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• magento payment process.. how it works in general

  - by spirytus

  hi everyone, got a question and I hope this is right place to ask :).. don’t quite understand how payment works in magento. client goes to checkout and lets say wants to pay as a guest, so provides address etc. and finally gets to payment methods. Then I want clients to pay thru credit card. Already have module installed for gateway (bank?) of my choice. At that point I would expect users to be redirected to 3rd party page (bank hosted) where they giving all the details, only after being returned to my magento site with appropriate message. In magento however it seems like they need to provide cc numbers and details on magento checkout page. I don’t understand if I (or the payment module I installed) need to transfer then all the credit card details to bank? I would have to have checkout page on ssl connection and static ip right? The thing is I want to avoid touching CC numbers at any point and would love to have it done by a bank page. I like the idea of magento interface all the way without redirecting to another page though, the only problem is not sure if would be able to set it all up properly. If anyone could explain to me possible options, what is the common way to do it and how the whole process works that would be very much appreciated. I did my research and looked all over google and various forums still need someones help though. Please let me know if some parts of my question are not quite clear, will try to better explain if necessary.

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• PostMessage does not seem to be working.

  - by Vaccano

  I am trying to use PostMessage to send a tab key. Here is my code: // This class allows us to send a tab key when the the enter key // is pressed for the mooseworks mask control. public class MaskKeyControl : MaskedEdit { // [DllImport("coredll.dll", SetLastError = true, CharSet = CharSet.Auto)] // static extern IntPtr SendMessage(IntPtr hWnd, UInt32 Msg, Int32 wParam, Int32 lParam); [return: MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.Bool)] // I am calling this on a Windows Mobile device so the dll is coredll.dll [DllImport("coredll.dll", SetLastError = true)] static extern bool PostMessage(IntPtr hWnd, uint Msg, Int32 wParam, Int32 lParam); public const Int32 VK_TAB = 0x09; public const Int32 WM_KEYDOWN = 0x100; protected override void OnKeyDown(KeyEventArgs e) { if (e.KeyData == Keys.Enter) { PostMessage(this.Handle, WM_KEYDOWN, VK_TAB, 0); return; } base.OnKeyDown(e); } protected override void OnKeyPress(KeyPressEventArgs e) { if (e.KeyChar == '\r') e.Handled = true; base.OnKeyPress(e); } } When I press enter the code gets called, but nothing happens. Then I press TAB and it works fine. (So there is something wrong with my sending of the Tab Message.)

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• Disposing underlying object from finalizer in an immutable object

  - by Juan Luis Soldi

  I'm trying to wrap around Awesomium and make it look to the rest of my code as close as possible to NET's WebBrowser since this is for an existing application that already uses the WebBrowser. In this library, there is a class called JSObject which represents a javascript object. You can get one of this, for instance, by calling the ExecuteJavascriptWithResult method of the WebView class. If you'd call it like myWebView.ExecuteJavascriptWithResult("document", string.Empty).ToObject(), then you'd get a JSObject that represents the document. I'm writing an immutable class (it's only field is a readonly JSObject object) called JSObjectWrap that wraps around JSObject which I want to use as base class for other classes that would emulate .NET classes such as HtmlElement and HtmlDocument. Now, these classes don't implement Dispose, but JSObject does. What I first thought was to call the underlying JSObject's Dispose method in my JSObjectWrap's finalizer (instead of having JSObjectWrap implement Dispose) so that the rest of my code can stay the way it is (instead of having to add using's everywhere and make sure every JSObjectWrap is being properly disposed). But I just realized if more than two JSObjectWrap's have the same underlying JSObject and one of them gets finalized this will mess up the other JSObjectWrap. So now I'm thinking maybe I should keep a static Dictionary of JSObjects and keep count of how many of each of them are being referenced by a JSObjectWrap but this sounds messy and I think could cause major performance issues. Since this sounds to me like a common pattern I wonder if anyone else has a better idea.

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• how to parametrize an import in a View?

  - by Gianluca Colucci

  Hello everybody, I am looking for some help and I hope that some good soul out there will be able to give me a hint :) In the app I am building, I have a View. When an instance of this View gets created, it "imports" (MEF) the corresponding ViewModel. Here some code: public partial class ContractEditorView : Window { public ContractEditorView () { InitializeComponent(); CompositionInitializer.SatisfyImports(this); } [Import(ViewModelTypes.ContractEditorViewModel)] public object ViewModel { set { DataContext = value; } } } and here is the export for the ViewModel: [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] [Export(ViewModelTypes.ContractEditorViewModel)] public class ContractEditorViewModel: ViewModelBase { public ContractEditorViewModel() { _contract = new Models.Contract(); } } Now, this works if I want to open a new window to create a new contract... But it does not if I want to use the same window to edit an existing contract... In other words, I would like to add a second construct both in the View and in the ViewModel: the original constructor would accept no parameters and therefore it would create a new contract; the new construct - the one I'd like to add - I'd like to pass an ID so that I can load a given entity... What I don't understand is how to pass this ID to the ViewModel import... Thanks in advance, Cheers, Gianluca.

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• Problem with Spring security's logout

  - by uther-lightbringer

  Hello, I've got a problem logging out in Spring framework. First when I want j_spring_security_logout to handle it for me i get 404 j_spring_security_logout not found: sample-security.xml: <http> <intercept-url pattern="/messageList.htm*" access="ROLE_USER,ROLE_GUEST" /> <intercept-url pattern="/messagePost.htm*" access="ROLE_USER" /> <intercept-url pattern="/messageDelete.htm*" access="ROLE_ADMIN" /> <form-login login-page="/login.jsp" default-target-url="/messageList.htm" authentication-failure-url="/login.jsp?error=true" /> <logout/> </http> Sample url link to logout in JSP page: <a href="<c:url value="/j_spring_security_logout" />">Logout</a> When i try to use a custom JSP page i.e. I use login form for this purpose then I get better result at least it gets to login page, but another problem is that you dont't get logged off as you can diretcly type url that should be guarded buy you get past it anyway. Slightly modified from previous listings: <http> <intercept-url pattern="/messageList.htm*" access="ROLE_USER,ROLE_GUEST" /> <intercept-url pattern="/messagePost.htm*" access="ROLE_USER" /> <intercept-url pattern="/messageDelete.htm*" access="ROLE_ADMIN" /> <form-login login-page="/login.jsp" default-target-url="/messageList.htm" authentication-failure-url="/login.jsp?error=true" /> <logout logout-success-url="/login.jsp" /> </http> <a href="<c:url value="/login.jsp" />">Logout</a> Thank you for help

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• Jquery - binding click event to a variable

  - by Kayote

  All, I am really stuck/ confused at this point. I have an array with 6 items in it. Each item in the array is dynamically filled with elements using jquery '.html' method. However, I cannot seem to be able to attach/ bind an event to this dynamically created variable. As soon as the browser gets to the problem line (see the area labeled 'PROBLEM AREA'), I get a 'undefined' error, which is really confusing as all the previous code on the very same variable works just fine. var eCreditSystem = document.getElementById("creditSystem"); var i = 0; var eCreditT = new Array(6); // 6 members created which will be recycled function createCreditTransaction () // func called when a transaction occurs, at the mo, attached to onclick() { if (i < 6) { eCreditT[i] = undefined; // to delete the existing data in the index of array addElements (i); } else if (i > 5 || eCreditT[i] != undefined) { ... } } function addElements (arrayIndex) // func called from within the 'createCreditTransaction()' func { eCreditT[i] = $(document.createElement('div')).addClass("cCreditTransaction").appendTo(eCreditSystem); $(eCreditT[i]).attr ('id', ('trans' + i)); $(eCreditT[i]).html ('<div class="cCreditContainer"><span class="cCreditsNo">-50</span>&nbsp;<img class="cCurrency" src="" alt="" /></div><span class="cCloseMsg">Click box to close.</span><div class="dots"></div><div class="dots"></div><div class="dots"></div>'); creditTransactionSlideOut (eCreditT[i], 666); // calling slideOut animation console.log(eCreditT[i]); // this confirms that the variable is not undefined /* ***** THE PROBLEM AREA ***** */ $(eCreditT[i]).on ('click', function () // if user clicks on the transaction box { creditTransactionSlideBackIn (eCreditT[i], 150); // slide back in animation }); return i++; }

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• Dumping an ADODB recordset to XML, then back to a recordset, then saving to the db

  - by Mark Biek

  I've created an XML file using the .Save() method of an ADODB recordset in the following manner. dim res dim objXML: Set objXML = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") 'This returns an ADODB recordset set res = ExecuteReader("SELECT * from some_table) With res Call .Save(objXML, 1) Call .Close() End With Set res = nothing Let's assume that the XML generated above then gets saved to a file. I'm able to read the XML back into a recordset like this: dim res : set res = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") res.open server.mappath("/admin/tbl_some_table.xml") And I can loop over the records without any problem. However what I really want to do is save all of the data in res to a table in a completely different database. We can assume that some_table already exists in this other database and has the exact same structure as the table I originally queried to make the XML. I started by creating a new recordset and using AddNew to add all of the rows from res to the new recordset dim outRes : set outRes = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") dim outConn : set outConn = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") dim testConnStr : testConnStr = "DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=dev-windows\sql2000;UID=myuser;PWD=mypass;DATABASE=Testing" outConn.open testConnStr outRes.activeconnection = outConn outRes.cursortype = adOpenDynamic outRes.locktype = adLockOptimistic outRes.source = "product_accessories" outRes.open while not res.eof outRes.addnew for i=0 to res.fields.count-1 outRes(res.fields(i).name) = res(res.fields(i).name) next outRes.movefirst res.movenext wend outRes.updatebatch But this bombs the first time I try to assign the value from res to outRes. Microsoft OLE DB Provider for ODBC Drivers error '80040e21' Multiple-step OLE DB operation generated errors. Check each OLE DB status value, if available. No work was done. Can someone tell me what I'm doing wrong or suggest a better way for me to copy the data loaded from XML to a different database?

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• Using max-width = 100% and max-height = 100% on an image, calculate the display width/height

  - by NatalieMac

  I am creating a slideshow for images of various sizes to display centered vertically and horizontally within a canvas area. In my CSS, I set the width and height of the image to 100% so that each image would proportionally fill the canvas. I want the canvas to auto-size itself to fit within the viewer's screensize as the original size of the images is quite large (up to 800 pixels tall). I am using jQuery 1.4, and using the height of the image to calculate the top value for absolute positioning it to the middle of the canvas. I have tried using jQuery to get the .height(), innerHeight(), and outerHeight(), but it always gets the full size of the image. I extracted the DOM element from the jQuery object and tried using .width, .offsetWidth, and .clientWidth, but that too always seems to return the full size of the image. Firebug displays the correct dimensions, so I know there's some way of calculating the actual display height of the image, I just can't figure out what it is. How do you get the actual display height of an image if you've set max-height = 100%? I didn't want to have to calculate and set the height of each image in the js, but if I have to, I will. It just seems like I should be able to set the canvas size and have the images auto-adjust.

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• Zend_Form using subforms getValues() problem

  - by wiseguydigital

  Hi all, I am building a form in Zend Framework 1.9 using subforms as well as Zend_JQuery being enabled on those forms. The form itself is fine and all the error checking etc is working as normal. But the issue I am having is that when I'm trying to retrieve the values in my controller, I'm receiving just the form entry for the last subform e.g. My master form class (abbreviated for speed): Master_Form extends Zend_Form { public function init() { ZendX_JQuery::enableForm($this); $this->setAction('actioninhere') ... ->setAttrib('id', 'mainForm') $sub_one = new Form_One(); $sub_one->setDecorators(... in here I add the jQuery as per the docs); $this->addSubForm($sub_one, 'form-one'); $sub_two = new Form_Two(); $sub_two->setDecorators(... in here I add the jQuery as per the docs); $this->addSubForm($sub_two, 'form-two'); } } So that all works as it should in the display and when I submit without filling in the required values, the correct errors are returned. However, in my controller I have this: class My_Controller extends Zend_Controller_Action { public function createAction() { $request = $this->getRequest(); $form = new Master_Form(); if ($request->isPost()) { if ($form->isValid($request->getPost()) { // This is where I am having the problems print_r($form->getValues()); } } } } When I submit this and it gets past isValid(), the $form-getValues() is only returning the elements from the second subform, not the entire form.

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• SQL2008 merge replication fails to update depdendent items when table is added

  - by Dan Puzey

  Setup: an existing SQL2008 merge replication scenario. A large server database, including views and stored procs, being replicated to client machines. What I'm doing: * adding a new table to the database * mark the new table for replication (using SP_AddMergeArticle) * alter a view (which is already part of the replicated content) is updated to include fields from this new table (which is joined to the tables in the existing view). A stored procedure is similarly updated. The problem: the table gets replicated to client machines, but the view is not updated. The stored procedure is also not updated. Non-useful workaround: if I run the snapshot agent after calling SP_AddMergeArticle and before updating the view/SP, both the view and the stored procedure changes correctly replicate to the client. The bigger problem: I'm running a list of database scripts in a transaction, as part of a larger process. The snapshot agent can't be run during a transaction, and if I interrupt the transaction (e.g. by running the scripts in multiple transactions), I lose the ability to roll back the changes should something fail. Does anyone have any suggestions? It seems like I must be missing something obvious, because I don't see why the changes to the view/sproc wouldn't be replicating anyway, regardless of what's going on with the new table.

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• Using JQuery with dynamically added controls (MVC)

  - by Mario

  I have a set of radio buttons that are dynamically generated (via JSON call): StringBuilder sbEligAll = new StringBuilder(); sbEligAll.Append("<div id='currentselectiondepartment'>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radCurrent' value='0' /><label for='radCurrent'>Current</label>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radFuture' value='1' /><label for='radFuture'>Future</label>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radCurrentAll' value='2' /><label for='radCurrentAll'>Current All</label>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radFutureAll' value='3' /><label for='radFutureAll'>Future All</label>"); sbEligAll.Append("</div>"); Then: return Json(new { TableList = sbElig.ToString() }, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet); Is there a way to get jQuery to be able to interact with these? For example: $("input[name=selectalldepartment]").change(function() { var str = $('input[name=selectalldepartment]:checked').val(); $(".radiolist[value='" + str + "']").attr("checked", true); }); I've tried everything I know how to do, but the jQuery just doesnt fire. (I've added alerts to the jQuery code to see if it actually gets called, and it does not). Any thoughts?! Thanks!

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• [iPhone] UIScrollView notifications

  - by ryyst

  Hi, I'm coding an app that works much like Apple's Weather.app: There's a UIPageControl at the bottom and a UIScrollView in the middle of the screen. In my code, I implemented the - (void)scrollViewDidEndDecelerating:(UIScrollView *)scrollView method to figure out when the user did move to a new page. If they move to a new page, I load the adjacent pages' data, as to make further page-switching faster. (In one of Apple's examples, the - (void)scrollViewDidScroll:(UIScrollView *)sender is used, but that causes my app to shortly hang when loading a new page, so it's not suitable.) That code works very well. I'm using scrollRectToVisible:: to programmatically scroll inside the scrollview when the user clicks the UIPageControl. The problem is that the scrollRectToVisible: doesn't post a notification to the UIScrollViewDelegate when it's done scrolling - so the code responsible for loading adjacent pages never get's called when using the UIPageControl. Is there any way to make the UIScrollView notify its delegate when it gets called by the scrollRectToVisible: method? Or will I have to use threads in order to prevent my app from freezing? Thanks! -- Ry

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• check whether mmap'ed address is correct

  - by reddot

  I'm writing a high-loaded daemon that should be run on the FreeBSD 8.0 and on Linux as well. The main purpose of daemon is to pass files that are requested by their identifier. Identifier is converted into local filename/file size via request to db. And then I use sequential mmap() calls to pass file blocks with send(). However sometimes there are mismatch of filesize in db and filesize on filesystem (realsize < size in db). In this situation I've sent all real data blocks and when next data block is mapped -- mmap returns no errors, just usual address (I've checked errno variable also, it's equal to zero after mmap). And when daemon tries to send this block it gets Segmentation Fault. (This behaviour is guarantedly issued on FreeBSD 8.0 amd64) I was using safe check before open to ensure size with stat() call. However real life shows to me that segfault still can be raised in rare situtaions. So, my question is there a way to check whether pointer is accessible before dereferencing it? When I've opened core in gdb, gdb says that given address is out of bound. Probably there is another solution somebody can propose.

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• How do I DYNAMICALLY cast in C# and return for a property

  - by ken-forslund

  I've already read threads on the topic, but can't find a solution that fits. I'm working on a drop-down list that takes an enum and uses that to populate itself. i found a VB.NET one. During the porting process, I discovered that it uses DirectCast() to set the type as it returns the SelectedValue. See the original VB here: http://jeffhandley.com/archive/2008/01/27/enum-list-dropdown-control.aspx the gist is, the control has Type _enumType; //gets set when the datasource is set and is the type of the specific enum The SelectedValue property kind of looks like (remember, it doesn't work): public Enum SelectedValue //Shadows Property { get { // Get the value from the request to allow for disabled viewstate string RequestValue = this.Page.Request.Params[this.UniqueID]; return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; } set { base.SelectedValue = value.ToString(); } } Now this touches on a core point that I think was missed in the other discussions. In darn near every example, folks argued that DirectCast wasn't needed, because in every example, they statically defined the type. That's not the case here. As the programmer of the control, I don't know the type. Therefore, I can't cast it. Additionally, the following examples of lines won't compile because c# casting doesn't accept a variable. Whereas VB's CType and DirectCast can accept Type T as a function parameter: return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true); or return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; or return (_enumType)Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) ; or return Convert.ChangeType(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true), _enumType); or return CastTo<_enumType>(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true)); So, any ideas on a solution? What's the .NET 3.5 best way to resolve this?

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• iPhone and OpenCV

  - by gn-mithun

  Hello, I am writing an application to create a movie file from a bunch of images on an iPhone. I am using OpenCv. I downloaded openCv static libraries for arm(iPhones native instruction architecture) and the libraries were generated just fine. There were no problems linking to them libraries. As a first step, i was trying to create a .avi file using one image, to see if it works. But cvCreateVideoWriter always returns me a NULL value. I did some searchin and i believe its due to the codec not being present. I am trying this on the iPhone simulator. this is what i do... (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; UIImage *anImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"1.jpg"]; IplImage *img_color = [self CreateIplImageFromUIImage:anImage]; //The image gets created just fine CvVideoWriter *writer = cvCreateVideoWriter("out.avi",CV_FOURCC('P','I','M','1'), 25,cvSize(320,480),1); //writer is always null int result = cvWriteFrame(writer, img_color); NSLog(@"\n%d",result); //hence this is also 0 all the time cvReleaseVideoWriter(&writer); } I am not sure about the the second parameter. What sort of codec or what exactly it does... I am a n00B in this. Any suggestions?

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• Winsock tcp/ip Socket listening but connection refused, race condition?

  - by Wayne

  Hello folks. This involves two automated unit tests which each start up a tcp/ip server that creates a non-blocking socket then bind()s and listen()s in a loop on select() for a client that connects and downloads some data. The catch is that they work perfectly when run separately but when run as a test suite, the second test client will fail to connect with WSACONNREFUSED... UNLESS there is a Thread.Sleep() of several seconds between them??!!! Interestingly, there is retry loop every 1 second for connecting after any failure. So the second test loops for a while until timeout after 10 minutes. During that time, netstat -na shows the correct port number is in the LISTEN state for the server socket. So if it is in the listen state? Why won't it accept the connection? In the code, there are log messages that show the select NEVER even gets a socket ready to read (which means ready to accept a connection when it applies to a listening socket). Obviously the problem must be related to some race condition between finishing one test which means close() and shutdown() on each end of the socket, and the start up of the next. This wouldn't be so bad if the retry logic allowed it to connect eventually after a couple of seconds. However it seems to get "gummed up" and won't even retry. However, for some strange reason the listening socket SAYS it's in the LISTEN state even through keeps refusing connections. So that means it's the Windoze O/S which is actually catching the SYN packet and returning a RST packet (which means "Connection Refused"). The only other time I ever saw this error was when the code had a problem that caused hundreds of sockets to get stuck in TIME_WAIT state. But that's not the case here. netstat shows only about a dozen sockets with only 1 or 2 in TIME_WAIT at any given moment. Please help.

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• COM-Objects containing maps / content error(0)

  - by Florian Berzsenyi

  I'm writing a small wrapper to get familiar with some important topics in C++ (WinAPI, COM, STL,OOP). For now, my class shall be able to create a (child) window. Mainly, this window is connected to a global message loop that distribute messages to a local loop of the right instance (global is static, local is virtual). Obviously, there are surely better ways to do that but I'm using std::maps to store HWND and their instance pointer in pairs (the Global loop looks for the pointer with the HWND-parameter, gets itself the pointer from the map and calls then the local loop). Now, it appears that the map does not accept any values because of a unknown reason. It seems to allocate enough space but something went wrong anyway [ (error) 0 is displayed instead of the entries in visual C++). I've looked that up in google as well and found out that maps cause some trouble when used in classes AND DLLs. May this be the reason and is there any solution?? Protected scope of class: static std::map<HWND,MAP_BASE_OBJECT*> m_LoopBuf Implementation in .cpp-file: std::map<HWND,MAP_BASE_OBJECT*> HWindow::m_LoopBuf;

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• PHP Session data not being saved

  - by Crackerjack

  I have one of those "I swear I didn't touch the server" situations. I honestly didn't touch any of the php scripts. The problem I am having is that php data is not being saved across different pages or page refreshes. I know a new session is being created correctly because I can set a session variable (e.g. $_SESSION['foo'] = "foo" and print it back out on the same page just fine. But when I try to use that same variable on another page it is not set! Is there any php functions or information I can use on my hosts server to see what is going on? Here is an example script that does not work on my hosts' server as of right now: <?php session_start(); if(isset($_SESSION['views'])) $_SESSION['views'] = $_SESSION['views']+ 1; else $_SESSION['views'] = 1; echo "views = ". $_SESSION['views']; echo '<p><a href="page1.php">Refresh</a></p>'; ?> The 'views' variable never gets incremented after doing a page refresh. I'm thinking this is a problem on their side, but I wanted to make sure I'm not a complete idiot first. Here is the phpinfo() for my hosts' server (PHP Version 4.4.7):

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• Spring MVC- several parts/views from a controller

  - by leeeroy

  i'm looking into using Spring MVC - how would I structure the fact that a page can be composed of several different views Consider a controller that's basically: public ModelAndView handleRequest(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { List<Post> posts = repository.getNewPosts(); return new ModelAndView("posts", "posts", posts); } However, I decide that on every page, I'd also want a side "pane" that shows data based on some logic. That "pane" would just be a .jsp that gets included from the above "posts" view, and I could change my controller to: public ModelAndView handleRequest(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { List<Post> posts = repository.getNewPosts(); List<Items> items= repository.getItems(); return new ModelAndView("model", "model", new MyCommonViewModel(posts,items)); } But then I'd have to change every controller to also do List<Items> items= repository.getItems(); , and change everything again the next time I come up with something new. This seems messy. How do I structure this ? `

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• ajax to php to curl and back..

  - by pfunc

  I am trying to make an ajax call to a php script. The php script calls an rss feed using curl, gets the data, and returns the data to the funciton. I keep getting an error "Warning: Wrong parameter count for curl_error() in" .... Here is my php code:1 $ch = curl_init() or die(curl_error()); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $feed); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); $data1 = curl_exec($ch) or die(curl_error()); echo $data1; and the ajax call: $.ajax({ url: "getSingleFeed.php", type: "POST", data: "feedURL=" + window.feedURL, success: function(feed){ alert(feed); }}); I tested all the variables, they are being passed correctly, I can echo them out. But this line: $data1 = curl_exec($ch) or die(curl_error()); is what is giving me the error. I am doing the same thing with curl on other pages, just without ajax, and it is working fine. Is there anything special I need to do with ajax to do this?

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• Entity Framework - Insert/Update new entity with child-entities

  - by Christina Mayers

  I have found many questions here on SO and articles all over the internet but none really tackled my problem. My model looks like this (I striped all non essential Properties): Everyday or so "Play" gets updated (via a XML-file containing the information). internal Play ParsePlayInfo(XDocument doc) { Play play = (from p in doc.Descendants("Play") select new Play { Theatre = new Theatre() { //Properties }, //Properties LastUpdate = DateTime.Now }).SingleOrDefault(); var actors = (from a in doc.XPathSelectElement(".//Play//Actors").Nodes() select new Lecturer() { //Properties }); var parts = (from p in doc.XPathSelectElement(".//Play//Parts").Nodes() select new Part() { //Properties }).ToList(); foreach (var item in parts) { play.Parts.Add(item); } var reviews = (from r in doc.XPathSelectElement(".//Play//Reviews").Nodes() select new Review { //Properties }).ToList(); for (int i = 0; i < reviews.Count(); i++) { PlayReviews pR = new PlayReviews() { Review = reviews[i], Play = play, //Properties }; play.PlayReviews.Add(pR); } return play; } If I add this "play" via Add() every Childobject of Play will be inserted - regardless if some exist already. Since I need to update existing entries I have to do something about that. As far as I can tell I have the following options: add/update the child entities in my PlayRepositories Add-Method restructure and rewrite ParsePlayInfo() so that get all the child entities first, add or update them and then create a new Play. The only problem I have here is that I wanted ParsePlayInfo() to be persistence ignorant, I could work around this by creating multiple parse methods (eg ParseActors() ) and assign them to play in my controller (I'm using ASP.net MVC) after everything was parsed and added Currently I am implementing option 1 - but it feels wrong. I'd appreciate it if someone could guide me in the right direction on this one.

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• Strange GWT serialization exception when overiding method of serialized object

  - by Flueras Bogdan

  Hi there! I have a GWT serializable class, lets call it Foo. Foo implements IsSerializable, has primitive and serializable members as well as other transient members and a no-arg constructor. class Foo implements IsSerializable { // transient members // primitive members public Foo() {} public void bar() {} } Also a Service which handles RPC comunication. // server code public interface MyServiceImpl { public void doStuff(Foo foo); } public interface MyServiceAsync { void doStuff(Foo foo, AsyncCallback<Void> async); } How i use this: private MyServiceAsync myService = GWT.create(MyService.class); Foo foo = new Foo(); ... AsyncCallback callback = new new AsyncCallback {...}; myService.doStuff(foo, callback); In the above case the code is running, and the onSuccess() method of callback instance gets executed. But when I override the bar() method on foo instance like this: Foo foo = new Foo() { public void bar() { //do smthng different } } AsyncCallback callback = new new AsyncCallback {...}; myService.doStuff(foo, callback); I get the GWT SerializationException. Please enlighten me, because I really don't understand why.

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• Difference in F# and Clojure when calling redefined functions

  - by Michiel Borkent

  In F#: > let f x = x + 2;; val f : int -> int > let g x = f x;; val g : int -> int > g 10;; val it : int = 12 > let f x = x + 3;; val f : int -> int > g 10;; val it : int = 12 In Clojure: 1:1 user=> (defn f [x] (+ x 2)) #'user/f 1:2 user=> (defn g [x] (f x)) #'user/g 1:3 user=> (g 10) 12 1:4 user=> (defn f [x] (+ x 3)) #'user/f 1:5 user=> (g 10) 13 Note that in Clojure the most recent version of f gets called in the last line. In F# however still the old version of f is called. Why is this and how does this work?

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• Trying to insert a row using stored procedured with a parameter binded to an expression.

  - by Arvind Singh

  Environment: asp.net 3.5 (C# and VB) , Ms-sql server 2005 express Tables Table:tableUser ID (primary key) username Table:userSchedule ID (primary key) thecreator (foreign key = tableUser.ID) other fields I have created a procedure that accepts a parameter username and gets the userid and inserts a row in Table:userSchedule Problem: Using stored procedure with datalist control to only fetch data from the database by passing the current username using statement below works fine protected void SqlDataSourceGetUserID_Selecting(object sender, SqlDataSourceSelectingEventArgs e) { e.Command.Parameters["@CurrentUserName"].Value = Context.User.Identity.Name; } But while inserting using DetailsView it shows error Procedure or function OASNewSchedule has too many arguments specified. I did use protected void SqlDataSourceCreateNewSchedule_Selecting(object sender, SqlDataSourceSelectingEventArgs e) { e.Command.Parameters["@CreatedBy"].Value = Context.User.Identity.Name; } DetailsView properties: autogen fields: off, default mode: insert, it shows all the fields that may not be expected by the procedure like ID (primary key) not required in procedure and CreatedBy (user id ) field . So I tried removing the 2 fields from detailsview and shows error Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'CreatedBy', table 'D:\OAS\OAS\APP_DATA\ASPNETDB.MDF.dbo.OASTest'; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails. The statement has been terminated. For some reason parameters value is not being set. Can anybody bother to understand this and help?

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• Has form post behavior changed in modern browsers? (or How are double clicks handled by the browser)

  - by Alex Czarto

  Background: We are in the process of writing a registration/payment page, and our philosophy was to code all validation and error checking on the server side first, and then add client side validation as a second step (un-obstructive jQuery). We wanted to disable double clicks server side, so we wrote some locking, thread-safe code to handle simultaneous posts/race conditions. When we tried to test this, we realized that we could not cause a simultaneous post or race condition to occur. I thought that (in older browsers anyway) double clicking a submit button worked as follows: User double clicks submit button. Browser sends a post on the first click On the second click, browser cancels/ignores initial post, and initiates a second post (before the first post has returned with a response). Browser waits for second post to return, ignoring initial post response. I thought that from the server side it looked like this: Server gets two simultaneous post requests, executes and responds to them both (unaware that no one is listening to the first response). From our testing (FireFox 3.0, IE 8.0) this is what actually happens: User double clicks submit button Browser sends a post for the first click Browser queues up second click, but waits for the response from the first click. Response returns from first click (response is ignored?). Browser sends a post for the second click. So from a server side: Server receives a single post which it executes and responds to. Then, server receives a second request wich it executes and responds to. My question is, has this always worked this way (and I'm losing my mind)? Or is this a new feature in modern browsers that prevents simultaneous posts to be sent to the server? It seems that for server side double click prevention, we don't have to worry about simultaneous posts or race conditions. Only need to worry about queued up posts. Thanks in advance for any feedback / comments. Alex

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