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  • Why Does This Maintainability Index Increase?

    - by Timothy
    I would be appreciative if someone could explain to me the difference between the following two pieces of code in terms of Visual Studio's Code Metrics rules. Why does the Maintainability Index increase slightly if I don't encapsulate everything within using ( )? Sample 1 (MI score of 71) public static String Sha1(String plainText) { using (SHA1Managed sha1 = new SHA1Managed()) { Byte[] text = Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(plainText); Byte[] hashBytes = sha1.ComputeHash(text); return Convert.ToBase64String(hashBytes); } } Sample 2 (MI score of 73) public static String Sha1(String plainText) { Byte[] text, hashBytes; using (SHA1Managed sha1 = new SHA1Managed()) { text = Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(plainText); hashBytes = sha1.ComputeHash(text); } return Convert.ToBase64String(hashBytes); } I understand metrics are meaningless outside of a broader context and understanding, and programmers should exercise discretion. While I could boost the score up to 76 with return Convert.ToBase64String(sha1.ComputeHash(Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(plainText))), I shouldn't. I would clearly be just playing with numbers and it isn't truly any more readable or maintainable at that point. I am curious though as to what the logic might be behind the increase in this case. It's obviously not line-count.

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  • PHP import functions

    - by ninuhadida
    Hi, I'm trying to find the best pragmatic approach to import functions on the fly... let me explain. Say I have a directory called functions which has these files: array_select.func.php stat_mediam.func.php stat_mean.func.php ..... I would like to: load each individual file (which has a function defined inside) and use it just like an internal php function.. such as array_pop(), array_shift(), etc. Once I stumbled on a tutorial (which I can't find again now) that compiled user defined functions as part of a PHP installation.. Although that's not a very good solution because on shared/reseller hosting you can't recompile the PHP installation. I don't want to have conflicts with future versions of PHP / other extensions, i.e. if a function named X by me, is suddenly part of the internal php functions (even though it might not have the same functionality per se) I don't want PHP to throw a fatal error because of this and fail miserably. So the best method that I can think of is to check if a function is defined, using function_exists(), if so throw a notice so that it's easy to track in the log files, otherwise define the function. However that will probably translate to having a lot of include/require statement in other files where I need such a function, which I don't really like. Or possibly, read the directory and loop over each *.func.php file and include_once. Though I find this a bit ugly. The question is, have you ever stumbled upon some source code which handled such a case? How was it implemented? Did you ever do something similar? I need as much ideas as possible! :)

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  • java logging nightmare and log4j not behaving as expected with spring + tomcat6

    - by maverick
    I have a spring application that has configured log4j (via xml) and that runs on Tomcat6 that was working fine until we add a bunch of dependencies via Maven. At some point the whole application just started logging part of what it was supposed to be declared into the log4.xml "a small rant here" Why logging has to be that hard in java world? why suddenly an application that was just fine start behaving so weird and why it's so freaking hard to debug? I've been reading and trying to solve this issue for days but so far no luck, hopefully some expert here can give me some insights on this I've added log4j debug option to check whether log4j is taking reading the config file and its values and this is what part of it shows log4j: Level value for org.springframework.web is [debug]. log4j: org.springframework.web level set to DEBUG log4j: Retreiving an instance of org.apache.log4j.Logger. log4j: Setting [org.compass] additivity to [true]. log4j: Level value for org.compass is [debug]. log4j: org.compass level set to DEBUG As you can see debug is enabled for compass and spring.web but it only shows "INFO" level for both packages. My log4j config file has nothing out of extraordinary just a plain ConsoleAppender <log4j:configuration xmlns:log4j="http://jakarta.apache.org/log4j/"> <!-- Appenders --> <appender name="console" class="org.apache.log4j.ConsoleAppender"> <param name="Target" value="System.out" /> <layout class="org.apache.log4j.PatternLayout"> <param name="ConversionPattern" value="%-5p: %c - %m%n" /> </layout> </appender> What's the trick to make this work? What it's my misunderstanding here? Can someone point me in the right direction and explain how can I make this logging mess more bullet proof?

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  • Does Github.com have to create a merge commit when you merge from a fork ?

    - by Nishant
    I cloned the master and started doing he my work . Due to permissions I push the branch to my fork . I then sent a pull request to my master and someone with permission does the merge . I notice that Github.com creates a merge commit snapshot which to me looks like just a diff of the entire changes which is actually not necessary but helpful in the sense I can just look at merge commit to see the entire diff . I can see the same sha has as my own branch - hence it looks like the merge is an extra commit which probably aint nexeccary since its a fast forward ? master - a myfork(computer) - a->b->c myfork(github) - a->b->c Pull request myfork - master (which it says I can automatically merge) shows the entire diff and then when I merge it , it shows up as master - a->b->c-d . The d is a merge commit which I think it not really required because it is a fast forward ? Can someone explain why does this happen ? I think this is the same scenario if I rebase master if master had gone ahead , but that has not happened . Master is still at when I merge .

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  • Concurrent WCF calls via shared channel

    - by Kent Boogaart
    I have a web tier that forwards calls onto an application tier. The web tier uses a shared, cached channel to do so. The application tier services in question are stateless and have concurrency enabled. But they are not being called concurrently. If I alter the web tier to create a new channel on every call, then I do get concurrent calls onto the application tier. But I wanted to avoid that cost since it is functionally unnecessary for my scenario. I have no session state, and nor do I need to re-authenticate the caller each time. I understand that the creation of the channel factory is far more expensive than than the creation of the channels, but it is still a cost I'd like to avoid if possible. I found this article on MSDN that states: While channels and clients created by the channels are thread-safe, they might not support writing more than one message to the wire concurrently. If you are sending large messages, particularly if streaming, the send operation might block waiting for another send to complete. Firstly, I'm not sending large messages (just a lot of small ones since I'm doing load testing) but am still seeing the blocking behavior. Secondly, this is rather open-ended and unhelpful documentation. It says they "might not" support writing more than one message but doesn't explain the scenarios under which they would support concurrent messages. Can anyone shed some light on this?

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  • ASP.NET MVC routing issue with Google Chrome client

    - by synergetic
    My Silverlight 4 app is hosted in ASP.NET MVC 2 web application. It works fine when I browse with Internet Explorer 8. However Google Chrome (version 5) cannot find ASP.NET controllers. Specifically, the following ASP.NET controller works both with Chrome and IE. //[OutputCache(NoStore = true, Duration = 0, VaryByParam = "None")] public ContentResult TestMe() { ContentResult result = new ContentResult(); XElement response = new XElement("SvrResponse", new XElement("Data", "my data")); result.Content = response.ToString(); return result; } If I uncomment [OutputCache] attribute then it works with IE but not with Chrome. Also, I use custom model binding with controllers, so if I write the following: public ContentResult TestMe(UserContext userContext) { ... } it also works with IE, but again not with Chrome which gives me error message saying that resource was not found. Of course, I configured IIS 6 for handling all requests via aspnet_isapi.dll and I have registered custom model binder in my web app's Global.asax inside Application_Start() method. Can someone explain me what might be the cause? Thank you.

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  • Why do my CouchDB databases grow so fast?

    - by konrad
    I was wondering why my CouchDB database was growing to fast so I wrote a little test script. This script changes an attributed of a CouchDB document 1200 times and takes the size of the database after each change. After performing these 1200 writing steps the database is doing a compaction step and the db size is measured again. In the end the script plots the databases size against the revision numbers. The benchmarking is run twice: The first time the default number of document revision (=1000) is used (_revs_limit). The second time the number of document revisions is set to 1. The first run produces the following plot The second run produces this plot For me this is quite an unexpected behavior. In the first run I would have expected a linear growth as every change produces a new revision. When the 1000 revisions are reached the size value should be constant as the older revisions are discarded. After the compaction the size should fall significantly. In the second run the first revision should result in certain database size that is then keeps during the following writing steps as every new revision leads to the deletion of the previous one. I could understand if there is a little bit of overhead needed to manage the changes but this growth behavior seems weird to me. Can anybody explain this phenomenon or correct my assumptions that lead to the wrong expectations?

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  • are projects with high developer turn over rate really a bad thing?

    - by John
    I've inherited a lot of web projects that experienced high developer turn over rates. Sometimes these web projects are a horrible patchwork of band aid solutions. Other times they can be somewhat maintainable mozaics of half-done features each built with a different architectural style. Everytime I inherit these projects, I wish the previous developers could explain to me why things got so bad. What puzzles me is the reaction of the owners (either a manager, a middle man company, or a client). They seem to think, "Well, if you leave, I'll just find another developer." Or they think, "Oh, it costs that much money to refactor the system? I know another developer who can do it at half the price. I'll hire him if I can't afford you." I'm guessing that the high developer turn over rate is related to the owner's mentality of "If you think it's a bad idea to build this, I'll just find another (possibly cheaper) developer to do what I want". For the owners, the approach seems to work because their business is thriving. Unfortunately, it's no fun for the developers that go AWOL 3-4 months after working with poor code, strict timelines, and little feedback. So my question is the following: Are the following symptoms of a project really such a bad thing for business? high developer turn over rate poorly built technology - often a patchwork of different and inappropriately used architectural styles owners without a clear roadmap for their web project, and they request features on a whim I've seen numerous businesses prosper while experiencing the symptoms above. So as a programmer, even though my instincts tell me the above points are terrible, I'm forced to take a step back and ask, "are things really that bad in the grand scheme of things?" If not, I will re-evaluate my approach to these projects.

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  • Increment non unique field during SQL insert

    - by phill
    I'm not sure how to word this cause I am a little confused at the moment, so bare with me while I attempt to explain, I have a table with the following fields: OrderLineID, OrderID, OrderLine, and a few other unimportant ones. OrderLineID is the primary key and is always unique(which isn't a problem), OrderID is a foreign key that isn't unique(also not a problem), and OrderLine is a value that is not unique in the table, but should be unique for any OrderIDs that are the same...so if that didn't make sense, perhaps a picture OrderLineID, OrderID, OrderLine 1 1 1 2 1 2 3 1 3 4 2 1 5 2 2 For all OrderIDs there is a unique OrderLine. I am trying to create an insert statement that gets the max OrderLine value for a specific OrderId so I can increment it, but it's not working so well and I could use a little help. What I have right now is below, I build the sql statement in a program and replace OrderID # with an actual value. I am pretty sure the problem is with the nested select statement, and incrementing the result, but I can't find any examples that do this since my google skills are weak apparently.... INSERT INTO tblOrderLine (OrderID, OrderLine) VALUES (<OrderID #>, (SELECT MAX(OrderLine) FROM tblOrderLine WHERE orderID = <same OrderID #>)+1) any help would be nice.

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  • Why does this data YYYY-MM-DD regex fail in Java?

    - by ProfessionalAmateur
    Hello StackOverFlow, My first question and Im excited... I've lurked since go-live and love the site, however I apologize for any newbie errors, formatting, etc... I'm attempting to validate the format of a string field that contains a date in Java. We will receive the date in a string, I will validate its format before parsing it into a real Date object. The format being passed in is in the YYYY-MM-DD format. However I'm stuck on one of my tests, if I pass in "1999-12-33" the test will fail (as it should with a day number 33) with this incomplete pattern: ((19|20)\\d{2})-([1-9]|0[1-9]|1[0-2])-([12][0-9]|3[01]) However as soon as I add the characters in bold below it passes the test (but should not) ((19|20)\\d{2})-([1-9]|0[1-9]|1[0-2])-(0[1-9]|[1-9]|[12][0-9]|3[01]) *additional note, I know I can change the 0[1-9]|[1-9] into 0?[1-9] but I wanted to break everything down to its most simple format to try and find why this isn't working. Here is the scrap test I've put together to run through all the different date scenarios: import java.util.regex.Matcher; import java.util.regex.Pattern; public class scrapTest { public scrapTest() { } public static void main(String[] args) { scrapTest a = new scrapTest(); boolean flag = a.verfiyDateFormat("1999-12-33"); } private boolean verfiyDateFormat(String dateStr){ Pattern datePattern = Pattern.compile("((19|20)\\d{2})-([1-9]|0[1-9]|1[0-2])-(0[1-9]|[1-9]|[12][0-9]|3[01])"); Matcher dateMatcher = datePattern.matcher(dateStr); if(!dateMatcher.find()){ System.out.println("Invalid date format!!! -> " + dateStr); return false; } System.out.println("Valid date format."); return true; } } Ive been programming for ~10 years but extremely new to Java, so please feel free to explain anything as elementary as you see fit.

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  • PHP, MySQL: mysql substitute for php in_array function

    - by Devner
    Hi all, Say if I have an array and I want to check if an element is a part of that array, I can go ahead and use in_array( needle, haystack ) to determine the results. I am trying to see the PHP equivalent of this for my purpose. Now you might have an instant answer for me and you might be tempted to say "Use IN". Yes, I can use IN, but that's not fetching the desired results. Let me explain with an example: I have a column called "pets" in DB table. For a record, it has a value: Cat, dog, Camel (Yes, the column data is a comma separated value). Consider that this row has an id of 1. Now I have a form where I can enter the value in the form input and use that value check against the value in the DB. So say I enter the following comma separated value in the form input: CAT, camel (yes, CAT is uppercase & intentional as some users tend to enter it that way). Now when I enter the above info in the form input and submit, I can collect the POST'ed info and use the following query: $search = $_POST['pets']; $sql = "SELECT id FROM table WHERE pets IN ('$search') "; The above query is not fetching me the row that already exists in the DB (remember the record which has Cat, dog, Camel as the value for the pets column?). I am trying to get the records to act as a superset and the values from the form input as subsets. So in this case I am expecting the id value to show up as the values exist in the column, but this is not happending. Now say if I enter just CAT as the form input and perform the search, it should show me the ID 1 row. Now say if I enter just camel, cAT as the form input and perform the search, it should show me the ID 1 row. How can I achieve the above? Thank you.

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  • What is difference between my atoi() calls?

    - by Lucas
    I have a big number stored in a string and try to extract a single digit. But what are the differences between those calls? #include <iostream> #include <string> int main(){ std::string bigNumber = "93485720394857230"; char tmp = bigNumber.at(5); int digit = atoi(&tmp); int digit2 = atoi(&bigNumber.at(5)) int digit3 = atoi(&bigNumber.at(12)); std::cout << "digit: " << digit << std::endl; std::cout << "digit2: " << digit2 << std::endl; std::cout << "digit3: " << digit3 << std::endl; } This will produce the following output. digit: 7 digit2: 2147483647 digit3: 57230 The first one is the desired result. The second one seems to me to be a random number, which I cannot find in the string. The third one is the end of the string, but not just a single digit as I expected, but up from the 12th index to the end of the string. Can somebody explain the different outputs to me? EDIT: Would this be an acceptable solution? char tmp[2] = {bigNumber.at(5), '\0'}; int digit = atoi(tmp); std::cout << "digit: " << digit << std::endl;

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  • form change with javascript

    - by aslum
    I have two drop down lists <select name="branch"> <option value="b">Blacksburg</option> <option value="c">Christiansburg</option> <option value="f">Floyd</option> <option value="m">Meadowbrook</option> </select> but I would like the second list to be different based upon what is selected from the first list. So FREX Blacksburg's might be <select name="room"> <option value="Kitchen">Kitchen Side</option> <option value="Closet">Closet Side</option> <option value="Full">Full Room</option> </select While Christiansburg's is <select name="room"> <option value="Window">Window Side</option> <option value="Door">Door Side</option> <option value="Full">Full Room</option> and of course the options are also different for the other branches... Is it possible to change the second drop down list based on what they select for the first one? I have used javascript a teensy bit, but not much so please explain in detail. Thanks!

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  • How to use void*

    - by Rondogiannis Aristophanes
    I am imlementing a simple merge function and I have got stuck, as the compiler gives me errors that I cannot explain. Here is my merge function: void merge(void *a, int beg, int middle, int end, int (*cmp)(const void*, const void* { std::stack<void*> first; std::stack<void*> second; for(int i = beg; i < middle; i++) { first.push(a+i); } for(int i = middle; i < end; i++) { second.push(a+i); } for(int i = beg; i < end; i++) { if(first.empty()) { void *tmp = second.top(); second.pop(); a+i = tmp; } else if(second.empty()) { void *tmp = first.top(); first.pop(); a+i = tmp; } else if(cmp(first.top(), second.top())) { void *tmp = first.top(); first.pop(); a+i = tmp; } else { void *tmp = second.top(); second.pop(); a+i = tmp; } } } And here is the error: sort.h: In function `void merge(void*, int, int, int, int (*)(const void*, const void*))': sort.h:9: error: pointer of type `void *' used in arithmetic sort.h:12: error: pointer of type `void *' used in arithmetic sort.h:19: error: pointer of type `void *' used in arithmetic sort.h:19: error: non-lvalue in assignment sort.h:23: error: pointer of type `void *' used in arithmetic sort.h:23: error: non-lvalue in assignment sort.h:27: error: pointer of type `void *' used in arithmetic sort.h:27: error: non-lvalue in assignment sort.h:31: error: pointer of type `void *' used in arithmetic sort.h:31: error: non-lvalue in assignment Can anyone help me? TIA.

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  • PHP: MVC and Model

    - by Pirkka
    Hello I`ve been wondering this one thing about creating models. If I make for example Page model. Is it the both: It can retrieve one row from the table or all the rows. Somehow Im mixing the objects and the database. I have thought it like this: I would have to make a Page-class that would represent one row in the table. It also would have all the basic CRUD-methods. Then I would have to do a Pages-class (somekind of collection) that would retrieve rows from the table and instantiate a Page object from each row. Is this kind of weird? If someone could explain to me the idea of model throughout.. Im again confused. Maybe Im thinking the whole OOP too difficult.. And by the way this forum is great. Hopefully people will just understand my problems. Heh. I was a long time procedural style programmer and now in 3 months I have dived into OOP and MVC and PHP frameworks and I just get more excited day by day when I explore this stuff!

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  • C# internal VS VBNET Friend

    - by Will Marcouiller
    To this SO question: What is the C# equivalent of friend?, I would personally have answered "internal", just like Ja did among the answers! However, Jon Skeet says that there is no direct equivalence of VB Friend in C#. If Jon Skeet says so, I won't be the one telling otherwise! ;P I'm wondering how can the keyword internal (C#) not be the equivalent of Friend (VBNET) when their respective definitions are: Friend VBNET The Friend (Visual Basic) keyword in the declaration statement specifies that the elements can be accessed from within the same assembly, but not from outside the assembly. [...] internal C# Internal: Access is limited to the current assembly. To my understanding, these definitions mean quite the same to me. Then, respectively, when I'm coding in VB.NET, I use the Friend keyword to specify that a class or a property shall be accessible only within the assembly where it is declared. The same in C#, I use the internal keyword to specify the same. Am I doing something or anything wrong from this perspective? What are the refinements I don't get? Might someone please explain how or in what Friend and internal are not direct equivalences? Thanks in advance for any of your answers!

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  • Changing the parameters of a Javascript function using GreaseMonkey

    - by Dave
    There are a lot of questions here about Greasemonkey, but I didn't see anything directly related to my question. I'm on a website that uses a text editor control, and it's really annoying that they don't allow horizontal resizing (only vertical). So if you are using a cheapo projector that only supports 1024x768, the text runs off of the screen and there's nothing you can do about it. I looked at the page source, and found the section of code that I want Greasemonkey to modify: <script type="text/javascript"> // TinyMCE instance type: CD_TinyMCE tinyMCE.init({ convert_urls : "", mode : "specific_textareas", editor_selector : "rte", theme : "advanced", theme_advanced_toolbar_location : "top", theme_advanced_toolbar_align : "left", theme_advanced_statusbar_location : "bottom", theme_advanced_resizing : true, **theme_advanced_resize_horizontal : false**, ... I just want to change the boldfaced value to true. I tried to approach this the brute force way and replace the text this way: function allowHorizontalResize() { var search_string = "theme_advanced_resize_horizontal : false"; var replace_string = "theme_advanced_resize_horizontal : true"; var doc_text = document.body.innerHTML; document.body.innerHTML = doc_text.replace( search_string, replace_string); } ...but it doesn't work. However, I know the basic search and replace part works because I can use this script to replace text within the editor -- I just can't change the javascript code that initializes the text editor. Can someone explain what I'm doing wrong? Is this even possible?

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  • tail call generated by clang 1.1 and 1.0 (llvm 2.7 and 2.6)

    - by ony
    After compilation next snippet of code with clang -O2 (or with online demo): #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> int flop(int x); int flip(int x) { if (x == 0) return 1; return (x+1)*flop(x-1); } int flop(int x) { if (x == 0) return 1; return (x+0)*flip(x-1); } int main(int argc, char **argv) { printf("%d\n", flip(atoi(argv[1]))); } I'm getting next snippet of llvm assembly in flip: bb1.i: ; preds = %bb1 %4 = add nsw i32 %x, -2 ; <i32> [#uses=1] %5 = tail call i32 @flip(i32 %4) nounwind ; <i32> [#uses=1] %6 = mul nsw i32 %5, %2 ; <i32> [#uses=1] br label %flop.exit I thought that tail call means dropping current stack (i.e. return will be to the upper frame, so next instruction should be ret %5), but according to this code it will do mul for it. And in native assembly there is simple call without tail optimisation (even with appropriate flag for llc) Can sombody explain why clang generates such code? As well I can't understand why llvm have tail call if it can simply check that next ret will use result of prev call and later do appropriate optimisation or generate native equivalent of tail-call instruction?

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  • mysql subselect alternative

    - by Arnold
    Hi, Lets say I am analyzing how high school sports records affect school attendance. So I have a table in which each row corresponds to a high school basketball game. Each game has an away team id and a home team id (FK to another "team table") and a home score and an away score and a date. I am writing a query that matches attendance with this seasons basketball games. My sample output will be (#_students_missed_class, day_of_game, home_team, away_team, home_team_wins_this_season, away_team_wins_this_season) I now want to add how each team did the previous season to my analysis. Well, I have their previous season stored in the game table but i should be able to accomplish that with a subselect. So in my main select statement I add the subselect: SELECT COUNT(*) FROM game_table WHERE game_table.date BETWEEN 'start of previous season' AND 'end of previous season' AND ( (game_table.home_team = team_table.id AND game_table.home_score > game_table.away_score) OR (game_table.away_team = team_table.id AND game_table.away_score > game_table.home_score)) In this case team-table.id refers to the id of the home_team so I now have all their wins calculated from the previous year. This method of calculation is neither time nor resource intensive. The Explain SQL shows that I have ALL in the Type field and I am not using a Key and the query times out. I'm not sure how I can accomplish a more efficient query with a subselect. It seems proposterously inefficient to have to write 4 of these queries (for home wins, home losses, away wins, away losses). I am sure this could be more lucid. I'll absolutely add color tomorrow if anyone has questions

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  • using volatile keyword

    - by sap
    As i understand, if we declare a variable as volatile, then it will not be stored in the local cache. Whenever thread are updating the values, it is updated to the main memory. So, other threads can access the updated value. But in the following program both volatile and non-volatile variables are displaying same value. The volatile variable is not updated for the second thread. Can anybody plz explain this why testValue is not changed. class ExampleThread extends Thread { private int testValue1; private volatile int testValue; public ExampleThread(String str){ super(str); } public void run() { if (getName().equals("Thread 1 ")) { testValue = 10; testValue1= 10; System.out.println( "Thread 1 testValue1 : " + testValue1); System.out.println( "Thread 1 testValue : " + testValue); } if (getName().equals("Thread 2 ")) { System.out.println( "Thread 2 testValue1 : " + testValue1); System.out.println( "Thread 2 testValue : " + testValue); } } } public class VolatileExample { public static void main(String args[]) { new ExampleThread("Thread 1 ").start(); new ExampleThread("Thread 2 ").start(); } } output: Thread 1 testValue1 : 10 Thread 1 testValue : 10 Thread 2 testValue1 : 0 Thread 2 testValue : 0

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  • Why does one of these statements compile in Scala but not the other?

    - by Jeff
    (Note: I'm using Scala 2.7.7 here, not 2.8). I'm doing something pretty simple -- creating a map based on the values in a simple, 2-column CSV file -- and I've completed it easily enough, but I'm perplexed at why my first attempt didn't compile. Here's the code: // Returns Iterator[String] private def getLines = Source.fromFile(csvFilePath).getLines // This doesn't compile: def mapping: Map[String,String] = { Map(getLines map { line: String => val pairArr = line.split(",") pairArr(0) -> pairArr(1).trim() }.toList:_*) } // This DOES compile def mapping: Map[String,String] = { def strPair(line: String): (String,String) = { val pairArr = line.split(",") pairArr(0) -> pairArr(1).trim() } Map(getLines.map( strPair(_) ).toList:_*) } The compiler error is CsvReader.scala:16: error: value toList is not a member of (St ring) = (java.lang.String, java.lang.String) [scalac] possible cause: maybe a semicolon is missing before `value toList'? [scalac] }.toList:_*) [scalac] ^ [scalac] one error found So what gives? They seem like they should be equivalent to me, apart from the explicit function definition (vs. anonymous in the nonworking example) and () vs. {}. If I replace the curly braces with parentheses in the nonworking example, the error is "';' expected, but 'val' found." But if I remove the local variable definition and split the string twice AND use parens instead of curly braces, it compiles. Can someone explain this difference to me, preferably with a link to Scala docs explaining the difference between parens and curly braces when used to surround method arguments?

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  • Redirecting from an update action to the referrer of the edit

    - by Mark Westling
    My Rails 2.3 application has a User model and the usual controller actions. The edit form can be reached two ways: when a user edits his own profile from the home page, or when an admin user edits someone else's profile from users collection. What I'd like to do is have the update action redirect back to the referred of the edit action, not the update action. If I do a simple redirect_to(:back) within update, it goes back to the edit form -- not good. One solution is to forget entirely about referrers and redirect based on the current_user and the updated user: if they're the same, go back to the home page, else go to the users collection page. This will break if I ever add a third path to the edit form. It's doubtful I'll ever do this but I'd prefer a solution that's not so brittle. Another solution is to store the referrer of edit form in a hidden field and then redirect to this value from inside the update action. This doesn't feel quite right, though I can't explain why. Are there any better approaches? Or, should I stop worrying and go with one of the two I've mentioned?

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  • On saving an new active record, in what order are the associated objects saved?

    - by Bryan
    In rails, when saving an active_record object, its associated objects will be saved as well. But has_one and has_many association have different order in saving objects. I have three simplified models: class Team < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :players has_one :coach end class Player < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :team validates_presence_of :team_id end class Coach < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :team validates_presence_of :team_id end I expected that when team.save is called, team should be saved before its associated coach and players. I use the following code to test these models: t = Team.new team.coach = Coach.new team.save! team.save! returns true. But in another test: t = Team.new team.players << Player.new team.save! team.save! gives the following error: > ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid: > Validation failed: Players is invalid I figured out that team.save! saves objects in the following order: 1) players, 2) team, and 3) coach. This is why I got the error: When a player is saved, team doesn't yet have a id, so validates_presence_of :team_id fails in player. Can someone explain to me why objects are saved in this order? This seems not logical to me.

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  • JTextField vs JComboBox behaviour in JTable

    - by Ash
    Okay, this is a hard one to explain but I'll try my best. I have a JTextField and a JComboBox in a JTable, whose getCellEditor method has been overriden as follows: public TableCellEditor getCellEditor( int row, int column ) { if ( column == 3 ) { // m_table is the JTable if ( m_table.getSelectedRowCount() == 1 ) { JComboBox choices = new JComboBox(); choices.setEditable( true ); choices.addItem( new String( "item 1" ) ); return new DefaultCellEditor( choices ); } return super.getCellEditor( row, column ); } Here are the behavioral differences (NOTE that from this point on, when I say JTextField or JComboBox, I mean the CELL in the JTable containing either component): When I click once on a JTextField, the cell is highlighted. Double clicking brings up the caret and I can input text. Whereas, with a JComboBox, single clicking brings up the caret to input text, as well as the combo drop down button. When I tab or use the arrow keys to navigate to a JTextField and then start typing, the characters I type automatically get entered into the cell. Whereas, when I navigate to a JComboBox the same way and then start typing, nothing happens apart from the combo drop down button appearing. None of the characters I type get entered unless I hit F2 first. So here's my question: What do I need to do have JComboBoxes behave exactly like JTextFields in the two instances described above? Please do not ask why I'm doing what I'm doing or suggest alternatives (it's the way it is and I need to do it this way) and yes, I've read the API for all components in question....the problem is, it's a swing API. Thanks in advance, Ash

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  • Why my events aren't registered after postback?

    - by lucian.jp
    I have a problem where I have a page with a checkbox : <asp:CheckBox runat="server" ID="chkSelectAll" OnCheckedChanged="chkSelectAll_CheckedChanged" EnableViewState="true" Text='<%# CommonFunctions.GetText(Page, "CreateTask", "chkSelectAll.text") %>' AutoPostBack="true" /> First I had the problem that when the event was raised the checkbox wasn't keeping the checked property value. This is still strange because nowhere in the application we set the EnableViewState to false and by default it should be true. Well this behavior was fixed by puting EnableViewState="true". So now, I have a checkbox that when I first load the page, wworks correctly. I check the box, the event is raised Checked property valu is good and the method is executed. Postback completes and renders the page. I check the box back to false, the event is not triggered and the page is reloaded with the previous data but the Checked Property stays at true. So after the first postback I seem to loose behavior of event and ViewState. We suspect the fact that we move dynamically the controls in the page (See answer here) But this suspicion doesn't explain why everything works perfectly after the first load and stops working after first PostBack. EDIT CODE SAMPLE I created a test project where you can experience my problem. At load if you check any checkbox both raise their respective event. After postback only the second raise both events. I seem to have a problem when I register the events after moving control.

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