Search Results

Search found 31075 results on 1243 pages for 'change'.

Page 365/1243 | < Previous Page | 361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370 371 372  | Next Page >

  • Excel VBA Select Case Loop Sub

    - by Zack
    In my excel file, I have a table setup with formulas. with Cells from Range("B2:B12"), Range ("D2:D12"), and etc every other row containing the answers to these formulas. for these cells (with the formula answers), I need to apply conditional formatting, but I have 7 conditions, so I've been using "select case" in VBA to change their interior background based on their number. I have the select case function currently set up within the sheet code, as opposed to it's own macro Private Sub Worksheet_Change(ByVal Target As Range) Dim iColor As Integer If Not Intersect(Target, Range("B2:L12")) Is Nothing Then Select Case Target Case 0 iColor = 2 Case 0.01 To 0.49 iColor = 36 Case 0.5 To 0.99 iColor = 6 Case 1 To 1.99 iColor = 44 Case 2 To 2.49 iColor = 45 Case 2.5 To 2.99 iColor = 46 Case 3 To 5 iColor = 3 End Select Target.Interior.ColorIndex = iColor End If End Sub but using this method, you must be actually entering the value into the cell for the formatting to work. which is why I want to write a subroutine to to do this as a macro. I can input my data, let the formulas work, and when everything is ready, I can run the macro and format those specific cells. I want an easy way to do this, obviously I could waste a load of time, typing out all the cases for every cell, but I figured it'd be easier with a loop. how would I go about writing a select case loop to change the formatting on a a specific range of cells every other row? thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • Does WPF break an Entity Framework ObjectContext?

    - by David Veeneman
    I am getting started with Entity Framework 4, and I am getting ready to write a WPF demo app to learn EF4 better. My LINQ queries return IQueryable<T>, and I know I can drop those into an ObservableCollection<T> with the following code: IQueryable<Foo> fooList = from f in Foo orderby f.Title select f; var observableFooList = new ObservableCollection<Foo>(fooList); At that point, I can set the appropriate property on my view model to the observable collection, and I will get WPF data binding between the view and the view model property. Here is my question: Do I break the ObjectContext when I move my foo list to the observable collection? Or put another way, assuming I am otherwise handling my ObjectContext properly, will EF4 properly update the model (and the database)? The reason why I ask is this: NHibernate tracks objects at the collection level. If I move an NHibernate IList<T> to an observable collection, it breaks NHibernate's change tracking mechanism. That means I have to do some very complicated object wrapping to get NHibernate to work with WPF. I am looking at EF4 as a way to dispense with all that. So, to get EF4 working with WPF, is it as simple as dropping my IQueryable<T> results into an ObservableCollection<T>. Does that preserve change-tracking on my EDM entity objects? Thanks for your help.

    Read the article

  • Hibernate : Opinions in Composite PK vs Surrogate PK

    - by Albert Kam
    As i understand it, whenever i use @Id and @GeneratedValue on a Long field inside JPA/Hibernate entity, i'm actually using a surrogate key, and i think this is a very nice way to define a primary key considering my not-so-good experiences in using composite primary keys, where : there are more than 1 business-value-columns combination that become a unique PK the composite pk values get duplicated across the table details cannot change the business value inside that composite PK I know hibernate can support both types of PK, but im left wondering by my previous chats with experienced colleagues where they said that composite PK is easier to deal with when doing complex SQL queries and stored procedure processes. They went on saying that when using surrogate keys will complicate things when doing joining and there are several condition when it's impossible to do some stuffs when using surrogate keys. Although im sorry i cant explain the detail here since i was not clear enough when they explain it. Maybe i'll put more details next time. Im currently trying to do a project, and want to try out surrogate keys, since it's not getting duplicated across tables, and we can change the business-column values. And when the need for some business value combination uniqueness, i can use something like : @Table(name="MY_TABLE", uniqueConstraints={ @UniqueConstraint(columnNames={"FIRST_NAME", "LAST_NAME"}) // name + lastName combination must be unique But im still in doubt because of the previous discussion about the composite key. Could you share your experiences in this matter ? Thank you !

    Read the article

  • In VB.net websites, VS2008 ALWAYS uses space indentation for new files

    - by Jez
    So, I've changed my settings in Tools | Options | Text Editor, for All Languages, Basic, and C#, to having Block indenting, and 'Keep tabs'. I've also tried this with Smart indenting too. Now, although once I start editing a file, its auto indentation is done with tabs, when I create a new web form in my ASP.net website, VS2008 insists on creating the initial code with space indentation. So for example, I'll get an aspx.vb file for my new page like so: Partial Class Admin_Index Inherits System.Web.UI.Page End Class Note that the 'Inherits' line is SPACE-indented, even though I have the text editor settings set to keep tabs. Is there any way I can make the default created files indented with tabs, not spaces? Or is VS just too stubborn? :-) By the way, please don't just respond and say this is petty as I can quickly change that one line of indentation to using a tab. I know this, but I have a software team that find it irritating as we have an SVN hook that prevents checkins if there's any space-indentation. It would be very useful if any newly-created files have tab indentation from the start, rather than us having to change it every time.

    Read the article

  • How do you update table row background color in IE using Javascript/CSS ?

    - by giulio
    I have a table that i want to "highlight" during onmouseover/onmouseout. I already know this is required in IE but not in other browsers. I have managed to detect the events triggering and this TR tag effectively works. (Note that the originating class "contentTableRow" doesn't seem to be causing any issues.) class="contentTableRow" onclick="openForm('SomeID');" onmouseover="highlight('someRowID', true);" onmouseout="highlight('someRowID', false);" id="someRowID" All is fine and dandy, the "highlight" function fires and actually sets the appropriate class. It's just that IE won't process the CSS class name change. Here is a snippet of the CSS I am using to make the change. .HighlightOn { cursor:pointer; background-color: #D1DFFF; } .HighlightOff { background-color: #E1EEFE; } I can see that the Class names are getting updated when I debug it, and also check it in Firebug. But it seems that IE doesn't like this usage of classes with a TR tag.. Is it the way I am structuring the class for Tables ? Any advice ?

    Read the article

  • Android SQLite database locale, locking, and version

    - by gdoten
    In some books and online I see these method calls being made after a database is created: db.setLocale(Locale.getDefault()); db.setLockingEnabled(true); db.setVersion(DB_VERSION); Why is this done? As far as I can tell, after creating a new database, the system adds a table named android_metadata with one field named locale and that table has one row with the locale field set to "en_US". Now I assume the column has that value because I am using a U.S. phone, and if I were using a phone from a different region then the locale field would be set appropriately. Can anyone confirm this? I'm guessing that the setLocale method would only be useful in the case that you install a pre-built database onto a phone and then want to change the locale to match the phone's locale. Sound right? The documentation for setLockingEnabled says it defaults to true so there's no need to make that call, right? Lastly, what's with the call to setVersion? I can't find a table that contains this information so I've been assuming that the database file itself stores the version number somewhere. So when I create a database, which requires you to have already specified the version number in the call to the SQLiteOpenHelper constructor, there's no point in calling setVersion. Again, perhaps this method exists for the case of installing a pre-built database to a device and you then wish to change the database's version (though I can't think of when doing this would make sense). Thanks for any insight!

    Read the article

  • asp:repeater events - how to postback

    - by Kieran
    Hello I have an ASP:Repeater Which I would like to display a list of check boxes in. These check boxes are related to a list of user preferences and the users resulting answer. See Code Bellow. I would like to add do one of the following if possible Option 1: It would be great if I could use the Event in the Repeater:OnItemCommand(...) to fire if any of the items change. It would seem to me that this event will only fire if there is a Button | LinkButton | ImageButton item in the list. IE it will not fire if I put in a check box with AutopostBack="True" Option 2: Is there a way I could attach a method to an Event of CheckBox:CheckChanged I would need to pass this method a parameter saying which question/answer combo to change. Option 3: Its your answer if you know an easier way that would be awesome. The Code: <asp:Repeater ID="RPTprefs" runat="server" DataSourceID="getAnswers" OnItemCommand="RPTprefs_ItemCommand"> <ItemTemplate> <li><asp:CheckBox ID='questionID' runat="server" Checked='<%# Eval("pr.up_is_selected") %>' Text='<%# Eval("prp.prefs_question") %>' AutoPostBack="true" OnCheckedChanged="CheckChanged" /></li> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • jQuery + Jeditable - detect when select is changed

    - by Bryan Roth
    I'm using Jeditable for in-place editing. One the controls I am working with has the select type. When a user clicks on the field, the following select control is generated: <div id="status" class="editable_select"> <form> <select name="value"> <option value="Active">Active</option> <option value="Inactive">Inactive</option> </select> <button type="submit">Save</button> <button type="cancel">Cancel</button> </form> </div> What I am trying to figure out is how to use jQuery to detect when that select control is changed, especially since it doesn't have an ID attribute. This is what I have so far, but the event is not getting triggered: $(document).ready(function () { $('#status select').change(function () { alert("Change Event Triggered On:" + $(this).attr("value")); }); });

    Read the article

  • Open Source: Why not release into Public Domain?

    - by Goosey
    I have recently been wondering why so little code is ever released as 'Public Domain'. MIT and BSD licenses are becoming extremely popular and practically only have the restriction of license propagation. The reasons I can think of so far are: Credit - aka Prestige, Street-cred, 'Props', etc. Authors don't want usage of the code restricted, but they also want credit for creating the code. Two problems with this reason. I have seen projects copy/paste the MIT or BSD license without adding the 'Copyright InsertNameHere' thereby making it a tag-along license that doesn't give them credit. I have talked to authors who say they don't care about people giving them credit, they just want people to use their code. Public Domain would make it easier for people to do so. License Change - IANAL, but I believe by licensing their code, even with an extremely nonrestrictive license, this means they can change the license on a later revision? This reason is not good for explaining most BSD/MIT licensed code which seems to have no intent of ever becoming more restrictive. AS IS - All licenses seem to have the SCREAMING CAPS declaration saying that the software is 'as is' and that the author offers no implied or express warranty. IANAL, but isn't this implied in public domain? Am I missing some compelling reason? The authors I have talked to about this basically said something along the lines of "BSD/MIT just seems like what you do, no one does public domain". Is this groupthink in action, or is there a compelling anti-public domain argument? Thanks EDIT: I am specifically asking about Public Domain vs BSD/MIT/OtherEquallyUnrestrictiveLicense. Not GPL. Please understand what these licenses allow, and this includes: Selling the work, changing the work and not 'giving the changes back', and incorporating the work in a differently (such as commercially) licensed work. Thank You to everyone who has replied who understands what BSD/MIT means.

    Read the article

  • wpf c# databinding on object

    - by Enriquev
    Hello, say I have this control: public partial class bloc999 : UserControl { bloc999Data mainBlock = new bloc999Data(); public bloc999() { InitializeComponent(); mainBlock.txtContents = "100"; base.DataContext = mainBlock; } } in the xaml: <TextBox Margin="74,116,106,0" Name="txtContents" Text="{Binding Path=txtContents, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged,Mode = TwoWay}" /> <TextBox Margin="74,145,106,132" Name="txtContents2" Text="{Binding Path=txtContents2, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged,Mode = TwoWay}" /> Then I have this class: public class bloc999Data : INotifyPropertyChanged { string _txtContents; string _txtContents2; public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; void NotifyPropertyChanged(string propName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) this.PropertyChanged( this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propName)); } public string txtContents2 { get { return this._txtContents2; } set { if (int.Parse(value) > int.Parse(this._txtContents)) { this._txtContents2 = "000"; } else this._txtContents2 = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("txtContents2"); } } public string txtContents { get { return this._txtContents; } set { this._txtContents = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("txtContents"); } } } Ok now say I have A button on the form and I do this in the code: mainBlock.txtContents2 = "7777777"; It puts 000 in the textbox, but If i just type in manually, in the textbox (txtContents2, the setter code is called but for some reason the textboxes value does not change, the instance value does change. help?

    Read the article

  • Laravel 4 showing all field from one to one relationship in

    - by rivai04
    I'm trying to show all field of the chosen row from one to one relationship... Route Route::get('relasi-pasien', function() { $pasien = PasienIri::where('no_ipd', '=', '100')->first(); foreach($pasien->keadaanumum as $temp) { echo'<li> Name : '.$temp->name. 'Tekdar: '.$temp->tekdar. 'Nadi : '.$temp->nadi. '</li>'; } }); Relation at PasienIri's model public function keadaanumum() { return $this->hasOne('KeadaanUmum', 'no_ipd'); } Relation at KeadaanUmum's Model public function pasieniri() { return $this->belongsTo('PasienIri', 'no_ipd'); } When I used that way, it showed error: 'Trying to get property of non-object' But if I just trying to show only one of the field, it works, showing one field: Route::get('relasi-pasien', function() { $pasien = PasienIri::where('no_ipd', '=', '100')->first(); return $pasien->keadaanumum->name; }); anyone could help me to show all field with one to one relationship or I really have to change it to one to many relationship? cause if I change it to one to many relationship, it works

    Read the article

  • C# : changing listbox row color?

    - by Meko
    HI. I am trying to changing backround colorof some rows on listbox.I have 2 list that one has all names and it shown on listbox.And second list has some same value with first list.I want to show that when clicking button it will search in listbox and in second list then will change color where found value. I may search in list box like for (int i = 0; i < listBox1.Items.Count; i++) { for (int j = 0; j < students.Count; j++) if (listBox1.Items[i].ToString().Contains(students[j].ToString())) { } } But I don't know which method to change appearances of row.Any help? *EDIT: * HI I made my code like private void ListBox1_DrawItem(object sender, DrawItemEventArgs e) { e.DrawBackground(); Graphics g = e.Graphics; Brush myBrush = Brushes.Black; Brush myBrush2 = Brushes.Red; g.FillRectangle(new SolidBrush(Color.Silver), e.Bounds); e.Graphics.DrawString(listBox1.Items[e.Index].ToString(), e.Font, myBrush, e.Bounds, StringFormat.GenericDefault); for (int i = 0; i < listBox1.Items.Count; i++) { for (int j = 0; j < existingStudents.Count; j++) if (listBox1.Items[i].ToString().Contains(existingStudents[j])) { e.Graphics.DrawString(listBox1.Items[i].ToString(), e.Font, myBrush2, e.Bounds, StringFormat.GenericDefault); } } e.DrawFocusRectangle(); } Now it draws my list on listbox.But when I click button first it shows only student that in list with red color but when I click on listbox it again draws all elements.I want that it will show all element ,when I click button it will show all elements and founded element in list with red color.Whre is my mistake?

    Read the article

  • Can FluentNHibernate be used with .Net4?

    - by stiank81
    I have a WPF application running with .Net3.5 using FluentNHibernate, and all works fine. When I upgraded to VS2010 I ran into some odd problems, but after changing to use x64 variant of SQLite it worked fine again. Now I want to change to use .Net4, but this has turned into a more painful experience then I expected.. First I met a problem which required that I set a [SecurityCritical] attribute. Fine - I fixed this. But the reason this was exposed was because an exception was thrown in the first place. And the exception thrown was the following - when calling FluentConfiguration.BuildConfiguration: FluentConfigurationException unhandled An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more detail The inner exception gives us more information: Message = "Could not create the driver from NHibernate.Driver.SQLite20Driver, NHibernate, Version=2.1.2.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4." This is what I saw in my own project when moving to VS2010. I have tried changing Fluent to use the x64 variant of SQLite, but this doesn't change anything. Does it sound like it might be related to mixing of 32bit and 64bit assemblies? I see that there are also others that have seen this problem, but I haven't really seen any solution yet. Anyone out there using Fluent with .Net4 and SQLite - on a 64bit machine - successfully? Help! I'm lost...

    Read the article

  • Replace in place, parsing & string manipulation.

    - by Mark Tomlin
    I'm trying to replace a set of characters within a string. The string may or may not have any data to change. The string is marked up in a way that allows for it to change it's color from a set of characters. The string can reset it's it's formatting to default by using a defined set of characters. This setup is very much like the ECMA-48 standard used on LINUX consoles for colors and other special effects. Where one string could be ^0Black^1Red^2Green^3Yellow^4Blue^5Purple^6Cyan^7White Producing the following HTML: <span style="color: #000">Black</span><span style="color: #F00">Red</span><span style="color: #0F0">Green</span><span style="color: #FF0">Yellow</span><span style="color: #00F">Blue</span><span style="color: #F0F">Purple</span><span style="color: #0FF">Cyan</span><span style="color: #FFF">White</span> Another string (^1Error^8: ^3User Error) could also produce: <span style="color: #F00">Error</span>: <span style="color: #FF0">User Error</span> You might of noticed the ^8 part of that string resets the color for that part of the string. What's the best way to go about parsing these kinds of strings?

    Read the article

  • Get an Arduino and Android phone to communicate over the web

    - by Saleem
    I am writing an Android application to communicate with my Arduino over the web. The Arduino is running a web server through an Ethernet shield. I am attaching my code, but I will explain it here so you will understand what I am trying to do. The Android sends an HTTP request in the format http://192.168.1.148/?Lights=1. The Arduino gets the request, executes the command (in this case turning on some lights) and then responds to the Android device by simply sending the string "Lights=On". The Android will then change the color of the button to notify the user that the command was executed successfully. The Arduino is getting the instruction and executing it and sending the response but my button color is not changing. I know that the Android device is getting the string because I added a debug line to change the text on the button to the received response. The relevant code for the Android device is: ((Button) v).setText(sb.toString()); //This works and the button text changes to "Lights=On". //Test response and update button if(sb.toString()=="Lights=On"){ v.getBackground().setColorFilter(0xFFFFFF00, PorterDuff.Mode.MULTIPLY); Drawable d = lightOff.getBackground(); lightOff.invalidateDrawable(d); d.clearColorFilter(); } The Arduino code is: if(s=="Lights"){ switch(client.read()){ case '0': digitalWrite(LightPin,0); client.print("Lights=Off"); //debug Serial.println("Lights=Off"); break; case '1': digitalWrite(LightPin,1); client.print("Lights=On"); Serial.println("Lights=On"); break; } } Please let me know if you need more of the code to answer this question.

    Read the article

  • Uncompress OpenOffice files for better storage in version control

    - by Craig McQueen
    I've heard discussion about how OpenOffice (ODF) files are compressed zip files of XML and other data. So making a tiny change to the file can potentially totally change the data, so delta compression doesn't work well in version control systems. I've done basic testing on an OpenOffice file, unzipping it and then rezipping it with zero compression. I used the Linux zip utility for my testing. OpenOffice will still happily open it. So I'm wondering if it's worth developing a small utility to run on ODF files each time just before I commit to version control. Any thoughts on this idea? Possible better alternatives? Secondly, what would be a good and robust way to implement this little utility? Bash shell that calls zip (probably Linux only)? Python? Any gotchas you can think of? Obviously I don't want to accidentally mangle a file, and there are several ways that could happen. Possible gotchas I can think of: Insufficient disk space Some other permissions issue that prevents writing the file or temporary files ODF document is encrypted (probably should just leave these alone; the encryption probably also causes large file changes and thus prevents efficient delta compression)

    Read the article

  • ASP.net dynamic controls issue when trying to reverse them

    - by Mattias Sandsäter
    I add some DropDownList dynamically to my form. It seems to work as it should when I use ...Controls.Add(dropdownlist), but in an attempt to turn them around and show them in reversed order I have tried to use ....Controls.AddAt(0, dropdownlist) However, this causes some strange behaviour. Before we dig in to the code, is there something I should know about dynamic adding, and more specific the AddAt()-method that usually causes trouble? Short description about what I do I start with a DropDownList (level1), when I choose something there, a new list should be added (level2) and so on. You can say you go your way down in a menu structure. Whenever you want you can change your choice at whatever level you want (of course not on later levels that you dont see yet). So lets say you are down to level 4 (You then have four boxes) and change your choice at level1, when the page reloads you are back to two boxes. http://forums.asp.net/p/885886/927411.aspx It seems that my problem was discussed here, but I didn´t see any solution about how I can acheive my intended behaviour.

    Read the article

  • Splitting MS Access Database - Front End Part Location

    - by kristof
    One of the best practices as specified by Microsoft for Access Development is splitting Access application into 2 parts; Front End that hold all the object except tables and the Back End that holds the tables. The msdn page links there to the article Splitting Microsoft Access Databases to Improve Performance and Simplify Maintainability that describes the process in details. It is recommended that in multi user environment the Back End is stored on the server/shared folder while the Front End is distributed to each user. That implies that each time there are any changes made to the front end they need to be deployed to every user machine. My question is: Assuming that the users themselves do not have rights to modify the Front End part of the application what would be the drawbacks/dangers of leaving this on the server as well next to the Back End copy? I can see the performance issues here, but are there any dangers here like possible corruptions etc? Thank you EDIT Just to clarify, the scenario specified in question assumes one Front End stored on the server and shared by users. I understand that the recommendation is to have FE deployed to each user machine, but my question is more about what are the dangers if that is not done. E.g. when you are given an existing solution that uses the approach of both FE and BE on the server. Assuming the the performance is acceptable and the customer is reluctant to change the approach would you still push the change? And why exactly? For example the danger of possible data corruption would definitely be the strong enough argument, but is that the case? It is a part of follow up of my previous question From SQL Server to MS Access 2007

    Read the article

  • when updating location.hash in Chrome the jQuery animation "freezes" for a second

    - by ubunut
    I'm trying to create a sort of "virtual gallery". I'm using Coda Slider 2.0 & jQuery v1.4.2 It behaves perfectly in IE, FF & Safari, but Chrome seems to reload/hang for a second when setting location.hash. This causes the jQuery animation to freeze for a second :S Example: http://hardyernst.dk/gallery.html try clicking on the navigation links above the pictures. The jQuery code that is being executed when clicking a navigation link: $('#coda-nav-' + sliderCount + ' a').each(function(z) { // What happens when a nav link is clicked $(this).bind("click", function() { offset = -(panelWidth*z); navClicks++; $(this).addClass('current').parents('ul').find('a').not($(this)).removeClass('current'); alterPanelHeight(z); currentPanel = z + 1; $('.panel-container', slider).stop().animate({ left: offset }, settings.slideEaseDuration, settings.slideEaseFunction, function(){ if (!settings.crossLinking) { return false; } // Don't change the URL hash unless cross-linking is specified }); }); }); if I add return false; at the end of the function. The animation will slide smoothly :)... BUT as you might have guessed the location.hash value remains unchanged :( I have tried setting the location.hash earlier in the function alas it did not change the behavior in Chrome Would be immensely grateful for any help :) Regards Ubunut

    Read the article

  • How do I get multimonth plugin of the jQuery datePicker to load with certain dates already selected?

    - by imHavoc
    well im using this script right here: http://www.kelvinluck.com/assets/jquery/datePicker/v2/demo/ and I have a multiMonth plugin and multiple select enabled. I want to be able to on load have certain dates already selected and those dates come from a database I found two possible clues to help me out, but since I have not strictly learned JS yet, I can not made heads or tails. http://www.kelvinluck.com/assets/jquery/datePicker/v2/demo/renderCalendarBankHolidays.html http://www.kelvinluck.com/assets/jquery/datePicker/v2/demo/datePickerDefaultToday.html here's the code right now im using: <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> jQuery(function() { jQuery('#multimonth').datePickerMultiMonth({ numMonths: 12, inline: true, selectMultiple: true, startDate: '01/09/2009', // DD/MM/YY month: 8, // 0=JAN 1=FEB ... year: 2009 }).bind( 'dpMonthChanged', function(event, displayedMonth, displayedYear) { //uncomment if you have firebug and want to confirm this works as expected... //console.log('dpMonthChanged', arguments); }).bind( 'dateSelected', function(event, date, jQuerytd, status) { //uncomment if you have firebug and want to confirm this works as expected... //console.log('dateSelected', arguments); }).val( new Date().asString()).trigger('change'); jQuery('#getSelected').bind( 'click', function(e) { alert(jQuery('#multimonth').dpmmGetSelected()); return false; }); }); </script> and this part is not being selected, I took it from the select todays date demo .val(new Date().asString()).trigger('change');

    Read the article

  • (EXCEL)VBA Spin button which steps through in an sql databases date time

    - by Gulredy
    I have an sql Database table in MySQL which have lots of rows with varied date time values. For example: 2012-08-21 10:10:00 <-- with these date there are around 12 rows 2012-08-21 15:31:00 <-- with these date there are around 5 rows 2012-08-22 11:40:00 <-- with these date there are around 10 rows 2012-08-22 12:17:00 <-- with these date there are around 9 rows 2012-08-22 12:18:00 <-- with these date there are around 7 rows 2012-08-25 07:21:00 <-- with these date there are around 6 rows If the user clicks on the SpinButton1_SpinUp() or SpinButton1_SpinDown() button then it should do the following: The SpinButton1_SpinUp() button should filter out those data from an sql table which is the next after what we are currently on now. Example: We have currently selected: 2012-08-21 15:31:00. The user hits the SpinUp button then the program selects those date from the database, which is the next higher value like this one: 2012-08-22 11:40:00. So the user hits the SpinUp button the data which is selected in the database will change from those with date: 2012-08-21 15:31:00 to those with date: 2012-08-22 11:40:00 The SpinButton1_SpinDown() will do exactly the reverse of the SpinUp button. When the user hits the SpinDown button the data which is selected in the database will change from those with date: 2012-08-21 15:31:00 to those with date 2012-08-21 10:10:00 So I think the date which we are currently on, should be stored in a variable. But on button hit not every bigger or lower data should be selected in the database, only those which are the closest bigger or the closest lower date. How can I do this? I hope I described my problem understandable. My native language is not english, so misunderstandings can occur! Please ask if you don't understand something! Thank you for reading!

    Read the article

  • dynamic date formats in eyecon's Bootstrap Datepicker

    - by Jennifer Michelle
    I need to update my datepickers' date format (mm.dd.yyyy etc) using a select box. I am currently using Eyecon's Bootstrap Datepicker because it had the smallest files size that I could find (8k minified), and includes the date formats I need. I also tried to trigger date format changes in several other datepickers without any success. Fiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/Yshy7/8/ Is there an obvious way to trigger a change from the select box to the datepickers? //date format var dateFormat = $('#custom_date_format').val() || "mm/dd/yyyy"; $('#custom_date_format').change(function() { var dateFormat = $(this).val(); }); //start and end dates var nowTemp = new Date(); var now = new Date(nowTemp.getFullYear(), nowTemp.getMonth(), nowTemp.getDate(), 0, 0, 0, 0); var checkin = $('.j-start-date').datepicker({ format: dateFormat, onRender: function(date) { //return date.valueOf() < now.valueOf() ? 'disabled' : ''; } }).on('changeDate', function(ev) { if (ev.date.valueOf() > checkout.date.valueOf()) { var newDate = new Date(ev.date) newDate.setDate(newDate.getDate()); checkout.setValue(newDate); } checkin.hide(); $('.j-end-date')[0].focus(); }).data('datepicker'); var checkout = $('.j-end-date').datepicker({ format: dateFormat, onRender: function(date) { return date.valueOf() <= checkin.date.valueOf() ? 'disabled' : ''; } }).on('changeDate', function(ev) { checkout.hide(); }).data('datepicker');

    Read the article

  • How to use the Request URL/URL Rewriting For Localization in ASP.NET - Using an HTTP Module or Globa

    - by LocalizedUrlDMan
    I wanted to see if there is a way to use the request URL/URL rewriting to set the language a page is rendered in by examining a portion of the URL in ASP.NET. We have a site that already works with ASP.NET’s resource localization and user’s can change the language that they see pages/resources on the site in, however the current mechanism in not very search engine friendly since the language variations for each language all appear as one page. It would be much better if we could have pages like www.site.com/en-mx/realfolder/realpage.aspx that allow linking to culture specific versions of a page. I know lots of people have likely done localization through URL structures before and I wanted to know if one of your could share how to do this in the Global.asax file or with an HTTP Module (pointing to links to blog postings would be great too). We have a restriction that the site is based on ASP.NET 2.0 (so we can't used the 3.5+ features yet). Here is the example scenario: A real page exits at: www.site.com/realfolder/realpage.aspx The page has a mechanism for the user to change the language it is displayed in via a dropdown. There are search engine optimization and user links sharing benefits to doing this since people can link directly to a page that has content that is applicable to a certain language (this could also include right-to-left layouts for languages like Japanese). I would like to use an HTTP module to see if the first part of the URL after www.site.com, site.com, subdomain.site.com, etc. contains a valid culture code (e.g. en-us, es-mx) then use that value to set the localization culture of the page/resources based on that URL. So if the user accesses the URL www.site.com/en-MX/realfolder/realpage.aspx Then the page will render in Mexico’s variant of Spanish. If the user goes to www.site.com/realfolder/realpage.aspx directly the page would just use their browser’s language settings.

    Read the article

  • How can I sync files in two different git repositories (not clones) and maintain history?

    - by brian d foy
    I maintain two different git repos that need to share some files, and I'd like the commits in one repo to show up in the other. What's a good way to do that for ongoing maintenance? I've been one of the maintainers of the perlfaq (Github), and recently I fell into the role of maintaining the Perl core documentation, which is also in git. Long before I started maintaining the perlfaq, it lived in a separate source control repository. I recently converted that to git. Periodically, one of the perl5-porters would sync the shared files in the perlfaq repo and the perl repo. Since we've switched to git, we'e been a bit lazy converting the tools, and I'm now the one who does that. For the time being, the two repos are going to stay separate. Currently, to sync the FAQ for a new (monthly) release of perl, I'm almost ashamed to say that I merely copy the perlfaq*.pod files in the perlfaq repo and overlay them in the perl repo. That loses history, etc. Additionally, sometimes someone makes a change to those files in the perl repo and I end up overwriting it (yes, check git diff you idiot!). The files do not have the same paths in the repo, but that's something that I could change, I think. What I'd like to do, in the magical universe of rainbows and ponies, is pull the objects from the perlfaq repo and apply them in the perl repo, and vice-versa, so the history and commit ids correspond in each. Creating patches works, but it's also a lot work to manage it Git submodules seem to only work to pull in the entire external repo I haven't found something like svn's file externals, but that would work in both directions anyway I'd love to just fetch objects from one and cherry-pick them in the other What's a good way to manage this?

    Read the article

  • My jquery cookies are not resetting, even though am using the correct code.

    - by Adam Libonatti-Roche
    My problem is that I am trying to reset some form cookies so when someone has completed their form, they are reset so it is possible for someone else to complete the form. Simple and obvious. But However many different lines of code I put in, the cookies just do not seem to be disappearing. I am using the remember function from the site below: Komodo Media So the details stay when they move away from the page: the code i have for the page starting is as follows: <script type="text/javascript"> function remember( selector ){ $(selector).each( function(){ //if this item has been cookied, restore it var name = $(this).attr('name'); if( $.cookie( name ) ){ if( $(this).is(':checkbox') ){ $(this).attr('checked',$.cookie( name )); }else{ $(this).val( $.cookie(name) ); } } //assign a change function to the item to cookie it $(this).change( function(){ if( $(this).is(':checkbox') ){ $.cookie(name, $(this).attr('checked'), { path: '/', expires: 1 }); }else{ $.cookie(''+name+'', $(this).val(), { path: '/', expires: 1 }); } }); }); } // JQUERY FOR THIS PAGE $(document).ready( function(){ remember("[name=username]"); remember("[name=firstname]"); remember("[name=lastname]"); remember("[name=email]"); remember("[name=password]"); remember("[name=address1]"); remember("[name=address2]"); remember("[name=postcode]"); remember("[name=country]"); } ); </script> And the code for resetting them is simple enough, as it takes the cookie name and sets it to null. However, this does not work as on returning to the form, all fields from before are still there. Any help with this would be brilliant.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370 371 372  | Next Page >