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• GooglePlayServicesNotAvailable: GooglePlayServices not available due to error 1

  - by Mathias Lin

  I'm on Galaxy S III with Android 4.0.4, Google Play installed. In my app I try to get a token from the Google Play services, as described on https://developers.google.com/android/google-play-services/authentication. Since it's all quite new (the Google pages were last updated this week), there's not much documentation to be found, especially about each specific error code. final String token = GoogleAuthUtil.getToken(this, "[email protected]", "scope"); gives me an exception: 09-30 11:24:36.075: ERROR/GoogleAuthUtil(11984): GooglePlayServices not available due to error 1 09-30 11:24:36.105: ERROR/AuthTokenCheck_(11984): Error 1 com.google.android.gms.auth.GooglePlayServicesAvailabilityException: GooglePlayServicesNotAvailable at com.google.android.gms.auth.GoogleAuthUtil.f(Unknown Source) at com.google.android.gms.auth.GoogleAuthUtil.getToken(Unknown Source) at com.google.android.gms.auth.GoogleAuthUtil.getToken(Unknown Source) at mobi.app.activity.AuthTokenCheck.getAndUseAuthTokenBlocking(AuthTokenCheck.java:148) at mobi.app.activity.AuthTokenCheck$1.doInBackground(AuthTokenCheck.java:61) at android.os.AsyncTask$2.call(AsyncTask.java:264) at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask$Sync.innerRun(FutureTask.java:305) at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask.run(FutureTask.java:137) at android.os.AsyncTask$SerialExecutor$1.run(AsyncTask.java:208) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.runWorker(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:1076) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.run(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:569) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:856) https://developers.google.com/android/google-play-services/reference/com/google/android/gms/auth/package-summary tells me: GooglePlayServicesAvailabilityExceptions are special instances of UserRecoverableAuthExceptions which are thrown when the expected Google Play services app is not available for some reason. But what exactly does that mean? And how to resolve it? I've added the Google Play services extras in my SDK and the jar to my project, marked as 'exported'. I'm also wondering what the "Google Play services app" exactly is. Unfortunately it's all not very clearly described at https://developers.google.com/android/google-play-services/. The Google Play services component is delivered as an APK through the Google Play Store, so updates to Google Play services are not dependent on carrier or OEM system image updates. Newer devices will also have Google Play services as part of the device's system image, but updates are still pushed to these newer devices through the Google Play Store. Isn't "Google Play services" app the same as the "Google Play" app? Another question I have, due to lack of documentation: what is the scope parameter for? The documentation just says the following, but not defining what an 'authentication scope' exactly is: scope String representing the authentication scope.

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• How do I use WMI with Delphi without drastically increasing the application's file size?

  - by Mick

  I am using Delphi 2010, and when I created a console application that prints "Hello World", it takes 111 kb. If I want to query WMI with Delphi, I add WBEMScripting_TLB, ActiveX, and Variants units to my project. If I perform a simple WMI query, my executable size jumps to 810 kb. I Is there anyway to query WMI without such a large addition to the size of the file? Forgive my ignorance, but why do I not have this issue with C++? Here is my code: program WMITest; {$APPTYPE CONSOLE} uses SysUtils, WBEMScripting_TLB, ActiveX, Variants; function GetWMIstring(wmiHost, root, wmiClass, wmiProperty: string): string; var Services: ISWbemServices; SObject: ISWbemObject; ObjSet: ISWbemObjectSet; SProp: ISWbemProperty; Enum: IEnumVariant; Value: Cardinal; TempObj: OLEVariant; loc: TSWbemLocator; SN: string; i: integer; begin Result := ''; i := 0; try loc := TSWbemLocator.Create(nil); Services := Loc.ConnectServer(wmiHost, root {'root\cimv2'}, '', '', '', '', 0, nil); ObjSet := Services.ExecQuery('SELECT * FROM ' + wmiClass, 'WQL', wbemFlagReturnImmediately and wbemFlagForwardOnly, nil); Enum := (ObjSet._NewEnum) as IEnumVariant; if not VarIsNull(Enum) then try while Enum.Next(1, TempObj, Value) = S_OK do begin try SObject := IUnknown(TempObj) as ISWBemObject; except SObject := nil; end; TempObj := Unassigned; if SObject <> nil then begin SProp := SObject.Properties_.Item(wmiProperty, 0); SN := SProp.Get_Value; if not VarIsNull(SN) then begin if varisarray(SN) then begin for i := vararraylowbound(SN, 1) to vararrayhighbound(SN, 1) do result := vartostr(SN[i]); end else Result := SN; Break; end; end; end; SProp := nil; except Result := ''; end else Result := ''; Enum := nil; Services := nil; ObjSet := nil; except on E: Exception do Result := e.message; end; end; begin try WriteLn('hello world'); WriteLn(GetWMIstring('.', 'root\CIMV2', 'Win32_OperatingSystem', 'Caption')); WriteLn('done'); except on E: Exception do Writeln(E.ClassName, ': ', E.Message); end; end.

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• angular-ui maps javascript error

  - by Will Lopez

  I'm having an issue with angularui. This error came from angular-google-maps.js: Error: [$compile:ctreq] Controller 'googleMap', required by directive 'rectangle', can't be found! http://errors.angularjs.org/1.2.16/$compile/ctreq?p0=googleMap&p1=rectangle at http://localhost:62874/Scripts/angular.js:78:12 at getControllers (http://localhost:62874/Scripts/angular.js:6409:19) at nodeLinkFn (http://localhost:62874/Scripts/angular.js:6580:35) at compositeLinkFn (http://localhost:62874/Scripts/angular.js:5986:15) at compositeLinkFn (http://localhost:62874/Scripts/angular.js:5989:13) at compositeLinkFn (http://localhost:62874/Scripts/angular.js:5989:13) at nodeLinkFn (http://localhost:62874/Scripts/angular.js:6573:24) at compositeLinkFn (http://localhost:62874/Scripts/angular.js:5986:15) at Scope.publicLinkFn [as $transcludeFn] (http://localhost:62874/Scripts/angular.js:5891:30) at link (http://localhost:62874/Scripts/ui-bootstrap-tpls-0.12.0.min.js:9:8037) <div class="rectangle grid-style ng-scope ng-isolate-scope" data-ng-grid="pipelineGrid"> I'm a little confused because the controller isn't trying to inject the angular-ui map directive: appRoot.controller('PipelineController', ["$scope", "$location", "$resource", function ($scope, $location, $resource) { ... Here's the html: <div class="container"> <tabset> <tab heading="Upload File"> <p>Tab 1 content</p> </tab> <tab heading="Data Maintenance"> Tab 2 content <div ng-controller="PipelineController"> <div id="mapFilter" class="panel panel-default"> <div class="panel-heading text-right"> <div class="input-group"> <input type="text" class="form-control" ng- model="pipelineGrid.filterOptions.filterText" placeholder="enter filter" /> <span class="input-group-addon"><span class="glyphicon glyphicon- filter"></span></span> </div> </div> <div class="panel-body"> <div class="rectangle grid-style" data-ng-grid="pipelineGrid"> </div> </div> </div> </div> </tab> </tabset> </div> Thank you!

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• Exception handling problem in release mode

  - by lama-power

  I have application with this code: Module Startup <STAThread()> _ Public Sub Main() Try Application.EnableVisualStyles() Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(False) InitApp() Dim login As New LoginForm() Dim main As New MainForm() Application.Run(login) If login.DialogResult = DialogResult.OK Then ActUser = login.LoggedUser main.ShowDialog() End If DisposeApp() Catch ex As Exception ErrMsg(ex, "Error!", ErrorLogger.ErrMsgType.CriticalError) End End Try End Sub End Module in debug mode everithing is OK. But in release mode when somewhere in application exception occurs my global catch in Main method doesn`t catch exception. What is the problem please?

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• Filtering a dropdown in Angular IE11 issue

  - by Brian S.

  I have a requirement for a select html element that can be duplicated multiple times on a page. The options for these select elements all come from a master list. All of the select elements can only show all of the items in the master list that have not been selected in any of the other select elements unless they just were duplicated. So I wrote a custom filter to do this in Angular and it seems to work just fine provided you are not using IE11. In IE when you select a new item from a duplicated select element, it seems to select the option after the one you selected even though the model still has the correct one set. I realize this sounds convoluted, so I created a jFiddle example. Using IE 11 try these steps: Select Bender Click the duplicate link Select Fry Notice that the one that is selected is Leela but the model still has Fry (id:2) as the one selected Now if you do the same thing in Chrome everything works as expected. Can anyone tell me how I might get around this or what I might be doing wrong? Here is the relevant Angular code: myapp.controller('Ctrl', function ($scope) { $scope.selectedIds = [{}]; $scope.allIds = [{ name: 'Bender', value: 1}, {name: 'Fry', value: 2}, {name: 'Leela', value: 3 }]; $scope.dupDropDown = function(currentDD) { var newDD = angular.copy(currentDD); $scope.selectedIds.push(newDD); } }); angular.module('appFilters',[]).filter('ddlFilter', function () { return function (allIds, currentItem, selectedIds) { //console.log(currentItem); var listToReturn = allIds.filter(function (anIdFromMasterList) { if (currentItem.id == anIdFromMasterList.value) return true; var areThereAny = selectedIds.some(function (aSelectedId) { return aSelectedId.id == anIdFromMasterList.value; }); return !areThereAny; }); return listToReturn; } }); And here is the relevant HTML <div ng-repeat="aSelection in selectedIds "> <a href="#" ng-click="dupDropDown(aSelection)">Duplicate</a> <select ng-model="aSelection.id" ng-options="a.value as a.name for a in allIds | ddlFilter:aSelection:selectedIds"> <option value="">--Select--</option> </select> </div>

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• Does my fat-client application belong in the MVC pattern?

  - by boatingcow

  The web-based application I’m currently working on is growing arms and legs! It’s basically an administration system which helps users to keep track of bookings, user accounts, invoicing etc. It can also be accessed via a couple of different websites using a fairly crude API. The fat-client design loosely follows the MVC pattern (or perhaps MVP) with a php/MySQL backend, Front Controller, several dissimilar Page Controllers, a liberal smattering of object-oriented and procedural Models, a confusing bunch of Views and templates, some JavaScripts, CSS files and Flash objects. The programmer in me is a big fan of the principle of “Separation of Concerns” and on that note, I’m currently trying to figure out the best way to separate and combine the various concerns as the project grows and more people contribute to it. The problem we’re facing is that although JavaScript (or Flash with ActionScript) is normally written with the template, hence part of the View and decoupled from the Controller and Model, we find that it actually encompasses the entire MVC pattern... Swap an image with an onmouseover event - that’s Behaviour. Render a datagrid - we’re manipulating the View. Send the result of reordering a list via AJAX - now we’re in Control. Check a form field to see if an email address is in a valid format - we’re consulting the Model. Is it wise to let the database people write up the validation Model with jQuery? Can the php programmers write the necessary Control structures in JavaScript? Can the web designers really write a functional AJAX form for their View? Should there be a JavaScript overlord for every project? If the MVC pattern could be applied to the people instead of the code, we would end up with this: Model - the database boffins - “SELECT * FROM mind WHERE interested IS NULL” Control - pesky programmers - “class Something extends NothingAbstractClass{…}” View - traditionally the domain of the graphic/web designer - “” …and a new layer: Behaviour - interaction and feedback designer - “CSS3 is the new black…” So, we’re refactoring and I’d like to stick to best practice design, but I’m not sure how to proceed. I don’t want to reinvent the wheel, so would anyone have any hints or tips as to what pattern I should be looking at or any code samples from someone who’s already done the dirty work? As the programmer guy, how can I rewrite the app for backend and front end whilst keeping the two separate? And before you ask, yes I’ve looked at Zend, CodeIgnitor, Symfony, etc., and no, they don’t seem to cross the boundary between server logic and client logic!

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• How would you organize a large complex web application (see basic example)?

  - by Anurag

  How do you usually organize complex web applications that are extremely rich on the client side. I have created a contrived example to indicate the kind of mess it's easy to get into if things are not managed well for big apps. Feel free to modify/extend this example as you wish - http://jsfiddle.net/NHyLC/1/ The example basically mirrors part of the comment posting on SO, and follows the following rules: Must have 15 characters minimum, after multiple spaces are trimmed out to one. If Add Comment is clicked, but the size is less than 15 after removing multiple spaces, then show a popup with the error. Indicate amount of characters remaining and summarize with color coding. Gray indicates a small comment, brown indicates a medium comment, orange a large comment, and red a comment overflow. One comment can only be submitted every 15 seconds. If comment is submitted too soon, show a popup with appropriate error message. A couple of issues I noticed with this example. This should ideally be a widget or some sort of packaged functionality. Things like a comment per 15 seconds, and minimum 15 character comment belong to some application wide policies rather than being embedded inside each widget. Too many hard-coded values. No code organization. Model, Views, Controllers are all bundled together. Not that MVC is the only approach for organizing rich client side web applications, but there is none in this example. How would you go about cleaning this up? Applying a little MVC/MVP along the way? Here's some of the relevant functions, but it will make more sense if you saw the entire code on jsfiddle: /** * Handle comment change. * Update character count. * Indicate progress */ function handleCommentUpdate(comment) { var status = $('.comment-status'); status.text(getStatusText(comment)); status.removeClass('mild spicy hot sizzling'); status.addClass(getStatusClass(comment)); } /** * Is the comment valid for submission */ function commentSubmittable(comment) { var notTooSoon = !isTooSoon(); var notEmpty = !isEmpty(comment); var hasEnoughCharacters = !isTooShort(comment); return notTooSoon && notEmpty && hasEnoughCharacters; } // submit comment $('.add-comment').click(function() { var comment = $('.comment-box').val(); // submit comment, fake ajax call if(commentSubmittable(comment)) { .. } // show a popup if comment is mostly spaces if(isTooShort(comment)) { if(comment.length < 15) { // blink status message } else { popup("Comment must be at least 15 characters in length."); } } // show a popup is comment submitted too soon else if(isTooSoon()) { popup("Only 1 comment allowed per 15 seconds."); } });

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• DDB unknown file

  - by Ahmad Hajou

  I have a .ddb file that is used as a telephone directory for an application written in flash/VB.net (i guess). The problem is that the application is crashing and my only was to access the application is through the mysterious (*.ddb) file (99% of the application size.) The application contains an also mysterious dll (NK_SQLite.dll). So far I have tried: SQLite Browser tried opening the file in PL/SQL tried opening the file in SQL Server Any ideas about how to solve this issue,

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• AutoRestart Custom Shell .Net App

  - by MattH

  We have a .Net application that runs as a shell for certain users. We'd like the application to automatically restart when it crashes. The application is set as the shell here: HKEY_USERS*User*\Software\Microsoft\Windows NT\WinLogon\Shell I've tried adding an "AutoRestartShell" key with a value of "1", like what exists in: HKLM\Software\Microsoft\Windows NT\WinLogon. When I kill the application's process for the user (via RDP) the application exits, but never restarts. Ideas?

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• How to run an application as root without asking for an admin password?

  - by kvaruni

  I am writing a program in Objective-C (XCode 3.2, on Snow Leopard) that is capable of either selectively blocking certain sites for a duration or only allow certain sites (and thus block all others) for a duration. The reasoning behind this program is rather simple. I tend to get distracted when I have full internet access, but I do need internet access during my working hours to get to a number of work-related websites. Clearly, this is not a permanent block, but only helps me to focus whenever I find myself wandering a bit too much. At the moment, I am using a Unix script that is called via AppleScript to obtain Administrator permissions. It then activates a number of ipfw rules and clears those after a specific duration to restore full internet access. Simple and effective, but since I am running as a standard user, it gets cumbersome to enter my administrator password each and every time I want to go "offline". Furthermore, this is a great opportunity to learn to work with XCode and Objective-C. At the moment, everything works as expected, minus the actual blocking. I can add a number of sites in a list, specify whether or not I want to block or allow these websites and I can "start" the blocking by specifying a time until which I want to stay "offline". However, I find it hard to obtain clear information on how I can run a privileged Unix command from Objective-C. Ideally, I would like to be able to store information with respect to the Administrator account into the Keychain to use these later on, so that I can simply move into "offline" mode with the convenience of clicking a button. Even more ideally, there might be some class in Objective-C with which I can block access to some/all websites for this particular user without needing to rely on privileged Unix commands. A third possibility is in starting this program with root permissions and the reducing the permissions until I need them, but since this is a GUI application that is nested in the menu bar of OS X, the results are rather awkward and getting it to run each and every time with root permission is no easy task. Anyone who can offer me some pointers or advice? Please, no security-warnings, I am fully aware that what I want to do is a potential security threat.

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• iPhone: Speeding up a search that's polling 17,000 Core Data objects

  - by randombits

  I have a class that conforms to UISearchDisplayDelegate and contains a UISearchBar. This view is responsible for allowing the user to poll a store of about 17,000 objects that are currently managed by Core Data. Everytime the user types in a character, I created an instance of a SearchOperation (subclasses NSOperation) that queries Core Data to find results that might match the search. The code in the search controller looks something like: - (void)filterContentForSearchText:(NSString*)searchText scope:(NSString*)scope { // Update the filtered array based on the search text and scope in a secondary thread if ([searchText length] < 3) { [filteredList removeAllObjects]; // First clear the filtered array. [self setFilteredList:NULL]; [self.tableView reloadData]; return; } NSDictionary *searchdict = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys:scope, @"scope", searchText, @"searchText", nil]; [aSearchQueue cancelAllOperations]; SearchOperation *searchOp = [[SearchOperation alloc] initWithDelegate:self dataDict:searchdict]; [aSearchQueue addOperation:searchOp]; } And my search is rather straight forward. SearchOperation is a subclass of NSOperation. I overwrote the main method with the following code: - (void)main { if ([self isCancelled]) { return; } NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"MyEntity" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; NSPredicate *predicate = NULL; predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"(someattr contains[cd] %@)", searchText]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; NSError *error = NULL; NSArray *fetchResults = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&error]; [fetchRequest release]; if (self.delegate != nil) [self.delegate didFinishSearching:fetchResults]; [pool drain]; } This code works, but it has several issues. It's slow. Even though I have the search happening in a separate thread other than the UI thread, querying 17,000 objects is clearly not optimal. If I'm not careful, crashes can happen. I set the max concurrent searches in my NSOperationQueue to 1 to avoid this. What else can I do to make this search faster? I think preloading all 17,000 objects into memory might be risky. There has to be a smarter way to conduct this search to give results back to the user faster.

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• Using VCL for the web (intraweb) as a trick for adding web interface to a legacy non-tiered (2 tiers

  - by user193655

  My team is maintaining a huge Client Server win32 Delphi application. It is a client/server application (Thick client) that uses DevArt (SDAC) components to connect to SQL Server. The business logic is often "trapped" in Component's event handlers, anyway with some degree of refactoring it is doable to move the business logic in common units (a big part of this work has already been done during refactoring... Maintaing legacy applications someone else wrote is very frustrating, but this is a very common job). Now there is the request of a web interface, I have several options of course, in this question i want to focus on the VCL for the web (intraweb) option. The idea is to use the common code (the same pas files) for both the client/server application and the web application. I heard of many people that moved legacy apps from delphi to intraweb, but here I am trying to keep the Thick client too. The idea is to use common code, may be with some compiler directives to write specific code: {$IFDEF CLIENTSERVER} {here goes the thick client specific code} {$ELSE} {here goes the Intraweb specific code} {$ENDIF} Then another problem is the "migration plan", let's say I have 300 features and on the first release I will have only 50 of them available in the web application. How to keep track of it? I was thinking of (ab)using Delphi interfaces to handle this. For example for the User Authentication I could move all the related code in a procedure and declare an interface like: type IUserAuthentication= interface['{0D57624C-CDDE-458B-A36C-436AE465B477}'] procedure UserAuthentication; end; In this way as I implement the IUserAuthentication interface in both the applications (Thick Client and Intraweb) I know that That feature has been "ported" to the web. Anyway I don't know if this approach makes sense. I made a prototype to simulate the whole process. It works for a "Hello world" application, but I wonder if it makes sense on a large application or this Interface idea is only counter-productive and can backfire. My question is: does this approach make sense? (the Interface idea is just an extra idea, it is not so important as the common code part described above) Is it a viable option? I understand it depends a lot of the kind of application, anyway to be generic my one is in the CRM/Accounting domain, and the number of concurrent users on a single installation is typically less than 20 with peaks of 50. EXTRA COMMENT (UPDATE): I ask this question because since I don't have a n-tier application I see Intraweb as the unique option for having a web application that has common code with the thick client. Developing webservices from the Delphi code makes no sense in my specific case, so the alternative I have is to write the web interface using ASP.NET (duplicating the business logic), but in this case I cannot take advantage of the common code in an easy way. Yes I could use dlls maybe, but my code is not suitable for that.

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• Unit finalization order for application, compiled with run-time packages?

  - by Alexander

  I need to execute my code after finalization of SysUtils unit. I've placed my code in separate unit and included it first in uses clause of dpr-file, like this: project Project1; uses MyUnit, // <- my separate unit SysUtils, Classes, SomeOtherUnits; procedure Test; begin // end; begin SetProc(Test); end. MyUnit looks like this: unit MyUnit; interface procedure SetProc(AProc: TProcedure); implementation var Test: TProcedure; procedure SetProc(AProc: TProcedure); begin Test := AProc; end; initialization finalization Test; end. Note that MyUnit doesn't have any uses. This is usual Windows exe, no console, without forms and compiled with default run-time packages. MyUnit is not part of any package (but I've tried to use it from package too). I expect that finalization section of MyUnit will be executed after finalization section of SysUtils. This is what Delphi's help tells me. However, this is not always the case. I have 2 test apps, which differs a bit by code in Test routine/dpr-file and units, listed in uses. MyUnit, however, is listed first in all cases. One application is run as expected: Halt0 - FinalizeUnits - ...other units... - SysUtils's finalization - MyUnit's finalization - ...other units... But the second is not. MyUnit's finalization is invoked before SysUtils's finalization. The actual call chain looks like this: Halt0 - FinalizeUnits - ...other units... - SysUtils's finalization (skipped) - MyUnit's finalization - ...other units... - SysUtils's finalization (executed) Both projects have very similar settings. I tried a lot to remove/minimize their differences, but I still do not see a reason for this behaviour. I've tried to debug this and found out that: it seems that every unit have some kind of reference counting. And it seems that InitTable contains multiply references to the same unit. When SysUtils's finalization section is called first time - it change reference counter and do nothing. Then MyUnit's finalization is executed. And then SysUtils is called again, but this time ref-count reaches zero and finalization section is executed: Finalization: // SysUtils' finalization 5003B3F0 55 push ebp // here and below is some form of stub 5003B3F1 8BEC mov ebp,esp 5003B3F3 33C0 xor eax,eax 5003B3F5 55 push ebp 5003B3F6 688EB50350 push $5003b58e 5003B3FB 64FF30 push dword ptr fs:[eax] 5003B3FE 648920 mov fs:[eax],esp 5003B401 FF05DCAD1150 inc dword ptr [$5011addc] // here: some sort of reference counter 5003B407 0F8573010000 jnz $5003b580 // <- this jump skips execution of finalization for first call 5003B40D B8CC4D0350 mov eax,$50034dcc // here and below is actual SysUtils' finalization section ... Can anyone can shred light on this issue? Am I missing something?

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• How to communicate between Client and Server in a Client-Server Application?

  - by Sanoj

  I would like to implement an Client-Server Application, where the business-logic, security validations and a database are at the server and the user interface are at the client. I would like to implement clients in different languages i.e. one in WPF/.NET, one Swing/Java , one in Android/Java and maybe one HTML/JavaScript client. The server will be on Internet, so I would like to be able to have encrypted communication. The client will send some lists of items to be added to the database, or update items, and do some transactions. The server will check if the items are already updated by another client, or update the item, add new items or delete items. How do I solve the communication between clients and the server in such a system? I have been thinking about: http/https webserver, and sending messages in JSON or XML and use Web Sockets for bi-directional communication. Use http in a RESTful way, except when WebSockets are needed. But I guess there are better solutions for native desktop applications than http? CORBA - I have just heard about it, and it's old and complex. Not much talk about it these days. XMPP/Jabber - I have just heard about it and I don't know if it fits me at all. EJabberd seams to be a popular implementation. AMQP - I have just heard about it and I don't know if it fits me at all. RabbitMQ seams to be a popular implementation. Windows Communication Foundation, Java RMI, Java Message Service - but are they language independent? I guess some of these alternatives are on different levels, maybe I can have i.e xmpp or amqp in web sockets over https? What technologys are used for this problem in companies today? and what is recommended to use? I have no experience of them other than webservers and http. Please give me some guidance in this jungle. What are the pros and cons of these technologies in my situation?

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• Dock tile plug-ins for not running applications

  - by kiamlaluno

  Is the dock tile plug-in of an application used even when the application is not active? The documentation says that the dock title plug-in is used when the application is loaded in the dock, but that means that the application is running of that the application is put in the dock because the user wants it to stay on the dock?

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• Can I get a bitmap of an arbitrary window in another application process?

  - by Chris Farmer

  I am trying to automate a third-party Win32 application where I want to capture the graphics content of a particular window at defined time intervals. I am in the early phases of this, and I'm currently trying to use the Microsoft UI Automation API via C# to do most of the interaction between my client app and the external app. I can now get the external app to do what I want it to do, but now I want to capture the graphics from a specific window that seems to be some third-party owner-drawn control. How can I do this? The window I want to capture is the one marked by the red rectangle in this image: I have an implementation that sort of works, but it's dependent on the external app's UI being on top, and that's not guaranteed for me, so I'd prefer to find something more general. var p = Process.Start("c:\myapp.exe"); var mainForm = AutomationElement.FromHandle(p.MainWindowHandle); // "workspace" below is the window whose content I want to capture. var workspace = mainForm.FindFirst(TreeScope.Descendents, new PropertyCondition(AutomationElement.ClassNameProperty, "AfxFrameOrView70u")); var rect = (Rect) workspace.GetCurrentPropertyValue(AutomationElement.BoundingRectangleProperty); using (var bmp = new Bitmap((int)rect.Width, (int)rect.Height)) { using (var g = Graphics.FromImage(bmp)) { g.CopyFromScreen((int)rect.Left, (int)rect.Top, 0, 0, new Size((int)rect.Width, (int)rect.Height)); bmp.Save(@"c:\screenshot.png", ImageFormat.Png); } } The above works well enough when the automated app is on top, but it just blindly copies the screen in the rectangle, so my code is at the mercy of whatever happens to be running on the machine and might cover my app's window. I have read some suggestions to send the WM_PRINT message to the window. This question/answer from a few months back seemed promising, but when I use this code, I just get a white rectangle with none of my control's actual contents. var prop = (int)workspace.GetCurrentPropertyValue(AutomationElement.NativeWindowHandleProperty); var hwnd = new IntPtr(prop); using ( var bmp2 = new Bitmap((int)rect.Width, (int)rect.Height)) { using (Graphics g = Graphics.FromImage(bmp2)) { g.FillRectangle(SystemBrushes.Control, 0, 0, (int)rect.Width, (int)rect.Height); try { SendMessage(hwnd, WM_PRINT, g.GetHdc().ToInt32(), (int)(DrawingOptions.PRF_CHILDREN | DrawingOptions.PRF_CLIENT | DrawingOptions.PRF_OWNED)); } finally { g.ReleaseHdc(); } bmp2.Save(@"c:\screenshot.bmp"); } } So, first, is it even possible for me to reliably save a bitmap of a window's contents? If so, what is the best way, and what is wrong with my WM_PRINT with SendMessage attempt?

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• Why does my JSF + Spring web application output JSF source code instead of interpreted HTML page?

  - by Corvus

  I'm new to both JSF and Spring Framework and I'm trying to figure out how to make them work together. My current problem is that application outputs my JSF files without interpreting them. Here are some snippets of my code which I believe might be relevant: dispatcher-servlet.xml <bean id="urlMapping" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.handler.SimpleUrlHandlerMapping"> <property name="mappings"> <props> <prop key="login.htm">loginController</prop> </props> </property> </bean> <bean id="viewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver" p:prefix="/WEB-INF/pages/" p:suffix=".xhtml" /> <bean name="loginController" class="controller.LoginController" /> loginController public class LoginController extends MultiActionController { public ModelAndView login(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws Exception { System.out.println("LOGIN"); return new ModelAndView("login"); } WEB-INF/pages/login.xhtml <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8' ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:h="http://java.sun.com/jsf/html"> <h:head> <title>#{message.log}</title> </h:head> <h:body> <h:form> <h:outputLabel value="#{message.username}" for="userName"> <h:inputText id="userName" value="#{User.name}" /> </h:outputLabel> <h:commandButton value="#{message.loggin}" action="#{User.login}" /> </h:form> </h:body> </html> Any ideas where the problem might be? Does this code make any sense at all? I'm well aware of fact, that probably completely sucks and I'll be glad to here WHY it sucks and how to make it better. Thanks :)

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• HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name loses value

  - by Yagami

  Hi, I am using HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name to get a user id from 2 web application i'am developping. the problem is when i'am loggin in teh first application i get always HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name value (i put test in Application_AuthenticateRequest event) but when i log in teh 2nd application adn i ty to naviagte trough the 1st application teh HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name loses value. Environnement of test : Windows XP / VS.NET 2005 / Authentication forms BTW : both application are deployed in teh same machine Thank you for your help

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• AutoRestart Custom Shell App

  - by MattH

  We have a .Net application that runs as a shell for certain users. We'd like the application to automatically restart when it crashes. The application is set as the shell here: HKEY_USERS*User*\Software\Microsoft\Windows NT\WinLogon\Shell I've tried adding an "AutoRestartShell" key with a value of "1", like what exists in: HKLM\Software\Microsoft\Windows NT\WinLogon. When I kill the application's process for the user (via RDP) the application exits, but never restarts. Ideas?

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• using a Singleton to pass credentials in a multi-tenant application a code smell?

  - by Hans Gruber

  Currently working on a multi-tenant application that employs Shared DB/Shared Schema approach. IOW, we enforce tenant data segregation by defining a TenantID column on all tables. By convention, all SQL reads/writes must include a Where TenantID = '?' clause. Not an ideal solution, but hindsight is 20/20. Anyway, since virtually every page/workflow in our app must display tenant specific data, I made the (poor) decision at the project's outset to employ a Singleton to encapsulate the current user credentials (i.e. TenantID and UserID). My thinking at the time was that I didn't want to add a TenantID parameter to each and every method signature in my Data layer. Here's what the basic pseudo-code looks like: public class UserIdentity { public UserIdentity(int tenantID, int userID) { TenantID = tenantID; UserID = userID; } public int TenantID { get; private set; } public int UserID { get; private set; } } public class AuthenticationModule : IHttpModule { public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.AuthenticateRequest += new EventHandler(context_AuthenticateRequest); } private void context_AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { var userIdentity = _authenticationService.AuthenticateUser(sender); if (userIdentity == null) { //authentication failed, so redirect to login page, etc } else { //put the userIdentity into the HttpContext object so that //its only valid for the lifetime of a single request HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"] = userIdentity; } } } public static class CurrentUser { public static UserIdentity Instance { get { return HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"]; } } } public class WidgetRepository: IWidgetRepository{ public IEnumerable<Widget> ListWidgets(){ var tenantId = CurrentUser.Instance.TenantID; //call sproc with tenantId parameter } } As you can see, there are several code smells here. This is a singleton, so it's already not unit test friendly. On top of that you have a very tight-coupling between CurrentUser and the HttpContext object. By extension, this also means that I have a reference to System.Web in my Data layer (shudder). I want to pay down some technical debt this sprint by getting rid of this singleton for the reasons mentioned above. I have a few thoughts on what an better implementation might be, but if anyone has any guidance or lessons learned they could share, I would be much obliged.

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• Could not install appliation via Desktop Manager..

  - by tek3

  I am trying to install an application onto my device..I have compiled the application using JDK 4.5.0 and also signed it with RIM signing keys...But i am unable to install my application onto my device(8900) through desktop manager..It keeps on showing "application is not compatible with your device and cannot be loaded"... Since i have compiled my application in JDK 4.5, it must be compatible with all devices having OS 4.5.0...Any pointers to what might be going wrong??? Is there any version miss match??

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• Why does every thread in my application use a different hibernate session?

  - by Ittai

  Hi, I have a web-application which uses hibernate and for some reason every thread (httprequest or other threads related to queueing) uses a different session. I've implemented a HibernateSessionFactory class which looks like this: public class HibernateSessionFactory { private static final ThreadLocal<Session> threadLocal = new ThreadLocal<Session>(); private static Configuration configuration = new AnnotationConfiguration(); private static org.hibernate.SessionFactory sessionFactory; static { try { configuration.configure(configFile); sessionFactory = configuration.buildSessionFactory(); } catch (Exception e) {} } private HibernateSessionFactory() {} public static Session getSession() throws HibernateException { Session session = (Session) threadLocal.get(); if (session == null || !session.isOpen()) { if (sessionFactory == null) { rebuildSessionFactory();//This method basically does what the static init block does } session = (sessionFactory != null) ? sessionFactory.openSession(): null; threadLocal.set(session); } return session; } //More non relevant methods here. Now from my testing it seems that the threadLocal member is indeed initialized only once when the class is first loaded by the JVM but for some reason when different threads access the getSession() method they use different sessions. When a thread first accesses this class (Session) threadLocal.get(); will return null but as expected all other access requests will yeild the same session. I'm not sure how this can be happening as the threadLocal variable is final and the method threadLocal.set(session) is only used in the above context (which I'm 99.9% sure has to yeild a non null session as I would have encountered a NullPointerException at a different part of my app). I'm not sure this is relevant but these are the main parts of my hibernate.cfg.xml file: <hibernate-configuration> <session-factory> <property name="connection.url">someURL</property> <property name="connection.driver_class"> com.microsoft.sqlserver.jdbc.SQLServerDriver</property> <property name="dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.SQLServerDialect</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.isolation">1</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.username">User</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.password">Password</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.pool_size">10</property> <property name="show_sql">false</property> <property name="current_session_context_class">thread</property> <property name="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">update</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_second_level_cache">false</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">org.hibernate.cache.NoCacheProvider</property> <!-- Mapping files --> I'd appreciate any help granted and of course if anyone has any questions I'd be happy to clarify. Ittai

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• flashlog viewer

  - by user334091

  Hi all, I want to build an application using air. The application should load the flashlog file and display the contents after performing some text filtering. But when i load the application this clears my flashlog.txt though my file mode is READ. I can understand that running my air application clears the flashlog and prepares it for new logging. Is there a workaround for this. I dont want to open the flashlog file everytime and check for traces from my web application

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• how to upload zip/rar files in codeigniter

  - by hwd

  how to upload zip/rar files in codeigniter itried like this $config['allowed_types'] = 'application/x-zip|application/x-zip-compressed|application/octet-stream|application/x-compress|application/x-compressed|multipart/x-zip'; but not working . please help me.................

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• How to send a Java integer in four bytes to another application?

  - by user1468729

  public void routeMessage(byte[] data, int mode) { logger.debug(mode); logger.debug(Integer.toBinaryString(mode)); byte[] message = new byte[8]; ByteBuffer byteBuffer = ByteBuffer.allocate(4); ByteArrayOutputStream baoStream = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); DataOutputStream doStream = new DataOutputStream(baoStream); try { doStream.writeInt(mode); } catch (IOException e) { logger.debug("Error converting mode from integer to bytes.", e); return; } byte [] bytes = baoStream.toByteArray(); bytes[0] = (byte)((mode >>> 24) & 0x000000ff); bytes[1] = (byte)((mode >>> 16) & 0x000000ff); bytes[2] = (byte)((mode >>> 8) & 0x00000ff); bytes[3] = (byte)(mode & 0x000000ff); //bytes = byteBuffer.array(); for (byte b : bytes) { logger.debug(b); } for (int i = 0; i < 4; i++) { //byte tmp = (byte)(mode >> (32 - ((i + 1) * 8))); message[i] = bytes[i]; logger.debug("mode, " + i + ": " + Integer.toBinaryString(message[i])); message[i + 4] = data[i]; } broker.routeMessage(message); } I've tried different ways (as you can see from the commented code) to convert the mode to four bytes to send it via a socket to another application. It works well with integers up to 127 and then again with integers over 256. I believe it has something to do with Java types being signed but don't seem to get it to work. Here are some examples of what the program prints. 127 1111111 0 0 0 127 mode, 0: 0 mode, 1: 0 mode, 2: 0 mode, 3: 1111111 128 10000000 0 0 0 -128 mode, 0: 0 mode, 1: 0 mode, 2: 0 mode, 3: 11111111111111111111111110000000 211 11010011 0 0 0 -45 mode, 0: 0 mode, 1: 0 mode, 2: 0 mode, 3: 11111111111111111111111111010011 306 100110010 0 0 1 50 mode, 0: 0 mode, 1: 0 mode, 2: 1 mode, 3: 110010 How is it suddenly possible for a byte to store 32 bits? How could I fix this?

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