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  • C++ - Basic WinAPI question

    - by HardCoder1986
    Hello! I am now working on a some sort of a game engine and I had an idea to put everything engine-related into a static library and then link it to my actual problem. Right now I achieved it and actually link that library and every functions seem to work fine, except those, which are windows-related. I have a chunk of code in my library that looks like this: hWnd = CreateWindow(className, "Name", WS_OVERLAPPED | WS_CAPTION | WS_EX_TOPMOST, 0, 0, 800, 600, NULL, NULL, GetModuleHandle(NULL), this); if (hWnd) { ShowWindow(hWnd, SW_NORMAL); UpdateWindow(hWnd); } else { MessageBox(NULL, "Internal program error", "Error", MB_OK | MB_ICONERROR); return; } When this code was not in the library, but in the actual project, it worked fine, created the window and everything was ok. Right now (when I'm linking to my library that contains this code) CreateWindow(...) call returns NULL and GetLastError() returns "Operation succesfully completed" (wtf?). Could anybody help me with this? Is it possible to create a window and display it using a static library call and why could my code fail? Thank you.

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  • Advice on Linq to SQL mapping object design

    - by fearofawhackplanet
    I hope the title and following text are clear, I'm not very familiar with the correct terms so please correct me if I get anything wrong. I'm using Linq ORM for the first time and am wondering how to address the following. Say I have two DB tables: User ---- Id Name Phone ----- Id UserId Model The Linq code generator produces a bunch of entity classes. I then write my own classes and interfaces which wrap these Linq classes: class DatabaseUser : IUser { public DatabaseUser(User user) { _user = user; } public Guid Id { get { return _user.Id; } } ... etc } so far so good. Now it's easy enough to find a users phones from Phones.Where(p => p.User = user) but surely comsumers of the API shouldn't need to be writing their own Linq queries to get at data, so I should wrap this query in a function or property somewhere. So the question is, in this example, would you add a Phones property to IUser or not? In other words, should my interface specifically be modelling my database objects (in which case Phones doesn't belong in IUser), or are they actually simply providing a set of functions and properties which are conceptually associated with a User (in which case it does)? There seems drawbacks to both views, but I'm wondering if there is a standard approach to the problem. Or just any general words of wisdom you could share. My first thought was to use extension methods but in fact that doesn't work in this case.

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  • Continuous Flash music player while navigating site

    - by phx-zs
    I have a site that includes a Flash music player integrated into the layout. I want users to be able to navigate around the site without interrupting the music. I've done plenty of research and thinking and the following are the options I came up with (keeping in mind I want to be as SEO friendly as possible). Anyone have another idea? AJAX: I set up a version that changes the main content div to whatever nav link they click, thereby not interrupting the Flash player. I set it up in the proper search-engine-friendly manner with direct links and JQuery/Ajax functions. If someone goes to site.com/ and clicks the Contact nav link, it loads what's in the main content div on site.com/contact.php into the main content div and changes the URL bar to site.com/#Contact. The same goes for if they go to site.com/contact.php and click About in the nav, it loads the About content and changes the URL bar to site.com/contact.php#About. Obviously this opens up a whole new can of worms with AJAX and hash navigation/history issues, and I would end up with people possibly linking to things like site.com/contact.php#About (which I think looks terrible and can't be too great for SEO). Store the Flash player vars somewhere and reload them with the page: I'm not sure how to go about this, but I thought about keeping my regular navigation without AJAX and have it so when a user clicks a nav link, before it changes pages it stores the Flash player vars (current song and song position) somewhere, then loads them into Flash when the new page loads. Something with an iframe? Good alternative to a Flash player that will work for this type of application? Thanks!

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  • Zend, slow load, "waiting for response" for 20-80 seconds on local site

    - by Tony C.
    So I have several sites running under the same zend setup. All of the sites run pretty normally except one. Upon loading or reloading this one site, reguardless of which page your on (excluding the 404 page explanation later...) you get a serious pause before any content begins to download. Using firebugs net panel you can see that the first request which is www.(siteaddress).com.local you see a "waiting for response" bar (purple) that is going for anywhere from 20 to sometimes 80+ seconds and this isn't on a dev site, this is on a local site under localhost. What I've managed to figure out so far is that all the pages do this except my 404 page. The reason the 404 page doesn't succumb to this is because it uses a seperate controller (the error controller) and therefore bypasses much of the controller and functions the other parts of the site use. Using exit statements I've manged to figure out that the problem happens somewhere between my post dispatch and my main (top most) controllers Init function. If i exit in the main controllers init the page loads (then exits instantly, no wait). If i do the same in the pre or post dispatch the page waits the 20-80 seconds then exits. Is there a diagram or explanation somewhere or a way for me to find out what events fire inbetween the post dispatch and the main controllers init function? Or does anyone have any clue what might cause this? Any help would be greatly appreciated...

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  • Proper API Design for Version Independence?

    - by Justavian
    I've inherited an enormous .NET solution of about 200 projects. There are now some developers who wish to start adding their own components into our application, which will require that we begin exposing functionality via an API. The major problem with that, of course, is that the solution we've got on our hands contains such a spider web of dependencies that we have to be careful to avoid sabotaging the API every time there's a minor change somewhere in the app. We'd also like to be able to incrementally expose new functionality without destroying any previous third party apps. I have a way to solve this problem, but i'm not sure it's the ideal way - i was looking for other ideas. My plan would be to essentially have three dlls. APIServer_1_0.dll - this would be the dll with all of the dependencies. APIClient_1_0.dll - this would be the dll our developers would actual refer to. No references to any of the mess in our solution. APISupport_1_0.dll - this would contain the interfaces which would allow the client piece to dynamically load the "server" component and perform whatever functions are required. Both of the above dlls would depend upon this. It would be the only dll that the "client" piece refers to. I initially arrived at this design, because the way in which we do inter process communication between windows services is sort of similar (except that the client talks to the server via named pipes, rather than dynamically loading dlls). While i'm fairly certain i can make this work, i'm curious to know if there are better ways to accomplish the same task.

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  • Why can't I open a JBoss vfs:/ URL?

    - by skiphoppy
    We are upgrading our application from JBoss 4 to JBoss 6. A couple of pieces of our application get delivered to the client in an unusual way: jars are looked up inside of our application and sent to the client from a servlet, where the client extracts them in order to run certain support functions. In JBoss 4 we would look these jars up with the classloader and find a jar:// URL which would be used to read the jar and send its contents to the client. In JBoss 6 when we perform the lookup we get a vfs:/ URL. I understand that this is from the org.jboss.vfs package. Unfortunately when I call openStream() on this URL and read from the stream, I immediately get an EOF (read() returns -1). What gives? Why can't I read the resource this URL refers to? I've tried trying to access the underlying VFS packages to open the file through the JBoss VFS API, but most of the API appears to be private, and I couldn't find a routine to translate from a vfs:/ URL to a VFS VirtualFile object, so I couldn't get anywhere. I can try to find the file on disk within JBoss, but that approach sounds very failure prone on upgrade. Our old approach was to use Java Web Start to distribute the jars to the client and then look them up within Java Web Start's cache to extract them. But that broke on every minor upgrade of Java because the layout of the cache changed.

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  • C header file won't compile with C, but will with C++.

    - by Leif Andersen
    I have the following chunk of a header file BKE_mesh.h: /* Connectivity data */ typedef struct IndexNode { struct IndexNode *next, *prev; int index; } IndexNode; void create_vert_face_map(ListBase **map, IndexNode **mem, const struct MFace *mface, const int totvert, const int totface); void create_vert_edge_map(ListBase **map, IndexNode **mem, const struct MEdge *medge, const int totvert, const int totedge); Note that the header file was prepared for the possibility of being used in a C++ file, as it had: #ifdef __cplusplus extern "C" { #endif at the top of the file, and the needed finish at the bottom. But the class implementing it was written in C. Next, whenever I try to #include the header file, I get an odd error. If the file has a .cpp extension, it compiles just fine, no complaints whatsoever. However, if I do: #include "BKE_mesh.h" inside of a file with a .c extension, I get the following errors: expected ')' before '*' token for the two last functions, in specific, the variable: ListBase **map in both classes. (Note that earlier in the header file, it declared, but not defined ListBase). So, my question is: why is this valid C++ code, but not C code? Thank you.

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  • Handling Apache Thrift list/map Return Types in C++

    - by initzero
    First off, I'll say I'm not the most competent C++ programmer, but I'm learning, and enjoying the power of Thrift. I've implemented a Thrift Service with some basic functions that return void, i32, and list. I'm using a Python client controlled by a Django web app to make RPC calls and it works pretty well. The generated code is pretty straight forward, except for list returns: namespace cpp Remote enum N_PROTO { N_TCP, N_UDP, N_ANY } service Rcon { i32 ping() i32 KillFlows() i32 RestartDispatch() i32 PrintActiveFlows() i32 PrintActiveListeners(1:i32 proto) list<string> ListAllFlows() } The generated signatures from Rcon.h: int32_t ping(); int32_t KillFlows(); int32_t RestartDispatch(); int32_t PrintActiveFlows(); int32_t PrintActiveListeners(const int32_t proto); int64_t ListenerBytesReceived(const int32_t id); void ListAllFlows(std::vector<std::string> & _return); As you see, the ListAllFlows() function generated takes a reference to a vector of strings. I guess I expect it to return a vector of strings as laid out in the .thrift description. I'm wondering if I am meant to provide the function a vector of strings to modify and then Thrift will handle returning it to my client despite the function returning void. I can find absolutely no resources or example usages of Thrift list< types in C++. Any guidance would be appreciated.

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  • Backbone.js routes not firing

    - by drale2k
    I have a Base Router where i define some functions that need to be run everywhere. Every Router extends this Router. Now my problem is, that none of my routes defined in this Base router, actually fire. Every other route in other Routers work fine. I have created a test route called 'a' which calls method 'b', which should fire an alert but nothing happens. Here is the code: (This is Coffeescript, don't pay attention to the indentation, it's fine in my file) class Etaxi.Routers.Base extends Backbone.Router routes: 'register' : 'registerDevice' 'a' : 'b' b: -> alert "a" initialize: -> @registerDevice() unless localStorage.device_id? @getGeolocation() registerDevice: -> @collection = new Etaxi.Collections.Devices() @collection.fetch() view = new Etaxi.Views.RegisterDevice(collection: @collection) $('#wrapper').append(view.render().el) getGeolocation: -> navigator.geolocation.getCurrentPosition (position) -> lat = position.coords.latitude lng = position.coords.longitude #$('#apphead').tap -> # alert 'Position: ' + lat + " ," + lng So when i visit '/register' or '/a' it should fire the appropriate method but it does not. I wonder if it has something to do with the fact that other Router extend from this Router? Would be wired but it is the only thing i can think of because every other Router works fine.

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  • Is there anything on a local network or desktop environment that could effect JScript execution?

    - by uku
    I know this sounds odd. The JS on my project functions perfectly, except when the web site is accessed using computers at one specific company. To make things even more difficult, the JS fails only about 50% of the time when run from that company. The JS failure occurs with FireFox, Chrome, and IE. I have tested this myself using FF and Chrome on a thumb drive. The browsers on my thumb always display my project site perfectly, except when run from a computer on said company's network where they fail at the same rate as the installed browsers. My JS is using jQuery and making some Ajax calls. The Ajax calls are where the failure is occurring. To diagnose the problem I created a logging function for my Ajax calls and recorded success and failure. Over a one month period, there were only a handful of failures (about 1%) from all access points other than this company. Oddly enough, the Ajax calls in the logging function are not failing. There is nothing exotic there - Just Win XP SP3. I have never noticed any other unusual behavior from their network. The company is a division of a mega ISP and is on their corporate network. Any other suggestions for troubleshooting would be welcome.

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  • c++ specialized overload?

    - by acidzombie24
    -edit- i am trying to close the question. i solved the problem with boost::is_base_and_derived In my class i want to do two things. 1) Copy int, floats and other normal values 2) Copy structs that supply a special copy function (template T copyAs(); } the struct MUST NOT return int's unless i explicitly say ints. I do not want the programmer mistaking the mistake by doing int a = thatClass; -edit- someone mention classes dont return anything, i mean using the operator Type() overload. How do i create my copy operator in such a way i can copy both 1) ints, floats etc and the the struct restricted in the way i mention in 2). i tried doing template <class T2> T operator = (const T2& v); which would cover my ints, floats etc. But how would it differentiate from structs? so i wrote T operator = (const SomeGenericBase& v); The idea was the GenericBase would be unsed instead then i can do v.Whatever. But that backfires bc the functions i want wouldnt exist, unless i use virtual, but virtual templates dont exist. Also i would hate to use virtual I think the solution is to get rid of ints and have it convert to something that can do .as(). So i wrote something up but now i have the same problem, how does that differentiate ints and structs that have the .as() function template?

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  • How to report progress of a JavaScript function?

    - by LambyPie
    I have a JavaScript function which is quite long and performs a number of tasks, I would like to report progress to the user by updating the contents of a SPAN element with a message as I go. I tried adding document.getElementById('spnProgress').innerText = ... statements throughout the function code. However, whilst the function is executing the UI will not update and so you only ever see the last message written to the SPAN which is not very helpful. My current solution is to break the task up into a number of functions, at the end of each I set the SPAN message and then "trigger" the next one with a window.setTimeout call with a very short delay (say 10ms). This yields control and allows the browser to repaint the SPAN with the updated message before starting the next step. However I find this very messy and difficult to follow the code, I'm thinking there must be a better way. Does anyone have any suggestions? Is there any way to force the SPAN to repaint without having to leave the context of the function? Thanks

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  • How do you prove a function works?

    - by glenn I.
    I've recently gotten the testing religion and have started primarily with unit testing. I code unit tests which illustrate that a function works under certain cases, specifically using the exact inputs I'm using. I may do a number of unit tests to exercise the function. Still, I haven't actually proved anything other than the function does what I expect it to do under the scenarios I've tested. There may be other inputs and scenarios I haven't thought of and thinking of edge cases is expensive, particularly on the margins. This is all not very satisfying to do me. When I start to think of having to come up with tests to satisfy branch and path coverage and then integration testing, the prospective permutations can become a little maddening. So, my question is, how can one prove (in the same vein of proving a theorem in mathematics) that a function works (and, in a perfect world, compose these 'proofs' into a proof that a system works)? Is there a certain area of testing that covers an approach where you seek to prove a system works by proving that all of its functions work? Does anybody outside of academia bother with an approach like this? Are there tools and techniques to help? I realize that my use of the word 'work' is not precise. I guess I mean that a function works when it does what some spec (written or implied) states that it should do and does nothing other than that. Note, I'm not a mathematician, just a programmer.

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  • artisteer wp-theme metadata (date, category) lost

    - by Mattias Svensson
    I am going nuts over wordpress and artisteer. I am trying something that used to be pretty straightforward - turning on and off the display of date and post category for my posts on my blog page. I find this in content.php global $post; theme_post_wrapper( array( 'id' => theme_get_post_id(), 'class' => theme_get_post_class(), 'title' => theme_get_meta_option($post->ID, 'theme_show_page_title') ? get_the_title() : '', 'heading' => theme_get_option('theme_single_article_title_tag'), 'before' => theme_get_metadata_icons('date', 'header'), 'content' => theme_get_content() ) ); And the instruction says that all you got to do is insert or remove 'date' in the 'before' line. I've done it back and forth with my content files and nothing changes on the output. I can't find the actual code that prints it all, wordpress used to be so simple before everything was dug down 10 levels deep and you now have to look through millions of different functions to find the simplest things... As you can probably tell, I usually don't work with WP =) But this is on my table now and I haven't stayed up to date with WP for a couple of years... Any input as to where I can find the variables is appreciated... I had expected to at some point find 'posted at '.echo($date).' in category '.echo($category) or something at least remotely similar...

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  • What is the best way to store static data in C# that will never changes

    - by Luke101
    I have a class that stores data in asp.net c# application that never changes. I really don't want to put this data in the database - I would like it to stay in the application. Here is my way to store data in the application: public class PostVoteTypeFunctions { private List<PostVoteType> postVotes = new List<PostVoteType>(); public PostVoteTypeFunctions() { PostVoteType upvote = new PostVoteType(); upvote.ID = 0; upvote.Name = "UpVote"; upvote.PointValue = PostVotePointValue.UpVote; postVotes.Add(upvote); PostVoteType downvote = new PostVoteType(); downvote.ID = 1; downvote.Name = "DownVote"; downvote.PointValue = PostVotePointValue.DownVote; postVotes.Add(downvote); PostVoteType selectanswer = new PostVoteType(); selectanswer.ID = 2; selectanswer.Name = "SelectAnswer"; selectanswer.PointValue = PostVotePointValue.SelectAnswer; postVotes.Add(selectanswer); PostVoteType favorite = new PostVoteType(); favorite.ID = 3; favorite.Name = "Favorite"; favorite.PointValue = PostVotePointValue.Favorite; postVotes.Add(favorite); PostVoteType offensive = new PostVoteType(); offensive.ID = 4; offensive.Name = "Offensive"; offensive.PointValue = PostVotePointValue.Offensive; postVotes.Add(offensive); PostVoteType spam = new PostVoteType(); spam.ID = 0; spam.Name = "Spam"; spam.PointValue = PostVotePointValue.Spam; postVotes.Add(spam); } } When the constructor is called the code above is ran. I have some functions that can query the data above too. But is this the best way to store information in asp.net? if not what would you recommend?

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  • Loop elements with Jquery and call Omniture s.tl() function to track

    - by ilovewebdev
    Hi, i have a page with a list of items. Each item has a print now link (a.printMe) to print each item. At the end of the list, there's a print all link (a.printAll) to print all items. I want to track number of times an item was printed. If a.printAll link is clicked, then i will send all the item's tracking value to Omniture. I added tracking string into individual item's a.printMe href attribute and track with the following functions: $('a.printMe').click(function() { var value = $(this).attr('href'); track(value); }); $('a.printAll').click(function() { $('a.printMe').each(function() { this.click(); }); // works in IE only. IE 6-8 }); function track(value) { var s = s_gi('account'); s.prop10 = value; s.linkTrackVars = 'prop10'; s.tl(true, 'o'); } The problem is only the last item (in the list) has its value sent to Omniture when i clicked on a.printAll. I finally got the above to work in IE but not Firefox. Anyone encounter this before?

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  • Override java methods without affecting parent behaviour

    - by Timmmm
    suppose I have this classes (sorry it's kind of hard to think of a simple example here; I don't want any "why would you want to do that?" answers!): class Squarer { public void setValue(int v) { mV = v; } public int getValue() { return mV; } private int mV; public void square() { setValue(getValue() * getValue()); } } class OnlyOddInputsSquarer extends Squarer { @Override public void setValue(int v) { if (v % 2 == 0) { print("Sorry, this class only lets you square odd numbers!") return; } super.setValue(v); } } auto s = new OnlyOddInputsSquarer(); s.setValue(3); s.square(); This won't work. When Squarer.square() calls setValue(), it will go to OnlyOddInputsSquarer.setValue() which will reject all its values (since all squares are even). Is there any way I can override setValue() so that all the functions in Squarer still use the method defined there? PS: Sorry, java doesn't have an auto keyword you haven't heard about! Wishful thinking on my part.

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  • How to programmatically create a node in Drupal 8?

    - by chapka
    I'm designing a new module in Drupal 8. It's a long-term project that won't be going public for a few months at least, so I'm using it as a way to figure out what's new. In this module, I want to be able to programmatically create nodes. In Drupal 7, I would do this by creating the object, then calling "node_submit" and "node_save". These functions no longer exist in Drupal 8. Instead, according to the documentation, "Modules and scripts may programmatically submit nodes using the usual form API pattern." I'm at a loss. What does this mean? I've used Form API to create forms in Drupal 7, but I don't get what the docs are saying here. What I'm looking to do is programmatically create at least one and possibly multiple new nodes, based on information not taken directly from a user-presented form. I need to be able to: 1) Specify the content type 2) Specify the URL path 3) Set any other necessary variables that would previously have been handled by the now-obsolete node_object_prepare() 4) Commit the new node object I would prefer to be able to do this in an independent, highly abstracted function not tied to a specific block or form. So what am I missing?

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  • Rationale of C# iterators design (comparing to C++)

    - by macias
    I found similar topic: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/56347/iterators-in-c-stl-vs-java-is-there-a-conceptual-difference Which basically deals with Java iterator (which is similar to C#) being unable to going backward. So here I would like to focus on limits -- in C++ iterator does not know its limit, you have by yourself compare the given iterator with the limit. In C# iterator knows more -- you can tell without comparing to any external reference, if the iterator is valid or not. I prefer C++ way, because once having iterator you can set any iterator as a limit. In other words if you would like to get only few elements instead of entire collection, you don't have to alter the iterator (in C++). For me it is more "pure" (clear). But of course MS knew this and C++ while designing C#. So what are the advantages of C# way? Which approach is more powerful (which leads to more elegant functions based on iterators). What do I miss? If you have thoughts on C# vs. C++ iterators design other than their limits (boundaries), please also answer. Note: (just in case) please, keep the discussion strictly technical. No C++/C# flamewar.

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  • No "redefinition of default parameter error" for class template member function?

    - by STingRaySC
    Why does the following give no compilation error?: // T.h template<class T> class X { public: void foo(int a = 42); }; // Main.cpp #include "T.h" #include <iostream> template<class T> void X<T>::foo(int a = 13) { std::cout << a << std::endl; } int main() { X<int> x; x.foo(); // prints 42 } It seems as though the 13 is just silently ignored by the compiler. Why is this? The cooky thing is that if the template declaration is in Main.cpp instead of a header file, I do indeed get the default parameter redefinition error. Now I know the compiler will complain about this if it were just an ordinary (non-template) function. What does the standard have to say about default parameters in class template member functions or function templates?

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  • Flex 3 (Action Script): How to access a function from a loaded swf-file ?

    - by Trantec
    Hi, i load in ActionScript a swf file. So far no Problem, but I didn't found a way to access one of it's functions, the best thing would be if I could access the main function in the mxml part of the swf. Here is the code of the main-mxml file that belongs to the swf that should load and access another swf: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" initialize="basket();"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.controls.SWFLoader; private function basket(): void { var swfLoader: SWFLoader = new SWFLoader(); swfLoader.addEventListener( Event.COMPLETE, handleSWFLoaded ); try { swfLoader.load( "../../data/InternalSWF.swf" ); } catch (error: Error) { trace( "Couldn't load file !" ); } } private function handleSWFLoaded( event: Event ): void { var swfApp:* = event.target.content; // This both ways don't work... //if (swfApp.hasOwnProperty("initApp")) { // var initApp:Function = (swfApp["initApp"] as Function); // initApp(); //} // swfApp.initApp(); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:Text id="output" width="100%" textAlign="center" /> </mx:Application> The if-Statement "if (swfApp.hasOwnProperty("initApp")) {" is never true and the call "swfApp.initApp()" says that this function does not exist. In the original version I added event listeners for HTTPStatusEvent.HTTP_STATUS, IOErrorEvent.IO_ERROR and SecurityErrorEvent.SECURITY_ERROR. But except for HTTP_STATUS = 0 none of them are called. Is the whole idea of how i try to do this wrong ?

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  • which is better: a lying copy constructor or a non-standard one?

    - by PaulH
    I have a C++ class that contains a non-copyable handle. The class, however, must have a copy constructor. So, I've implemented one that transfers ownership of the handle to the new object (as below) class Foo { public: Foo() : h_( INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE ) { }; // transfer the handle to the new instance Foo( const Foo& other ) : h_( other.Detach() ) { }; ~Foo() { if( INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE != h_ ) CloseHandle( h_ ); }; // other interesting functions... private: /// disallow assignment const Foo& operator=( const Foo& ); HANDLE Detach() const { HANDLE h = h_; h_ = INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE; return h; }; /// a non-copyable handle mutable HANDLE h_; }; // class Foo My problem is that the standard copy constructor takes a const-reference and I'm modifying that reference. So, I'd like to know which is better (and why): a non-standard copy constructor: Foo( Foo& other ); a copy-constructor that 'lies': Foo( const Foo& other ); Thanks, PaulH

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  • problem with converting simple code from Winform to silverlight app.

    - by Sara
    Hi. I have this code for window form application and I have been attempting to convert it to a Silverlight application but it does not work!. There is a Textbox and I attached KeyDown event handler to it. when the user press the arrow key ( left or right) while the focus on the textbox, it will write . or -. When it is window form i used e.KeyCode and Keys.Right and its works great but when it is silverlight I used e.Key and key.Right and the program doesn't work good because the arrows do the 2 functions moving and write ./-. How I can work this out in Silverlight? (My English not good) The code ( window form): private void textBox1_KeyDown(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (sender is TextBox) { TextBox textBox = (TextBox)sender; if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Left || e.KeyCode == Keys.Right) { e.Handled = true; char insert; if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Left) { insert = '.'; } else { insert = '-'; } int i = textBox.SelectionStart; textBox.Text = textBox.Text.Insert(i, insert.ToString()); textBox.Select(i + 1, 0); } } } (and Silverlight): private void textBox1_KeyDown(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (sender is TextBox) { TextBox textBox = (TextBox)sender; if (e.Key == Key.Left || e.Key == Key.Right) { e.Handled = true; char insert; if (e.Key == Key.Left) { insert = '.'; } else { insert = '-'; } int i = textBox.SelectionStart; textBox.Text = textBox.Text.Insert(i, insert.ToString()); textBox.Select(i + 1, 0); } } } I don't understand, is there huge different effect between using Keycode/Keys and Key/Key or because something else?

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  • Setting up a view to draw to in Objective-C (iPhone) ?

    - by Johannes Jensen
    Okay, so, I'm all new to iPhone and stuff, but I'm not even at programming, I have many years of experience with ActionScript 2.0 and 3.0, I want to set up a view, that I can also pass variables to. The view is gonna draw everything with Quartz. I tried to make another game where I tried to add a pointer to a NSMutableArray to the view class, but it didn't work cause I didn't know how to store an actual class. I wanted to do like: [myView setNeedsDisplay]; but I had to do [(View*)self.view setNeedsDisplay]; didn't really work out in the end... Okay, so now I got: - (void) viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; viewClass = [[View class] retain]; gameView = [[[viewClass alloc] initWithFrame: CGRectZero] retain]; [gameView setNeedsDisplay]; } This is in my drawInContext:context, which is fired by drawRect: Also, my drawRect does [self drawInContext: UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext()]; CGContextSetStrokeColorWithColor(context, [[UIColor blackColor] CGColor]); CGContextSetLineWidth(context, 3.0); CGContextSetLineCap(context, kCGLineCapRound); CGContextSetLineJoin(context, kCGLineJoinRound); CGMutablePathRef aPath = CGPathCreateMutable(); CGPathMoveToPoint(aPath, nil, 5, 5); CGPathAddLineToPoint(aPath, nil, 45, 43); CGContextAddPath(context, aPath); CGContextStrokePath(context); Nothing happens. Help? Oh yeah, I get this error: : invalid context for each time I use those functions. :[ Thanks!

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  • Robotlegs: Warning: Injector already has a rule for type

    - by MikeW
    I have a bunch of warning messages like this appear when using Robotlegs/Signals. Everytime this command class executes, which is every 2-3 seconds ..this message displays below If you have overwritten this mapping intentionally you can use "injector.unmap()" prior to your replacement mapping in order to avoid seeing this message. Warning: Injector already has a rule for type "mx.messaging.messages::IMessage", named "". The command functions fine otherwise but I think I'm doing something wrong anyhow. public class MessageReceivedCommand extends SignalCommand { [Inject] public var message:IMessage; ...etc.. do something with message.. } the application context doesnt map IMessage to this command, as I only see an option to mapSignalClass , besides the payload is received fine. Wonder if anyone knows how I might either fix or suppress this message. I've tried calling this as the warning suggests injector.unmap(IMessage, "") but I receive an error - no mapping found for ::IMessage named "". Thanks Edit: A bit more info about the error Here is the signal that I dispatch to the command public class GameMessageSignal extends Signal { public function GameMessageSignal() { super(IMessage); } } which is dispatched from a IPushDataService class gameMessage.dispatch(message.message); and the implementation is wired up in the app context via injector.mapClass(IPushDataService, PushDataService); along with the signal signalCommandMap.mapSignalClass(GameMessageSignal, MessageReceivedCommand); Edit #2: Probably good to point out also I inject an instance of GameMessageSignal into IPushDataService public class PushDataService extends BaseDataService implements IPushDataService { [Inject] public var gameMessage:GameMessageSignal; //then private function processMessage(message:MessageEvent):void { gameMessage.dispatch(message.message); } } Edit:3 The mappings i set up in the SignalContext: injector.mapSingleton(IPushDataService); injector.mapClass(IPushDataService, PushDataService);

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