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• Magento- custom attribute causes blank order number.

  - by frank

  Hi- I created a simple custom attribute on the sales/order entity. Now, for new orders, order number is null. I looked at the sales_order table, and sure enough, increment_id is null... can anyone help me out, I am stumped? This is my setup.php: `public function getDefaultEntities() { return array( 'order' => array( 'entity_model' => 'sales/order', //'attribute_model' => 'catalog/resource_eav_attribute', 'table' => 'sales/order', 'attributes' => array( 'pr_email_sent' => array( 'label' => 'prEmailSent', 'type' => 'varchar', 'default' => 'false' ), ) ) ); }` This is my config.xml <fieldsets> <sales_order> <pr_email_sent><create>1</create><update>1</update></pr_email_sent> </sales_order> </fieldsets> Thanks.

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• Settings module not found deploying django on a shared server

  - by mcanes

  I'm trying to deploy my django project on a shared hosting as describe here I have my project on /home/user/www/testa I'm using this script #!/usr/bin/python import sys, os sys.path.append("/home/user/bin/python") sys.path.append('/home/user/www/testa') os.chdir("/home/user/www/testa") os.environ['DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE'] = "settings.py" from django.core.servers.fastcgi import runfastcgi runfastcgi(method="threaded", daemonize="false") And here's the error I get when trying to run it from shell: WSGIServer: missing FastCGI param REQUEST_METHOD required by WSGI! WSGIServer: missing FastCGI param SERVER_NAME required by WSGI! WSGIServer: missing FastCGI param SERVER_PORT required by WSGI! WSGIServer: missing FastCGI param SERVER_PROTOCOL required by WSGI! Traceback (most recent call last): File "build/bdist.linux-i686/egg/flup/server/fcgi_base.py", line 558, in run File "build/bdist.linux-i686/egg/flup/server/fcgi_base.py", line 1118, in handler File "/home/user/lib/python2.4/site-packages/django/core/handlers/wsgi.py", line 230, in __call__ self.load_middleware() File "/home/user/lib/python2.4/site-packages/django/core/handlers/base.py", line 33, in load_middleware for middleware_path in settings.MIDDLEWARE_CLASSES: File "/home/user/lib/python2.4/site-packages/django/utils/functional.py", line 269, in __getattr__ self._setup() File "/home/usr/lib/python2.4/site-packages/django/conf/__init__.py", line 40, in _setup self._wrapped = Settings(settings_module) File "/home/user/lib/python2.4/site-packages/django/conf/__init__.py", line 75, in __init__ raise ImportError, "Could not import settings '%s' (Is it on sys.path? Does it have syntax errors?): %s" % (self.SETTINGS_MODULE, e) ImportError: Could not import settings 'settings.py' (Is it on sys.path? Does it have syntax errors?): No module named settings.py Content-Type: text/html Unhandled Exception Unhandled Exception An unhandled exception was thrown by the application. What am I doing wrong? Running the script from the browser just gives me an internal server error.

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• F# passing an operator with arguments to a function

  - by dan

  Can you pass in an operation like "divide by 2" or "subtract 1" using just a partially applied operator, where "add 1" looks like this: List.map ((+) 1) [1..5];; //equals [2..6] // instead of having to write: List.map (fun x-> x+1) [1..5] What's happening is 1 is being applied to (+) as it's first argument, and the list item is being applied as the second argument. For addition and multiplication, this argument ordering doesn't matter. Suppose I want to subtract 1 from every element (this will probably be a common beginners mistake): List.map ((-) 1) [1..5];; //equals [0 .. -4], the opposite of what we wanted 1 is applied to the (-) as its first argument, so instead of (list_item - 1), I get (1 - list_item). I can rewrite it as adding negative one instead of subtracting positive one: List.map ((+) -1) [1..5];; List.map (fun x -> x-1) [1..5];; // this works too I'm looking for a more expressive way to write it, something like ((-) _ 1), where _ denotes a placeholder, like in the Arc language. This would cause 1 to be the second argument to -, so in List.map, it would evaluate to list_item - 1. So if you wanted to map divide by 2 to the list, you could write: List.map ((/) _ 2) [2;4;6] //not real syntax, but would equal [1;2;3] List.map (fun x -> x/2) [2;4;6] //real syntax equivalent of the above Can this be done or do I have to use (fun x -> x/2)? It seems that the closest we can get to the placeholder syntax is to use a lambda with a named argument.

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• Add new types to Go

  - by nevalu

  I'm trying add new types for that been managed/used as in Go core types. To create new types is anything very interesting to validate data before of send it to a non-SQL DBMS or to check data from a form. Go uses univeral constants to define them at global level: var DateType = universe.DefineType("date", universePos, &dateType{}) In this case they're defined to be called from a package like types: var Date = &dateType{} I get these errors: test.go:58: o.lit undefined (cannot refer to unexported field lit) test.go:62: *dateType is not Type missing Pos() token.Position The code is based on: http://github.com/tav/go/blob/master/src/pkg/exp/eval/value.go http://github.com/tav/go/blob/master/src/pkg/exp/eval/type.go package main import ( "exp/eval" "fmt" // "go/token" ) // http://github.com/tav/go/blob/master/src/pkg/exp/eval/value.go type DateValue interface { eval.Value Get(*eval.Thread) string Set(*eval.Thread, string) } /* Date */ type dateV string func (v *dateV) String() string { return fmt.Sprint(*v) } func (v *dateV) Assign(t *eval.Thread, o eval.Value) { *v = dateV(o.(DateValue).Get(t)) } func (v *dateV) Get(*eval.Thread) string { return string(*v) } func (v *dateV) Set(t *eval.Thread, x string) { *v = dateV(x) } // http://github.com/tav/go/blob/master/src/pkg/exp/eval/type.go type Type interface { eval.Type // isDate returns true if this is a date type. isDate() bool } /* Common type */ type commonType struct{} // added func (commonType) isDate() bool { return false } /* Date */ type dateType struct { commonType } // * It should not be an universal constant //var universePos = token.Position{"<universe>", 0, 0, 0} // added //var DateType = universe.DefineType("date", universePos, &dateType{}) var Date = &dateType{} func (t *dateType) compat(o Type, conv bool) bool { t2, ok := o.lit().(*dateType) return ok && t == t2 } func (t *dateType) lit() Type { return t } func (t *dateType) isDate() bool { return true } func (t *dateType) String() string { return "<date>" } func (t *dateType) Zero() eval.Value { res := dateV("") return &res } /* Named types */ /* type NamedType struct { eval.NamedType Def Type }*/ type NamedType struct { // added // token.Position Name string // Underlying type. If incomplete is true, this will be nil. // If incomplete is false and this is still nil, then this is // a placeholder type representing an error. Def Type // True while this type is being defined. incomplete bool methods map[string]eval.Method } func (t *NamedType) isDate() bool { return t.Def.isDate() } /* *********************** */ func main() { print("foo") }

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• Custom DataType in DataTemplate breaks WPF designer

  - by PRINCESS FLUFF

  Why does the DataTemplate line break the WPF designer in Visual Studio 2008? The program compiles and runs properly. The DataTemplate is applied as it should. However the entire DataTemplate block of code is underlined in red, and when I simply "build" the program without running, I get the error "Type reference cannot find public type named 'Character'" How come it can't find it in the designer yet the program applies the template properly? <UserControl x:Class="WPF_Tests.Tests.TwoCollecViews.TwoViews" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:DetailsPane="clr-namespace:WPF_Tests.Tests.DetailsPane" > <UserControl.Resources> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type DetailsPane:Character}"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}"></TextBlock> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </UserControl.Resources> <Grid> <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Characters}" /> </Grid> </UserControl> EDIT: I am being told that this may be a bug in Visual Studio 2008, as it worked correctly in 2010. You can download the code here: http://www.mediafire.com/?z1myytvwm4n - The Test/TwoCollec xaml file's designer will break with this code.

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• KendoUI Mobile switch and datasource

  - by OnaBai

  I'm trying to have a list of items displayed using a listview, something like: <div data-role="view" data-model="my_model"> <ul data-role="listview" data-bind="source: ds" data-template="list-tmpl"></ul> </div> Where I have a view using a model called my_model and a listview where the source is bound to ds. My model is something like: var my_model = kendo.observable({ ds: new kendo.data.DataSource({ transport: { read: readData, update: updateData, create: updateData, remove: updateData }, pageSize: 10, schema: { model: { id: "id", fields: { id: { type: "number" }, name: { type: "string" }, active: { type: "boolean" } } } } }) }); Each item includes an id, a name (that is a string) and a boolean named active. The template used to render each element is: <script id="list-tmpl" type="text/kendo-tmpl"> <span>#= name # : #= active #</span> <input data-role="switch" data-bind="checked: active"/> </script> Where I display the name and (for debugging) the value of active. In addition, I render a switch bound to active. You should see something like: The problems observed are: If you click on a switch you will see that the value of active next to the name changes its value (as expected) but if then, you pick another switch, the value (neither next to name nor in the DataSource) is not updated (despite the value of the switch is correctly updated). The update handler in the DataSource is never invoked (not even for the first chosen switch and despite the DataSource for that first toggled switch is updated). You can check it in JSFiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/OnaBai/K7wEC/ How do I make that the DataSource gets updated and update handler invoked?

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• Django and Google App Engine Helper not finding the ipaddr module.

  - by Phil

  I'm trying to get Django running on GAE using this tutorial. When I run python manage.py runserver I get the stacktrace below. I'm new to both django and python so I don't know what my next steps are (This is Ubuntu Jaunty btw). It seems django isn't finding the GAE module ipaddr which comes with SDK 1.3.1. How do I get django to find this module? /home/username/bin/google_appengine/google/appengine/api/datastore_file_stub.py:40: DeprecationWarning: the md5 module is deprecated; use hashlib instead import md5 /home/username/bin/google_appengine/google/appengine/api/memcache/__init__.py:31: DeprecationWarning: the sha module is deprecated; use the hashlib module instead import sha Traceback (most recent call last): File "manage.py", line 18, in <module> InstallAppengineHelperForDjango() File "/home/username/Development/GAE/myapp/appengine_django/__init__.py", line 543, in InstallAppengineHelperForDjango InstallDjangoModuleReplacements() File "/home/username/Development/GAE/myapp/appengine_django/__init__.py", line 260, in InstallDjangoModuleReplacements import django.db File "/home/username/Development/GAE/myapp/django/db/__init__.py", line 57, in <module> 'TIME_ZONE': settings.TIME_ZONE, File "/home/username/Development/GAE/myapp/appengine_django/db/base.py", line 117, in __init__ self._setup_stubs() File "/home/username/Development/GAE/myapp/appengine_django/db/base.py", line 128, in _setup_stubs from google.appengine.tools import dev_appserver_main File "/home/username/bin/google_appengine/google/appengine/tools/dev_appserver_main.py", line 82, in <module> from google.appengine.tools import appcfg File "/home/username/bin/google_appengine/google/appengine/tools/appcfg.py", line 53, in <module> from google.appengine.api import dosinfo File "/home/username/bin/google_appengine/google/appengine/api/dosinfo.py", line 25, in <module> import ipaddr ImportError: No module named ipaddr

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• linq-to-sql combine child expressions

  - by VictorS

  I need to create and combine several expressions for child entity into one to use it on "Any" operator of a parent. Code now looks like this: Expresion<Child, bool> startDateExpression = t => t.start_date >= startDate; Expression<Child, bool> endDateExpression = t => t.end_date <= endDate; .... ParameterExpression param = startDateExpression.Parameters[0]; Expression<Func<T, bool>> Combined = Expression.Lambda<Func<Child, bool>>( Expression.AndAlso(startDateExpression.Body, startDateExpression.Body), param); //but now I am trying to use combined expression on parent //this line fails just to give an idea on what I am trying to do: //filter type is IQueryable<Parent>; var filter = filter.Where(p =>p.Children.Any(Combined)); How can I do that? Is there better(more elegant way way of doing it?

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• Hibernate : Opinions in Composite PK vs Surrogate PK

  - by Albert Kam

  As i understand it, whenever i use @Id and @GeneratedValue on a Long field inside JPA/Hibernate entity, i'm actually using a surrogate key, and i think this is a very nice way to define a primary key considering my not-so-good experiences in using composite primary keys, where : there are more than 1 business-value-columns combination that become a unique PK the composite pk values get duplicated across the table details cannot change the business value inside that composite PK I know hibernate can support both types of PK, but im left wondering by my previous chats with experienced colleagues where they said that composite PK is easier to deal with when doing complex SQL queries and stored procedure processes. They went on saying that when using surrogate keys will complicate things when doing joining and there are several condition when it's impossible to do some stuffs when using surrogate keys. Although im sorry i cant explain the detail here since i was not clear enough when they explain it. Maybe i'll put more details next time. Im currently trying to do a project, and want to try out surrogate keys, since it's not getting duplicated across tables, and we can change the business-column values. And when the need for some business value combination uniqueness, i can use something like : @Table(name="MY_TABLE", uniqueConstraints={ @UniqueConstraint(columnNames={"FIRST_NAME", "LAST_NAME"}) // name + lastName combination must be unique But im still in doubt because of the previous discussion about the composite key. Could you share your experiences in this matter ? Thank you !

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• Holding value in collection

  - by Amit Ranjan

  I have a application which is on timesheet. I have total of 54 columns out of which 10 columns are visible rest invisible. First 3 columns are Project, MileStone and Classes. Rest are Sun- Sat work hrs. Now I have a column named 'taskid' as SunTaskID,MonTaskID and so on till SatTaskID for holding each days taskid. Now on the selection of SunHrs (Sunday's Work Hrs), i retrieve that days taskid and on the basis of task id i retrieve attachments which is displayed under a listbox. Now the problem is that since a day can have multiple attachments and a user can attach multiple attachments at time. He can enter values from grid to. Grid cells are editable. I am using BindingList(of TaskClass) in VB.Net for binding grid. I have total 54 properties n my task class. So i want to what property do i need to hod each days attachment and in what way. Earlier I tried Dictionary. But i was not aware of its usage as a property so i gave. Then prepared a separate class for attachment but, it was difficult to synchronize the existing attachments with taskid...

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• Spring security with GAE

  - by xybrek

  I'm trying to implement Spring security for my GAE application however I'm getting this error: No bean named 'springSecurityFilterChain' is defined I added this configuration on my application web.xml: <filter> <filter-name>springSecurityFilterChain</filter-name> <filter-class>org.springframework.web.filter.DelegatingFilterProxy</filter-class> </filter> <filter-mapping> <filter-name>springSecurityFilterChain</filter-name> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </filter-mapping> And in the servlet-context: <!-- Configure security --> <security:http auto-config="true"> <security:intercept-url pattern="/**" access="ROLE_USER" /> </security:http> <security:authentication-manager alias="authenticationManager"> <security:authentication-provider> <security:user-service> <security:user name="jimi" password="jimi" authorities="ROLE_USER, ROLE_ADMIN" /> <security:user name="bob" password="bob" authorities="ROLE_USER" /> </security:user-service> </security:authentication-provider> </security:authentication-manager> What could be causing the error?

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• Problem with EDM in ASP.NET MVC

  - by Mannsi

  Hello, I have a question that is pretty similar to this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/899734/strongly-typed-asp-net-mvc-with-entity-framework but the solutions for that question don't work for me. Let me start by saying that I don't know a great deal about the subject I am asking about. I have the following code [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(PaymentInformation paymentInformationToEdit, int pensionFundID) { var originalPaymentInformation = (from PIs in _db.PaymentInformation where PIs.employeeNumber == paymentInformation.employeeNumber select PIs).First(); var laborUnion = (from LUs in _db.LaborUnion where LUs.laborUnionID = laborUnionID select LUs)First(); paymentInformationToEdit.laborUnion = laborUnion; _db.ApplyProperyChanges(originalPaymentInformation.EntityKey.EntitySetName, paymentInformationToEdit); _db.SaveChanges(); } I get an error when I try for the ApplyProperyChanges saying 'The existing object in the ObjectContext is in the Added state. Changes can only be applied when the existing object is in an unchanged or modified state'. I don't know how to change the state to either, or even if I am doing something fundamentally wrong. Please advice. EDIT: I hope this is the way to go here on stackoverflow. I haven't gotten an answer that solved my problem but Gregoire below posted a possible solution that I didn't understand. I hope this edit bumps my question so somebody will see it and help me. Sorry if this is not the way to go.

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• Programmatically modifying a file on Windows Server 2008 (Web Ed.)

  - by Tom

  I have written a .NET 2008 application, incorporating Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel, that modifies an existing Excel 2007 spreadsheet. It works perfectly on my WinXP development computer. When I upload the app to a Microsoft Web Server 2008, it opens the file and reads from the file, but when the app tries to save the file, it throws this exception: "System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x800A03EC): 'july2009.xlsx' is read-only. To save a copy, click OK, then give the workbook a new name in the Save As dialog box." The file is NOT read-only, nor is it opened by any other user or app. The app and the Excel file both reside on the D: (data-only) drive. My first instinct was to look at file permissions. When nothing else worked, I literally created a temporary Group, added EVERY user and security entity to it and granted the group full control of the entire D: drive. No luck. Then I tried manually elevating the permission by running my app as administrator. No luck. Finally, I copied the file to my XP development computer and ran the app there. Of course it worked perfectly. Can anyone please tell me how to give my program permission to edit a file on Server 2008? Thanks!

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• Parsing tnsnames.ora using regex...

  - by Welton v3.50

  I am attempting to pull some information from my tnsnames file using regex. I started with the following pattern: MYSCHEMA *? = *?[\W\w\S\s]*\(HOST *?= *?(?<host>\w+\s?)\)\s?\(PORT *?= *?(?<port>\d+)\s?\)[\W\w\S\s]*\(SERVICE_NAME *?= *?(?<servicename>\w+)\s?\) which worked fine when MYSCHEMA was the only schema in the file, but when there are other schemas listed after MYSCHEMA it matches all the way to the last schema. I have since created a new pattern: MYSCHEMA *=\s*\(DESCRIPTION =\s*\(ADDRESS *= *\(PROTOCOL *= *TCP\)\(HOST *= *(?<host>\w+)\)\(PORT *= *(?<port>\d+)\)\)\s*\(CONNECT_DATA *=\s*(?<serverdedicated>\(SERVER *= *DEDICATED\))\s*\(SERVICE_NAME *= *(?<servicename>[\w\.]+) *\)\s*\)\s*\) This pattern matches MYSCHEMA only, but I had to add every element that appeared in MYSCHEMA entry, and it won't match MYOTHERSCHEMA if it does not contain all the same elements. Ideally, I'd like a pattern that matches MYSCHEMA entry only, and captures HOST, PORT and SERVICE NAME, and optionally (SERVER = DEDICATED) (which I didn't have in the first pattern) to named groups. Below is the sample tnsnames that I've been using for testing: SOMESCHEMA = (DESCRIPTION = (ADDRESS_LIST = (ADDRESS = (PROTOCOL = TCP)(HOST = REMOTEHOST)(PORT = 1234)) ) (CONNECT_DATA = (SERVICE_NAME = REMOTE) ) ) MYSCHEMA = (DESCRIPTION = (ADDRESS = (PROTOCOL = TCP)(HOST = MYHOST)(PORT = 1234)) (CONNECT_DATA = (SERVER = DEDICATED) (SERVICE_NAME = MYSERVICE.LOCAL ) ) ) MYOTHERSCHEMA = (DESCRIPTION = (ADDRESS_LIST = (ADDRESS = (PROTOCOL = TCP)(HOST = MYHOST)(PORT = 1234)) ) (CONNECT_DATA = (SERVICE_NAME = MYSERVICE.REMOTE) ) ) SOMEOTHERSCHEMA = (DESCRIPTION = (ADDRESS_LIST = (ADDRESS = (PROTOCOL = TCP)(HOST = LOCALHOST)(PORT = 1234)) ) (CONNECT_DATA = (SERVICE_NAME = LOCAL) ) )

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• Using htaccess rewrite/redirect so single PHP file can display data according to GET/POST variables

  - by revive

  Hey gang, Bear with me as I try to learn more about .htaccess redirect rules - I'm a UI guy by profession and I'm doing my best to enhance my coding skills languages other than HTML/CSS/PHP, etc So, what I have is an index.php file that contains a menu - pretty simple. If Javascript is enabled on the users computer then forms are shown below the menu using simple jQuery goodies, with each link having a 'return false;' applied. What I am trying to do is make the page accessible with JS turned off, so instead of redirecting the user to a different page, I would like to use POST or GET variables from each link, to show the various forms.. within the same index.php file - but have the URL reflect the menu choice Here is an example using menu items named - Home, About, Form1 and Form2: With JS on, clicking on of the above example buttons simply slides the form or containing the data down onto the page. With JS off, if the user clicks the 'About' link, I would like to rewrite the URL to be http://domain.com/about - but keep the user on the index.php page (since it is the only page) and be able to use POST or GET variable to show the using PHP. So, accessing http://domain.com/index.php?page=about would show http://domain.com/about in the URL but pass the GET variable 'page' to the index.php file. Hope that makes sense.. and I'm sure there are many ways to accomplish this, so if you have ideas of how to improve on it, by all means, I'd love to hear it ! Thanks again Revive

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• Bootstrapper (setup.exe) says ".NET 3.5 not found" but launching .msi directly installs application

  - by Marek

  Our installer generates a bootstrapper (setup.exe) and a MSI file - a pretty common scenario. One of the production machines reports a strange problem during install: If the user launches the bootstrapper (setup.exe), it reports that .NET 3.5 is not installed. This happens with account under administator group. No matter if they launch it as administrator or not, same behavior. the application installs fine when application.msi or OurInstallLauncher.exe (see below for explanation) is started directly no matter if run as administrator is applied. We have checked that .NET is installed on the machine (both 64bit and 32bit "versions" = under both C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework64 and C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework there is a folder named v3.5. This happens on a 64 bit Windows 7. I can not reproduce it on my development 64 bit Windows 7. On Windows XP and Vista, it has worked without any problem for a long time so far. Part of our build script that declares the GenerateBootStrapper task (nothing special): <ItemGroup> <BootstrapperFile Include="Microsoft.Windows.Installer.3.1"> <ProductName>Microsoft Windows Installer 3.1</ProductName> </BootstrapperFile> <BootstrapperFile Include="Microsoft.Net.Framework.3.5"> <ProductName>Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5</ProductName> </BootstrapperFile> </ItemGroup> <GenerateBootstrapper ApplicationFile=".\Files\OurInstallLauncher.exe" ApplicationName="App name" Culture="en" ComponentsLocation ="HomeSite" CopyComponents="True" Validate="True" BootstrapperItems="@(BootstrapperFile)" OutputPath="$(OutSubDir)" Path="$(SdkBootstrapperPath)" /> Note: OurInstallLauncher.exe is language selector that applies a transform to the msi based on user selection. This is not relevant to the question at all because the installer never gets as far as launching this exe! It displays that .NET 3.5 is missing right after starting setup.exe. Has anyone seen this behavior before?

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• virtualenv macosX --no-site-package ignored

  - by Tristram Gräbener

  Hello, I'm having problems with macOSX and virtualenv. It seems to ignore --no-site-package. Using exactly the same commands with linux (archlinux) it works. It it macOSX 10.5 with python 2.5 curl -o virtualenv.py 'http://bitbucket.org/ianb/virtualenv/raw/tip/virtualenv.py Create a new environment python virtualenv.py --no-site-packages foo New python executable in foo/bin/python Installing setuptools...........................done. Activate it source foo/bin/activate Try to install something in it. Despite virtualenv it looks for the system-wide install easy_install cherrypy Searching for cherrypy Best match: CherryPy 3.1.2 Adding CherryPy 3.1.2 to easy-install.pth file Using /Library/Python/2.5/site-packages Processing dependencies for cherrypy Finished processing dependencies for cherrypy Yet it doesn't find the module (foo)guidage-multimodal:~ tristram$ python Python 2.5.1 (r251:54863, Feb 6 2009, 19:02:12) [GCC 4.0.1 (Apple Inc. build 5465)] on darwin Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> import cherrypy Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> ImportError: No module named cherrypy I tried PIP after looking at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1382925/virtualenv-no-site-packages-and-pip-still-finding-global-packages However it fails installing psycopg2 (some problems with gcc). Also I would like to be able to have a setup.py (from distribute) that does the whole woork

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• Can't create new xib files in Xcode projects

  - by Reed Olsen

  This one is a doozy... My buddy just downloaded the iPhone SDK on his Snow Leopard MacBook Pro. No matter what kind of project he creates (Window Based, View Based, etc...,) he can't create or use his own xib files. The project will compile and run fine until he adds a new xib file. Here are some symptoms: When he selects a pre-generated xib in Xcode (such as MainWindow.xib), no preview is shown on the right hand side. Double clicking on this file will open it in interface builder (This is correct behavior). When he selects his own custom xib, the preview pane displays the XML content of the xib. Double clicking on his custom xib opens up the XML file in Xcode - as if it were a standard code file (This is jacked up). Opening his custom xib from finder opens it in Interface Builder. When building the application, the build warning says something to the effect of "Warning: No rule to process file /path/to/CustomXib of type sourcecode.xib for architecture i386" At runtime he gets the error: Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '-[UIViewController _loadViewFromNibNamed:bundle:] was unable to load a nib named "MyCustomXib"' We've uninstalled Xcode from the command line and reinstalled. I've verified that it's the right version for his machine. I'm stumped!

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• Data Binding to an object in C#

  - by Allen

  Objective-c/cocoa offers a form of binding where a control's properties (ie text in a textbox) can be bound to the property of an object. I am trying to duplicate this functionality in C# w/ .Net 3.5. I have created the following very simple class in the file MyClass.cs: class MyClass { private string myName; public string MyName { get { return myName; } set { myName = value; } } public MyClass() { myName = "Allen"; } } I also created a simple form with 1 textbox and 1 button. I init'd one instance of Myclass inside the form code and built the project. Using the DataSource Wizard in Vs2008, i selected to create a data source based on object, and selected the MyClass assembly. This created a datasource entity. I changed the databinding of the textbox to this datasource; however, the expected result (that the textbox's contents would be "allen") was not achieved. Further, putting text into the textbox is not updating the name property of the object. I know i'm missing something fundamental here. At some point i should have to tie my instance of the MyClass class that i initialized inside the form code to the textbox, but that hasn't occurred. Everything i've looked at online seems to gloss over using DataBinding with an object (or i'm missing the mark entirely), so any help is great appreciated. ----Edit--- Utilizing what i learned by the answers, i looked at the code generated by Visual Studio, it had the following: this.myClassBindingSource.DataSource = typeof(BindingTest.MyClass); if i comment that out and substitute : this.myClassBindingSource.DataSource = new MyClass(); i get the expected behavior. Why is the default code generated by VS like it is? Assuming this is more correct than the method that works, how should i modify my code to work within the bounds of what VS generated?

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• ASP.NET MVC 2 DisplayFor()

  - by ZombieSheep

  I'm looking at the new version of ASP.NET MVC (see here for more details if you haven't seen it already) and I'm having some pretty basic trouble displaying the content of an object. In my control I have an object of type "Person", which I am passing to the view in ViewData.Model. All is well so far, and I can extact the object in the view ready for display. What I don't get, though, is how I need to call the Html.DisplayFor() method in order to get the data to screen. I've tried the following... <% MVC2test.Models.Person p = ViewData.Model as MVC2test.Models.Person; %> // snip <%= Html.DisplayFor(p => p) %> but I get the following message: CS0136: A local variable named 'p' cannot be declared in this scope because it would give a different meaning to 'p', which is already used in a 'parent or current' scope to denote something else I know this is not what I should be doing - I know that redefining a variable will producte this error, but I don't know how to access the object from the controller. So my question is, how do I pass the object to the view in order to display its properties? (I should add that I am reading up on this in my limited spare time, so it is entirely possible I have missed something fundamental) TIA

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• How to access application.xml file of an EAR deployed to IBM WebSphere 6.1

  - by Matt1776

  I am deploying an EAR file to the IBM WebSpehre server 6.1 - I want to be able to access the EAR application name which is stored in the deployment file under 'display-name'. Looking through stack overflow posts on related subjects, I've been able to gather that this is possible via the Java MBean API - or IBM's WAS API - Problem is I cannot find a place where these API lists are summarized, i.e. cannot figure out which one to begin looking at. I could hardcode the WAS install location and find the file by looking in the 'installedApps' directory, but this is not dynamic. Does anyone have any experience working with these APIs? Any other way to dynamically find the deployed EAR's display name? EDIT - I should add that the reason I would like this information is to dynamically load our properties files - that are named by the following convention "EARAppName.properties" - so you see there IS a reasonable 'rationale' behind desiring this information in my application EDIT 2 - I should also note that this app will always be deployed on a WAS - but in the case that it isnt, a generic non-proprietary solution would be preferred, but not necessary at this moment. EDIT 3 - What I want to accomplish: Is there a way to dynamically find the deployed EAR's display name from within the application code?

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• Single Form with Multiple Dynamic Buttons

  - by John Reilly

  I've spent hours/days trying to figure this out and now I'm completely perplexed so I thought I'd give stackoverflow a try. I'm (a newb) working in Java/JSP using Eclipse hosting on Google App Engine trying to develop an app for a volunteer organization I'm a member of. Rather than embarrass myself by showing my current code I'd love just a nudge in the right direction. I have a form (which doubles as a report basically) showing "people" grouped under the "task" they are currently working on. I would like to select multiple people from multiple tasks and reassign them to another task e.g. Bill and Jane are Gardening, Jeff is Painting. I want to select Jane and Jeff (all people have an associated checkbox in the form) and re-assign them to Sweeping (which is a task on the form but has no people assigned to it yet). Ideally, the re-assignment to Sweeping would be via a Sweeping button (each task would have a dynamically-created task button) that would pass the "Sweeping" value to a servlet along with an array or list of people whose checkbox has been checked. The servlet would handle the request (creating an Assignment "object/entity" with timeStamp, personId, taskId) and then re-direct back to the form/report which would then repaint with the current tasks/people generated from the Assignments class in the datastore. All the tasks are user-defined and retrieved from the database when building the form. Ditto the people. I've been trying to keep the jsp for presentation and the servlets for the processing but I'm no purist and would just like to get unstuck. Many thanks in advance for your assistance.

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• MapKit custom annotations being added to map, but are not visible on the map

  - by culov

  I learned a lot from the screencast at http://icodeblog.com/2009/12/21/introduction-to-mapkit-in-iphone-os-3-0/ , and ive been trying to incorporate the way he creates a custom annotation into my iphone app. He is hardcoding annotations and adding them individually to the map, whereas i want to add them from my data source. So i have an array of objects with a lat and a lng (ive checked that the values are within range and ought to be appearing on the map) that i iterate through and do [mapView addAnnotation:truck] once this process is completed, i check the number of annotations on the map with [[mapView annotations] count] and its equal to the number it ought to be, so all the annotations are getting added onto the mapView, but for some reason I cant see any annotations in the simulator. I've compared my code with his in all the pertinent places many times, but nothing seems to stand out as being incorrect. Ive also reviewed my code for the last several hours trying to find a point where I do something wrong, but nothing is coming to mind. The images are named just as they are assigned in the custom AnnotationView, the loadAnnotation function is done properly, etc... i dont know what it could be. so i suppose if i could have the answer to one question it would be, what are possible causes for a mapView to contain several annotations, but to not show any on the map? Thanks

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• How do I create and use a junction table in Rails?

  - by Thierry Lam

  I have the following data: A post called Hello has categories greet Another post called Hola has categories greet, international My schema is: create_table "posts", :force => true do |t| t.string "name" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" end create_table "categories", :force => true do |t| t.string "name" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" end create_table "posts_categories", :force => true do |t| t.integer "post_id" t.integer "category_id" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" end After reading the Rails guide, the most suitable relationship for the above seems to be: class Post < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :categories end class Category < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :posts end My junction table also seems to have a primary key. I think I need to get rid of it. What's the initial migration command to generate a junction table in Rails? What's the best course of action, should I drop posts_categories and re-create it or just drop the primary key column? Does the junction table have a corresponding model? I have used scaffold to generate the junction table code, should I get rid of the extra code? Assuming all the above has been fixed and is working properly, how do I query all posts and display them along with their named categories in the view. For example: Post #1 - hello, categories: greet Post #2 - hola, categories: greet, international

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• Does NHibernate LINQ support ToLower() in Where() clauses?

  - by Daniel T.

  I have an entity and its mapping: public class Test { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual string Description { get; set; } } public class TestMap : EntityMap<Test> { public TestMap() { Id(x => x.Id); Map(x => x.Name); Map(x => x.Description); } } I'm trying to run a query on it (to grab it out of the database): var keyword = "test" // this is coming in from the user keyword = keyword.ToLower(); // convert it to all lower-case var results = session.Linq<Test> .Where(x => x.Name.ToLower().Contains(keyword)); results.Count(); // execute the query However, whenever I run this query, I get the following exception: Index was out of range. Must be non-negative and less than the size of the collection. Parameter name: index Am I right when I say that, currently, Linq to NHibernate does not support ToLower()? And if so, is there an alternative that allows me to search for a string in the middle of another string that Linq to NHibernate is compatible with? For example, if the user searches for kap, I need it to match Kapiolani, Makapuu, and Lapkap.

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