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  • Need advice on comparing the performance of 2 equivalent linq to sql queries

    - by uvita
    I am working on tool to optimize linq to sql queries. Basically it intercepts the linq execution pipeline and makes some optimizations like for example removing a redundant join from a query. Of course, there is an overhead in the execution time before the query gets executed in the dbms, but then, the query should be processed faster. I don't want to use a sql profiler because I know that the generated query will be perform better in the dbms than the original one, I am looking for a correct way of measuring the global time between the creation of the query in linq and the end of its execution. Currently, I am using the Stopwatch class and my code looks something like this: var sw = new Stopwatch(); sw.Start(); const int amount = 100; for (var i = 0; i < amount; i++) { ExecuteNonOptimizedQuery(); } sw.Stop(); Console.Writeline("Executing the query {2} times took: {0}ms. On average, each query took: {1}ms", sw.ElapsedMilliseconds, sw.ElapsedMilliseconds / amount, amount); Basically the ExecutenNonOptimizedQuery() method creates a new DataContext, creates a query and then iterates over the results. I did this for both versions of the query, the normal one and the optimized one. I took the idea from this post from Frans Bouma. Is there any other approach/considerations I should take? Thanks in advance!

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  • iPhone application update (using Core Data on Sqlite)

    - by owen
    I have an app which is using Core Data on Sqlite, Now I have a update which has some DB structure changes say adding a new table I know when an app get updated, it updates the app binary only, nothing on document directory will be changed. When the app gets updated and launchs at the first time and run [[NSPersistentStoreCoordinator alloc] initWithManagedObjectModel:[self managedObjectModel]]; It will find the difference between the data model and DB structure in Sqlite and will throw an exception and quit. Error: "The model used to open the store is incompatible with the one used to create the store" So, can anyone here give me some idea how to update an app when there is a DB structure change? I think we can run a DB script to create that new table when it launchs the update at the first time. But if there are other changes like changing the type of some fields or deleting some fields, and we need to migrate the old data, this is really a headache. In this case, Is the only way to do is creating a new app? Is there anyone tried something similar like this?

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  • svnsync loses revision properties although hook installed

    - by roesslerj
    Hello all! I have a pretty weird problem. We have setup an SVN-Mirror via cronjob (because it needs to go from inside to outside of a firewall, so no post-commit-hook possible) and svnsync. We installed a pre-revprop-hook just as told. Everything seems to work fine, except that it doesn't. E.g. when manually executing the script. # svnsync --non-interactive sync file://<path-to-mirror> --source-username <usr> --source-password <pwd> Committed revision 19817. Copied properties for revision 19817. No error, no complaints. But if checking for the revision properties it says: # svnlook info <path-to-mirror> 0 # svn info -r HEAD file://<path-to-mirror> 2>&1 Path: <root-of-mirror> URL: file://<path-to-mirror> Repository Root: file://<path-to-mirror> Repository UUID: <uid> Revision: 19817 Node Kind: directory Last Changed Rev: 19817 So somehow the author and timestamp information gets lost. But we need that information for our internal processes. Since no error or warning is produced I have absolutely no idea even where to start to look. Everything is local (except for the remote master), so there are no server-logs to look at. I also tried to manually recopy via svnsync copy-revprops (http://chestofbooks.com/computers/revision-control/subversion-svn/svnsync-Copy-revprops-Ref-svnsync-C-Copy-revprops.html). It says Copied properties for revision 19885. But when I query them, it's just the same. Any ideas how I could approach that problem, or even better -- how to solve it? Any ideas appreciated.

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  • Android: changing drawable states of option menu items seems to have side-effects

    - by pjv
    In my onCreateOptionsMenu() I have basically the following: public boolean onCreateOptionsMenu(Menu menu) { menu.add(Menu.NONE, MENU_ITEM_INSERT, Menu.NONE, R.string.item_menu_insert).setShortcut('3', 'a').setIcon(android.R.drawable.ic_menu_add); PackageManager pm = getPackageManager(); if(pm.hasSystemFeature(PackageManager.FEATURE_CAMERA) && pm.hasSystemFeature(PackageManager.FEATURE_CAMERA_AUTOFOCUS)){ menu.add(Menu.NONE, MENU_ITEM_SCAN_ADD, Menu.NONE, ((Collectionista.DEBUG)?"DEBUG Scan and add item":getString(R.string.item_menu_scan_add))).setShortcut('4', 'a').setIcon(android.R.drawable.ic_menu_add); } ... } And in onPrepareOptionsMenu among others the following: final boolean scanAvailable = ScanIntent.isInstalled(this); final MusicCDItemScanAddTask task = new MusicCDItemScanAddTask(this); menu.findItem(MENU_ITEM_SCAN_ADD).setEnabled(scanAvailable && (tasks == null || !existsTask(task))); As you see, two options items have the same drawable set (android.R.drawable.ic_menu_add). Now, if in onPrepareOptionsMenu the second menu item gets disabled, its label and icon become gray, but also the icon of the first menu item becomes gray, while the label of that fist menu item stays black and it remains clickable. What is causing this crosstalk between the two icons/drawables? Shouldn't the system handle things like mutate() in this case? I've included a screenshot:

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  • Have I taken a wrong path in programming by being excessively worried about code elegance and style?

    - by Ygam
    I am in a major stump right now. I am a BSIT graduate, but I only started actual programming less than a year ago. I observed that I have the following attitude in programming: I tend to be more of a purist, scorning unelegant approaches to solving problems using code I tend to look at anything in a large scale, planning everything before I start coding, either in simple flowcharts or complex UML charts I have a really strong impulse on refactoring my code, even if I miss deadlines or prolong development times I am obsessed with good directory structures, file naming conventions, class, method, and variable naming conventions I tend to always want to study something new, even, as I said, at the cost of missing deadlines I tend to see software development as something to engineer, to architect; that is, seeing how things relate to each other and how blocks of code can interact (I am a huge fan of loose coupling) i.e the OOP thinking I tend to combine OOP and procedural coding whenever I see fit I want my code to execute fast (thus the elegant approaches and refactoring) This bothers me because I see my colleagues doing much better the other way around (aside from the fact that they started programming since our first year in college). By the other way around I mean, they fire up coding, gets the job done much faster because they don't have to really look at how clean their codes are or how elegant their algorithms are, they don't bother with OOP however big their projects are, they mostly use web APIs, piece them together and voila! Working code! CLients are happy, they get paid fast, at the expense of a really unmaintainable or hard-to-read code that lacks structure and conventions, or slow executions of certain actions (which the common reasoning against would be that internet connections are much faster these days, hardware is more powerful). The excuse I often receive is clients don't care about how you write the code, but they do care about how long you deliver it. If it works then all is good. Now, did my "purist" approach to programming may have been the wrong way to start programming? Should I just dump these purist concepts and just code the hell up because I have seen it: clients don't really care how beautifully coded it is?

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  • Function parameters evaluation order: is undefined behaviour if we pass reference?

    - by bolov
    This is undefined behaviour: void feedMeValue(int x, int a) { cout << x << " " << a << endl; } int main() { int a = 2; int &ra = a; feedMeValue(ra = 3, a); return 0; } because depending on what parameter gets evaluated first we could call (3, 2) or (3, 3). However this: void feedMeReference(int x, int const &ref) { cout << x << " " << ref << endl; } int main() { int a = 2; int &ra = a; feedMeReference(ra = 3, a); return 0; } will always output 3 3 since the second parameter is a reference and all parameters have been evaluated before the function call, so even if the second parameter is evaluated before of after ra = 3, the function received a reference to a wich will have a value of 2 or 3 at the time of the evaluation, but will always have the value 3 at the time of the function call. Is the second example UB? It is important to know because the compiler is free to do anything if he detects undefined behaviour, even if I know it would always yield the same results. *Note: I think that feedMeReference(a = 3, a) is the exact same situation as feedMeReference(ra = 3, a). However it seems not everybody agrees, in the addition to having 2 completely different answers.

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  • Problem with load testing Web Service - VSTS 2008

    - by Carlos
    Hello, I have a webtest with makes a simple call to a WebService which looks like that: MyWebService webService = new MyWebService(); webService.Timeout = 180000; webService.myMethod(); I am not using ThinkTimes, also the Run Duration is set to 5 minutes. When I ran this test simulating only 1 user, I check the counters and I found something like that: Tests Total: 4500 Network Interface\Bytes sent (agent machine): 35,500 Then I ran the same tests, but this time simulating 2 users and I got something like that: Tests Total: 2225 Network Interface\Bytes sent (agent machine): 30,500 So when I increased the numbers of users the tests/sec was half than when I use only 1 user and the bytes sent by the agent was also lower. I think it is strange, because it doesn't seems I have a bottleneck in my agent machine since CPU is never higher than 30% and I have over 1.5GB of RAM free, also my network utilization is like 0.5% of its capacity. In order to troubleshot this I ran a test using Step Pattern, the simulated users went from 20 to 800 users. When I check the requests/sec it is practically constant through the whole test, so it is clear there is something in my test or my environment which is preventing the number of requests from gets higher. It would be a expected behavior if the "response time" was getting higher because it would tell me the requests wasn't been processed properly, but the strange thing is the response time is practically constant all the time and it is pretty low actually. I have no idea why my agent can't send more requests when I increase the numbers of users, any help/tip/guess would be really appreciate.

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  • Problem with UserControl with custom Dependency Property

    - by Mathias Koch
    Hi, I'm writing a user control with a dependency property for a search text called SearchText. It is a dependency property because I want to allow consumers of the control to use data binding. The user control contains a WPF TextBox where the user can enter the search text. I could use data binding to connect the SearchText dependency property of the user control with the Text dependency property of the TextBox, but this binding only fires when the text box looses input focus. What I want is SearchText to be updated after every change of Text. So I have added a TextChanged event handler to the user control where I set SearchText to the value of Text. My Problem is, the SearchText binding doesn't work, the source never gets updated. What am I doing wrong? Here's the relevant part of the user controls code-behind: public partial class UserControlSearchTextBox : UserControl { public string SearchText { get { return (string)GetValue(SearchTextProperty); } set { SetValue(SearchTextProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty SearchTextProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("SearchText", typeof(string), typeof(UserControlSearchTextBox), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); private void TextBox_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { SearchText = ((TextBox)sender).Text; } ... } The window that contains an instance of the user control has its DataContext set to an object that has a property also called SearchText. <uc:UserControlSearchTextBox SearchText="{Binding SearchText}" /> The data context of the Window: public class DataSourceUserManual : DataSourceBase { private string _searchText; public string SearchText { get { return _searchText; } set { _searchText = value; ... OnPropertyChanged("SearchText"); } } } Unfortunately, this setter is not called when I type into the text box. Any ideas?

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  • Can I version dotfiles within a project without merging their history into the main line?

    - by istrasci
    I'm sure this title is fairly obscure. I'm wondering if there is some way in git to tell it that you want a certain file to use different versions of a file when moving between branches, but to overall be .gitignored from the repository. Here's my scenario: I've got a Flash Builder project (for a Flex app) that I control with git. Flex apps in Flash Builder projects create three files: .actionScriptProperties, .flexProperties, and .project. These files contain lots of local file system references (source folders, output folders, etc.), so naturally we .gitignore them from our repo. Today, I wanted to use a new library in my project, so I made a separate git branch called lib, removed the old version of the library and put in the new one. Unfortunately, this Flex library information gets stored in one of those three dot files (not sure which offhand). So when I had to switch back to the first branch (master) earlier, I was getting compile errors because master was now linked to the new library (which basically negated why I made lib in the first place). So I'm wondering if there's any way for me to continue to .gitignore these files (so my other developers don't get them), but tell git that I want it to use some kind of local "branch version" so I can locally use different versions of the files for different branches.

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  • What am I missing in the following buttons code?

    - by Ayush Goyal
    I am trying to increment and decrement the middle textview via buttons on the sides. The application starts up finely but by the time I click on any of the buttons it gets closed with following error. Error: process <package> has stopped unexpectedly. My main.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <Button android:id="@+id/button1" android:layout_width="50dp" android:layout_height="250dp" android:text="+" android:textSize="40dp" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/tv1" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="0" android:textSize="80dp" android:layout_toRightOf="@+id/button1" android:layout_marginTop="75dp" android:layout_marginLeft="80dp" /> <Button android:id="@+id/button2" android:layout_width="50dp" android:layout_height="250dp" android:layout_alignParentRight="true" android:text="-" android:textSize="40dp" /> My java file: public class IncrementDecrementActivity extends Activity { int counter; Button add, sub; TextView tv; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); add = (Button) findViewById(R.id.button1); sub = (Button) findViewById(R.id.button2); tv = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.tv1); add.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { counter++; tv.setText(counter); } }); sub.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { counter--; tv.setText(counter); } }); } }

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  • Java assignment issues - Is this atomic?

    - by Bob
    Hi, I've got some questions about Java's assigment. Strings I've got a class: public class Test { private String s; public synchronized void setS(String str){ s = s + " - " + str; } public String getS(){ return s; } } I'm using "synchronized" in my setter, and avoiding it in my getter, because in my app, there are a tons of data gettings, and very few settings. Settings must be synchronized to avoid inconsistency. My question is: is getting and setting a variable atomic? I mean, in a multithreaded environment, Thread1 is about to set variable s, while Thread2 is about to get "s". Is there any way the getter method could get something different than the s's old value or the s's new value (suppose we've got only two threads)? In my app it is not a problem to get the new value, and it is not a problem to get the old one. But could I get something else? What about HashMap's getting and putting? considering this: public class Test { private Map<Integer, String> map = Collections.synchronizedMap(new HashMap<Integer, String>()); public synchronized void setMapElement(Integer key, String value){ map.put(key, value); } public String getValue(Integer key){ return map.get(key); } } Is putting and getting atomic? How does HashMap handle putting an element into it? Does it first remove the old value and put the now one? Could I get other than the old value or the new value? Thanks in advance!

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  • Running Solr on VPS problems

    - by Camran
    I have a VPS with Ubuntu OS. I run solr om my local machine (windows xp laptop) just fine. I have configured Jetty, and Solr just the same way as on my computer, but on the server. I have also downloaded the JRE and installed it on the server. However, whenever I try to run the start.jar file, the PuTTY terminal shows a bunch of text but gets stuck. I could pase the text here but it is very long, so unless somebody wants to see it I wont. Also, I cant view the solr admin page at all. Does anybody have experience in this kind of problem? Maybe java isn't correctly installed? It is a VPS so maybe installation is different. Thanks UPDATE: These are the last lines from the terminal, in other words, this is where it stops every time: INFO: [] webapp=null path=null params={event=firstSearcher&q=static+firstSearcher+warming+query+from+solrconfig.xml} hits=0 status=0 QTime=9 May 28, 2010 8:58:42 PM org.apache.solr.core.QuerySenderListener newSearcher INFO: QuerySenderListener done. May 28, 2010 8:58:42 PM org.apache.solr.handler.component.SpellCheckComponent$SpellCheckerListener newSearcher INFO: Loading spell index for spellchecker: default May 28, 2010 8:58:42 PM org.apache.solr.core.SolrCore registerSearcher INFO: [] Registered new searcher Searcher@63a721 main

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  • Two way sync with rsync

    - by mwm
    I have a folder a/ and a remote folder A/. I now run something like this on a Makefile: get-music: rsync -avzru server:/media/10001/music/ /media/Incoming/music/ put-music: rsync -avzru /media/Incoming/music/ server:/media/10001/music/ sync-music: get-music put-music when I make sync-music, it first gets all the diffs from server to local and then the opposite, sending all the diffs from local to server. This works very well only if there are just updates or new files on the future. If there are deletions, it doesn't do anything. In rsync there is --delete and --delete-after options to help accomplish what I want but thing is, it doesn't work on a 2-way-sync. If I want to delete server files on a syn, when local files have been deleted, it works, but if, for some reason (explained after) I have some files that aren't in the server but exist locally and they were deleted, I want locally to remove them and not server copied (as it happens). Thing is I have 3 machines in context: desktop notebook home-server So, sometimes, server will have files that were deleted with a notebook sync, for example and then, when I run a sync with my desktop (where the deleted server files still exist on) I want these files to be deleted and not to be copied again to the server. I guess this is only possible with a database and track of operations :P Any simple solutions? Thank you.

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  • $.ajax not loading data data everytime from server

    - by Ted
    I have written a simple jQuery.ajax function which loads a user control from the server on click of a button. The first time I click the button, it goes to the server and gets me the user control. But each subsequent click of the same button does not goes to the server to fetch me the user control. Since my user control fetches data from db, I need to reload the user control everytime i hit the button. But if anyhow I get my user control to unload from the page, and re-click the button, it goes to the server and fetches me the user control. Here's the code: $("#btnLoad").click(function() { if ($(this).attr("value") == "Load Control") { $.ajax({ url: "AJAXHandler.ashx", data: { "lt": "loadcontrol" }, dataType: "html", success: function(data) { content.html(data); } }); $(this).attr("value", "Unload Control"); } else { $.ajax({ url: "AJAXHandler.ashx", data: { "lt": "unloadcontrol" }, dataType: "html", success: function(data) { content.html(data); } }); $(this).attr("value", "Load Control"); } }); Please let me know if there is any other way I can get my user control loaded from server everytime I click the button.

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  • Distributed Message Ordering

    - by sbanwart
    I have an architectural question on handling message ordering. For purposes of this question, the transport is irrelevant, so I'm not going to specify one. Say we have three systems, a website, a CRM and an ERP. For this example, the ERP will be the "master" system in terms of data ownership. The website and the CRM can both send a new customer message to the ERP system. The ERP system then adds a customer and publishes the customer with the newly assigned account number so that the website and CRM can add the account number to their local customer records. This is a pretty straight forward process. Next we move on to placing orders. The account number is required in order for the CRM or website to place an order with the ERP system. However the CRM will permit the user to place an order even if the customer lacks an account number. (For this example assume we can't modify the CRM behavior) This creates the possibility that a user could create a new customer, and place an order before the account number gets updated in the CRM. What is the best way to handle this scenario? Would it be best to send the order message sans account number and let it go to an error queue? Would it be better to have the CRM endpoint hold the message and wait until the account number is updated in the CRM? Maybe something completely different that I haven't thought of? Thanks in advance for any help.

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  • Script to add user to MediaWiki

    - by Marquis Wang
    I'm trying to write a script that will create a user in MediaWiki, so that I can run a batch job to import a series of users. I'm using mediawiki-1.12.0. I got this code from a forum, but it doesn't look like it works with 1.12 (it's for 1.13) $name = 'Username'; #Username (MUST start with a capital letter) $pass = 'password'; #Password (plaintext, will be hashed later down) $email = 'email'; #Email (automatically gets confirmed after the creation process) $path = "/path/to/mediawiki"; putenv( "MW_INSTALL_PATH={$path}" ); require_once( "{$path}/includes/WebStart.php" ); $pass = User::crypt( $pass ); $user = User::createNew( $name, array( 'password' => $pass, 'email' => $email ) ); $user->confirmEmail(); $user->saveSettings(); $ssUpdate = new SiteStatsUpdate( 0, 0, 0, 0, 1 ); $ssUpdate->doUpdate(); Thanks!

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  • Powershell 2.0 Hang When Run From MsDeploy pre- post- ops using c/

    - by SonOfNun
    I am trying to invoke powershell during the preSync call in a MSDeploy command, but powershell does not exit the process after it has been called. The command (from command line): "tools/MSDeploy/msdeploy.exe" -verb:sync -preSync:runCommand="powershell.exe -NoLogo -NoProfile -NonInteractive -ExecutionPolicy Unrestricted -Command C:/MyInstallPath/deploy.ps1 Set-WebAppOffline Uninstall-Service ",waitInterval=60000 -usechecksum -source:dirPath="build/for-deployment" -dest:wmsvc=BLUEPRINT-X86,username=deployer,password=deployer,dirPath=C:/MyInstallPath I used a hack here (http://therightstuff.de/2010/02/06/How-We-Practice-Continuous-Integration-And-Deployment-With-MSDeploy.aspx) that gets the powershell process and kills it but that didn't work. I also tried taskkill and the sysinternals equivalent, but nothing will kill the process so that MSDeploy errors out. The command is executed, but then just sits there. Any ideas what might be causing powershell to hang like this? I have found a few other similar issues around the web but no answers. Environment is Win 2K3, using Powershell 2.0. UPDATE: Here is a .vbs script I use to invoke my powershell command now. Invoke using 'cscript.exe path/to/script.vbs': Option Explicit Dim oShell, appCmd,oShellExec Set oShell = CreateObject("WScript.Shell") appCmd = "powershell.exe -NoLogo -NoProfile -NonInteractive -ExecutionPolicy Unrestricted -Command ""&{ . c:/development/materialstesting/deploy/web/deploy.ps1; Set-WebAppOffline }"" " Set oShellExec = oShell.Exec(appCmd) oShellExec.StdIn.Close()

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  • Webbrowser locks first Excel Instance

    - by figus
    VB.NET 2008 - WinForms Hi Everyone! I've been looking for an answer to my problem but I only find more questions related to my problem... The thing is that I'm using a AxWebBrowser control in VB.NET 2008 to open a excel file in a WindowsForm, it opens succesfully and everything... but the problem is this: If I had a Excel File Open before opening another Excel File in my WebBrowser Control, the window that contains the file that was already open gets locked... (I can't give focus to that Excel window... If I click on it, the focus returns to my application) I tried creating a new excel instance with CreateObject("Excel.Application") just before loading the file, but the WebBrowser locks the first Excel Instance... Is there a way to lock it to the last instance??? I use the WebBrowser1.Navigate(Url) method to load the file... where Url is a String like C:\myExcelFile.xlsm WebBrowser1.Document.Application.UserControl is also True, but it get's locked. Any Suggestion?? Thanks in Advance!!!

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  • C# StackOverflowException

    - by KSwift87
    Problem: I am trying to update a List. If a certain item's ID already exists in the List, I want to add onto that item's quantity. If not, then I want to add another item to the list. cart = (List<OrderItem>)Session["cart"]; for(int counter = cart.Count-1; counter >= 0; counter--) { if (cart[counter].productId == item.productId) { cart[counter].productQuantity += item.productQuantity; } else if (counter == 0) { cart.Add(item); } } "cart[counter]" and "item" represent an instance(s) of a custom object of mine. Currently when I finally find a matching ID, everything APPEARS as though it should work, but I get a StackOverflowException thrown in my custom object class. public int productQuantity { get { return _productQuantity; } set { productQuantity = value; } } It gets thrown right at the open-bracket of the "set". Could somebody please tell me what the heck is wrong because I've been going at this for the past 2+ hours to no avail. Thank you in advance.

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  • New to Android: Dynamically changing views

    - by Josiah Kiehl
    I'm trying to learn how to build apps for Android. The first simple app, which will become a component of a bigger app I hope to build, is to have a button on the screen where, when tapped, it adds something new to the view. For instance: Imagine a layout that only has a button: [Create!] When that button, the view gets a new row added to it: [Create!] A Something! Upon subsequent presses, more rows are added [Create!] A Something! A Something! And so on. I've made a LinearLayout and placed the button in it, and have attached a click listener to it. That all works great. What I can't figure out is how to get a handle on the LinearLayout in the onClick function with which I'll addView() the new TextView that says "A Something!" Am I on the right track? What basic thing am I missing? Thanks!

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  • How to Elegantly convert switch+enum with polymorphism

    - by Kyle
    I'm trying to replace simple enums with type classes.. that is, one class derived from a base for each type. So for example instead of: enum E_BASE { EB_ALPHA, EB_BRAVO }; E_BASE message = someMessage(); switch (message) { case EB_ALPHA: applyAlpha(); case EB_BRAVO: applyBravo(); } I want to do this: Base* message = someMessage(); message->apply(this); // use polymorphism to determine what function to call. I have seen many ways to do this which all seem less elegant even then the basic switch statement. Using dyanimc_pointer_cast, inheriting from a messageHandler class that needs to be updated every time a new message is added, using a container of function pointers, all seem to defeat the purpose of making code easier to maintain by replacing switches with polymorphism. This is as close as I can get: (I use templates to avoid inheriting from an all-knowing handler interface) class Base { public: template<typename T> virtual void apply(T* sandbox) = 0; }; class Alpha : public Base { public: template<typename T> virtual void apply(T* sandbox) { sandbox->applyAlpha(); } }; class Bravo : public Base { public: template<typename T> virtual void apply(T* sandbox) { sandbox->applyBravo(); } }; class Sandbox { public: void run() { Base* alpha = new Alpha; Base* bravo = new Bravo; alpha->apply(this); bravo->apply(this); delete alpha; delete bravo; } void applyAlpha() { // cout << "Applying alpha\n"; } void applyBravo() { // cout << "Applying bravo\n"; } }; Obviously, this doesn't compile but I'm hoping it gets my problem accross.

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  • Refreshing Facebook session from an iframe application

    - by zombat
    I've got a Facebook iframe application that is completely external. By this I mean that once a user accesses the canvas URL to load the application, all the links in the iframe app go to my servers, and the canvas page never gets refreshed unless the user navigates to somewhere else on Facebook and comes back (or does a browser refresh). On the initial load of the app where Facebook creates the iframe, I get passed all the usual parameters like fb_sig_user which allows me to create an internal app session based on the facebook user. This app session (which is not the Facebook session, it's my own app session) is all I need to allow the user to work with the app. The problem comes an hour later. If the user leaves the computer, or uses the app for more than an hour, the Facebook session expires. There are some app pages which require fetching friend information, and once the FB session has expired, these pages break, throwing out errors such as "Error: Session key invalid or no longer valid". My question is whether there is a way to refresh the user's Facebook session from within an iframe application to keep it from expiring an hour later. Do any of the API calls do this? Is there a Facebook Connect trick to ping something? Is there any definitive method to keep it alive? I haven't been able to find any examples that specifically address this.

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  • What's your preferred pointer declaration style, and why?

    - by Owen
    I know this is about as bad as it gets for "religious" issues, as Jeff calls them. But I want to know why the people who disagree with me on this do so, and hear their justification for their horrific style. I googled for a while and couldn't find a style guide talking about this. So here's how I feel pointers (and references) should be declared: int* pointer = NULL; int& ref = *pointer; int*& pointer_ref = pointer; The asterisk or ampersand goes with the type, because it modifies the type of the variable being declared. EDIT: I hate to keep repeating the word, but when I say it modifies the type I'm speaking semantically. "int* something;" would translate into English as something like "I declare something, which is a pointer to an integer." The "pointer" goes along with the "integer" much more so than it does with the "something." In contrast, the other uses of the ampersand and asterisk, as address-of and dereferencing operators, act on a variable. Here are the other two styles (maybe there are more but I really hope not): int *ugly_but_common; int * uglier_but_fortunately_less_common; Why? Really, why? I can never think of a case where the second is appropriate, and the first only suitable perhaps with something like: int *hag, *beast; But come now... multiple variable declarations on one line is kind of ugly form in itself already.

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  • Cocoa Drag and Drop, reading back the data

    - by kodai
    Ok, I have a NSOutlineView set up, and I want it to capture PDF's if a pdf is dragged into the NSOutlineView. My first question, I have the following code: [outlineView registerForDraggedTypes:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:NSStringPboardType, NSFilenamesPboardType, nil]]; In all the apple Docs and examples I've seen I've also seen something like MySupportedType being an object registered for dragging. What does this mean? Do I change the code to be: [outlineView registerForDraggedTypes:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"pdf", NSStringPboardType, NSFilenamesPboardType, nil]]; Currently I have it set up to recognize drag and drop, and I can even make it spit out the URL of the dragged file once the drag is accepted, however, this leads me to my second question. I want to keep a copy of those PDF's app side. I suppose, and correct me if I'm wrong, that the best way to do this is to grab the data off the clipboard, save it in some persistant store, and that's that. (as apposed to using some sort of copy command and literally copying the file to the app director.) That being said, I'm not sure how to do that. I've the code: - (BOOL)outlineView:(NSOutlineView *)ov acceptDrop:(id <NSDraggingInfo>)info item:(id)item childIndex:(NSInteger)childIndex { NSPasteboard *pboard = [info draggingPasteboard]; NSURL *fileURL; if ( [[pboard types] containsObject:NSURLPboardType] ) { fileURL = [NSURL URLFromPasteboard:pboard]; // Perform operation using the file’s URL } NSData *data = [pboard dataForType:@"NSPasteboardTypePDF"]; But this never actually gets any data. Like I said before, it does get the URL, just not the data. Does anyone have any advise on how to get this going? Thanks so much!

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  • Unable to change URL for .NET reference to dynamic web service

    - by Malvineous
    Hi all, I have a web reference added to a C# .NET project. The URL for the web reference needs to change depending on whether I'm building for a development, staging or production environment. I've set the web service to be dynamic, which supposedly means it takes the URL from my app.config file. When I perform a build it overwrites the app.config with the required file which contains the correct URL (different file for each of dev/staging/production.) I then go into the solution properties and make sure the Settings.settings file is updated with the app.config changes. However when I view the properties for the web service, it is still showing the old URL, despite it being dynamic, and supposed to be reading from my settings file (even after closing and reopening the project/solution.) The app.config and the settings file all have the new URL, but the web reference doesn't notice it has changed. If I do a build it ignores the URL in the settings file and tries to connect to the last URL manually typed into the web reference's properties. Typing a URL into these properties correctly updates the app.config and .settings files, so the link is definitely there. I'm a bit new to .NET but it seems to me the purpose of setting the service to be dynamic is so that you can change the URL elsewhere, but when I do this it just gets ignored! Am I doing something wrong?

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