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• Force a view change from a button when using UITabBarController

  - by user342197

  Hello - When using a UITabBarController, when the user enters some data on View1 and presses a button, I need to perform some calculations and present the results on View2. I have an AppDelegate, View1Controller, View2Controller, and View3Controller (View3 is a basically static view). My AppDelgate declares UITabBarController *rootController; On View1, I have the calculations being performed in an IBAction for buttonPressed; however, I can't seem to force the view to switch to View2 programmatically. I have done a lot of searching for similar problems, and think I should be doing something like "self.rootController.selectedIndex = 1"; however,when I do this from within buttonPressed on my View1Controller, I get an error "request for member rootController in something not in a structure or union". I think I'm missing something basic here... probably need do do something with my AppDelegate, but I'm banging my head against the wall. Can anyone provide some guidance in this situation...like key things I should do in View1Controller header and implementation with reference to my AppDelgate? Thank you!

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• WCF service consuming passively issued SAML token

  - by Neillyboy

  What is the best way to pass an existing SAML token from a website already authenticated via a passive STS? We have built an Identity Provider which is issuing passive claims to the website for authentication. We have this working. Now we would like to add some WCF services into the mix - calling them from the context of the already authenticated web application. Ideally we would just like to pass the SAML token on without doing anything to it (i.e. adding new claims / re-signing). All of the examples I have seen require the ActAs sts implementation - but is this really necessary? This seems a bit bloated for what we want to achieve. I would have thought a simple implementation passing the bootstrap token into the channel - using the CreateChannelActingAs or CreateChannelWithIssuedToken mechanism (and setting ChannelFactory.Credentials.SupportInteractive = false) to call the WCF service with the correct binding (what would that be?) would have been enough. We are using the Fabrikam example code as reference, but as I say, think the ActAs functionality here is overkill for what we are trying to achieve.

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• How to stop Android GPS using "Mobile data"

  - by prepbgg

  My app requests location updates with "minTime" set to 2 seconds. When "Mobile data" is switched on (in the phone's settings) and GPS is enabled the app uses "mobile data" at between 5 and 10 megabytes per hour. This is recorded in the ICS "Data usage" screen as usage by "Android OS". In an attempt to prevent this I have unticked Settings-"Location services"-"Google's location service". Does this refer to Assisted GPS, or is it something more than that? Whatever it is, it seems to make no difference to my app's internet access. As further confirmation that it is the GPS usage by my app that is causing the mobile data access I have observed that the internet data activity indicator on the status bar shows activity when and only when the GPS indicator is present. The only way to prevent this mobile data usage seems to be to switch "Mobile data" off, and GPS accuracy seems to be almost as good without the support of mobile data. However, it is obviously unsatisfactory to have to switch mobile data off. The only permissions in the Manifest are "android.permission.ACCESS_FINE_LOCATION" (and "android.permission.WRITE_EXTERNAL_STORAGE"), so the app has no explicit permission to use internet data. The LocationManager code is ` criteria.setAccuracy(Criteria.ACCURACY_FINE); criteria.setSpeedRequired(false); criteria.setAltitudeRequired(false); criteria.setBearingRequired(true); criteria.setCostAllowed(false); criteria.setPowerRequirement(Criteria.NO_REQUIREMENT); bestProvider = lm.getBestProvider(criteria, true); if (bestProvider != null) { lm.requestLocationUpdates(bestProvider, gpsMinTime, gpsMinDistance, this); ` The reference for LocationManager.getBestProvider says If no provider meets the criteria, the criteria are loosened ... Note that the requirement on monetary cost is not removed in this process. However, despite setting setCostAllowed to false the app still incurs a potential monetary cost. What else can I do to prevent the app from using mobile data?

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• Mutex example / tutorial ?

  - by Nav

  I've noticed that asking questions for the sake of creating a reference list etc. is encouraged in SO. This is one such question, so that anyone Googling for a mutex tutorial will find a good one here. I'm new to multithreading, and was trying to understand how mutexes work. Did a lot of Googling and this is the only decent tutorial I found, but it still left some doubts of how it works because I created my own program and the locking didn't work. One absolutely non-intuitive syntax of the mutex is pthread_mutex_lock( &mutex1 );, where it looks like the mutex is being locked, when what I really want to lock is some other variable. Does this syntax mean that locking a mutex locks a region of code until the mutex is unlocked? Then how do threads know that the region is locked? And isn't such a phenomenon supposed to be called critical section? In short, could you please help with the simplest possible mutex example program and the simplest possible explanation on the logic of how it works? I'm sure this will help plenty of other newbies.

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• should the builder reset its build environment after delivering the product

  - by Sudhi

  I am implementing a builder where in the deliverable is retrieved by calling Builder::getProduct() . The director asks various parts to build Builder::buildPartA() , Builder::buildPartB() etc. in order to completely build the product. My question is, once the product is delivered by the Builder by calling Builder::getProduct(), should it reset its environment (Builder::partA = NULL;, Builder::partB = NULL;) so that it is ready to build another product? (with same or different configuration?) I ask this as I am using PHP wherein the objects are by default passed by reference (nope, I don't want to clone them, as one of their field is a Resource) . However, even if you think from a language agnostic point of view, should the Builder reset its build environment ? If your answer is 'it depends on the case' what use cases would justify reseting the environment (and other way round) ? For the sake of providing code sample here's my Builder::gerProcessor() which shows what I mean by reseting the environment /** * @see IBuilder::getProessor() */ public function getProcessor() { if($this->_processor == NULL) { throw new LogicException('Processor not yet built!'); } else { $retval = $this->_processor; $this->_product = NULL, $this->_processor = NULL; } return $retval; }

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• how to implement a sparse_vector class

  - by Neil G

  I am implementing a templated sparse_vector class. It's like a vector, but it only stores elements that are different from their default constructed value. So, sparse_vector would store the index-value pairs for all indices whose value is not T(). I am basing my implementation on existing sparse vectors in numeric libraries-- though mine will handle non-numeric types T as well. I looked at boost::numeric::ublas::coordinate_vector and eigen::SparseVector. Both store: size_t* indices_; // a dynamic array T* values_; // a dynamic array int size_; int capacity_; Why don't they simply use vector<pair<size_t, T>> data_; My main question is what are the pros and cons of both systems, and which is ultimately better? The vector of pairs manages size_ and capacity_ for you, and simplifies the accompanying iterator classes; it also has one memory block instead of two, so it incurs half the reallocations, and might have better locality of reference. The other solution might search more quickly since the cache lines fill up with only index data during a search. There might also be some alignment advantages if T is an 8-byte type? It seems to me that vector of pairs is the better solution, yet both containers chose the other solution. Why?

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• PHP: Next Available Value in an Array, starting with a non-indexed value

  - by Erik Smith

  I've been stumped on this PHP issue for about a day now. Basically, we have an array of hours formatted in 24-hour format, and an arbitrary value ($hour) (also a 24-hour). The problem is, we need to take $hour, and get the next available value in the array, starting with the value that immediately proceeds $hour. The array might look something like: $goodHours = array('8,9,10,11,12,19,20,21). Then the hour value might be: $hour = 14; So, we need some way to know that 19 is the next best time. Additionally, we might also need to get the second, third, or fourth (etc) available value. The issue seems to be that because 14 isn't a value in the array, there is not index to reference that would let us increment to the next value. To make things simpler, I've taken $goodHours and repeated the values several times just so I don't have to deal with going back to the start (maybe not the best way to do it, but a quick fix). I have a feeling this is something simple I'm missing, but I would be so appreciative if anyone could shed some light. Erik

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• Facebook new js api and cross-domain file

  - by vondip

  Hi all, I am building a simple facebook iframe application. I've decided since the code is separate from facebook none the less, I will also create a connect website as well. In my connect website I'm trying to figure out the following: I am using facebook's new api and I am calling the init function. I can't seem to figure out where I combine my cross-domain file. There's no mention of it in their documentation either. http://developers.facebook.com/docs/reference/javascript/FB.init I am referring to these lines of code: <div id="fb-root"></div> <script> window.fbAsyncInit = function() { FB.init({appId: 'your app id', status: true, cookie: true, xfbml: true}); }; (function() { var e = document.createElement('script'); e.async = true; e.src = document.location.protocol + '//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js'; document.getElementById('fb-root').appendChild(e); }()); </script>

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• pass a number value to a Timer, XML and AS3

  - by VideoDnd

  I want to pass a number value to a Timer. How do I do this? My number and integer values for other variables work fine. Error I get null object reference and coercion of value, because I'm not passing to 'timer' properly. I don't want to say my variable's a number, I want to say it has a number value. Variable //what I have now var timer:Timer; timer = new Timer(100); Path myXML.COUNT.text(); XML <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <SESSION> <TIMER TITLE="speed">100</TIMER> </SESSION> Parse and Load //LOAD XML var myXML:XML; var myLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); myLoader.load(new URLRequest("time.xml")); myLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, processXML); //PARSE XML function processXML(e:Event):void { myXML = new XML(e.target.data);

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• How to include all objects of an archive in a shared object?

  - by Didier Trosset

  When compiling our project, we create several archives (static libraries), say liby.a and libz.a that each contains an object file defining a function y_function() and z_function(). Then, these archives are joined in a shared object, say libyz.so, that is one of our main distributable target. g++ -fPIC -c -o y.o y.cpp ar cr liby.a y.o g++ -fPIC -c -o z.o z.cpp ar cr libz.a z.o g++ -shared -L. -ly -lz -o libyz.so When using this shared object into the example program, say x.c, the link fails because of an undefined references to functions y_function() and z_function(). g++ x.o -L. -lyz -o xyz It works however when I link the final executable directly with the archives (static libraries). g++ x.o -L. -ly -lz -o xyz My guess is that the object files contained in the archives are not linked into the shared library because they are not used in it. How to force inclusion? Edit: Inclusion can be forced using --whole-archive ld option. But if results in compilation errors: g++ -shared '-Wl,--whole-archive' -L. -ly -lz -o libyz.so /usr/lib/libc_nonshared.a(elf-init.oS): In function `__libc_csu_init': (.text+0x1d): undefined reference to `__init_array_end' /usr/bin/ld: /usr/lib/libc_nonshared.a(elf-init.oS): relocation R_X86_64_PC32 against undefined hidden symbol `__init_array_end' can not be used when making a shared object /usr/bin/ld: final link failed: Bad value Any idea where this comes from?

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• WPF - How to stop an ItemsControl psuedo-grid's columns from dancing/jumping around during layout

  - by Drew Noakes

  Several other questions on SO have come to the same conclusion I have -- using an ItemsControl with a DataTemplate for each item constructed to position items such that they resemble a grid is much simpler (especially to format) than using a ListView. The code resembles: <StackPanel Grid.IsSharedSizeScope="True"> <!-- Header --> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" SharedSizeGroup="Column1" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" SharedSizeGroup="Column2" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.Column="0" Text="Column Header 1" /> <TextBlock Grid.Column="1" Text="Column Header 2" /> </Grid> <!-- Items --> <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Values, Mode=OneWay}"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" SharedSizeGroup="Column1" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" SharedSizeGroup="Column2" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.Column="0" Text="{Binding ColumnProperty1}" /> <TextBlock Grid.Column="1" Text="{Binding ColumnProperty2}" /> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> </StackPanel> The problem I'm seeing is that whenever I swap the object to which the ItemsSource is bound (it's an ObservableCollection that I replace the reference to, rather than clear and re-add), the entire 'grid' dances about for a few seconds. Presumably it is making a few layout passes to get all the Auto-width columns to match up. This is very distracting for my users and I'd like to get it sorted out. Has anyone else seen this?

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• ASP.NET MVC Newbie: why isn't my model available when creating a strongly-typed view?

  - by Rax Olgud

  I'm starting with ASP.NET MVC, and working with NerdDinner as reference. I did the following: Created a new project Added a couple of tables Created LINQ to SQL for them Created a new controller My Models directory now contains MyModel.dbml, under which I have MyModel.designer.cs, that contains classes for models relating to both of my tables (let's call them Categories and Products). Now, under my new controller, I would like to create a strongly typed view. So for example I have the following code in my controller (for my application I must work by name, and the "Name" field is unique): public ActionResult Details(string name) { MyModelDataContext db = new MyModelDataContext(); Product user = db.Products.Single(t => t.Name == name); return View(user); } I would like to create a strongly-typed view. So I right-click the line "return View(user)", and choose "Add View...". I click "Create a strongly-typed view". When I click the dropdown of "View data class", I don't see my models, but only: MyProject.Controllers.AccountMembershipService MyProject.Controllers.FormsAuthenticationService What am I missing?

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• SQL, MVC, Entity Framework

  - by Anthony

  Hi Im using the above technologies and have ran into what I presume is a design issue I have made. I have an Artwork table in my DB and have been able to add art (I now think of these as Digital Products) to a shopping cart + CartLine table fine. The system I have that adds art to galleries and user accounts etc works fine. Now the client wants to sell T-shirts, Mugs and Pens etc, 'HardwareProducts' so I have created a 'HardwareProducts' table. Now I have two different product types in two tables. I use GUID's as the PK's in both the HardwareProducts table and Artwork table. When a customer adds an item to their cart I store the GUID in the ProductID column in the CartItems table. The issue is the database will not know which table to reference when I bring the LineItem object up through my ORM to the front end. In OOP I can see how you would have a base class of Product, and then a DigitalProduct class and HardwareProduct class drived from it, but how do you model this in SQL Server and the Entity Framework please, or is there another way?

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• How do I grab and use a variables coming back through ValueList from an AJAX call?

  - by Mel

  I'm trying the following code to execute a search and it's not working. On the search.cfm page, the only value coming back is the value I input into the search field (even if I click an autosuggest value, it's not coming back; only the letters I actually type myself come back). <cfform class="titleSearchForm" id="searchForm" action="search.cfm?GameID=#cfautosuggestvalue.GameID#" method="post"> <fieldset> <cfinput type="text" class="titleSearchField" name="TitleName" onChange="form.submit()" autosuggest="cfc:gz.cfcomp.search.AutoSuggestSearch({cfautosuggestvalue})"> <input type="button" class="titleSearchButton" value=" " /> </fieldset> </cfform> Query in CFC: <cfquery name="SearchResult" datasource="myDSN"> SELECT CONCAT(titles.TitleName, ' on ', platforms.PlatformAbbreviation) AS sResult, games.GameID FROM games Inner Join platforms ON games.PlatformID = platforms.PlatformID Inner Join titles ON titles.TitleID = games.TitleID WHERE UCase(titleName) LIKE Ucase('#ARGUMENTS.SearchString#%') ORDER BY titleName ASC; </cfquery> Two things: First of all, I would like to get the GameID back to the page making the AJAX request; I know why it is not coming back: Because I'm only returning sResult var, which does not include the GameID. Is there a way to return the GameID value without displaying it? The second thing: How to I grab a value from the auto-suggest once it is returned? Say I want to grab the GameID, or if I can't do that, the "TitleName" to use that in my query? I tried passing it to the form this way: action="search.cfm?GameID=#cfautosuggestvalue.GameID#" - but that does not work. How do I reference the autosuggestionvalue varaibles for use? Thanks

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• Load collections eagerly in NHibernate using Criteria API

  - by Zuber

  I have an entity A which HasMany entities B and entities C. All entities A, B and C have some references x,y and z which should be loaded eagerly. I want to read from the database all entities A, and load the collections of B and C eagerly using criteria API. So far, I am able to fetch the references in 'A' eagerly. But when the collections are loaded, the references within them are lazily loaded. Here is how I do it AllEntities_A = _session.CreateCriteria(typeof(A)) .SetFetchMode("x", FetchMode.Eager) .SetFetchMode("y", FetchMode.Eager) .List<A>().AsQueryable(); The mapping of entity A using Fluent is as shown below. _B and _C are private ILists for B & C respectively in A. Id(c => c.SystemId); Version(c => c.Version); References(c => c.x).Cascade.All(); References(c => c.y).Cascade.All(); HasMany<B>(Reveal.Property<A>("_B")) .AsBag() .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .Not.LazyLoad() .Inverse() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); HasMany<C>(Reveal.Property<A>("_C")) .AsBag() .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .LazyLoad() .Inverse() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); I don't want to make changes to the mapping file, and would like to load the entire entity A eagerly. i.e. I should get a List of A's where there will be List of B's and C's whose reference properties will also be loaded eagerly

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• wcf trying to set up tracing to debug, not writing to log file

  - by joey j

  here's my web.config, running a WCF service in an application on IIS7, but nothing is being written to the specified file. permission on the file has been granted for everyone. </listeners> I can add a service reference just fine. I then try to call the service from a windows app and, after a few minutes, get an error on the machine running the windows app "Client is unable to finish the security negotiation within the configured timeout (00:00:00). The current negotiation leg is 1 (00:00:00)." but absolutely nothing is written to the trace log file specified in config. Is there something else I need to do to enable tracing? thanks for your help EDIT: "sources" section now matches the section recommended here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa702726.aspx I've added the "diagnostics and the event viewer shows: "Message Logging has been turned on. Sensitive information may be logged in the clear, even if it was encrypted on the wire: for example, message bodies. Process Name: w3wp Process ID: 1784 " but the log file is still empty

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• Visual Studio Linked Files Directory Structure

  - by jeffn825

  I have two versions of a project. One for Silverlight and one for .NET. The SL project has the vast majority of the code base in it. I want to globally add all files from the SL project into the .NET version as linked files. I've managed to do so successfully like this in the csproj file for the .NET version: <Compile Include="..\MyProj.Common.SL\**\*.cs" Exclude="..\MyProj.Common\Properties\**"> Unfortunately, this adds all the files right to the root of my project... so I end up with a long unreadable list of linked files in the .NET project. I really really really don't want to have to maintain an entire duplicate directory structure by hand and deal with directory name changes and file name changes and whatnot. So, is there any way to have Visual Studio preserve the directory structure when adding linked files in the wildcard manner above? Or is there at least a way of making it group all the linked files together under a directory in the .NET project like MyProj.Common.SL.Links? The very closest I've come is to set the <Visible>false</Visible> under the <Compile> tag, which effectively removes the long unreadable list of 300+ files....but unfortunately this screws up Resharper, which no longer sees those files as valid and it goes crazy on all the projects that reference the .NET project. If I could figure out a way of making Resharper not get all messed up, that would be an acceptable solution too... Any suggestions? Thanks.

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• Using XPath on String in Android (JAVA)

  - by Rav

  I am looking for some examples of using xpath in Android? Or if anyone can share their experiences. I have been struggeling to make tail or head of this problem :-( I have a string that contains a standard xml file. I believe I need to convert that into an xml document. I have found this code which I think will do the trick: public static Document stringToDom(String xmlSource) throws SAXException, ParserConfigurationException, IOException { DocumentBuilderFactory factory = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); DocumentBuilder builder = factory.newDocumentBuilder(); return builder.parse(new InputSource(new StringReader(xmlSource))); } Next steps Assuming the code above is OK, I need to apply xpath to get values from cat: "/animal/mammal/feline/cat" I look at the dev doc here: http://developer.android.com/reference/javax/xml/xpath/XPath.html and also look online, but I am not sure where to start! I have tried to use the following code: XPathFactory xPathFactory = XPathFactory.newInstance(); // To get an instance of the XPathFactory object itself. XPath xPath = xPathFactory.newXPath(); // Create an instance of XPath from the factory class. String expression = "SomeXPathExpression"; XPathExpression xPathExpression = xPath.compile(expression); // Compile the expression to get a XPathExpression object. Object result = xPathExpression.evaluate(xmlDocument); // Evaluate the expression against the XML Document to get the result. But I get "Cannot be resolved". Eclipse doesn't seem to be able to fix this import. I tried manually entering: javax.xml.xpath.XPath But this did not work. Does anyone know any good source code that I can utilise, for Android platform? 1.5

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• Associating an object with another object for GC clearup

  - by thecoop

  Is there any way of associating an object instance (object A) with a second object (object B) in a generalised way, so that when B gets collected A becomes eligable for collection? The same behaviour that would happen if B had an instance variable pointing to A, but without explicitly changing the class definition of B, and being able to do this in a dynamic way? The same sort of effect could be done by using the Component.Disposed event in a funky way, but I don't want to make B disposable EDIT I'm basically creating a cache of objects that are associated with a single 'root' object, and I don't want the cache to be static, as there can be lots of root objects using different caches, so lots of memory will be used up when a root object is no longer used but the cached objects are still around. So, I want a collection of cached objects to be associated with each 'root' object, without changing the root object definition. Sort of like metadata of an extra object reference attached to each root object instance. That way, each collection will get collected when the root object is collected, and not hang around like they would if a static cache was used.

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• Publishing a WCF Server and client and their endpoints

  - by Ahmadreza

  Imagine developing a WCF solution with two projects (WCF Service/ and web application as WCF Client). As long as I'm developing these two projects in visual studio and referencing service to client (Web Application) as server reference there is no problem. Visual studio automatically assign a port for WCF server and configure all needed configuration including Server And Client binging to something like this in server: <service behaviorConfiguration="DefaultServiceBehavior" name="MYWCFProject.MyService"> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" contract="MYWCFProject.IMyService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="http://localhost:8731/MyService.svc" /> </baseAddresses> </host> </service> and in client: <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8731/MyService.svc" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="WSHttpBinding_IMyService" contract="MyWCFProject.IMyService" name="WSHttpBinding_IMyService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> </client> The problem is I want to frequently publish this two project in two different servers as my production servers and Service url will be "http://mywcfdomain/MyService.svc". I don't want to change config file every time I publish my server project. The question is: is there any feature in Visual Studio 2008 to automatically change the URLs or I have to define two different endpoints and I set them within my code (based on a parameter in my configuration for example Development/Published).

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• Awkward looking uses of Contract.ValueAtReturn()

  - by devoured elysium

  I am designing a method that will add an element to an internal list. The structure of the class is something along the lines of: class MyCustomerDatabase { private IList<Customer> _customers = new List<Customer>(); public int NumberOfCustomers { get { return _customers; } } public void AddCustomer(Customer customer) { _customers.Add(customer); } } Now, I was thinking of adding a Contract.Ensures() about the size of the _customers growing by 1 with this call. The problem is that I end up with some weird looking code: public void AddCustomer(Customer customer) { int numberOfCustomersAtReturn; Contract.Ensures(Contract.ValueAtReturn<int>(out numberOfCustomersAtReturn) == Contract.OldValue<int>(NumberOfCustomers) + 1); _customers.Add(customer); numberOfCustomersAtReturn = NumberOfCustomers; } The main problem is that properties are in fact methods, so you can't just reference them direcly when using Contract.ValueAtReturn() as its only parameter accepts variables as out. The situation gets even odder if I want to achieve the same but this time with a method that should return a value: public int MyReturningMethod() { ... return abc(); //abc will add by one the number of customers in list } //gets converted to public int MyReturningMethod() { int numberOfCustomersAtReturn; Contract.Ensures(Contract.ValueAtReturn<int>(out numberOfCustomersAtReturn) == Contract.OldValue<int>(NumberOfCustomers) + 1); int returnValue = abc(); numberOfCustomersAtReturn = NumberOfCustomers; return returnValue; } This seems pretty clumsy :( Code Contracts should aim to get things clearer and this seems right the opposite. Am I doing something wrong? Thanks

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• Exporting Maven properties from Ant code

  - by Gili

  I've embedded the following code within my POM: <plugin name="test"> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-antrun-plugin</artifactId> <executions> <execution> <phase>validate</phase> <configuration> <tasks> <pathconvert targetos="unix" property="project.build.directory.portable"> <path location="${project.build.directory}"/> </pathconvert> </tasks> </configuration> <goals> <goal>run</goal> </goals> </execution> </executions> </plugin> I then reference ${project.build.directory.portable} from the run project action but it comes back as null. Executing <echo> within the Ant block shows the correct value. What am I doing wrong?

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• How to hand-over a TCP listening socket with minimal downtime?

  - by Shtééf

  While this question is tagged EventMachine, generic BSD-socket solutions in any language are much appreciated too. Some background: I have an application listening on a TCP socket. It is started and shut down with a regular System V style init script. My problem is that it needs some time to start up before it is ready to service the TCP socket. It's not too long, perhaps only 5 seconds, but that's 5 seconds too long when a restart needs to be performed during a workday. It's also crucial that existing connections remain open and are finished normally. Reasons for a restart of the application are patches, upgrades, and the like. I unfortunately find myself in the position that, every once in a while, I need to do this kind of thing in production. The question: I'm looking for a way to do a neat hand-over of the TCP listening socket, from one process to another, and as a result get only a split second of downtime. I'd like existing connections / sockets to remain open and finish processing in the old process, while the new process starts servicing new connectinos. Is there some proven method of doing this using BSD-sockets? (Bonus points for an EventMachine solution.) Are there perhaps open-source libraries out there implementing this, that I can use as is, or use as a reference? (Again, non-Ruby and non-EventMachine solutions are appreciated too!)

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• Giving another object a NSManagedObject

  - by Wayfarer

  Alright, so I'm running into an issue with my code. What I have done is subclassed UIButton so I can give it some more infomormation that pertain to my code. I have been able to create the buttons and they work great. Capiche. However, one of the things I want my subclass to hold is a reference to a NSMangedObject. I have this code in my header file: @interface ButtonSubclass : UIButton { NSManagedObjectContext *context; NSManagedObject *player; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObject *player; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObjectContext *context; - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame andTitle:(NSString*)title; //- (void)setPlayer:(NSManagedObject *)aPlayer; @end As you can see, it has a instance variable to the NSMangedobject I want it to hold (as well as the Context). But for the life of me, I can't get it to hold that NSManagedObject. I run both the @synthesize methods in the Implementation file. @synthesize context; @synthesize player; So I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. This is how I create my button: ButtonSubclass *playerButton = [[ButtonSubclass alloc] initWithFrame:frame andTitle:@"20"]; //works playerButton.context = self.context; //works playerButton.player = [players objectAtIndex:i]; //FAILS And I have initilaized the players array earlier, where I get the objects. Another weird thing is that when it gets to this spot in the code, the app crashes (woot) and the the console output stops. It doesn't give me any error, and notification at all that the app has crashed. It just... stops. So I don't even know what the error is that is crashing the code, besides it has to do with that line up there setting the "player" variable. Thoughts and ideas? I'd love your wisdom!

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• Is there a limit for the number of files in a directory on an SD card?

  - by jamesh

  I have a project written for Android devices. It generates a large number of files, each day. These are all text files and images. The app uses a database to reference these files. The app is supposed to clear up these files after a little use (perhaps after a few days), but this process may or may not be working. This is not the subject of this question. Due to a historic accident, the organization of the files are somewhat naive: everything is in the same directory; a .hidden directory which contains a zero byte .nomedia file to prevent the MediaScanner indexing it. Today, I am seeing an error reported: java.io.IOException: Cannot create: /sdcard/.hidden/file-4200.html at java.io.File.createNewFile(File.java:1263) Regarding the sdcard, I see it has plenty of storage left, but counting $ cd /Volumes/NO_NAME/.hidden $ ls | wc -w 9058 Deleting a number of files seems to have allowed the file creation for today to proceed. Regrettably, I did not try touching a new file to try and reproduce the error on a commandline; I also deleted several hundred files rather than a handful. However, my question is: are there hard limits on filesize or number of files in a directory? am I even on the right track here? Nota Bene: The SD card is as-is - i.e. I haven't formatted it, so I would guess it would be a FAT-* format. The FAT-32 format has hard limits of filesize of 2GB (well above the filesizes I am dealing with) and a limit of number of files in the root directory. I am definitely not writing files in the root directory.

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