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  • GCC/X86, Problems with relative jumps

    - by Ian Kelly
    I'm trying to do a relative jump in x86 assembly, however I can not get it to work. It seems that for some reason my jump keeps getting rewritten as an absolute jump or something. A simple example program for what I'm trying to do is this: .global main main: jmp 0x4 ret Since the jmp instruction is 4 bytes long and a relative jump is offset from the address of the jump + 1, this should be a fancy no-op. However, compiling and running this code will cause a segmentation fault. The real puzzler for me is that compiling it to the object level and then disassembling the object file shows that it looks like the assembler is correctly doing a relative jump, but after the file gets compiled the linker is changing it into another type of jump. For example if the above code was in a file called asmtest.s: $gcc -c asmtest.s $objdump -D asmtest.o ... Some info from objdump 00000000 <main>: 0: e9 00 00 00 00 jmp 5 <main+0x5> 5: c3 ret This looks like the assembler correctly made a relative jump, although it's suspicious that the jmp instruction is filled with 0s. I then used gcc to link it then disassembled it and got this: $gcc -o asmtest asmtest.o $objdump -d asmtest ...Extra info and other disassembled functions 08048394 <main>: 8048394: e9 6b 7c fb f7 jmp 4 <_init-0x8048274> 8048399: c3 ret This to me looks like the linker rewrote the jmp statement, or substituted the 5 in for another address. So my question comes down to, what am I doing wrong? Am I specifying the offset incorrectly? Am I misunderstanding how relative jumps work? Is gcc trying to make sure I don't do dangerous things in my code?

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  • PHP Session data not being saved

    - by Crackerjack
    I have one of those "I swear I didn't touch the server" situations. I honestly didn't touch any of the php scripts. The problem I am having is that php data is not being saved across different pages or page refreshes. I know a new session is being created correctly because I can set a session variable (e.g. $_SESSION['foo'] = "foo" and print it back out on the same page just fine. But when I try to use that same variable on another page it is not set! Is there any php functions or information I can use on my hosts server to see what is going on? Here is an example script that does not work on my hosts' server as of right now: <?php session_start(); if(isset($_SESSION['views'])) $_SESSION['views'] = $_SESSION['views']+ 1; else $_SESSION['views'] = 1; echo "views = ". $_SESSION['views']; echo '<p><a href="page1.php">Refresh</a></p>'; ?> The 'views' variable never gets incremented after doing a page refresh. I'm thinking this is a problem on their side, but I wanted to make sure I'm not a complete idiot first. Here is the phpinfo() for my hosts' server (PHP Version 4.4.7):

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  • Regexp that matches user-agents of end-user browsers but NOT crawlers with >90 % accuracy

    - by knorv
    I'm trying to construct a regexp that will evaluate to true for User-Agent:s of "browsers navigated by humans", but false for bots. Needless to say the matching will not be exact, but if it gets things right in say 90 % of cases that is more than good enough. My approach so far is to target the User-Agent string of the the five major desktop browsers (MSIE, Firefox, Chrome, Safari, Opera). Specifically I want the regexp NOT to match if the user-agent is a bot (Googlebot, msnbot, etc.). Currently I'm using the following regexp which appears to achieve the desired precision: ^(Mozilla.*(Gecko|KHTML|MSIE|Presto|Trident)|Opera).*$ I've observed small number of false negatives which are mostly mobile browsers. The exceptions all match: (BlackBerry|HTC|LG|MOT|Nokia|NOKIAN|PLAYSTATION|PSP|SAMSUNG|SonyEricsson) My question is: Given the desired accuracy level, how would you improve the regexp? Can you think of any major false positives or false negatives to the given regexp? Please note that the question is specifically about regexp-based User-Agent matching. There are a bunch of other approaches to solving this problem, but those are out of the scope of this question.

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  • Passing data structures to different threads

    - by Robb
    I have an application that will be spawning multiple threads. However, I feel there might be an issue with threads accessing data that they shouldn't be. I'm relatively new to threading so bare with me. Here is the structure of the threaded application (sorry for the crudeness): MainThread / \ / \ / \ Thread A Thread B / \ / \ / \ / \ / \ / \ Thread A_1 Thread A_2 Thread B_1 Thread B_2 Under each lettered thread (which could be many), there will only be two threads and they are fired of sequentially. The issue i'm having is I'm not entirely sure how to pass in a datastructure into these threads. So, the datastructure is created in MainThread, will be modified in the lettered thread (Thread A, etc) specific to that thread and then a member variable from that datastructure is sent to Letter_Numbered threads. Currently, the lettered thread class has a member variable and when the class is constructed, the datastructure from mainthread is passed in by reference, invoking the copy constructor so the lettered thread has it's own copy to play with. The lettered_numbered thread simply takes in a string variable from the data structure within the lettered thread. My question is, is this accceptable? Is there a much better way to ensure each lettered thread gets its own data structure to play with? Sorry for the somewhat poor explanation, please leave comments and i'll try to clarify.

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  • How do I DYNAMICALLY cast in C# and return for a property

    - by ken-forslund
    I've already read threads on the topic, but can't find a solution that fits. I'm working on a drop-down list that takes an enum and uses that to populate itself. i found a VB.NET one. During the porting process, I discovered that it uses DirectCast() to set the type as it returns the SelectedValue. See the original VB here: http://jeffhandley.com/archive/2008/01/27/enum-list-dropdown-control.aspx the gist is, the control has Type _enumType; //gets set when the datasource is set and is the type of the specific enum The SelectedValue property kind of looks like (remember, it doesn't work): public Enum SelectedValue //Shadows Property { get { // Get the value from the request to allow for disabled viewstate string RequestValue = this.Page.Request.Params[this.UniqueID]; return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; } set { base.SelectedValue = value.ToString(); } } Now this touches on a core point that I think was missed in the other discussions. In darn near every example, folks argued that DirectCast wasn't needed, because in every example, they statically defined the type. That's not the case here. As the programmer of the control, I don't know the type. Therefore, I can't cast it. Additionally, the following examples of lines won't compile because c# casting doesn't accept a variable. Whereas VB's CType and DirectCast can accept Type T as a function parameter: return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true); or return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; or return (_enumType)Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) ; or return Convert.ChangeType(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true), _enumType); or return CastTo<_enumType>(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true)); So, any ideas on a solution? What's the .NET 3.5 best way to resolve this?

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  • C# Windows Service doesn't seem to like privatePath

    - by SauerC
    I wrote a C# Windows Service to handle task scheduling for our application. I'm trying to move the "business rules" assemblies into a bin subdirectory of the scheduling application to make it easier for us to do updates (stop service, delete all files in bin folder, replace with new ones, start service). I added <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="bin;"/> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> to the service's app config and it works fine if the service is run as a console application. Problem is when the service is run as a windows service it doesn't work. It appears that when windows runs the service the app config file gets read properly but then the service is executed as if it was in c:\windows\system32 and not the actually EXE location and that gums up the works. We've got a lot of assemblies so I really don't want to use the GAC or <codeBase>. Is it possible to have the EXE change it's base directory back to where it should be when it's run as a service?

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  • PostMessage does not seem to be working.

    - by Vaccano
    I am trying to use PostMessage to send a tab key. Here is my code: // This class allows us to send a tab key when the the enter key // is pressed for the mooseworks mask control. public class MaskKeyControl : MaskedEdit { // [DllImport("coredll.dll", SetLastError = true, CharSet = CharSet.Auto)] // static extern IntPtr SendMessage(IntPtr hWnd, UInt32 Msg, Int32 wParam, Int32 lParam); [return: MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.Bool)] // I am calling this on a Windows Mobile device so the dll is coredll.dll [DllImport("coredll.dll", SetLastError = true)] static extern bool PostMessage(IntPtr hWnd, uint Msg, Int32 wParam, Int32 lParam); public const Int32 VK_TAB = 0x09; public const Int32 WM_KEYDOWN = 0x100; protected override void OnKeyDown(KeyEventArgs e) { if (e.KeyData == Keys.Enter) { PostMessage(this.Handle, WM_KEYDOWN, VK_TAB, 0); return; } base.OnKeyDown(e); } protected override void OnKeyPress(KeyPressEventArgs e) { if (e.KeyChar == '\r') e.Handled = true; base.OnKeyPress(e); } } When I press enter the code gets called, but nothing happens. Then I press TAB and it works fine. (So there is something wrong with my sending of the Tab Message.)

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  • Has form post behavior changed in modern browsers? (or How are double clicks handled by the browser)

    - by Alex Czarto
    Background: We are in the process of writing a registration/payment page, and our philosophy was to code all validation and error checking on the server side first, and then add client side validation as a second step (un-obstructive jQuery). We wanted to disable double clicks server side, so we wrote some locking, thread-safe code to handle simultaneous posts/race conditions. When we tried to test this, we realized that we could not cause a simultaneous post or race condition to occur. I thought that (in older browsers anyway) double clicking a submit button worked as follows: User double clicks submit button. Browser sends a post on the first click On the second click, browser cancels/ignores initial post, and initiates a second post (before the first post has returned with a response). Browser waits for second post to return, ignoring initial post response. I thought that from the server side it looked like this: Server gets two simultaneous post requests, executes and responds to them both (unaware that no one is listening to the first response). From our testing (FireFox 3.0, IE 8.0) this is what actually happens: User double clicks submit button Browser sends a post for the first click Browser queues up second click, but waits for the response from the first click. Response returns from first click (response is ignored?). Browser sends a post for the second click. So from a server side: Server receives a single post which it executes and responds to. Then, server receives a second request wich it executes and responds to. My question is, has this always worked this way (and I'm losing my mind)? Or is this a new feature in modern browsers that prevents simultaneous posts to be sent to the server? It seems that for server side double click prevention, we don't have to worry about simultaneous posts or race conditions. Only need to worry about queued up posts. Thanks in advance for any feedback / comments. Alex

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  • check whether mmap'ed address is correct

    - by reddot
    I'm writing a high-loaded daemon that should be run on the FreeBSD 8.0 and on Linux as well. The main purpose of daemon is to pass files that are requested by their identifier. Identifier is converted into local filename/file size via request to db. And then I use sequential mmap() calls to pass file blocks with send(). However sometimes there are mismatch of filesize in db and filesize on filesystem (realsize < size in db). In this situation I've sent all real data blocks and when next data block is mapped -- mmap returns no errors, just usual address (I've checked errno variable also, it's equal to zero after mmap). And when daemon tries to send this block it gets Segmentation Fault. (This behaviour is guarantedly issued on FreeBSD 8.0 amd64) I was using safe check before open to ensure size with stat() call. However real life shows to me that segfault still can be raised in rare situtaions. So, my question is there a way to check whether pointer is accessible before dereferencing it? When I've opened core in gdb, gdb says that given address is out of bound. Probably there is another solution somebody can propose.

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  • Spring MVC- several parts/views from a controller

    - by leeeroy
    i'm looking into using Spring MVC - how would I structure the fact that a page can be composed of several different views Consider a controller that's basically: public ModelAndView handleRequest(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { List<Post> posts = repository.getNewPosts(); return new ModelAndView("posts", "posts", posts); } However, I decide that on every page, I'd also want a side "pane" that shows data based on some logic. That "pane" would just be a .jsp that gets included from the above "posts" view, and I could change my controller to: public ModelAndView handleRequest(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { List<Post> posts = repository.getNewPosts(); List<Items> items= repository.getItems(); return new ModelAndView("model", "model", new MyCommonViewModel(posts,items)); } But then I'd have to change every controller to also do List<Items> items= repository.getItems(); , and change everything again the next time I come up with something new. This seems messy. How do I structure this ? `

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  • Using JQuery with dynamically added controls (MVC)

    - by Mario
    I have a set of radio buttons that are dynamically generated (via JSON call): StringBuilder sbEligAll = new StringBuilder(); sbEligAll.Append("<div id='currentselectiondepartment'>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radCurrent' value='0' /><label for='radCurrent'>Current</label>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radFuture' value='1' /><label for='radFuture'>Future</label>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radCurrentAll' value='2' /><label for='radCurrentAll'>Current All</label>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radFutureAll' value='3' /><label for='radFutureAll'>Future All</label>"); sbEligAll.Append("</div>"); Then: return Json(new { TableList = sbElig.ToString() }, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet); Is there a way to get jQuery to be able to interact with these? For example: $("input[name=selectalldepartment]").change(function() { var str = $('input[name=selectalldepartment]:checked').val(); $(".radiolist[value='" + str + "']").attr("checked", true); }); I've tried everything I know how to do, but the jQuery just doesnt fire. (I've added alerts to the jQuery code to see if it actually gets called, and it does not). Any thoughts?! Thanks!

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  • Modify post data with a custom MVC extension?

    - by Jaxidian
    So I'm looking into writing some custom MVC extensions and the first one I'm attempting to tackle is a FormattedTextBox to handle things such as currency, dates, and times. I have the rendering of it working perfectly, formatting it, working with strong types and everything all golden. However, the problem I'm now running into is cleaning up the formatted stuff when the page posts the data back. Take for example, a currency format. Let's use USD for these examples. When an object has a property as a decimal, the value would be 79.95. Your edit view would be something like: <%= Html.FormattedTextBox(model => Model.Person.HourlyWage, "{0:C}") %> This is all well and good for the GET request, but upon POST, the value is going to be $79.95, which when you assign to that decimal, gets unhappy very quickly and ends up shoving a 0 in there. So my question is, how do I get code working somewhere to work with that value before the MVC Framework goes and starts shoving it back into my ViewModel? I'd much rather this be done server-side than client-side. Thanks!!

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  • SQL2008 merge replication fails to update depdendent items when table is added

    - by Dan Puzey
    Setup: an existing SQL2008 merge replication scenario. A large server database, including views and stored procs, being replicated to client machines. What I'm doing: * adding a new table to the database * mark the new table for replication (using SP_AddMergeArticle) * alter a view (which is already part of the replicated content) is updated to include fields from this new table (which is joined to the tables in the existing view). A stored procedure is similarly updated. The problem: the table gets replicated to client machines, but the view is not updated. The stored procedure is also not updated. Non-useful workaround: if I run the snapshot agent after calling SP_AddMergeArticle and before updating the view/SP, both the view and the stored procedure changes correctly replicate to the client. The bigger problem: I'm running a list of database scripts in a transaction, as part of a larger process. The snapshot agent can't be run during a transaction, and if I interrupt the transaction (e.g. by running the scripts in multiple transactions), I lose the ability to roll back the changes should something fail. Does anyone have any suggestions? It seems like I must be missing something obvious, because I don't see why the changes to the view/sproc wouldn't be replicating anyway, regardless of what's going on with the new table.

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  • ajax to php to curl and back..

    - by pfunc
    I am trying to make an ajax call to a php script. The php script calls an rss feed using curl, gets the data, and returns the data to the funciton. I keep getting an error "Warning: Wrong parameter count for curl_error() in" .... Here is my php code:1 $ch = curl_init() or die(curl_error()); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $feed); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); $data1 = curl_exec($ch) or die(curl_error()); echo $data1; and the ajax call: $.ajax({ url: "getSingleFeed.php", type: "POST", data: "feedURL=" + window.feedURL, success: function(feed){ alert(feed); }}); I tested all the variables, they are being passed correctly, I can echo them out. But this line: $data1 = curl_exec($ch) or die(curl_error()); is what is giving me the error. I am doing the same thing with curl on other pages, just without ajax, and it is working fine. Is there anything special I need to do with ajax to do this?

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  • Winsock tcp/ip Socket listening but connection refused, race condition?

    - by Wayne
    Hello folks. This involves two automated unit tests which each start up a tcp/ip server that creates a non-blocking socket then bind()s and listen()s in a loop on select() for a client that connects and downloads some data. The catch is that they work perfectly when run separately but when run as a test suite, the second test client will fail to connect with WSACONNREFUSED... UNLESS there is a Thread.Sleep() of several seconds between them??!!! Interestingly, there is retry loop every 1 second for connecting after any failure. So the second test loops for a while until timeout after 10 minutes. During that time, netstat -na shows the correct port number is in the LISTEN state for the server socket. So if it is in the listen state? Why won't it accept the connection? In the code, there are log messages that show the select NEVER even gets a socket ready to read (which means ready to accept a connection when it applies to a listening socket). Obviously the problem must be related to some race condition between finishing one test which means close() and shutdown() on each end of the socket, and the start up of the next. This wouldn't be so bad if the retry logic allowed it to connect eventually after a couple of seconds. However it seems to get "gummed up" and won't even retry. However, for some strange reason the listening socket SAYS it's in the LISTEN state even through keeps refusing connections. So that means it's the Windoze O/S which is actually catching the SYN packet and returning a RST packet (which means "Connection Refused"). The only other time I ever saw this error was when the code had a problem that caused hundreds of sockets to get stuck in TIME_WAIT state. But that's not the case here. netstat shows only about a dozen sockets with only 1 or 2 in TIME_WAIT at any given moment. Please help.

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  • Entity Framework - Insert/Update new entity with child-entities

    - by Christina Mayers
    I have found many questions here on SO and articles all over the internet but none really tackled my problem. My model looks like this (I striped all non essential Properties): Everyday or so "Play" gets updated (via a XML-file containing the information). internal Play ParsePlayInfo(XDocument doc) { Play play = (from p in doc.Descendants("Play") select new Play { Theatre = new Theatre() { //Properties }, //Properties LastUpdate = DateTime.Now }).SingleOrDefault(); var actors = (from a in doc.XPathSelectElement(".//Play//Actors").Nodes() select new Lecturer() { //Properties }); var parts = (from p in doc.XPathSelectElement(".//Play//Parts").Nodes() select new Part() { //Properties }).ToList(); foreach (var item in parts) { play.Parts.Add(item); } var reviews = (from r in doc.XPathSelectElement(".//Play//Reviews").Nodes() select new Review { //Properties }).ToList(); for (int i = 0; i < reviews.Count(); i++) { PlayReviews pR = new PlayReviews() { Review = reviews[i], Play = play, //Properties }; play.PlayReviews.Add(pR); } return play; } If I add this "play" via Add() every Childobject of Play will be inserted - regardless if some exist already. Since I need to update existing entries I have to do something about that. As far as I can tell I have the following options: add/update the child entities in my PlayRepositories Add-Method restructure and rewrite ParsePlayInfo() so that get all the child entities first, add or update them and then create a new Play. The only problem I have here is that I wanted ParsePlayInfo() to be persistence ignorant, I could work around this by creating multiple parse methods (eg ParseActors() ) and assign them to play in my controller (I'm using ASP.net MVC) after everything was parsed and added Currently I am implementing option 1 - but it feels wrong. I'd appreciate it if someone could guide me in the right direction on this one.

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  • How to remove Modules from a Intellij Maven Project permanently?

    - by herpnderpn
    I am currently working on a larger scale Maven-based project in IntelliJIdea 12.1.6 Ultimate. I have been working with IntelliJIdea since about 5 months. An included module has dependencies on another module. The dependent module's source was also part of my project until recently. Since I removed the dependent module from my project, I get compile errors whenever I am trying to compile the source without maven. The pom.xml of removed modules in Intellij seem to be placed onto the Settings-Maven-Ignored Files. I cant seem to remove it from there, only check or uncheck it. It's not possible to include the module again since IntelliJ will say its still under Ignored Files. 2 ways allow me to compile again: Uncheck the pom from Ignored files, which will include the module again in my project. Or delete the source of the dependent project, so my project will load the dependent module from the maven repository. But whenever I update my project from svn, the source of the dependent module is restored (I don't know why this even happens since its not part my project) and the cycle begins anew. I googled this for a while since it gets really annoying. It became a problem with several excluded modules. I could rebuild the intellij-project but since a lot of IntelliJ settings were made (not related to the problem) I would rather solve this. Any help is appreciated, I guess I must be missing something

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  • Using max-width = 100% and max-height = 100% on an image, calculate the display width/height

    - by NatalieMac
    I am creating a slideshow for images of various sizes to display centered vertically and horizontally within a canvas area. In my CSS, I set the width and height of the image to 100% so that each image would proportionally fill the canvas. I want the canvas to auto-size itself to fit within the viewer's screensize as the original size of the images is quite large (up to 800 pixels tall). I am using jQuery 1.4, and using the height of the image to calculate the top value for absolute positioning it to the middle of the canvas. I have tried using jQuery to get the .height(), innerHeight(), and outerHeight(), but it always gets the full size of the image. I extracted the DOM element from the jQuery object and tried using .width, .offsetWidth, and .clientWidth, but that too always seems to return the full size of the image. Firebug displays the correct dimensions, so I know there's some way of calculating the actual display height of the image, I just can't figure out what it is. How do you get the actual display height of an image if you've set max-height = 100%? I didn't want to have to calculate and set the height of each image in the js, but if I have to, I will. It just seems like I should be able to set the canvas size and have the images auto-adjust.

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  • iPhone and OpenCV

    - by gn-mithun
    Hello, I am writing an application to create a movie file from a bunch of images on an iPhone. I am using OpenCv. I downloaded openCv static libraries for arm(iPhones native instruction architecture) and the libraries were generated just fine. There were no problems linking to them libraries. As a first step, i was trying to create a .avi file using one image, to see if it works. But cvCreateVideoWriter always returns me a NULL value. I did some searchin and i believe its due to the codec not being present. I am trying this on the iPhone simulator. this is what i do... (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; UIImage *anImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"1.jpg"]; IplImage *img_color = [self CreateIplImageFromUIImage:anImage]; //The image gets created just fine CvVideoWriter *writer = cvCreateVideoWriter("out.avi",CV_FOURCC('P','I','M','1'), 25,cvSize(320,480),1); //writer is always null int result = cvWriteFrame(writer, img_color); NSLog(@"\n%d",result); //hence this is also 0 all the time cvReleaseVideoWriter(&writer); } I am not sure about the the second parameter. What sort of codec or what exactly it does... I am a n00B in this. Any suggestions?

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  • How to properly log out of facebook

    - by Gublooo
    This is a repeated question and I have followed both the suggestions provided in these StackOverflow links: How to log-out users using FaceBook connect in php and zend Trouble logging out of a FaceBook connect site and destroying sessions The issue is - the code works 90% of the time. Thats the weird part. Out of the 100 times I've logged in and out - I've experienced this problem 5-6 times and 2 of my beta test users have reported the same issue. So when it works- if u click the logout link - u get the facebook popup saying - you being logged out - when it does'nt work - absolutely nothing happens - the page does not refresh - it just sits on that page doing nothing. This is the javascript code that gets called on clicking logout function logout() { FB.Connect.get_status().waitUntilReady(function(status) { switch(status) { case FB.ConnectState.connected: FB.Connect.logoutAndRedirect("http://www.example.com/login/logout"); break; case FB.ConnectState.userNotLoggedIn: window.location = "http://www.example.com/login/logout"; break; } }); return false; } This is the php code: $this-_auth-clearIdentity(); $face = Zend_Registry::get('facebook'); $fb = new Facebook($face['appapikey'], $face['appsecret']); //$fb-clear_cookie_state(); $fb-expire_session(); Anyone experienced such sporadic issues. Thanks

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  • [iPhone] UIScrollView notifications

    - by ryyst
    Hi, I'm coding an app that works much like Apple's Weather.app: There's a UIPageControl at the bottom and a UIScrollView in the middle of the screen. In my code, I implemented the - (void)scrollViewDidEndDecelerating:(UIScrollView *)scrollView method to figure out when the user did move to a new page. If they move to a new page, I load the adjacent pages' data, as to make further page-switching faster. (In one of Apple's examples, the - (void)scrollViewDidScroll:(UIScrollView *)sender is used, but that causes my app to shortly hang when loading a new page, so it's not suitable.) That code works very well. I'm using scrollRectToVisible:: to programmatically scroll inside the scrollview when the user clicks the UIPageControl. The problem is that the scrollRectToVisible: doesn't post a notification to the UIScrollViewDelegate when it's done scrolling - so the code responsible for loading adjacent pages never get's called when using the UIPageControl. Is there any way to make the UIScrollView notify its delegate when it gets called by the scrollRectToVisible: method? Or will I have to use threads in order to prevent my app from freezing? Thanks! -- Ry

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  • Dumping an ADODB recordset to XML, then back to a recordset, then saving to the db

    - by Mark Biek
    I've created an XML file using the .Save() method of an ADODB recordset in the following manner. dim res dim objXML: Set objXML = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") 'This returns an ADODB recordset set res = ExecuteReader("SELECT * from some_table) With res Call .Save(objXML, 1) Call .Close() End With Set res = nothing Let's assume that the XML generated above then gets saved to a file. I'm able to read the XML back into a recordset like this: dim res : set res = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") res.open server.mappath("/admin/tbl_some_table.xml") And I can loop over the records without any problem. However what I really want to do is save all of the data in res to a table in a completely different database. We can assume that some_table already exists in this other database and has the exact same structure as the table I originally queried to make the XML. I started by creating a new recordset and using AddNew to add all of the rows from res to the new recordset dim outRes : set outRes = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") dim outConn : set outConn = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") dim testConnStr : testConnStr = "DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=dev-windows\sql2000;UID=myuser;PWD=mypass;DATABASE=Testing" outConn.open testConnStr outRes.activeconnection = outConn outRes.cursortype = adOpenDynamic outRes.locktype = adLockOptimistic outRes.source = "product_accessories" outRes.open while not res.eof outRes.addnew for i=0 to res.fields.count-1 outRes(res.fields(i).name) = res(res.fields(i).name) next outRes.movefirst res.movenext wend outRes.updatebatch But this bombs the first time I try to assign the value from res to outRes. Microsoft OLE DB Provider for ODBC Drivers error '80040e21' Multiple-step OLE DB operation generated errors. Check each OLE DB status value, if available. No work was done. Can someone tell me what I'm doing wrong or suggest a better way for me to copy the data loaded from XML to a different database?

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  • Where'd my sounds go?

    - by Dane Man
    In my Row class I have the initWithCoder method and everything restored in that method works fine, but only within the method. After the method is called I loose an array of sounds that is in my Row class. The sounds class also has the initWithCoder method, and the sound plays fine but only in the Row class initWithCoder method. After decoding the Row object, the sound array disappears completely and is unable to be called. Here's my source for the initWithCoder: - (id) initWithCoder:(NSCoder *)coder { ... soundArray = [coder decodeObjectForKey:@"soundArray"]; NSLog(@"%d",[soundArray count]); return self; } the log shows the count as 8 like it should (this is while unarchiving). Then the row object I create gets assigned. And the resulting row object no longer has a soundArray. [NSKeyedArchiver archiveRootObject:row toFile:@"DefaultRow"]; ... row = [NSKeyedUnarchiver unarchiveObjectWithFile:@"DefaultRow"]; So now whenever I call the soundArray it crashes. //ERROR IS HERE NSLog(@"%d",[[row soundArray] count]); Help please (soundArray is an NSMutableArray).

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  • Zend_Form using subforms getValues() problem

    - by wiseguydigital
    Hi all, I am building a form in Zend Framework 1.9 using subforms as well as Zend_JQuery being enabled on those forms. The form itself is fine and all the error checking etc is working as normal. But the issue I am having is that when I'm trying to retrieve the values in my controller, I'm receiving just the form entry for the last subform e.g. My master form class (abbreviated for speed): Master_Form extends Zend_Form { public function init() { ZendX_JQuery::enableForm($this); $this->setAction('actioninhere') ... ->setAttrib('id', 'mainForm') $sub_one = new Form_One(); $sub_one->setDecorators(... in here I add the jQuery as per the docs); $this->addSubForm($sub_one, 'form-one'); $sub_two = new Form_Two(); $sub_two->setDecorators(... in here I add the jQuery as per the docs); $this->addSubForm($sub_two, 'form-two'); } } So that all works as it should in the display and when I submit without filling in the required values, the correct errors are returned. However, in my controller I have this: class My_Controller extends Zend_Controller_Action { public function createAction() { $request = $this->getRequest(); $form = new Master_Form(); if ($request->isPost()) { if ($form->isValid($request->getPost()) { // This is where I am having the problems print_r($form->getValues()); } } } } When I submit this and it gets past isValid(), the $form-getValues() is only returning the elements from the second subform, not the entire form.

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  • Trying to insert a row using stored procedured with a parameter binded to an expression.

    - by Arvind Singh
    Environment: asp.net 3.5 (C# and VB) , Ms-sql server 2005 express Tables Table:tableUser ID (primary key) username Table:userSchedule ID (primary key) thecreator (foreign key = tableUser.ID) other fields I have created a procedure that accepts a parameter username and gets the userid and inserts a row in Table:userSchedule Problem: Using stored procedure with datalist control to only fetch data from the database by passing the current username using statement below works fine protected void SqlDataSourceGetUserID_Selecting(object sender, SqlDataSourceSelectingEventArgs e) { e.Command.Parameters["@CurrentUserName"].Value = Context.User.Identity.Name; } But while inserting using DetailsView it shows error Procedure or function OASNewSchedule has too many arguments specified. I did use protected void SqlDataSourceCreateNewSchedule_Selecting(object sender, SqlDataSourceSelectingEventArgs e) { e.Command.Parameters["@CreatedBy"].Value = Context.User.Identity.Name; } DetailsView properties: autogen fields: off, default mode: insert, it shows all the fields that may not be expected by the procedure like ID (primary key) not required in procedure and CreatedBy (user id ) field . So I tried removing the 2 fields from detailsview and shows error Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'CreatedBy', table 'D:\OAS\OAS\APP_DATA\ASPNETDB.MDF.dbo.OASTest'; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails. The statement has been terminated. For some reason parameters value is not being set. Can anybody bother to understand this and help?

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