Search Results

Search found 47805 results on 1913 pages for 'return address'.

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

Page 37/1913 | < Previous Page | 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44  | Next Page >

  • Autodiscover service seems to reply with User Principal Name instead of email address

    - by Jeff McJunkin
    After this latest round of Windows updates (on 1/11/11, in fact) my Exchange 2007 server of course rebooted. This may have had the side effect of making any changes I'd inadvertently made take effect. Since then, the Autodiscover service in Exchange 2007 from Outlook 2007 seems to reply with the User Principal Name ([email protected] instead of [email protected]). I'm specifically seeing this from within the "Test Email AutoConfiguration" tool in Outlook (the UPN appears in the first text box labeled "E-mail") and when creating a new profile in Outlook. If I disregard the UPN and instead fill in my email address, Autodiscover works as expected and I can connect without issue. I've confirmed using ADSI Edit that the SMTP email address is properly set for my users. I even went a bit crazy and set the UPN to the email address using ADSI Edit. I've re-installed the Client Access role on the server in question. Exchange server is Server 2008, 64-bit of course. Clients are mostly XP 32-bit, though the issue happens from a Windows 7 machine as well.

    Read the article

  • Sending email with exim and external sender address

    - by Tronic
    i have following problem: i want to send emails with an rails webapp. i set up an exim server and when looking into the logs, the sending works, but the emails aren't sent really. i had the same problem with another isp. the sender address is hosted on another mailserver, other isp. i think the problem is, that sending doesn't work because the sener address isn't hosted on the same server. do you have any advice on this? the logs (exim) tell me the following: 2011-01-01 14:38:06 1PZ1eo-0000Ga-38 <= <> R=1PZ1eo-0000GY-1p U=Debian-exim P=local S=1778 2011-01-01 14:38:08 1PZ1eo-0000Ga-38 => [email protected] R=dnslookup T=remote_smtp H=mx1.emailsrvr.com [98.129.184.131] X=TLS1.0:RSA_AES_256_CBC_SHA1:32 DN="C=US,O=mx1.emailsrvr.com,OU=GT21850092,OU=See www.geotrust.com/resources/cps (c)08,OU=Domain Control Validated - QuickSSL(R),CN=mx1.emailsrvr.com" 2011-01-01 14:38:08 1PZ1eo-0000Ga-38 Completed [email protected] is the external sender-address! thank you! Edit with more details when sending a mail from command line with echo "Test" | mail -s Testmail [email protected] the logs says 2011-01-01 20:45:24 1PZ7OG-0001Vp-Rx <= root@gustav U=root P=local S=360 2011-01-01 20:45:26 1PZ7OG-0001Vp-Rx => [email protected] R=dnslookup T=remote_smtp H=gmail-smtp-in.l.google.com [209.85.229.27] X=TLS1.0:RSA_ARCFOUR_MD5:16 DN="C=US,ST=California,L=Mountain View,O=Google Inc,CN=mx.google.com" 2011-01-01 20:45:26 1PZ7OG-0001Vp-Rx Completed and i get the mail on my gmail account. but when sending by webapp (when testing locally with sendmail it works fine) i only get this log output 2011-01-01 20:50:08 1PZ7Sq-0001X9-L4 <= <> R=1PZ7Sq-0001X7-Jo U=Debian-exim P=local S=1780 2011-01-01 20:50:11 1PZ7Sq-0001X9-L4 => [email protected] R=dnslookup T=remote_smtp H=mx1.emailsrvr.com [98.129.184.3] X=TLS1.0:RSA_AES_256_CBC_SHA1:32 DN="C=US,O=mx1.emailsrvr.com,OU=GT21850092,OU=See www.geotrust.com/resources/cps (c)08,OU=Domain Control Validated - QuickSSL(R),CN=mx1.emailsrvr.com" 2011-01-01 20:50:11 1PZ7Sq-0001X9-L4 Completed

    Read the article

  • Postfix "loops back to myself" error on relay to another IP address on same machine

    - by Nic Wolff
    I'm trying to relay all mail for one domain "ourdomain.tld" from Postfix running on port 2525 of one interface to another SMTP server running on port 25 of another interface on the same machine. However, when a message is received for that domain, we're getting a "mail for loops back to myself" error. Below are netstat and postconf, the contents of our /etc/postfix/transport file, and the error that Postfix is logging. (The high bytes of each IP address are XXXed out.) Am I missing something obvious? Thanks - # netstat -ln -A inet Proto Recv-Q Send-Q Local Address Foreign Address State ... tcp 0 0 XXX.XXX.138.209:25 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN tcp 0 0 XXX.XXX.138.210:2525 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN # postconf -d | grep mail_version mail_version = 2.8.4 # postconf -n alias_maps = hash:/etc/aliases allow_mail_to_commands = alias,forward bounce_queue_lifetime = 0 command_directory = /usr/sbin config_directory = /etc/postfix daemon_directory = /usr/libexec/postfix data_directory = /var/lib/postfix debug_peer_level = 2 default_privs = nobody default_process_limit = 200 html_directory = no inet_interfaces = XXX.XXX.138.210 local_recipient_maps = local_transport = error:local mail delivery is disabled mail_owner = postfix mailbox_size_limit = 0 mailq_path = /usr/bin/mailq manpage_directory = /usr/local/man message_size_limit = 10240000 mydestination = mydomain = ourdomain.tld myhostname = ourdomain.tld mynetworks = XXX.XXX.119.0/24, XXX.XXX.138.0/24, XXX.XXX.136.128/25 myorigin = ourdomain.tld newaliases_path = /usr/bin/newaliases queue_directory = /var/spool/postfix readme_directory = /etc/postfix recipient_delimiter = + relay_domains = ourdomain.tld relay_recipient_maps = sample_directory = /etc/postfix sendmail_path = /usr/sbin/sendmail setgid_group = postdrop smtpd_authorized_verp_clients = $mynetworks smtpd_recipient_limit = 10000 transport_maps = hash:/etc/postfix/transport unknown_local_recipient_reject_code = 450 # cat /etc/postfix/transport ourdomain.tld relay:[XXX.XXX.138.209]:25 # tail -f /var/log/maillog ... Aug 2 23:58:36 va4 postfix/smtp[9846]: 9858A758404: to=<nicwolff@... >, relay=XXX.XXX.138.209[XXX.XXX.138.209]:25, delay=1.1, delays=0.08/0.01/1/0, dsn=5.4.6, status=bounced (mail for [XXX.XXX.138.209]:25 loops back to myself)

    Read the article

  • What are the IPv6 Public and Private and Reserved ranges

    - by vipin raj
    I just want to know what are all the public IPv6 ranges which ISPs or other users can use? Also need a list of addresses which can be used in private networks and also the list of addresses which never can be used in any network. I have been searching through different web sites. But none gives a reliable answer. Actually we are developing an application which allows user to plan their IP address(create supernets, subnets, hosts, assign host to ports etc). So my application should be able to distinguish between all kinds of address ranges, whether it is reserved, public, private, multicast etc

    Read the article

  • Sending email with exim and external sender address

    - by Tronic
    hi. i have following problem: i want to send emails with an rails webapp. i set up an exim server and when looking into the logs, the sending works, but the emails aren't sent really. i had the same problem with another isp. the sender address is hosted on another mailserver, other isp. i think the problem is, that sending doesn't work because the sener address isn't hosted on the same server. do you have any advice on this? the logs (exim) tell me the following: 2011-01-01 14:38:06 1PZ1eo-0000Ga-38 <= <> R=1PZ1eo-0000GY-1p U=Debian-exim P=local S=1778 2011-01-01 14:38:08 1PZ1eo-0000Ga-38 => [email protected] R=dnslookup T=remote_smtp H=mx1.emailsrvr.com [98.129.184.131] X=TLS1.0:RSA_AES_256_CBC_SHA1:32 DN="C=US,O=mx1.emailsrvr.com,OU=GT21850092,OU=See www.geotrust.com/resources/cps (c)08,OU=Domain Control Validated - QuickSSL(R),CN=mx1.emailsrvr.com" 2011-01-01 14:38:08 1PZ1eo-0000Ga-38 Completed [email protected] is the external sender-address! thank you!

    Read the article

  • Chrome: automatically redirect me to highest ranking search result, like Firefox does

    - by Siim K
    How to emulate the Firefox (I'm using v3.6) address bar search redirection in Google Chrome? For example, if I type... imdb moon ...to the address bar and press Return in Firefox then it redirects me straight to http://www.imdb.com/title/tt1182345/ (and I've not visited the page before) When I try this is Chrome then I just get the google search page http://www.google.com/search?sourceid=chrome&ie=UTF-8&q=imdb+moon So seems like Firefox redirects automatically to the highest ranking search result URL - is there a setting or add-on for Chrome to achieve the same behaviour?

    Read the article

  • Samba access works with IP address only

    - by Sebastian Rittau
    I added a Debian etch host (hostname: webserver, IP address: 192.168.101.2) running Samba to a Windows network with a Windows 2003 PDC (IP address 192.168.101.3). The Samba server exports a public guest share, called "Intranet". The server shows up fine in the network, but trying to click on it produces an error dialog, stating I don't have the necessary permissions. So does entering \webserver manually and using \webserver\internet states that the path does not exist. Interestingly, accessing the share by IP address (\192.168.101.2 or \192.168.101.2\intranet) works fine. DNS is configured correctly, and "smbclient //webserver/intranet" on another Linux client works fine. One complicating issue is that the webserver is only a VMware virtual machine running on PDC server. Here is our smb.conf: [global] workgroup = Foobar server string = Webserver wins support = yes ; commenting out these wins server = 192.168.101.3 ; two lines has no effect dns proxy = no guest account = nobody [... snipped some unrelated bits, like logging ...] security = share [... snipped some password-related things ...] domain master = no [intranet] comment = Intranet path = /srv/webserver/contents browseable = yes guest ok = yes guest only = yes read only = yes create mask = 0775 directory mask = 0775

    Read the article

  • How to set a static route for an external IP address

    - by HorusKol
    Further to my earlier question about bridging different subnets - I now need to route requests for one particular IP address differently to all other traffic. I have the following routing in my iptables on our router: # Allow established connections, and those !not! coming from the public interface # eth0 = public interface # eth1 = private interface #1 (10.1.1.0/24) # eth2 = private interface #2 (129.2.2.0/25) iptables -A INPUT -m state --state ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT iptables -A INPUT -m state --state NEW ! -i eth0 -j ACCEPT iptables -A FORWARD -i eth0 -o eth1 -m state --state ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT iptables -A FORWARD -i eth0 -o eth2 -m state --state ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT # Allow outgoing connections from the private interfaces iptables -A FORWARD -i eth1 -o eth0 -j ACCEPT iptables -A FORWARD -i eth2 -o eth0 -j ACCEPT # Allow the two private connections to talk to each other iptables -A FORWARD -i eth1 -o eth2 -j ACCEPT iptables -A FORWARD -i eth2 -o eth1 -j ACCEPT # Masquerade (NAT) iptables -t nat -A POSTROUTING -o eth0 -j MASQUERADE # Don't forward any other traffic from the public to the private iptables -A FORWARD -i eth0 -o eth1 -j REJECT iptables -A FORWARD -i eth0 -o eth2 -j REJECT This configuration means that users will be forwarded through a modem/router with a public address - this is all well and good for most purposes, and in the main it doesn't matter that all computers are hidden behind the one public IP. However, some users need to be able to access a proxy at 192.111.222.111:8080 - and the proxy needs to identify this traffic as coming through a gateway at 129.2.2.126 - it won't respond otherwise. I tried adding a static route on our local gateway with: route add -host 192.111.222.111 gw 129.2.2.126 dev eth2 I can successfully ping 192.111.222.111 from the router. When I trace the route, it lists the 129.2.2.126 gateway, but I just get * on each of the following hops (I think this makes sense since this is just a web-proxy and requires authentication). When I try to ping this address from a host on the 129.2.2.0/25 network it fails. Should I do this in the iptables chain instead? How would I configure this routing?

    Read the article

  • Why is it a bad idea to use a customer email as the from address

    - by Crab Bucket
    I've got an application that emails users once they have filled in a form. It uses a [email protected] as a from address. The customer wants it to use the email from the form as the from address which could be anything. I have been told that this is a bad idea due to spoofing/blacklisting and spam. I feel really vague about the exact reason about why this is a bad idea particularly as i've got to try to counsel the client out of this. Can someone explain to me why this is a bad idea. Interestingly the client has used a gmail account as the from address as a demo which not only works fine but has enabled the application to start sending emails (it wouldn't do it before with an email which was [email protected]). Erm - what is going on. I'm told one thing and the opposite works. Sorry - i know this is basic but I could find anything on a google search. Largely I think because I'm having trouble even framing the question. EDIT Thank you everyone - great answers. Interestingly the server sending the email and the mail box that it is going to are both behind the same firewall so the client says they are unconcerned about spam. Oh well.

    Read the article

  • Change source address based on destination IP

    - by hgj
    We have several "router" machines that gather a lot of external IP addresses on the same host and redirect, NAT or proxy the traffic to the internal network. They also act as routers for the machines on the internal network. This works fine, however I am unable to make the routing table, so I can change the source address, based on the destination a machine from the internal network want to access. Let's say I have a router, that has public addresses P1 (5.5.5.1/24) and P2 (5.5.5.2/24). All traffic goes through P1, but if necessary, the host is reachable on P2 too. This looks like this and works fine: > ip addr ... 1: eth1: <BROADCAST,MULTICAST,UP,LOWER_UP> mtu 1500 qdisc pfifo_fast state UP qlen 1000 link/ether aa:bb:cc:dd:ee:11 brd ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff inet 5.5.5.1/24 brd 5.5.5.255 scope global eth1 inet 5.5.5.2/24 brd 5.5.5.255 scope global secondary eth1:p2 ... Now I want to use P2 as the source address, if I want to access the Google DNS service for example (8.8.8.8). So I add a row in the routing table like: > ip route add 8.8.8.8 via 5.5.5.254 dev eth1 src 5.5.5.2 > ip route ... default via 5.5.5.254 dev eth1 5.5.5.0/24 dev eth1 proto kernel scope link src 5.5.5.1 8.8.8.8 via 5.5.5.254 dev eth1 src 5.5.5.2 ... But this does not work. If I ping 8.8.8.8, the host still uses P1 as the source address, and does not use P2 at all for outgoing connections. Am I doing it right? I guess not...

    Read the article

  • Accessing locally hosted webpage via public IP

    - by Mk12
    Sorry if this is in the wrong place.I don't really know anything about server-related things, but I'm really curious about this. On my mac I figured out how to make a simple web page viewable via the local ip address or computer name on the LAN, and also how to hook it up with a free hostname from dyndns.com. So the dyndns hostname points to something, how can I access it directly? Typing in the global ip address (of the router) doesn't work, but if it did, how would it know which computer to point to? There must be some way of directly accessing what dyndns hostname points to by typing in some number, right? Sorry I don't really understand how it works.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to host a web server from behind a NAT

    - by iamrohitbanga
    My PC is behind a NAT router that has a public IP address. If I want to host a website then I believe I need a domain name which I can purchase from some site which would pledge to resolve all DNS requests for that domain name and send the IP address of my NAT router (assuming I do not want to host my domain name on their servers). Now I want to host a web server on my computer. What changes should be done to the NAT router's configuration to forward all HTTP requests for example.com to my PC in the internal network. Is the above strategy correct? Is it commonly used?

    Read the article

  • iptables, allow access from certain MAC addresses

    - by user788171
    Presently, I limit which clients can access my server by using IP addresses via iptables, only approved IP addresses can connect. However, the problem with this is if a client is on a laptop and goes to a different location, they can no longer connect because the IP has changed. For a variety of reasons, iptables authentication is the only option I have. Is there a way to restrict access by device instead of ip address. For instance, only allow certain MAC address to connect to port 5000. Is it possible to do this via iptables? Note, the computers are not on the same network, they could be connecting from anywhere in the world.

    Read the article

  • Samba access works with IP address only

    - by Sebastian Rittau
    I added a Debian etch host (hostname: webserver, IP address: 192.168.101.2) running Samba to a Windows network with a Windows 2003 PDC (IP address 192.168.101.3). The Samba server exports a public guest share, called "Intranet". The server shows up fine in the network, but trying to click on it produces an error dialog, stating I don't have the necessary permissions. So does entering \webserver manually and using \webserver\internet states that the path does not exist. Interestingly, accessing the share by IP address (\192.168.101.2 or \192.168.101.2\intranet) works fine. DNS is configured correctly, and "smbclient //webserver/intranet" on another Linux client works fine. One complicating issue is that the webserver is only a VMware virtual machine running on PDC server. Here is our smb.conf: [global] workgroup = Foobar server string = Webserver wins support = yes ; commenting out these wins server = 192.168.101.3 ; two lines has no effect dns proxy = no guest account = nobody [... snipped some unrelated bits, like logging ...] security = share [... snipped some password-related things ...] domain master = no [intranet] comment = Intranet path = /srv/webserver/contents browseable = yes guest ok = yes guest only = yes read only = yes create mask = 0775 directory mask = 0775

    Read the article

  • Dns.GetHostEntry is not giving me a good IP to pass to IPEndPoint function in my domain

    - by Beach Miles
    My c# code from my asynchronous socket client to get the address of my socket server. string testServerIP = "192.168.0.1"; IPHostEntry ipHostInfo = Dns.GetHostEntry(testServerIP); //time server address IPAddress ipAddress = ipHostInfo.AddressList[0]; IPEndPoint remoteEP = new IPEndPoint(ipAddress, port); I get the following error message from the above code. CheckServerReconnect:Cant connect to 192.168.0.1 The requested name is valid and was found in the database, but it does not have the correct associated data being resolved for

    Read the article

  • Specifying the bounce-back address for email

    - by Kirk Broadhurst
    I'm having a problem getting emails to bounce to a specific email address, different to the From address. A particular client requires that we send emails from a specific email address (call it [email protected]). Our Exchange admins have created an account on the Exchange box so that we can log in and send from that address. Our Exchange server is spoofing that address / domain. This works fine. Unfortunately the emails sent from [email protected] are not bouncing back to us. They are presumably bouncing back to the contact account at clientcompany.com (which may or may not exist). I've inserted a header [email protected] with the assumption that this field determines where bouncebacks are sent. Other documents indicate that this field should never be populated by the originating SMTP system. Other websites again talk about a field called Errors-To which is apparently non-standard. So - which field is the correct one, and what does it depend on? Any ideas why my Return-Path is not working? I'd really like to get Exchange to correctly bounce a message addressed to an invalid server! update: Continuing to dig, and my Return-Path work was only adding an extended property at the end of the header block, but Exchange appears to be still adding its own Return-Path value at the top. Delivered-To: [email protected] Received: by 1.1.1.1 with SMTP ... Return-Path: <[email protected]> Received: from ... ... ... Subject: Test Message-ID: ... Return-Path: [email protected] According to the Microsoft.com, I cannot set the Return-Path as it is determined by the MAIL FROM - which seems consistent with what I've previously read. But now I'm stuck - how do I change this MAIL FROM value programmatically within Exchange 2007?

    Read the article

  • Asp.net MVC jQuery Ajax calls to JsonResult return no data

    - by Maslow
    I have this script loaded on a page: (function() { window.alert('bookmarklet started'); function AjaxSuccess(data, textStatus, xmlHttpRequest) { if (typeof (data) == 'undefined') { return alert('Data is undefined'); } alert('ajax success' + (data || ': no data')); } function AjaxError(xmlHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { alert('ajax failure:' + textStatus); } /*imaginarydevelopment.com/Sfc*/ var destination = { url: 'http://localhost:3041/Bookmarklet/SaveHtml', type: 'POST', success: AjaxSuccess, error: AjaxError, dataType: 'text',contentType: 'application/x-www-form-urlencoded' }; if (typeof (jQuery) == 'undefined') { return alert('jQuery not defined'); } if (typeof ($jq) == 'undefined') { if (typeof ($) != 'undefined') { $jq = $; } else { return alert('$jq->jquerify not defined'); } } if ($jq('body').length <= 0) { return alert('Could not query body length'); } if ($jq('head title:contains(BookmarkletTest)').length > 0) { alert('doing test'); destination.data = { data: 'BookmarkletTestAjax' }; $jq.ajax(destination); return; } })(); when it is run locally in VS2008's cassini the ajax success shows the returned string from Asp.net MVC, when it is run remotely the ajax success data is null. Here's the controller method that is firing both locally and when run remotely: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post | HttpVerbs.Get)] public string SaveHtml(string data) { var path = getPath(Server.MapPath); System.IO.File.WriteAllText(path,data); Console.WriteLine("SaveHtml called"); Debug.WriteLine("SaveHtml called"); //return Json(new { result = "SaveHtml Success" }); return "SaveHtml Success"; } Once i have it working I was going to remove the GET, but currently accessing the SaveHtml method directly from the webbrowser produces the expected results when testing. So there's something wrong in my javascript I believe, because when I step through there with chrome's developer tools, I see the data is null, and the xmlHttpRequest doesn't appear to have the expected result in it anywhere either. I'm loading jquery via http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1/jquery.min.js

    Read the article

  • SQL Server stored procedure return code oddity

    - by gbn
    Hello The client that calls this code is restricted and can only deal with return codes from stored procs. So, we modified our usual contract to RETURN -1 on error and default to RETURN 0 if no error If the code hits the inner catch block, then the RETURN code default to -4. Where does this come from, does anyone know...? IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.foo') IS NOT NULL DROP TABLE dbo.foo GO CREATE TABLE dbo.foo ( KeyCol char(12) NOT NULL, ValueCol xml NOT NULL, Comment varchar(1000) NULL, CONSTRAINT PK_foo PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED (KeyCol) ) GO IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.bar') IS NOT NULL DROP PROCEDURE dbo.bar GO CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.bar @Key char(12), @Value xml, @Comment varchar(1000) AS SET NOCOUNT ON DECLARE @StartTranCount tinyint; BEGIN TRY SELECT @StartTranCount = @@TRANCOUNT; IF @StartTranCount = 0 BEGIN TRAN; BEGIN TRY --SELECT @StartTranCount = 'fish' INSERT dbo.foo (KeyCol, ValueCol, Comment) VALUES (@Key, @Value, @Comment); END TRY BEGIN CATCH IF ERROR_NUMBER() = 2627 --PK violation UPDATE dbo.foo SET ValueCol = @Value, Comment = @Comment WHERE KeyCol = @Key; ELSE RAISERROR ('Tits up', 16, 1); END CATCH IF @StartTranCount = 0 COMMIT TRAN; END TRY BEGIN CATCH IF @StartTranCount = 0 AND XACT_STATE() <> 0 ROLLBACK TRAN; RETURN -1 END CATCH --Without this, we'll send -4 if we hit the UPDATE CATCH block above --RETURN 0 GO --Run with RETURN 0 and fish line commented out DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar />', 'testing' SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar2 />', 'testing2' --updated OK but we get @rtn = -4 SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo --uncomment fish line DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar />', 'testing' --Hit outer CATCH, @rtn = -1 as expected SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo

    Read the article

  • Generics in return types of static methods and inheritance

    - by Axel
    Generics in return types of static methods do not seem to get along well with inheritance. Please take a look at the following code: class ClassInfo<C> { public ClassInfo(Class<C> clazz) { this(clazz,null); } public ClassInfo(Class<C> clazz, ClassInfo<? super C> superClassInfo) { } } class A { public static ClassInfo<A> getClassInfo() { return new ClassInfo<A>(A.class); } } class B extends A { // Error: The return type is incompatible with A.getClassInfo() public static ClassInfo<B> getClassInfo() { return new ClassInfo<B>(B.class, A.getClassInfo()); } } I tried to circumvent this by changing the return type for A.getClassInfo(), and now the error pops up at another location: class ClassInfo<C> { public ClassInfo(Class<C> clazz) { this(clazz,null); } public ClassInfo(Class<C> clazz, ClassInfo<? super C> superClassInfo) { } } class A { public static ClassInfo<? extends A> getClassInfo() { return new ClassInfo<A>(A.class); } } class B extends A { public static ClassInfo<? extends B> getClassInfo() { // Error: The constructor ClassInfo<B>(Class<B>, ClassInfo<capture#1-of ? extends A>) is undefined return new ClassInfo<B>(B.class, A.getClassInfo()); } } What is the reason for this strict checking on static methods? And how can I get along? Changing the method name seems awkward.

    Read the article

  • Handling return value from Web Service Call Wrapper

    - by coffeeaddict
    I created this method below which makes an HTTP call to a 3rd party API. I just want opinions on if I'm handling this the best way. If the call fails, I need to return the ExistsInList bool value only if the response is not null. But in the last return statement, wouldn't I have to essentially do another return selectResponse == null ? false : selectResponse.ExistsInList; to check for null first just like the previous return in the catch? Just seems redundant the way I'm approaching this and I don't know if I really need to check for null again in the final return but I figure yes, because you can't always rely on the response to give you a valid response even if there were no errors picked up. public static bool UserExistsInList(string email, string listID) { SelectRecipientRequest selectRequest = new SelectRecipientRequest(email, listID); SelectRecipientResponse selectResponse = null; try { selectResponse = (SelectRecipientResponse)selectRequest.SendRequest(); } catch (Exception) { return selectResponse == null ? false : selectResponse.ExistsInList; } return selectResponse.ExistsInList; }

    Read the article

  • C# return and display syntax issue

    - by thatdude
    I am having trouble passing the return value from TheMethod() to Main and displaying the word if the if statement is passed as true. I have thought of two ways of doing this, neither has worked but I think I am missing synatx. Using a return ?; non void method and then displaying the returned value. Using a void method and actually writing out(example below) So yes I am new at this, however I have made so many iterations everything is blending together and I have forgot what I have tried. Any help on the syntax be great for either of these ways. Basically I need it to iterate numbers 1,2,3,4 and depending on if the current iteration matches an expression in the if statements it will display a word. Example: if (3 = i) { Console.WriteLine("Word"); } Code: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Threading.Tasks; namespace Proj5 { class Program { int i = 0; static void Main(int i) { for (i = 0; i < 101; i++) { Console.WriteLine("test"); } } string TheMethod(int i) { string f = "Word1"; string b = "Word2"; if (i == 3) { return f; } if (i == 5) { return b; } if (0 == (i % 3)) { return f; } if (0 == i % 5) { return b; } else { return b; } } } }

    Read the article

  • Iphone NsMutableArray Count

    - by Claudio
    I have a struct SystemStruct *sharedStruct = [SystemStruct sharedSystemStruct]; implemented as a singleton, to share 3 Arrays. the problem is that when i try to count the array's objects the system crash. es: This code Crash: - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { SystemStruct *SharedStruct = [SystemStruct sharedSystemStruct]; return SharedStruct.path.count; } This Code Work: SystemStruct *SharedStruct = [SystemStruct sharedSystemStruct]; NSLog(@"%d", SharedStruct.path.count); How can i return the correct array count?

    Read the article

  • MySQL - display rows of names and addresses grouped by name, where name occures more than once

    - by Stoob
    I have two tables, "name" and "address". I would like to list the last_name and joined address.street_address of all last_name in table "name" that occur more than once in table "name". The two tables are joined on the column "name_id". The desired output would appear like so: 213 | smith | 123 bluebird | 14 | smith | 456 first ave | 718 | smith | 12 san antonia st. | 244 | jones | 78 third ave # 45 | 98 | jones | 18177 toronto place | Note that if the last_name "abernathy" appears only once in table "name", then "abernathy" should not be included in the result. This is what I came up with so far: SELECT name.name_id, name.last_name, address.street_address, count(*) FROM `name` JOIN `address` ON name.name_id = address.name_id GROUP BY `last_name` HAVING count(*) > 1 However, this produces only one row per last name. I'd like all the last names listed. I know I am missing something simple. Any help is appreciated, thanks!

    Read the article

  • compile time if && return string reference optimization

    - by Truncheon
    Hi. I'm writing a series classes that inherit from a base class using virtual. They are INT, FLOAT and STRING objects that I want to use in a scripting language. I'm trying to implement weak typing, but I don't want STRING objects to return copies of themselves when used in the following way (instead I would prefer to have a reference returned which can be used in copying): a = "hello "; b = "world"; c = a + b; I have written the following code as a mock example: #include <iostream> #include <string> #include <cstdio> #include <cstdlib> std::string dummy("<int object cannot return string reference>"); struct BaseImpl { virtual bool is_string() = 0; virtual int get_int() = 0; virtual std::string get_string_copy() = 0; virtual std::string const& get_string_ref() = 0; }; struct INT : BaseImpl { int value; INT(int i = 0) : value(i) { std::cout << "constructor called\n"; } INT(BaseImpl& that) : value(that.get_int()) { std::cout << "copy constructor called\n"; } bool is_string() { return false; } int get_int() { return value; } std::string get_string_copy() { char buf[33]; sprintf(buf, "%i", value); return buf; } std::string const& get_string_ref() { return dummy; } }; struct STRING : BaseImpl { std::string value; STRING(std::string s = "") : value(s) { std::cout << "constructor called\n"; } STRING(BaseImpl& that) { if (that.is_string()) value = that.get_string_ref(); else value = that.get_string_copy(); std::cout << "copy constructor called\n"; } bool is_string() { return true; } int get_int() { return atoi(value.c_str()); } std::string get_string_copy() { return value; } std::string const& get_string_ref() { return value; } }; struct Base { BaseImpl* impl; Base(BaseImpl* p = 0) : impl(p) {} ~Base() { delete impl; } }; int main() { Base b1(new INT(1)); Base b2(new STRING("Hello world")); Base b3(new INT(*b1.impl)); Base b4(new STRING(*b2.impl)); std::cout << "\n"; std::cout << b1.impl->get_int() << "\n"; std::cout << b2.impl->get_int() << "\n"; std::cout << b3.impl->get_int() << "\n"; std::cout << b4.impl->get_int() << "\n"; std::cout << "\n"; std::cout << b1.impl->get_string_ref() << "\n"; std::cout << b2.impl->get_string_ref() << "\n"; std::cout << b3.impl->get_string_ref() << "\n"; std::cout << b4.impl->get_string_ref() << "\n"; std::cout << "\n"; std::cout << b1.impl->get_string_copy() << "\n"; std::cout << b2.impl->get_string_copy() << "\n"; std::cout << b3.impl->get_string_copy() << "\n"; std::cout << b4.impl->get_string_copy() << "\n"; return 0; } It was necessary to add an if check in the STRING class to determine whether its safe to request a reference instead of a copy: Script code: a = "test"; b = a; c = 1; d = "" + c; /* not safe to request reference by standard */ C++ code: STRING(BaseImpl& that) { if (that.is_string()) value = that.get_string_ref(); else value = that.get_string_copy(); std::cout << "copy constructor called\n"; } If was hoping there's a way of moving that if check into compile time, rather than run time.

    Read the article

  • Set source address to use tun device does not work (Debian Squeeze)

    - by A. Donda
    there have been similar questions on StackExchange but none of the answers helped me, so I'll try a question of my own. I have a VPN connection via OpenVPN. By default, all traffic is redirected through the tunnel using OpenVPN's "two more specific routes" trick, but I disabled that. My routing table is like this: 198.144.156.141 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.255 UGH 0 0 0 eth0 10.30.92.5 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 UH 0 0 0 tun1 10.30.92.1 10.30.92.5 255.255.255.255 UGH 0 0 0 tun1 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 eth0 0.0.0.0 10.30.92.5 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 tun1 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 eth0 And the interface configuration is like this: # ifconfig eth0 Link encap:Ethernet HWaddr XX-XX- inet addr:192.168.2.100 Bcast:192.168.2.255 Mask:255.255.255.0 inet6 addr: fe80::211:9ff:fe8d:acbd/64 Scope:Link UP BROADCAST RUNNING MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:394869 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:293489 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:1000 RX bytes:388519578 (370.5 MiB) TX bytes:148817487 (141.9 MiB) Interrupt:20 Base address:0x6f00 tun1 Link encap:UNSPEC HWaddr 00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00 inet addr:10.30.92.6 P-t-P:10.30.92.5 Mask:255.255.255.255 UP POINTOPOINT RUNNING NOARP MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:64 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:67 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:100 RX bytes:9885 (9.6 KiB) TX bytes:4380 (4.2 KiB) plus the lo device. The routing table has two default routes, one via eth0 through my local network router (DSL modem) at 192.168.2.1, and another via tun1 through the VPN's gateway. With this configuration, if I connect to a site, the route chosen is the direct one (because it has less hops?): # traceroute 8.8.8.8 -n traceroute to 8.8.8.8 (8.8.8.8), 30 hops max, 60 byte packets 1 192.168.2.1 0.427 ms 0.491 ms 0.610 ms 2 213.191.89.13 17.981 ms 20.137 ms 22.141 ms 3 62.109.108.48 23.681 ms 25.009 ms 26.401 ms ... This is fine, because my goal is to send only traffic from specific applications through the tunnel (esp. transmission, using its -i / bind-address-ipv4 option). To test whether this can work at all, I check it first with traceroute's -s option: # traceroute 8.8.8.8 -n -s 10.30.92.6 traceroute to 8.8.8.8 (8.8.8.8), 30 hops max, 60 byte packets 1 * * * 2 * * * 3 * * * ... This I take to mean that connection using the tunnel's local address as source is not possible. What is possible (though only as root) is to specify the source interface: # traceroute 8.8.8.8 -n -i tun1 traceroute to 8.8.8.8 (8.8.8.8), 30 hops max, 60 byte packets 1 10.30.92.1 129.337 ms 297.758 ms 297.725 ms 2 * * * 3 198.144.152.17 297.653 ms 297.652 ms 297.650 ms ... So apparently the tun1 interface is working and it is possible to send packets through it. But selecting the source interface is not implemented in my actual target application (transmission), so I would like to get source address selection to work. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

< Previous Page | 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44  | Next Page >