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  • How to differentiate between two similar fields in Linq Join tables

    - by Azhar
    How to differentiate between two select new fields e.g. Description c.Description and lt.Description DataTable lDt = new DataTable(); try { lDt.Columns.Add(new DataColumn("AreaTypeID", typeof(Int32))); lDt.Columns.Add(new DataColumn("CategoryRef", typeof(Int32))); lDt.Columns.Add(new DataColumn("Description", typeof(String))); lDt.Columns.Add(new DataColumn("CatDescription", typeof(String))); EzEagleDBDataContext lDc = new EzEagleDBDataContext(); var lAreaType = (from lt in lDc.tbl_AreaTypes join c in lDc.tbl_AreaCategories on lt.CategoryRef equals c.CategoryID where lt.AreaTypeID== pTypeId select new { lt.AreaTypeID, lt.Description, lt.CategoryRef, c.Description }).ToArray(); for (int j = 0; j< lAreaType.Count; j++) { DataRow dr = lDt.NewRow(); dr["AreaTypeID"] = lAreaType[j].LandmarkTypeID; dr["CategoryRef"] = lAreaType[j].CategoryRef; dr["Description"] = lAreaType[j].Description; dr["CatDescription"] = lAreaType[j].; lDt.Rows.Add(dr); } } catch (Exception ex) { }

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  • C# to VB question

    - by Jim
    Hi, I can achieve in VB what the following C# snippet does but it seems very clunky since I perform a Linq query to obtain the events for the relevant user. Is there a neat way? ctx.FetchEventsForWhichCurrentUserIsRegistered((op) => { if (!op.HasError) { var items = op.Value; _currentUserRegisteredEventIds = new HashSet<int>(items); UpdateRegistrationButtons(); } }, null); } else { _currentUserRegisteredEventIds = null; UpdateRegistrationButtons(); }

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  • Controller getting NULL value?

    - by RSolberg
    I'm trying to make a call to a controller via jQuery $.post, but the parameter for my controller method keeps getting a NULL value despite it appearing to be setup similar to other controller methods. CONTROLLER [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult SearchWeatherLocations(string searchFor) { //Do Some Magic } GLOBAL.ASAX routes.MapRoute("SearchWeatherLocations", "Home/SearchWeatherLocations/{searchFor}", new { controller = "Home", action = "SearchWeatherLocations" }); jQuery Call From View <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { GetWeatherLocations("seat"); }); function GetWeatherLocations(sSearchFor) { var divToBeWorkedOn = '#locations'; var webMethod = '<%= Url.Action("SearchWeatherLocations", "Home") %>/'; var url = webMethod + sSearchFor; $.post(url, function (data) { $('#locations').children().remove(); for (var count in data) { $('#locations').append("<li>" + data[count].LocationName + "&nbsp;(" + data[count].LocationCode + ")</li>"); } }); } </script>

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  • Want to create a action filter to force Url to be using SSL

    - by Blankman
    I want to create a action filter that will check the url, and if its not using Ssl, redirect to the same page but with SSL. What is the best way of doing this? Should I just check the RawUrl, and scan the string for https, and if its not there then do: context.Response.Redirect(context.Request.RawUrl.Replace("http:", "https:"));

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  • 500 error for long url iis7

    - by Chris Porter
    I was getting 404 errors for some long URLs on a website I'm developing. After a bit of digging I discovered that this occurs when the length of certain aspects of the URL exceed configurable limits in IIS7. In this case the maxQueryString attribute of the requestLimits property needed to be increased in the web.config <system.webServer> <security> <requestFiltering> <requestLimits maxQueryString="4096" maxAllowedContentLength="4096" maxUrl="8192" > </requestLimits> </requestFiltering> </security> This fixed the problem instantly on my development server but on the remote server I now get: 500 - Internal server error. There is a problem with the resource you are looking for, and it cannot be displayed. And that's all the information it gives me.

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  • How come module-level validators are evaluated only after property-level validators?

    - by jonathanconway
    I'm using the module-level validator: 'PropertiesMustMatch' on my view-model, like so: [PropertiesMustMatch("Password", "PasswordConfirm")] public class HomeIndex { [Required] public string Name { get; set; } public string Password { get; set; } public string PasswordConfirm { get; set; } } I'm noticing that if I submit the form without Name filled in, the ValidationSummary() helper returns only the following error: The Name field is required. However, if I fill in Name, then ValidationSummary() will return a PropertiesMustMatch error: 'Password' and 'PasswordConfirm' do not match. So it looks like the property-level validators are being evaluated first, then the model-level validators. I would much prefer if they were all validated at once, and ValidationSummary would return: The Name field is required. 'Password' and 'PasswordConfirm' do not match. Any ideas what I can do to fix this? I'm studying the MVC 2 source-code to try to determine why this happens.

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  • Returning a JSON view in combination with a boolean

    - by Rody van Sambeek
    What i would like to accomplish is that a partiel view contains a form. This form is posted using JQuery $.post. After a successfull post javascript picks up the result and uses JQuery's html() method to fill a container with the result. However now I don't want to return the Partial View, but a JSON object containing that partial view and some other object (Success - bool in this case). I tried it with the following code: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(int id, Item item) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { try { // ... return Json(new { Success = true, PartialView = PartialView("Edit", item) }); } catch(Exception ex) { // ... } } return Json(new { Success = false, PartialView = PartialView("Edit", item) }); } However I don't get the HTML in this JSON object and can't use html() to show the result. I tried using this method to render the partial as Html and send that. However this fails on the RenderControl(tw) method with a: The method or operation is not implemented.

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  • FormView templates break when refactored to Master/Content

    - by ZaijiaN
    Let's say I have an abstract class IA, with subclasses A1, A2, A3. For each subclass, I had a page with a FormView to insert/edit/view, with code specific to that class. The templates for insert/edit/view are all very similar, so it was mostly cut & paste, and the compiler had no problem that there were controls with the same IDs in the different templates. Something like this: <asp:FormView> <InsertItemTemplate> <asp:Label id="Label1" /> </InsertItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:Label id="Label1" /> </EdittItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> Much of the code/markup ended up being redundant across the pages, so I refactored it to use a master/content format, with the master page having content placeholders for the insert/edit/view templates. Master page: <asp:FormView> <InsertItemTemplate> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="InsertItemTemplate"></asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </InsertItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="EditItemTemplate"></asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </EdittItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> And content page: <asp:Content ContentPlaceHolderID="InsertItemTemplate"> <asp:Label id="Label1" /> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ContentPlaceHolderID="EditItemTemplate"> <asp:Label id="Label1" /> </asp:Content> In the content page templates, I'm doing the exact same thing I was doing before I refactored, but now the compiler is blowing up with the error BC30260: 'Label1' is already declared as 'Protected WithEvents Label1 As System.Web.UI.WebControls.Label' in this class. For some reason, it's not separating the controls in the content blocks the same way it did when they were in the templates, even though the content placeholders are in the individual templates. Is there a way around this, other than to rename all my controls?

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  • strange problem with WriteBeginTag

    - by user276640
    i use such code, but it renders with error <li class="dd0"><div id="dt1"<a href="http://localhost:1675/Category/29-books.aspx">Books</a></div></li> there is no > in opening tag div. what the problem? writer.WriteBeginTag("li"); //writer.WriteAttribute("class", this.CssClass); writer.WriteAttribute("class", "dd0"); if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(this.LiLeftMargin)) { writer.WriteAttribute("style", string.Format("margin-left: {0}px", this.LiLeftMargin)); } writer.Write(HtmlTextWriter.TagRightChar); writer.WriteBeginTag("div"); writer.WriteAttribute("id", "dt1"); this.HyperLink.RenderControl(writer); writer.WriteEndTag("div"); writer.WriteEndTag("li");

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  • Outlook is unable to accept french-accented characters in my mailto string?

    - by 4501
    Outlook is causing some problems when being passed a mailto string with accented characters in it. Changing the codepage for my entire webpage that has this string on it solves this problem, but that causes other problems in the system, so I would not like to do that. A string like such returns a lot of garbage characters: "mailto:[email protected]?subject=Mon bâtiment / Départementé / Bureau n'est pas répertorié" Meanwhile, this cuts off the character after the "D" "mailto:[email protected]?subject=Mon bâtiment / D&eacute;partement&#233; / Bureau n'est pas r&#233;pertori&#233;" What gives? Is there no way to make this work? I am in Canada, so some regional issues might be taking effect here?

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  • Can I make controls defined in my markup public instead of protected

    - by RoboShop
    Say I have a web site with a master page and an aspx page. In my ASPX page, I am pointing to my masterpage with the MasterType tag. <%@ MasterType VirtualPath="~/mymasterpage.master" % Say, I've defined a label in the markup of my master page. If you look at the designer code, this label should be something like this. protected global::System.Web.UI.WebControls.Label label1; Now in my content page, I would like to reference this label. If I type in this "Master.label1", the complier will complain that the control is inaccessible due to the protection level" and rightly so, as label1 is automatically defined as "protected". My question is, if I define controls in my markup page, is it possible to set these controls as public instead of protected? I do not see an attribute for it. thanks in advance.

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  • Conversion failed: SqlParameter and DateTime

    - by Tim
    I'm changing old,vulnerable sqlcommands with SqlParameters but get a SqlException: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException {"Conversion failed when converting datetime from character string."} on sqlCommand.ExecuteScalar() Dim sqlString As String = _ "SELECT TOP 1 " & _ "fiSL " & _ "FROM " & _ "tabData AS D " & _ "WHERE " & _ "D.SSN_Number = '@SSN_Number' " & _ "AND D.fiProductType = 1 " & _ "AND D.Repair_Completion_Date > '@Repair_Completion_Date' " & _ "ORDER BY " & _ "D.Repair_Completion_Date ASC" Dim obj As Object Dim sqlCommand As SqlCommand Try sqlCommand = New SqlCommand(sqlString, Common.MyDB.SqlConn_RM2) sqlCommand.CommandTimeout = 120 sqlCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@SSN_Number", myClaim.SSNNumber) sqlCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Repair_Completion_Date", myClaim.RepairCompletionDate) If Common.MyDB.SqlConn_RM2.State <> System.Data.ConnectionState.Open Then Common.MyDB.SqlConn_RM2.Open() obj = sqlCommand.ExecuteScalar() Catch ex As Exception Dim debug As String = ex.ToString Finally Common.MyDB.SqlConn_RM2.Close() End Try myClaim.RepairCompletionDate is a SQLDateTime. Do i have to remove the quotes in the sqlString to compare Date columns? But then i dont get a exception but incorrect results.

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  • Why won't my anonymous function fire on grid.prerender?

    - by adam0101
    In my gridview I have fields for inserting a new record in the footer. In my objectdatasource selecting event if no records came back I bind a single mock row to force the footer to show so they can still add records. Since the row does not contain real data I hide the row. ... If result.ItemCount = 0 Then result = mockRow AddHandler mygridview.PreRender, AddressOf HideRow End If End Sub Private Sub HideRow(ByVal sender as Object, ByVal e as EventArgs) mygridview.Rows(0).Visible = False End Sub This works fine. However, I'd like to condense it like this: ... If result.ItemCount = 0 Then result = mockRow AddHandler mygridview.PreRender, Function() mygridview.Rows(0).Visible = False End If End Sub This compiles fine, but the row doesn't get hidden. Can anyone tell me why my anonymous function isn't getting hit?

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  • Need to add "exe" version info to a mobile device exe created in VB

    - by bmutch
    I want to add version info to my mobile device exe file and apparently the following line is not supported in CF (windows mobile 6.0), ideas?: <Assembly: AssemblyFileVersion("1.0.0.0")> I want to be able to to right-click on the .exe after it is copied over to the PC and have the version displayed in a version tab just like any other .exe. I would then be able to read this version in code from a VB6 program.

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  • How to drill down any report

    - by shamim
    I have a report on RDLC.suppose this report of any account software.clicking on this report i want to show this report child report. Suppose i have Four report names are A,B,C,D,E.Click on button I see the report A, click on report Column I see report B or C or D,E next report show on basis of click on column.I actually want to drill down the report.How to drill down on report .please tell me.

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  • Can I get a reference to a pending transaction from a SqlConnection object?

    - by Rune
    Hey, Suppose someone (other than me) writes the following code and compiles it into an assembly: using (SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(connString)) { conn.Open(); using (var transaction = conn.BeginTransaction()) { /* Update something in the database */ /* Then call any registered OnUpdate handlers */ InvokeOnUpdate(conn); transaction.Commit(); } } The call to InvokeOnUpdate(IDbConnection conn) calls out to an event handler that I can implement and register. Thus, in this handler I will have a reference to the IDbConnection object, but I won't have a reference to the pending transaction. Is there any way in which I can get a hold of the transaction? In my OnUpdate handler I want to execute something similar to the following: private void MyOnUpdateHandler(IDbConnection conn) { var cmd = conn.CreateCommand(); cmd.CommandText = someSQLString; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.Text; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } However, the call to cmd.ExecuteNonQuery() throws an InvalidOperationException complaining that "ExecuteNonQuery requires the command to have a transaction when the connection assigned to the command is in a pending local transaction. The Transaction property of the command has not been initialized". Can I in any way enlist my SqlCommand cmd with the pending transaction? Can I retrieve a reference to the pending transaction from the IDbConnection object (I'd be happy to use reflection if necessary)?

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  • Why would it be a bad idea to have database connection open between client requests?

    - by AspOnMyNet
    1) Book I’m reading argues that connections shouldn’t be opened between client requests, since they are a finite resource. I realize that max pool size can quickly be reached and thus any further attempts to open a connection will be queued until connection becomes available and for that reason it would be imperative that we release connection as soon as possible. But assuming all request will open connection to the same DB, then I’m not sure how having a connection open between two client requests would be any less efficient than having each request first acquiring a connection from connection pool and later returning that object to connection pool? 2) Book also recommends that when database code is encapsulated in a dedicated data access class, then method M opening a database connection should also close that connection. a) I assume one reason why M should also close it, is because if method M opening the connection doesn’t also close it, but instead this connection object is used inside several methods, then it’s more likely that a programmer will forget to close it. b) Are there any other reasons why a method opening the connection should also close it? thanx

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  • Passing URL parameter and a form data together

    - by Fabio
    I have following URL: http://localhost:49970/Messages/Index/9999 And at view "Index" I have a form and I post the form data to the action Index (decored with [HttpPost]) using Jquery, like this: View: <script type="text/javascript"> function getMessages() { var URL = "Index"; $.post( URL, $("form").serialize(), function(data) { $('#tabela').html(data); } ); } </script> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <%=Html.TextArea("Message") %> <input type="button" id="submit" value="Send" onclick="javascript:getMessages();" /> <% } %> Controller: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(FormCollection collection) { //do something... return PartialView("SomePartialView", someModel); } My question: How can I get the parameter "9999" and the form FormCollection in the action Index? PS: Sorry about my english :)

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  • UAC need for console application

    - by Daok
    I have a console application that require to use some code that need administrator level. I have read that I need to add a Manifest file myprogram.exe.manifest that look like that : <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <assembly xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1" manifestVersion="1.0"> <trustInfo xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v3"> <security> <requestedPrivileges> <requestedExecutionLevel level="requireAdministrator"> </requestedPrivileges> </security> </trustInfo> </assembly> But it still doesn't raise the UAC (in the console or in debugging in VS). How can I solve this issue? Update I am able to make it work if I run the solution in Administrator or when I run the /bin/*.exe in Administrator. I am still wondering if it's possible to have something that will pop when the application start instead of explicitly right clickRun as Administrator?

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