Search Results

Search found 7159 results on 287 pages for 'forward compatibility'.

Page 37/287 | < Previous Page | 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44  | Next Page >

  • How can I get my routers to forward ports correctly?

    - by Giffyguy
    My network currently looks like this (simplified): Note that Router #2 is connected to the LAN interface of Router #1. This should be familiar to anyone who has seen a standard static-IP setup with an additional firewall for a residence or other small building. Router #1 is actually my cable gateway, but since it is a fully functional router/firewall, I am going to refer to it as a router. Now, I need to open various ports in both firewalls for incoming communication to my server - port 80 is a good example. So I've opened up port 80 in Router #2, and so far all incoming traffic at the public IP X.X.X.129 is being routed correctly. The problem is that I also need my server to respond to incoming traffic at the public IP X.X.X.130 on the WAN interface of Router #1. Naturally, I can't just tell Router #1 to forward port 80 to another public IP. Port forwarding is only supported when the traffic is being directed to the LAN subnet. I am willing to restructure my network topology if required, with the following conditions: Router #1 cannot have its WAN IP reassigned - X.X.X.130 is mandatory. Router #1 cannot be moved or disconnected from the cloud. The server cannot be given a second IP address. I would prefer the server to have a private IP address - e.g. 10.0.0.10 I'd like to keep Router #2, but it can have a private IP - e.g. 10.0.1.10 Following these rules, I need to get my server to receive incoming traffic on port 80 from both public IP addresses. Does anyone on SU know if this is possible? So far my only theories have been to set up a static route on either router, or to somehow combine my two subnets into a single subnet.

    Read the article

  • SQL Server rolling forward lots of transactions, what should I look at?

    - by Anthony D
    I am running SQL Server Express on a Windows XP Embedded box. It runs for a day or two, doing some transactional processing for a POS type system, and with another system pulling data out to an OLAP DB for processing. After a while, I see in the event viewer the sequence SQL Server puts out when it restarts, copy rights, command line parameters, and so on. It seems like that coincides with our OLAP process crashing. I then see that when it restarts our transaction DB, it does a recovery, pulling in 10K or so in transactions that need to be rolled forward. Does this mean SQL has crashed? I don't really see much to indicate what happened. Update 1 I noticed I have my memory limit set to 1MB per query and 2TB for the server. These are the defaults. I only have one GB in the box. We have seen SQL crash a whole box by just using all the system memory. In this case though the whole box is up when we get to it.

    Read the article

  • How do I configured postfix and to use SES, and still be able to forward email from unverified external addresses?

    - by Jeff
    We are using postfix for email group lists (eg "[email protected]" will go to all members) from Amazon EC2 systems. For a variety of reasons (scalability and reliability) we would like to use SES for all outgoing emails. I was able to configure postfix to use SES as the SMTP for outgoing emails. This works fine for all verified emails. But of course, when an outsider emails me at "[email protected]", it chokes. Postfix is configured to forward to my gmail account (via the virtual table), the SES rejects it because the outside user is not verified. So none of our mailing groups configured through postfix will work this way. I would be happy to rewrite all "From" addresses before sending (and simply leave the Reply To as the original sender), but I cannot seem to find a working configuration. No matter what I set in canonical or generic regexps, SES seems to reject all forwarded emails. Surely somebody must have configured postfix with SES to handle virtual addresses? How does this work?

    Read the article

  • How would I setup iMail to forward a user's mail to another service w/o leaving a copy locally?

    - by Scott Mayfield
    I have an iMail 2006 server installation in which I have a particular user that has several aliases that all point to a single user (me, for the record). I've been copying all of my mail to GMail and reading it there, but it annoys me that I have to go back weekly and log into my mail account on iMail and delete between 6 and 10 thousand copies of messages I've already received, in order to keep my mailbox from filling up (yes, I have it set with no quota, but I consider it bad form to just let the box grow indefinitely). I've got the copying setup via an inbound user rule, but I'm wondering how to accomplish a "copy and delete" rule. The manual isn't clear on what happens with multiple matching rules (will they be processed in order, or is it a first match situation?) and there isn't a means to combine multiple actions into a single rule. If I use the "forward" action, I THINK that it's going to screw up all the sender information once the mail reaches my GMail account and show it as coming from me instead of the original senders (can anyone confirm that this is accurate?) An easy answer would be to delete my user account entirely, replace it with an alias that maps to my GMail account, but then I would lose my ability to log into the system for admin duties. So that leads me to creating a second, lesser known account for admin use, but since it's a real account, sooner or later I'm going to get mail sent to it and I'll be back to the same situation of having a user account that doesn't get emptied periodically. I imagine I can set the quota to 0 MB to cause all incoming mail to my admin account to bounce, or setup an inbound rule to bounce everything, but this is starting to sound kludgy to me. Does anyone know of a more direct work around to copying a user's incoming mail to an outside server and then deleting the local copy w/o removing their account entirely? Or is this just wishful thinking? Thanks in advance. Scott

    Read the article

  • Do entries in local 'hosts' files override both forward and reverse name lookups?

    - by Murali Suriar
    If I have the following entries in a hosts file: 192.168.100.1 bugs 192.168.100.2 daffy.example.com 192.168.100.3 elmer.example.com. Will IP-name resolution attempts by local utilies (I assume using 'gethostbyaddr' or the Windows equivalent) honour these entries? Is this behaviour configurable? How does it vary between operating systems? Does it matter whether the 'hosts' file entries are fully qualified or not? EDIT: In response to Russell, my test Linux system is running RHEL 4. My /etc/nsswitch.conf contains the following 'hosts' line: hosts: files dns nis If I ping any of my hosts by name (e.g. bugs, daffy), the forward resolution works correctly. If I traceroute any of them by IP address, the reverse lookup functions as expected. However, if I ping them by IP, ping doesn't appear to resolve their host names. My understanding was that Linux ping would always attempt to resolve IPs to names unless instructed otherwise. Why would traceroute be able to handle reverse lookups in hosts files, but ping not?

    Read the article

  • How do I correctly SSH port forward using LiveReload on Redhat?

    - by program247365
    Referencing this page: http://feedback.livereload.com/knowledgebase/articles/86280-if-you-edit-files-directly-on-your-server It says you can remotely port forward the LiveReload specific port of 35729, using this command: ssh -L 35729:127.0.0.1:35729 mylogin@myremoteserverIP When I run the -v option, I get: debug1: Local connections to LOCALHOST:35729 forwarded to remote address 127.0.0.1:35729 debug1: Local forwarding listening on ::1 port 35729. debug1: channel 0: new [port listener] debug1: Local forwarding listening on 127.0.0.1 port 35729. debug1: channel 1: new [port listener] debug1: channel 2: new [client-session] debug1: Entering interactive session. debug1: Sending environment. debug1: client_input_channel_req: channel 2 rtype [email protected] reply 1 debug1: Connection to port 35729 forwarding to 127.0.0.1 port 35729 requested. debug1: channel 3: new [direct-tcpip] channel 3: open failed: connect failed: Connection refused debug1: channel 3: free: direct-tcpip: listening port 35729 for 127.0.0.1 port 35729, connect from 127.0.0.1 port 63673, nchannels 4 I thought editing my /etc/services with this line, would work, but it doesn't: livereload 35729/tcp # livereload usage with guard-livereload Every time I attempt to connect with the browser extension, I believe It's getting blocked by my server. What am I missing here? Do I need to edit /etc/services for this to work?

    Read the article

  • How would I setup iMail to forward a user's mail to another service w/o leaving a copy locally?

    - by Scott Mayfield
    I have an iMail 2006 server installation in which I have a particular user that has several aliases that all point to a single user (me, for the record). I've been copying all of my mail to GMail and reading it there, but it annoys me that I have to go back weekly and log into my mail account on iMail and delete between 6 and 10 thousand copies of messages I've already received, in order to keep my mailbox from filling up (yes, I have it set with no quota, but I consider it bad form to just let the box grow indefinitely). I've got the copying setup via an inbound user rule, but I'm wondering how to accomplish a "copy and delete" rule. The manual isn't clear on what happens with multiple matching rules (will they be processed in order, or is it a first match situation?) and there isn't a means to combine multiple actions into a single rule. If I use the "forward" action, I THINK that it's going to screw up all the sender information once the mail reaches my GMail account and show it as coming from me instead of the original senders (can anyone confirm that this is accurate?) An easy answer would be to delete my user account entirely, replace it with an alias that maps to my GMail account, but then I would lose my ability to log into the system for admin duties. So that leads me to creating a second, lesser known account for admin use, but since it's a real account, sooner or later I'm going to get mail sent to it and I'll be back to the same situation of having a user account that doesn't get emptied periodically. I imagine I can set the quota to 0 MB to cause all incoming mail to my admin account to bounce, or setup an inbound rule to bounce everything, but this is starting to sound kludgy to me. Does anyone know of a more direct work around to copying a user's incoming mail to an outside server and then deleting the local copy w/o removing their account entirely? Or is this just wishful thinking?

    Read the article

  • How can I redirect/forward all the UDP/TCP traffic on one interface to another interface in OpenWrt

    - by Sina Sou
    I am new to networking and I have a measurement device (D) that periodically sends all its readings over few UDP multicast sockets (with different multicast IP addresses and different port numbers). That device even listens to a TCP socket simultaneously to modify its configuration on port 7234. Since the device has just a Ethernet interface for communication and I want to make it work wireless, I decided to use a very small wireless open-wrt based router that attaches to the device (D) and redirect/forward all the network traffic(Both UDP/TCP) to the router wireless interface. In order to simplify the problem assume that the Device (D) establishes following sockets (at the same time) UM_SOCK1: UDP mcast socket on 239.1.2.3 port# 50620 UM_SOCK2: UDP mcast socket on 239.1.2.4 port# 50640 TC_SOCK3: TCP DHCP/STATIC ip address 192.168.1.200 port 7234 And (D) is connected to Open-Wrt router (R) via interface en01 (Ethernet) the router has it own wireless interface on (wlan0) I want all the traffic from interface pass through wlan01 and vice versa (bi-directional) en01 <---- wlan01 What would be the minimum iptables or ... commands that I need to make this possible? Even I am wondering if traffic directing can be made easier like if the direction is not going to be based on IP addresses(not desired if the device is connected via DHCP) I would rather redirection to be Interface(en0) based or on MAC address (The best solution since my device has unique MAC address)? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Can I use iptables on my Varnish server to forward HTTPS traffic to a specific server?

    - by Dylan Beattie
    We use Varnish as our front-end web cache and load balancer, so we have a Linux server in our development environment, running Varnish with some basic caching and load-balancing rules across a pair of Windows 2008 IIS web servers. We have a wildcard DNS rule that points *.development at this Varnish box, so we can browse http://www.mysite.com.development, http://www.othersite.com.development, etc. The problem is that since Varnish can't handle HTTPS traffic, we can't access https://www.mysite.com.development/ For dev/testing, we don't need any acceleration or load-balancing - all I need is to tell this box to act as a dumb proxy and forward any incoming requests on port 443 to a specific IIS server. I suspect iptables may offer a solution but it's been a long while since I wrote an iptables rule. Some initial hacking has got me as far as iptables -F iptables -A INPUT -p tcp -m tcp --sport 443 -j ACCEPT iptables -A OUTPUT -p tcp -m tcp --dport 443 -j ACCEPT iptables -t nat -A PREROUTING -p tcp --dport 443 -j DNAT --to 10.0.0.241:443 iptables -t nat -A POSTROUTING -p tcp -d 10.0.0.241 --dport 443 -j MASQUERADE iptables -A INPUT -j LOG --log-level 4 --log-prefix 'PreRouting ' iptables -A OUTPUT -j LOG --log-level 4 --log-prefix 'PostRouting ' iptables-save > /etc/iptables.rules (where 10.0.0.241 is the IIS box hosting the HTTPS website), but this doesn't appear to be working. To clarify - I realize there's security implications about HTTPS proxying/caching - all I'm looking for is completely transparent IP traffic forwarding. I don't need to decrypt, cache or inspect any of the packets; I just want anything on port 443 to flow through the Linux box to the IIS box behind it as though the Linux box wasn't even there. Any help gratefully received... EDIT: Included full iptables config script.

    Read the article

  • I start programming in j2me, how to get the maximum compatibility with every cellphone?

    - by netadictos
    Hi, I am a newbie to J2me. I am programming a Java program to recognise QRs. The specifications of the projects include the compatibility with most of cellphones. For example, Nokia with Symbian, Iphone or HTC with windows mobile. I have started downloading, JDK, WTK, eclipse and MTJ. Any other advice would be of help. To do this, i will need to provide a different distro for every commercial mark? or OS?

    Read the article

  • Cant ping ip on LAN. Port forward works fine though.

    - by Anoop
    I have a Solaris 11 machine running inside the LAN. It is a default install. I can access the machine and ping it if I ssh into my router (if it matters, it is running dd-wrt). I cannot ping the Solaris machine using ip address from any other machine inside the LAN. But if I setup port forwarding everything works perfectly fine. I can also use the port forward from outside the LAN (from my office) - which is good and how I want it to be. I can SSH and ping and do pretty much everything else from outside as well as inside but only as long as I have the port forwarded from my router. Why would I not be able to ping or ssh or even access the Solaris 11 machine from within the LAN - I have checked and couldn't find any firewall running on the Solaris 11 box. I even tried disabling every known firewall on the router (dd-wrt, it had something like SPI firewall running). I even tried setting a static IP for my Solaris box but all in vain! Please help me understand how and why this happens!! Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to deal with forward declaration / #import in Cocoa Touch (Objective-C cross C++) correctly?

    - by unknownthreat
    I am trying to write this header file: //@class AQPlayer; //#import "AQPlayer.h" @interface AQ_PWN_iPhoneViewController : UIViewController { AQPlayer* player; } @end AQPlayer is a .mm file written in C++. I tried to make a class forward declaration here, but it complains to me: error: cannot find interface declaration for 'AQPlayer' So I tried to "#import" the header file instead, but it complains something completely off and weird. Here's a slice of the error complained: In file included from /Users/akaraphan/Desktop/SpecialTopic1/AQ_PWN_iPhone/Classes/AQPlayer.h:51, from /Users/akaraphan/Desktop/SpecialTopic1/AQ_PWN_iPhone/Classes/AQ_PWN_iPhoneViewController.h:12, from /Users/akaraphan/Desktop/SpecialTopic1/AQ_PWN_iPhone/Classes/AQ_PWN_iPhoneAppDelegate.m:10: /Developer/Examples/CoreAudio/PublicUtility/CAStreamBasicDescription.h:78: error: expected '=', ',', ';', 'asm' or '__attribute__' before 'CAStreamBasicDescription' /Developer/Examples/CoreAudio/PublicUtility/CAStreamBasicDescription.h:230: error: expected '=', ',', ';', 'asm' or '__attribute__' before '<' token /Developer/Examples/CoreAudio/PublicUtility/CAStreamBasicDescription.h:231: error: expected '=', ',', ';', 'asm' or '__attribute__' before '==' token /Developer/Examples/CoreAudio/PublicUtility/CAStreamBasicDescription.h:233: error: expected '=', ',', ';', 'asm' or '__attribute__' before '!=' token /Developer/Examples/CoreAudio/PublicUtility/CAStreamBasicDescription.h:234: error: expected '=', ',', ';', 'asm' or '__attribute__' before '<=' token /Developer/Examples/CoreAudio/PublicUtility/CAStreamBasicDescription.h:235: error: expected '=', ',', ';', 'asm' or '__attribute__' before '>=' token /Developer/Examples/CoreAudio/PublicUtility/CAStreamBasicDescription.h:236: error: expected '=', ',', ';', 'asm' or '__attribute__' before '>' token /Developer/Examples/CoreAudio/PublicUtility/CAStreamBasicDescription.h:239: error: expected ';', ',' or ')' before '&' token Am I missing something? Can't I do a forward declaration for this?

    Read the article

  • Do RAID controllers commonly have SATA drive brand compatibility issues?

    - by Jeff Atwood
    We've struggled with the RAID controller in our database server, a Lenovo ThinkServer RD120. It is a rebranded Adaptec that Lenovo / IBM dubs the ServeRAID 8k. We have patched this ServeRAID 8k up to the very latest and greatest: RAID bios version RAID backplane bios version Windows Server 2008 driver This RAID controller has had multiple critical BIOS updates even in the short 4 month time we've owned it, and the change history is just.. well, scary. We've tried both write-back and write-through strategies on the logical RAID drives. We still get intermittent I/O errors under heavy disk activity. They are not common, but serious when they happen, as they cause SQL Server 2008 I/O timeouts and sometimes failure of SQL connection pools. We were at the end of our rope troubleshooting this problem. Short of hardcore stuff like replacing the entire server, or replacing the RAID hardware, we were getting desperate. When I first got the server, I had a problem where drive bay #6 wasn't recognized. Switching out hard drives to a different brand, strangely, fixed this -- and updating the RAID BIOS (for the first of many times) fixed it permanently, so I was able to use the original "incompatible" drive in bay 6. On a hunch, I began to assume that the Western Digital SATA hard drives I chose were somehow incompatible with the ServeRAID 8k controller. Buying 6 new hard drives was one of the cheaper options on the table, so I went for 6 Hitachi (aka IBM, aka Lenovo) hard drives under the theory that an IBM/Lenovo RAID controller is more likely to work with the drives it's typically sold with. Looks like that hunch paid off -- we've been through three of our heaviest load days (mon,tue,wed) without a single I/O error of any kind. Prior to this we regularly had at least one I/O "event" in this time frame. It sure looks like switching brands of hard drive has fixed our intermittent RAID I/O problems! While I understand that IBM/Lenovo probably tests their RAID controller exclusively with their own brand of hard drives, I'm disturbed that a RAID controller would have such subtle I/O problems with particular brands of hard drives. So my question is, is this sort of SATA drive incompatibility common with RAID controllers? Are there some brands of drives that work better than others, or are "validated" against particular RAID controller? I had sort of assumed that all commodity SATA hard drives were alike and would work reasonably well in any given RAID controller (of sufficient quality).

    Read the article

  • What Filesystem should be used for a 4TB drive for both Windows and OSX compatibility? [closed]

    - by Nicholas Yost
    Note: I am aware of similar questions. The one's I seen here are for Windows, OSX, and Linux (which I do not need). I also can use Mountain Lion, which the other questions did not mention. I was going to use NTFS, but OSX Mountain Lion can only read that filesystem and not write to it for some reason. I want to use something native between OSX and Windows, as I don't want to risk losing the data over filesystem incompatibilities. I have USB 3.0 and want something that will allow files greater than 4GB. I do not mind installing a small set of drivers on the Windows machine(s), but I would strongly prefer to leave the Mac machine untouched. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • What rules govern cross-version compatibility for .NET applications and the C# language?

    - by John Feminella
    For some reason I've always had trouble remembering the backwards/forwards compatibility guarantees made by the framework, so I'd like to put that to bed forever. Suppose I have two assemblies, A and B. A is older and references .NET 2.0 assemblies; B references .NET 3.5 assemblies. I have the source for A and B, Ax and Bx, respectively; they are written in C# at the 2.0 and 3.0 language levels. (That is, Ax uses no features that were introduced later than C# 2.0; likewise Bx uses no features that were introduced later than 3.0.) I have two environments, C and D. C has the .NET 2.0 framework installed; D has the .NET 3.5 framework installed. Now, which of the following can/can't I do? Running: run A on C? run A on D? run B on C? run C on D? Compiling: compile Ax on C? compile Ax on D? compile Bx on C? compile Bx on D? Rewriting: rewrite Ax to use features from the C# 3 language level, and compile it on D, while having it still work on C? rewrite Bx to use features from the C# 4 language level on another environment E that has .NET 4, while having it still work on D?' Referencing from another assembly: reference B from A and have a client app on C use it? reference B from A and have a client app on D use it? reference A from B and have a client app on C use it? reference A from B and have a client app on D use it? More importantly, what rules govern the truth or falsity of these hypothetical scenarios?

    Read the article

  • How to forward/redirect an HTTP PUT Request with PHP?

    - by benjisail
    Hi, I receive HTTP PUT requests on a server and I would like to redirect / forward these requests to an other server. I handle the PUT request on both server with PHP. The PUT request is using basic HTTP authentication. Here is an example : www.myserver.com/service/put/myfile.xml redirect to www.myotherserver.com/service/put/myfile.xml How can I do this without saving the file on my first server and resending a PUT request using CURL? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Query.fetch(limit=2000) only moves cursor forward by 1000 entities?

    - by Liron
    Let's say I have 2500 MyModel entities in my datastore, and I run this code: query = MyModel.all() first_batch = query.fetch(2000) len(first_batch) # 2000 next_query = MyModel.all().with_cursor(query.cursor()) next_batch = next_query.fetch(2000) What do you think len(next_batch) is? 500, right? Nope - it's 1500. Apparently the query cursor never moves forward by more than 1000, even when the query itself returns more than 1000 entities. Should I do something different or is it just an App Engine bug?

    Read the article

  • how to forward message from UITabBarController to another controller?

    - by RAGOpoR
    it cause from i insert UIViewController to subview of UITabBarController. once i want to set UIViewController shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation and it not possible because it will call only in UITabBarController. how can i forward message from UITabBarController to call shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation of each UIViewController instead of call UITabBarController only?

    Read the article

  • What does a forward slash before a pipe in cmd do to remove the line ending of an echo?

    - by user66001
    This code: @echo off echo/|set /p ="Executing backup...." echo/|set /p =" backup procedure" ... came from Echoing in the same line and produces the below output in a cmd window: Executing backup....backup procedure However, I cant seem to find an explanation through google on what the forward slash does to the ¿pipe? to cause set's output to be echoed to the console / stdout If anyone could also suggest a good website for learning more about cmd / cmd programs' features like this, it would be appreciated.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44  | Next Page >