Child field: ixTest Master field: ixTest but won't print the graph. The graph will print if I remove the links, but then I have all the data from chart query as it is not limited by ixTest. edit #2 It seems to be a data retrieval/rendering issue in printing. Is there anything in printing that changes the context of records with respect to parent/child relationships?

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  • Multiline editable textarea in SVG

    - by Timo
    I'm trying to implement multiline editable textfield in SVG. I have the following code in http://jsfiddle.net/ca4d3/ : <svg width="1000" height="1000" overflow="scroll"> <g transform="rotate(5)"> <rect width="300" height="400" fill="#22DD22" fill-opacity="0.5"/> </g> <foreignObject x="10" y="10" overflow="visible" width="10000" height="10000" requiredFeatures="http://www.w3.org/TR/SVG11/feature#Extensibility"> <p style="display:table-cell;padding:10px;border:1px solid red; background-color:white;opacity:0.5;font-family:Verdana; font-size:20px;white-space: pre; word-wrap: normal; overflow: visible; overflow-y: visible; overflow-x:visible;" contentEditable="true" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> Write here some text. Be smart and select some word. If you wanna be really COOL, paste here something cool! </p> </foreignObject> </svg> In newest Chrome, Safari and Firefox the code works in some way, but in Opera and IE 9 not. The goal is that: 0) Works in newest Chrome, Safari, Firefox, Opera and IE and if ever possible in some pads. 1) White-spaces are preserved and text wraps only on newline char (works in Chrome, Safari and Firefox, but not in Opera and IE 9 *). 2) The textfield is editable (in the same reliable and stabile way as textareas and contenteditable p elements in html) and height and width is expanded to fit text (works in Chrome, Safari and Firefox, but not in Opera and IE 9 *). 3) Texfield can be transformed (rotated, skewed, translated) while maintaining text editability (Tested rotation, but not work in any browser *). EDIT: Foreignobject rotation works on Firefox 15.0.1, but not in Safari 5.1.7 (6534.57.2), Chrome 22.0.1229.79, Opera 12.02, IE 9. Tested on Mac OS X 10.6.8. 4) Textfield can be clipped and masked while not necessarily maintaining text editability (not yet tested). *) using above code These all can be achieved using Flash, but Flash has so severe problems that it is not suitable for my purposes (after every little change in code, all have to be compiled again using Flex, which is slow, font size has limits, tracking technique is pixeloriented, not relative to em size etc.) and there still are differences across platforms. And I want to give a try to SVG! GUESTION: Can I achieve my goals 0-4 with current SVG support in browsers? Is coming SVG 2.0 for some help in this case? EDIT: Changed display:table to display:table-cell (and added new jsfiddle), because display:table made the field to loses focus when pressed arrow-up on first text row.

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  • Android - Transforming widgets within transformed widgets and the resulting usability issues.

    - by Ben Rose
    Hello. I'm new to Android application development and I'm currently experimenting with various UI ideas. In the image below, you can see a vertically scrolling list of horizontally scrolling galleries (and also textviews as you can see). I'm also doing some matrix and camera transformations which I will come to in a minute. For the background of the list elements, I use green. Blue is the background of the galleries, and red is the background for the images. These are just for my benefit of learning. The galleries being used are extended classes where I overrode the drawChild method to perform a canvas scale operation in order for the image closest to the center (width) to be larger than the others. The list view going vertically, I overrode the drawChild method and used the camera rotations from lack of depth dimension in the canvas functionality. The items in the list are scaled down and rotated relative to their position's proximity to the center (height). I understood that scrolling and clicking would not necessarily follow along with the image transforms, but it appears as though the parent Gallery class's drawing is constrained to the original coordinates as well (see photo below). I would love to hear any insight any of you have regarding how I can change the coordinates of the galleries in what is rendered via gallery scroll and the touch responsiveness of said gallery. Images in the gallery are not same dimensions, so don't let that throw you in looking at the image below Thanks in advance! Ben link to image (could not embed) -- Update: I was using my test application UI and noticed that when I got the UI to the point of the linked image and then I touched the top portion of the next row in the list, the gallery updated to display the proper representation. So, I added a call to clearFocus() in the drawChild method and that resulted in more accurate drawing. It does seem a tad slower, and since I'm on the Incredible, I'm worried it is a bloated solution. In any event, I would still appreciate any thoughts you have regarding the best way to have the views display properly and how to translate the touch events in the gallery's new displayed area to its touchable coordinates so that scrolling on the actual images works when the gallery has moved. Thanks!

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  • Create Duplicate Records on SELECT for Calendar Date Range

    - by peterallcdn
    Hey all, I've built a pretty shnazzy calendar system but there is one tweak that I need to make so that I'm completely happy with it. My calendar has three tables: calevents - The calendared event. caldates - The occurrences and date-range of each occurrence for each event. calcats - The categories that can be applied to an event. The short: For each calevent, there can be many caldates, one for each occurrence of calevent. So a calevent that repeats weekly and spans 3 days might have caldates like this: date_id date_eid date_start date_end 2 37 2010-06-21 2010-06-23 3 37 2010-06-28 2010-06-30 7 37 2010-07-05 2010-07-07 9 37 2010-07-12 2010-07-14 What I want to do, is when selecting all the caldates for a specified month such as 2010-06, to return not just the two records above, but instead a record for each date in the range of date_start and date_end for each caldate. So if I searched for 2010-06, I would get: date_id date_eid date_start date_end date_day 2 37 2010-06-21 2010-06-23 2010-06-21 2 37 2010-06-21 2010-06-23 2010-06-22 2 37 2010-06-21 2010-06-23 2010-06-23 3 37 2010-06-28 2010-06-30 2010-06-28 3 37 2010-06-28 2010-06-30 2010-06-29 3 37 2010-06-28 2010-06-30 2010-06-30 The Long: The reason I want to do this, is so when displaying a list of events(calevents) for a specified month, an occurrence(caldates) of that event will be displayed for EACH of the days it spans. I could do this with php by looping through each day of the current month and displaying a copy of each caldate if the month day falls between date_start and date_end. But doing it this way will prevent me from using record pagination if needed. For example, if for a specified month the following caldates were returned: date_id date_eid date_start date_end 2 37 2010-06-21 2010-06-27 94 53 2010-06-09 2010-07-08 Doing record pagination would see this as only 2 records("rows"). But looping through them with PHP would generate 29 "rows". So, I figure if I use mysql to create each row instead of PHP, I can achieve the same thing AND still be able to use pagination if a month has a lot of events/dates. As far as performance goes, I'm not sure which option is more efficient. Both would send the same amount of info to the browser, so it's really only the work required to generate the info that matters. My current query which fetches all the occurrences for a specified month, and to make things just a little more complicated... joins them with their event and category, looks like this: $sql_to_execute = " SELECT date_id, date_eid, date_start, date_end, event_id, event_title, event_category, event_private, event_location, SUBSTRING_INDEX(event_detailsstripped, ' ', 40) AS event_detailsstripped, event_time, event_starttime, event_endtime, event_active, cat_colour FROM ( caldates LEFT JOIN calevents ON caldates.date_eid = calevents.event_id ) LEFT JOIN calcats ON calevents.event_category = calcats.cat_id WHERE date_start <= '".mysql_real_escape_string($dbi_list_end_date)."' AND date_end >= '".mysql_real_escape_string($dbi_list_start_date)."' ".$dbi_category." ORDER BY date_start ASC "; Any help or advice would be greatly appreciated! Thanks, Peter

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  • How to know when a user has really released a key in Java?

    - by Luis Soeiro
    (Edited for clarity) I want to detect when a user presses and releases a key in Java Swing, ignoring the keyboard auto repeat feature. I also would like a pure Java approach the works on Linux, Mac OS and Windows. Requirements: When the user presses some key I want to know what key is that; When the user releases some key, I want to know what key is that; I want to ignore the system auto repeat options: I want to receive just one keypress event for each key press and just one key release event for each key release; If possible, I would use items 1 to 3 to know if the user is holding more than one key at a time (i.e, she hits 'a' and without releasing it, she hits "Enter"). The problem I'm facing in Java is that under Linux, when the user holds some key, there are many keyPress and keyRelease events being fired (because of the keyboard repeat feature). I've tried some approaches with no success: Get the last time a key event occurred - in Linux, they seem to be zero for key repeat, however, in Mac OS they are not; Consider an event only if the current keyCode is different from the last one - this way the user can't hit twice the same key in a row; Here is the basic (non working) part of code: import java.awt.event.KeyListener; public class Example implements KeyListener { public void keyTyped(KeyEvent e) { } public void keyPressed(KeyEvent e) { System.out.println("KeyPressed: "+e.getKeyCode()+", ts="+e.getWhen()); } public void keyReleased(KeyEvent e) { System.out.println("KeyReleased: "+e.getKeyCode()+", ts="+e.getWhen()); } } When a user holds a key (i.e, 'p') the system shows: KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637271673 KeyReleased: 80, ts=1253637271923 KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637271923 KeyReleased: 80, ts=1253637271956 KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637271956 KeyReleased: 80, ts=1253637271990 KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637271990 KeyReleased: 80, ts=1253637272023 KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637272023 ... At least under Linux, the JVM keeps resending all the key events when a key is being hold. To make things more difficult, on my system (Kubuntu 9.04 Core 2 Duo) the timestamps keep changing. The JVM sends a key new release and new key press with the same timestamp. This makes it hard to know when a key is really released. Any ideas? Thanks

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