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  • What's your preferred pointer declaration style, and why?

    - by Owen
    I know this is about as bad as it gets for "religious" issues, as Jeff calls them. But I want to know why the people who disagree with me on this do so, and hear their justification for their horrific style. I googled for a while and couldn't find a style guide talking about this. So here's how I feel pointers (and references) should be declared: int* pointer = NULL; int& ref = *pointer; int*& pointer_ref = pointer; The asterisk or ampersand goes with the type, because it modifies the type of the variable being declared. EDIT: I hate to keep repeating the word, but when I say it modifies the type I'm speaking semantically. "int* something;" would translate into English as something like "I declare something, which is a pointer to an integer." The "pointer" goes along with the "integer" much more so than it does with the "something." In contrast, the other uses of the ampersand and asterisk, as address-of and dereferencing operators, act on a variable. Here are the other two styles (maybe there are more but I really hope not): int *ugly_but_common; int * uglier_but_fortunately_less_common; Why? Really, why? I can never think of a case where the second is appropriate, and the first only suitable perhaps with something like: int *hag, *beast; But come now... multiple variable declarations on one line is kind of ugly form in itself already.

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  • Why can't I include these data files in a Python distribution using distutils?

    - by froadie
    I'm writing a setup.py file for a Python project so that I can distribute it. The aim is to eventually create a .egg file, but I'm trying to get it to work first with distutils and a regular .zip. This is an eclipse pydev project and my file structure is something like this: ProjectName src somePackage module1.py module2.py ... config propsFile1.ini propsFile2.ini propsFile3.ini setup.py Here's my setup.py code so far: from distutils.core import setup setup(name='ProjectName', version='1.0', packages=['somePackage'], data_files = [('config', ['..\config\propsFile1.ini', '..\config\propsFile2.ini', '..\config\propsFile3.ini'])] ) When I run this (with sdist as a command line parameter), a .zip file gets generated with all the python files - but the config files are not included. I thought that this code: data_files = [('config', ['..\config\propsFile1.ini', '..\config\propsFile2.ini', '..\config\propsFile3.ini'])] indicates that those 3 specified config files should be copied to a "config" directory in the zip distribution. Why is this code not accomplishing anything? What am I doing wrong? (I have also tried playing around with the paths of the config files... But nothing seems to help. Would Python throw an error or warning if the path was incorrect / file was not found?)

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  • Cocoa Drag and Drop, reading back the data

    - by kodai
    Ok, I have a NSOutlineView set up, and I want it to capture PDF's if a pdf is dragged into the NSOutlineView. My first question, I have the following code: [outlineView registerForDraggedTypes:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:NSStringPboardType, NSFilenamesPboardType, nil]]; In all the apple Docs and examples I've seen I've also seen something like MySupportedType being an object registered for dragging. What does this mean? Do I change the code to be: [outlineView registerForDraggedTypes:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"pdf", NSStringPboardType, NSFilenamesPboardType, nil]]; Currently I have it set up to recognize drag and drop, and I can even make it spit out the URL of the dragged file once the drag is accepted, however, this leads me to my second question. I want to keep a copy of those PDF's app side. I suppose, and correct me if I'm wrong, that the best way to do this is to grab the data off the clipboard, save it in some persistant store, and that's that. (as apposed to using some sort of copy command and literally copying the file to the app director.) That being said, I'm not sure how to do that. I've the code: - (BOOL)outlineView:(NSOutlineView *)ov acceptDrop:(id <NSDraggingInfo>)info item:(id)item childIndex:(NSInteger)childIndex { NSPasteboard *pboard = [info draggingPasteboard]; NSURL *fileURL; if ( [[pboard types] containsObject:NSURLPboardType] ) { fileURL = [NSURL URLFromPasteboard:pboard]; // Perform operation using the file’s URL } NSData *data = [pboard dataForType:@"NSPasteboardTypePDF"]; But this never actually gets any data. Like I said before, it does get the URL, just not the data. Does anyone have any advise on how to get this going? Thanks so much!

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  • Webbrowser locks first Excel Instance

    - by figus
    VB.NET 2008 - WinForms Hi Everyone! I've been looking for an answer to my problem but I only find more questions related to my problem... The thing is that I'm using a AxWebBrowser control in VB.NET 2008 to open a excel file in a WindowsForm, it opens succesfully and everything... but the problem is this: If I had a Excel File Open before opening another Excel File in my WebBrowser Control, the window that contains the file that was already open gets locked... (I can't give focus to that Excel window... If I click on it, the focus returns to my application) I tried creating a new excel instance with CreateObject("Excel.Application") just before loading the file, but the WebBrowser locks the first Excel Instance... Is there a way to lock it to the last instance??? I use the WebBrowser1.Navigate(Url) method to load the file... where Url is a String like C:\myExcelFile.xlsm WebBrowser1.Document.Application.UserControl is also True, but it get's locked. Any Suggestion?? Thanks in Advance!!!

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  • Executing javascript script after ajax-loaded a page - doesn't work

    - by Deukalion
    I'm trying to get a page with AJAX, but when I get that page and it includes Javascript code - it doesn't execute it. Why? Simple code in my ajax page: <script type="text/javascript"> alert("Hello"); </script> ...and it doesn't execute it. I'm trying to use Google Maps API and add markers with AJAX, so whenever I add one I execute a AJAX page that gets the new marker, stores it in a database and should add the marker "dynamically" to the map. But since I can't execute a single javascript function this way, what do I do? Is my functions that I've defined on the page beforehand protected or private? ** UPDATED WITH AJAX FUNCTION ** function ajaxExecute(id, link, query) { if (query != null) { query = query.replace("amp;", ""); } if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { // code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else { // code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { if (id != null) { document.getElementById(id).innerHTML=xmlhttp.responseText; } } } if (query == null) { xmlhttp.open("GET",link,true); } else { if (query.substr(0, 1) != "?") { xmlhttp.open("GET",link+"?"+query,true); } else { xmlhttp.open("GET",link+query,true); } } xmlhttp.send(); }

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  • New to Android: Dynamically changing views

    - by Josiah Kiehl
    I'm trying to learn how to build apps for Android. The first simple app, which will become a component of a bigger app I hope to build, is to have a button on the screen where, when tapped, it adds something new to the view. For instance: Imagine a layout that only has a button: [Create!] When that button, the view gets a new row added to it: [Create!] A Something! Upon subsequent presses, more rows are added [Create!] A Something! A Something! And so on. I've made a LinearLayout and placed the button in it, and have attached a click listener to it. That all works great. What I can't figure out is how to get a handle on the LinearLayout in the onClick function with which I'll addView() the new TextView that says "A Something!" Am I on the right track? What basic thing am I missing? Thanks!

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  • Programmatically change an EditorGrid's cell value

    - by Snowright
    Hi, I have an Editor Grid where if a specific cell is in focus (is being edited), a window containing a tree panel pops up allowing the user to choose a node from the treepanel as the new value of the cell. This way, the user isn't actually editing the cell in question, but is using the window to choose the new value. However, I am having difficulties setting the value of the cell in question programmatically. Below is the code I use to set the grid up, including the column model that chooses what editor to use for a cell depending on the value type: var editorCM = new Ext.grid.ColumnModel({ //config ,editors : { //rest of editors 'id' : new Ext.grid.GridEditor(new Ext.form.TextField({readOnly : true})) } ,getCellEditor : function(col, row) { //choose editor depending on the type value of a cell } }) var editorGrid = new Ext.grid.EditorGridPanel({ //rest of config ,cm : editorCM }) Below is my code to change the cell's value once the user chooses from the treepanel. function submitNode(newValue) { var temp = editorGrid.GetSelectionModel().getSelectedCell(); //returns array containing column and row position of selected cell, which value we want to change. //temp[1] = column index, temp[0] = row index //Gets the cell editor at specific position and sets new value for that cell editorGrid.getColumnModel().getCellEditor(temp[1], temp[0]).setValue(newValue); } I've also tried a few other ways (all including setValue(newValue)), but have come up empty handed. I've looked through the API and the ExtJS forums for any clue but have also come up empty handed.

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  • Will Apple bundle the Mono Touch runtime with every iPhone?

    - by Zoran Simic
    It strikes me as a good idea for Apple to negotiate with Novell and bundle the Mono Touch runtime (only the runtime of course) into every iPhone and iPod Touch. Perhaps even make it a "one time install" that automatically gets downloaded from the App Store the first time one downloads an app build with Mono Touch, making every subsequent Mono Touch app much lighter to download (without the runtime). Doing so would be similar in a way to adding Bootcamp to OS X: it would make it easier for C# developers to join the party, but that wouldn't mean these developers will all stick to C#... What convinced me to buy a Mac is Bootcamp - I figured I could always install Windows if I didn't like OS X (and I liked the hardware, so no problem there). 6 months later, I'm using OS X full time... Would there be any technical issues in doing so? I see only advantages for all parties, not one disadvantage to anyone (except maybe for the few unfortunate Apple employees who would have to test the crap out of the Mono Touch runtime before bundling it): Novell wins because Mono Touch becomes much more viable (Mono Touch apps become much lighter all of the sudden) Developers win because now there's one more tool in the tool belt Many C# Developers would be very interested by this Apple wins because that would bring even more attention to the platform, more revenue in developer fees, more potential great apps, etc Users win because less space is used by different Apps having copies of the same runtime accumulating on their devices Would there be a major technical obstacle in bundling Mono Touch to iPhone OS? Edit: Changed the title from "Should" to "Will Apple bundle the runtime?", I think the consensus on predicting that means a lot to those considering going with Mono Touch.

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  • How to structure applications as multiple projects an name the packages in Java

    - by lostiniceland
    Hello Everyone I would like to know how you set up your projects in Java For example, in my current work-project, a six year old J2EE app with approximately 2 million LoC, we only have one project in Eclipse. The package structure is split into tiers and then domains, so it follows guidelines from Sun/Oracle. A huge ant-script is building different jars out of this one source-folder Personally I think it would be better to have multiple projects, at least for each tier. Recently I was playing around with a projects-structure like this: Domainproject (contains only annotated pojos, needed by all other projects) Datalayer (only persistence) Businesslogic (services) Presenter View This way, it should be easier to exchange components and when using a build tool like Maven I can have everything in a repository so when only working on the frontend I can get the rest as a dependecy in my classpath. Does this makes sense to you? Do you use different approaches and how do they look like? Furthermore I am struggeling how to name my packages/projects correctly. Right now, the above project-structure reflects in the names of the packages, eg. de.myapp.view and it continues with some technical subfolders like internal or interfaces. What I am missing here, and I dont know how to do this properly, is the distinction to a certain domain. When the project gets bigger it would be nice to recognise a particular domain but also the technical details to navigate more easily within the project. This leads to my second question: how do you name your projects and packages?

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  • Looping login with Facebook JS SDK and Rails

    - by nafe
    I'm using the Facebook JS SDK for single-sign with my rails app. I translated the php code from the Facebook example (at the bottom of the page under "Single Sign-on with the JavaScript SDK") into ruby. This appeared to be working great but I've noticed one user that gets continual redirects when trying to login. The logs look like: Processing UsersController#login (for X.X.X.X at 2010-05-22 17:25:55) [GET] Redirected to http://myapp.com/ Completed in 0ms (DB: 0) | 302 Found [http://myapp.com/login] (times as many entries as my unfortunate user leaves the browser redirecting in a loop). My client side code includes a callback with the "auth.sessionChange": FB.Event.subscribe('auth.sessionChange', function(response) { if (response.session) { // A user has logged in, and a new cookie has been saved window.location = "/login"; } else { // The user has logged out, and the cookie has been cleared window.location = "/logout"; } }); So it seems to me like this event is continually firing. Although, I can't test this theory because I can't recreate this scenario locally. I don't think it's the rails controller. The code here is just: def login # if first time user create db entry # now redirect back to where the user came from begin redirect_to :back rescue ActionController::RedirectBackError redirect_to root_url end end Does anyone have any idea on what's going on?

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  • Facebook Open Graph - post to all approved users feeds.

    - by simnom
    Hi, I'm struggling to get to grips with posting a feed item to all the members of an approved application. Within the application settings for the user it is stating that the application has permission to post to the wall but I can only achieve this if that user is currently logged in to facebook. Obviously I would like this to function so that any items I uploaded are posted to all the members of the application at any one time. I am using the Facebook PHP SDK from http://github.com/facebook/php-sdk/ and currrently my code is as follows: require 'src/facebook.php'; //Generates access token for this transaction $accessToken = file_get_contents("https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token?type=client_cred&client_id=MyAppId&client_secret=MySecret"); //Gets the full user details as an object $contents = json_decode(file_get_contents("https://graph.facebook.com/SomeUserId?scope=publish_stream&" . $accessToken)); print_r($contents); if ($facebook->api('/' . $contents->id . '/feed', 'POST', array( 'title' => 'New and Improved, etc - 12/03/2010', 'link' => 'http://www.ib3.co.uk/news/2010/03/12/new-and-improved--etc', 'picture' => 'http://www.ib3.co.uk/userfiles/image/etc-booking.jpg', 'scope' => 'publish_stream' ) )==TRUE) { echo "message posted"; } else { echo "message failed"; } The output from $contents shows the expected user details but nothing relating to the permissions for my application. Am I missing a trick here? Then using the $facebook-api() function I am receiving a #200 - Permissions error. The application does not have permission to perform this action. This is driving me a little potty as I suspect I'm missing something straightforward with the authorisation but what? Many thanks in advance for an assistance offered.

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  • Two way sync with rsync

    - by mwm
    I have a folder a/ and a remote folder A/. I now run something like this on a Makefile: get-music: rsync -avzru server:/media/10001/music/ /media/Incoming/music/ put-music: rsync -avzru /media/Incoming/music/ server:/media/10001/music/ sync-music: get-music put-music when I make sync-music, it first gets all the diffs from server to local and then the opposite, sending all the diffs from local to server. This works very well only if there are just updates or new files on the future. If there are deletions, it doesn't do anything. In rsync there is --delete and --delete-after options to help accomplish what I want but thing is, it doesn't work on a 2-way-sync. If I want to delete server files on a syn, when local files have been deleted, it works, but if, for some reason (explained after) I have some files that aren't in the server but exist locally and they were deleted, I want locally to remove them and not server copied (as it happens). Thing is I have 3 machines in context: desktop notebook home-server So, sometimes, server will have files that were deleted with a notebook sync, for example and then, when I run a sync with my desktop (where the deleted server files still exist on) I want these files to be deleted and not to be copied again to the server. I guess this is only possible with a database and track of operations :P Any simple solutions? Thank you.

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  • RestSharp post object to WCF

    - by steve
    Im having an issue posting an object to my wcf rest webservice. On the WCF side I have the following: [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "", Method = "POST")] public void Create(myObject object) { //save some stuff to the db } When im debugging this never gets hit - it does however get hit when I remove the parameter so im guessing ive done something wrong on the restSharp side of things. Heres my code for that part: var client = new RestClient(ApiBaseUri); var request = new RestRequest(Method.POST); request.RequestFormat = DataFormat.Xml; request.AddBody(myObject); var response = client.Execute(request); Am I doing this wrong? How can the WCF side see my object? What way should I be making the reqest? Or should I be handling it differently WCF side? Things ive tried: request.AddObject(myObject); and request.AddBody(request.XmlSerialise.serialise(myObject)); Any help and understanding in what could possibly be wrong would be much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • ArrayAccess multidimensional (un)set?

    - by anomareh
    I have a class implementing ArrayAccess and I'm trying to get it to work with a multidimensional array. exists and get work. set and unset are giving me a problem though. class ArrayTest implements ArrayAccess { private $_arr = array( 'test' => array( 'bar' => 1, 'baz' => 2 ) ); public function offsetExists($name) { return isset($this->_arr[$name]); } public function offsetSet($name, $value) { $this->_arr[$name] = $value; } public function offsetGet($name) { return $this->_arr[$name]; } public function offsetUnset($name) { unset($this->_arr[$name]); } } $arrTest = new ArrayTest(); isset($arrTest['test']['bar']); // Returns TRUE echo $arrTest['test']['baz']; // Echo's 2 unset($arrTest['test']['bar']; // Error $arrTest['test']['bar'] = 5; // Error I know $_arr could just be made public so you could access it directly, but for my implementation it's not desired and is private. The last 2 lines throw an error: Notice: Indirect modification of overloaded element. I know ArrayAccess just generally doesn't work with multidimensional arrays, but is there anyway around this or any somewhat clean implementation that will allow the desired functionality? The best idea I could come up with is using a character as a separator and testing for it in set and unset and acting accordingly. Though this gets really ugly really fast if you're dealing with a variable depth. Does anyone know why exists and get work so as to maybe copy over the functionality? Thanks for any help anyone can offer.

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  • Passing data structures to different threads

    - by Robb
    I have an application that will be spawning multiple threads. However, I feel there might be an issue with threads accessing data that they shouldn't be. I'm relatively new to threading so bare with me. Here is the structure of the threaded application (sorry for the crudeness): MainThread / \ / \ / \ Thread A Thread B / \ / \ / \ / \ / \ / \ Thread A_1 Thread A_2 Thread B_1 Thread B_2 Under each lettered thread (which could be many), there will only be two threads and they are fired of sequentially. The issue i'm having is I'm not entirely sure how to pass in a datastructure into these threads. So, the datastructure is created in MainThread, will be modified in the lettered thread (Thread A, etc) specific to that thread and then a member variable from that datastructure is sent to Letter_Numbered threads. Currently, the lettered thread class has a member variable and when the class is constructed, the datastructure from mainthread is passed in by reference, invoking the copy constructor so the lettered thread has it's own copy to play with. The lettered_numbered thread simply takes in a string variable from the data structure within the lettered thread. My question is, is this accceptable? Is there a much better way to ensure each lettered thread gets its own data structure to play with? Sorry for the somewhat poor explanation, please leave comments and i'll try to clarify.

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  • Using JQuery with dynamically added controls (MVC)

    - by Mario
    I have a set of radio buttons that are dynamically generated (via JSON call): StringBuilder sbEligAll = new StringBuilder(); sbEligAll.Append("<div id='currentselectiondepartment'>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radCurrent' value='0' /><label for='radCurrent'>Current</label>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radFuture' value='1' /><label for='radFuture'>Future</label>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radCurrentAll' value='2' /><label for='radCurrentAll'>Current All</label>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radFutureAll' value='3' /><label for='radFutureAll'>Future All</label>"); sbEligAll.Append("</div>"); Then: return Json(new { TableList = sbElig.ToString() }, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet); Is there a way to get jQuery to be able to interact with these? For example: $("input[name=selectalldepartment]").change(function() { var str = $('input[name=selectalldepartment]:checked').val(); $(".radiolist[value='" + str + "']").attr("checked", true); }); I've tried everything I know how to do, but the jQuery just doesnt fire. (I've added alerts to the jQuery code to see if it actually gets called, and it does not). Any thoughts?! Thanks!

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  • Why is there no autorelease pool when I do performSelectorInBackground: ?

    - by Thanks
    I am calling a method that goes in a background thread: [self performSelectorInBackground:@selector(loadViewControllerWithIndex:) withObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:viewControllerIndex]]; then, I have this method implementation that gets called by the selector: - (void) loadViewControllerWithIndex:(NSNumber *)indexNumberObj { NSAutoreleasePool *arPool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSInteger vcIndex = [indexNumberObj intValue]; Class c; UIViewController *controller = [viewControllers objectAtIndex:vcIndex]; switch (vcIndex) { case 0: c = [MyFirstViewController class]; break; case 1: c = [MySecondViewController class]; break; default: NSLog(@"unknown index for loading view controller: %d", vcIndex); // error break; } if ((NSNull *)controller == [NSNull null]) { controller = [[c alloc] initWithNib]; [viewControllers replaceObjectAtIndex:vcIndex withObject:controller]; [controller release]; } if (controller.view.superview == nil) { UIView *placeholderView = [viewControllerPlaceholderViews objectAtIndex:vcIndex]; [placeholderView addSubview:controller.view]; } [arPool release]; } Althoug I do create an autorelease pool there for that thread, I always get this error: 2009-05-30 12:03:09.910 Demo[1827:3f03] *** _NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x523e50 of class NSCFNumber autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking Stack: (0x95c83f0f 0x95b90442 0x28d3 0x2d42 0x95b96e0d 0x95b969b4 0x93a00155 0x93a00012) If I take away the autorelease pool, I get a whole bunch of messages like these. I also tried to create an autorelease pool around the call of the performSelectorInBackground:, but that doesn't help. I suspect the parameter, but I don't know why the compiler complains about an NSCFNumber. Am I missing something? My Instance variables are all "nonatomic". Can that be a problem? UPDATE: I may also suspect that some variable has been added to an autorelease pool of the main thread (maybe an ivar), and now it trys to release that one inside the wrong autorelease pool? If so, how could I fix that? (damn, this threading stuff is complex ;) )

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  • Selective JQuery validation

    - by TenaciousImpy
    Hi, I'm using JQuery Validation to validate a particular textbox in my form. The textbox is an optional website section, which uses the url validation method. This works fine and validates accordingly. I would like to have http:// preset into the textbox, to save the user having to type it. However, when the text is set, the validator becomes 'active', and prevents anything on the form being submitted until either the http:// is manually removed, or a valid website is entered. Is there a way of preseting text into the textbox, which won't cause the validator to start validating? I tried to use $("[id$='tbWebsite']").val("http://"); just before I call form.validate(), but it doesn't work (i.e. it still gets checked). I've never used JQuery Validator before, so hopefully there's a fix for this that I'm missing! An alternate solution for my case in particular, could be to activate the validator if a certain button is pressed (instead of any button on the form). Would that be possible? Thanks

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  • ob_start() is partially capturing data

    - by AAA
    I am using the following code: PHP: // Generate Guid function NewGuid() { $s = strtoupper(uniqid(rand(),true)); $guidText = substr($s,0,8) . '-' . substr($s,8,4) . '-' . substr($s,12,4). '-' . substr($s,16,4). '-' . substr($s,20); return $guidText; } // End Generate Guid $Guid = NewGuid(); $alphabet = '123456789abcdefghijkmnopqrstuvwxyzABCDEFGHJKLMNPQRSTUVWXYZ'; function base_encode($num, $alphabet) { $base_count = strlen($alphabet); $encoded = ''; while ($num >= $base_count) { $div = $num/$base_count; $mod = ($num-($base_count*intval($div))); $encoded = $alphabet[$mod] . $encoded; $num = intval($div); } if ($num) $encoded = $alphabet[$num] . $encoded; return $encoded; } function base_decode($num, $alphabet) { $decoded = 0; $multi = 1; while (strlen($num) > 0) { $digit = $num[strlen($num)-1]; $decoded += $multi * strpos($alphabet, $digit); $multi = $multi * strlen($alphabet); $num = substr($num, 0, -1); } return $decoded; } ob_start(); echo base_encode($Guid, $alphabet); //should output: bUKpk $theid = ob_get_contents(); ob_get_clean(); The problem: When i echo $theid, it shows the complete entry, but as it is being inserted into the database, only the first entry in the sequence gets inserted, for example for the entry buKPK, only 'b' is being inserted not the rest.

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  • UITableView Inactive Until Scroll iPhone

    - by dubbeat
    HI, I'm trying to find the cause of some annoying behaviour with my UITableView. In each cell of my table (10 of them ) I asynchronously load an image. The problem is, is that if I don't touch the app at all the imageviews will permanently show a loading icon. However as soon as I scroll a cell off the screen and back on again the image shows straight away. What could be causing this "stuck in the mud" behaviour? Is there a way to force whatever gets called when the list is scrolled to make the needed update happen? #define ASYNC_IMAGE_TAG 9999 #define LABEL_TAG 8888 // Customize the appearance of table view cells. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { PromoListItem *promo = [promoList objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; AsyncImageView *asyncImageView = nil; UILabel *label = nil; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; CGRect frame; frame.origin.x = 0; frame.origin.y = 0; frame.size.width = 100; frame.size.height = 100; asyncImageView = [[[AsyncImageView alloc] initWithFrame:frame] autorelease]; asyncImageView.tag = ASYNC_IMAGE_TAG; [cell.contentView addSubview:asyncImageView]; frame.origin.x = 110; frame.size.width =100; label = [[[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:frame] autorelease]; label.tag = LABEL_TAG; [cell.contentView addSubview:label]; cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator; } else { asyncImageView = (AsyncImageView *) [cell.contentView viewWithTag:ASYNC_IMAGE_TAG]; label = (UILabel *) [cell.contentView viewWithTag:LABEL_TAG]; } NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:promo.imgurl]; [asyncImageView loadImageFromURL:url]; label.text = promo.artistname; return cell; }

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  • RegisterStartupScript not working after upgrading to framework 3.5

    - by AaronS
    I'm trying to upgrade an asp.net c# web project from framework 2.0 to 3.5. When I do this, the client side script that gets written using RegisterStartupScript isn't rendered on the client page. This works perfectly when I compile for 2.0, and for 3.0, but not when I compile for 3.5. Here is the code that isn't getting rendered: Page myPage = (Page)HttpContext.Current.Handler; ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(myPage, myPage.GetType(), "alertscript", "alert('test');", true); This is called from a class project, and not the web project itself, which is why I'm using the HttpContext.Current.Handler. There are no errors getting generated from the compiler, the CLR, and there are no client side JavaScript errors. If I do a search for the "alertscript" in my rendered page, the above code actually isn't there. Anyone have ideas as to what is going on? -Edit- This seems to be an issue when I'm trying to register the script from an external project. If I use the exact same code in a class file in the web project (not the code behind), it works. However, if I make a call to a method in a class from another project, it does not work. Does the ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript not get registered correctly if performed from somewhere besides the web project itself?

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  • iPhone application update (using Core Data on Sqlite)

    - by owen
    I have an app which is using Core Data on Sqlite, Now I have a update which has some DB structure changes say adding a new table I know when an app get updated, it updates the app binary only, nothing on document directory will be changed. When the app gets updated and launchs at the first time and run [[NSPersistentStoreCoordinator alloc] initWithManagedObjectModel:[self managedObjectModel]]; It will find the difference between the data model and DB structure in Sqlite and will throw an exception and quit. Error: "The model used to open the store is incompatible with the one used to create the store" So, can anyone here give me some idea how to update an app when there is a DB structure change? I think we can run a DB script to create that new table when it launchs the update at the first time. But if there are other changes like changing the type of some fields or deleting some fields, and we need to migrate the old data, this is really a headache. In this case, Is the only way to do is creating a new app? Is there anyone tried something similar like this?

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  • Validation control issue

    - by Mael
    Hello, I have a multiview that simulates a menu with different kind of options. Each view within the multiview control holds a bunch of controls (listbox, label, etc..) Everything worked just fine, until i wanted to implement Validation control(s). For example when i click on my menu viewA gets displayed with its controls. There i wish to implement a RequiredFieldValidator. But the problem is, if i click on a other menu option (which is in fact a other view in my multiview) then it gives the error message 'Please enter a message" which is the errorMessage of the first RequiredFieldValidator of the first menu option (first view). All my controls are named with a unique name, so there is no mixup amongst the ControlToValidate="" Offcourse this is not suitable, cause those menu choices are indepentant. And its not the intention i have to fill in everything, cause its a menu afterall, and not a form where i have to enter everything at once. How can i have a RequiredFieldValidator on my views that do not take each other in account? Some code on how my active view is handled protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { View activeView = (View)this.mvMultiview.FindControl(this.getViewFromRequest()); if (!(activeView == null)) { this.mvMultiview.SetActiveView(activeView); } } } Thanks.

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  • Android: changing drawable states of option menu items seems to have side-effects

    - by pjv
    In my onCreateOptionsMenu() I have basically the following: public boolean onCreateOptionsMenu(Menu menu) { menu.add(Menu.NONE, MENU_ITEM_INSERT, Menu.NONE, R.string.item_menu_insert).setShortcut('3', 'a').setIcon(android.R.drawable.ic_menu_add); PackageManager pm = getPackageManager(); if(pm.hasSystemFeature(PackageManager.FEATURE_CAMERA) && pm.hasSystemFeature(PackageManager.FEATURE_CAMERA_AUTOFOCUS)){ menu.add(Menu.NONE, MENU_ITEM_SCAN_ADD, Menu.NONE, ((Collectionista.DEBUG)?"DEBUG Scan and add item":getString(R.string.item_menu_scan_add))).setShortcut('4', 'a').setIcon(android.R.drawable.ic_menu_add); } ... } And in onPrepareOptionsMenu among others the following: final boolean scanAvailable = ScanIntent.isInstalled(this); final MusicCDItemScanAddTask task = new MusicCDItemScanAddTask(this); menu.findItem(MENU_ITEM_SCAN_ADD).setEnabled(scanAvailable && (tasks == null || !existsTask(task))); As you see, two options items have the same drawable set (android.R.drawable.ic_menu_add). Now, if in onPrepareOptionsMenu the second menu item gets disabled, its label and icon become gray, but also the icon of the first menu item becomes gray, while the label of that fist menu item stays black and it remains clickable. What is causing this crosstalk between the two icons/drawables? Shouldn't the system handle things like mutate() in this case? I've included a screenshot:

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  • Select those objects whose related objects IDs are *all* in given string

    - by Jannis
    Hi Django people, I want to build a frontend to a recipe database which enables the user to search for a list of recipes which are cookable with the ingredients the user supplies. I have the following models class Ingredient(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=100, unique=True) slug = models.SlugField(max_length=100, unique=True) importancy = models.PositiveSmallIntegerField(default=4) […] class Amount(models.Model): recipe = models.ForeignKey('Recipe') ingredient = models.ForeignKey(Ingredient) […] class Rezept(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=100) slug = models.SlugField() instructions = models.TextField() ingredients = models.ManyToManyField(Ingredient, through=Amount) […] and a rawquery which does exactly what I want: It gets all the recipes whose required ingredients are all contained in the list of strings that the user supplies. If he supplies more than necessary, it's fine too. query = "SELECT *, COUNT(amount.zutat_id) AS selected_count_ingredients, (SELECT COUNT(*) FROM amount WHERE amount.recipe_id = amount.id) AS count_ingredients FROM amount LEFT OUTER JOIN amount ON (recipe.id = recipe.recipe_id) WHERE amount.ingredient_id IN (%s) GROUP BY amount.id HAVING count_ingredient=selected_count_ingredient" % ",".join([str(ingredient.id) for ingredient in ingredients]) rezepte = Rezept.objects.raw(query) Now, what I'm looking for is a way that does not rely on .raw() as I would like to do it purely with Django's queryset methods. Additionally, it would be awesome if you guys knew a way of including the ingredient's importancy in the lookup so that a recipe is still shown as a result even though one of its ingredients (that has an importancy of 0) is not supplied by the user.

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