Search Results

Search found 11954 results on 479 pages for 'gets'.

Page 371/479 | < Previous Page | 367 368 369 370 371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378  | Next Page >

• XBAP Browser Control - Invoking Click event of the html Input type button

  - by maharaj

  Hi, Here is what I have. 1.XBAP application with WPF Browser control, hosted on Page1.xaml 2.XBAP in Full Trust, certificate installed in client browser 3.Once the XBAP loaded, the browser control is navigated to some third party site. 4.We are using MVVM for XAML stuff So, when a certain page is loaded, I attach click event handler to the input button with id="submit" on the html page displayed in the browser control (used the code similar to whats in this URL http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/wpf/thread/a4f0e4d0-78bf-44c5-a3fe-8faf2e7a0568/). It works just fine as long as I dont make a wcf web service call in my ViewModel, before or after I attach this event hander. Idea is to invoke the click event for the html button and grab the data from the html page before calling the webservice to save data from the page. Here is the issue: When I make the wcf webservice call (sync or async, it doesnt matter) the click event doesnt happen but if I comment out the the code for wcf service call the click event of the html input of type button gets invoked. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks, Salil

  Read the article

• How to implement a Client-side Ajax Login on Asp.Net MVC (A link to the solution for Asp.Net Webform

  - by Matt

  Hi, I'm trying to implement a client-side ajax login on Asp.Net MVC. I used to have this set up just fine on WebForms, but now that I've moved to MVC it's giving me some troubles. If you'd like a tutorial on Client-side Ajax Login for Asp.Net Webforms, it can be found here -- Easy, A++ Now... for some reason it's not working for Asp.Net MVC. I used the exact same tutorial as for the Webforms, except when it executes the ssa.login() (equivalently: Sys.Services.AuthenticationService.login()) it's not doing anything. I have alerts in both the onLoginComplete() function and the onError() function. As well I have an alert before the ssa.login gets called and right after... function loginHandler() { var username = $("#login_UserName").val(); var password = $("#login_Password").val(); var isPersistent = $("#login_RememberMe").attr("checked"); var customInfo = null; var redirectUrl = null; // Log them in. alert("try login"); ssa.login(username, password, isPersistent, customInfo, redirectUrl, onLoginComplete, onError); alert("made it here"); } The first alert fires but the second one doesn't which means the function is failing. Here's the function I pulled from Asp.Net Ajax to show you: function(c, b, a, h, f, d, e, g) { this._invoke(this._get_path(), "Login", false, { userName: c, password: b, createPersistentCookie: a }, Function.createDelegate(this, this._onLoginComplete), Function.createDelegate(this, this._onLoginFailed), [c, b, a, h, f, d, e, g]); } Anyone have any idea of why it's failing?

  Read the article

• Strange behaviour with PHP/Pear HTML_Quickform and Firfox 3.6

  - by chessweb

  I am using PHP/Pear HTMLQuickForm and HTMLQuickForm_Controller to do some stuff with HTML-forms. Then I noticed that certain phone numbers would not be displayed even though the data had been loaded correctly. I boiled it down to the following rather strange phenomenons that have me completely baffled: $this->addElement('static', null, 'Telefon:', '04556-8978765'); will just show "Telefon:" in Firefox 3.6. In IE8 I see "Telefon: 04556-8978765" as expected. $this->addElement('static', null, 'Telefon:', '904556-8978765'); displays just "Telefon: 9" in Firefox 3.6 and correctly "Telefon: 904556-8978765" in IE8. On the other hand $this->addElement('static', null, 'Telefon:', '099828-67776554'); shows "Telefon: 099828-67776554" in both browsers. So my question is this: What is so special about the string 04556-8978765 that Firefox 3.6 refuses to render it? And it gets even weirder: The string 0208-23345 and 02232-12345 have the same problem, but when I prefix them with any other character, then unlike 04556-8978765 they are displayed alright. And it is not as if the missing strings are not rendered at all. On page reload I see them for a short time and then they disappear for good. Now try to guess the result of $this->addElement('static', null, 'Telefon:', '04556-8978765'); $this->addElement('static', null, 'Telefon:', '04556-8978765'); Right, it is not Telefon: 04556-8978765 Telefon: 04556-8978765 as expected, but rather Telefon: Telefon: 04556-8978765 Can anybody make any sense of this?

  Read the article

• Return call from ggplot object

  - by aL3xa

  I've been using ggplot2 for a while now, and I can't find a way to get formula from ggplot object. Though I can get basic info with summary(<ggplot_object>), in order to get complete formula, usually I was combing up and down through .Rhistory file. And this becomes frustrating when you experiment with new graphs, especially when code gets a bit lengthy... so searching through history file isn't quite convenient way of doing this... Is there a more efficient way of doing this? Just an illustration: p <- qplot(data = mtcars, x = factor(cyl), geom = "bar", fill = factor(cyl)) + scale_fill_manual(name = "Cylinders", value = c("firebrick3", "gold2", "chartreuse3")) + stat_bin(aes(label = ..count..), vjust = -0.2, geom = "text", position = "identity") + xlab("# of cylinders") + ylab("Frequency") + opts(title = "Barplot: # of cylinders") I can get some basic info with summary: > summary(p) data: mpg, cyl, disp, hp, drat, wt, qsec, vs, am, gear, carb [32x11] mapping: fill = factor(cyl), x = factor(cyl) scales: fill faceting: facet_grid(. ~ ., FALSE) ----------------------------------- geom_bar: stat_bin: position_stack: (width = NULL, height = NULL) mapping: label = ..count.. geom_text: vjust = -0.2 stat_bin: width = 0.9, drop = TRUE, right = TRUE position_identity: (width = NULL, height = NULL) But I want to get code I typed in to get the graph. I reckon that I'm missing something essential here... it's seems impossible that there's no way to get call from ggplot object!

  Read the article

• Using C code in c#

  - by karthik

  When i googled to find the way to change the window style i could find the code in "C" language How can i use the snippet below in my c# application, so that i can hide the Title Bar of external application ? I have not used "C" before.. //Finds a window by class name [DllImport("USER32.DLL")] public static extern IntPtr FindWindow(string lpClassName, string lpWindowName); //Sets a window to be a child window of another window [DllImport("USER32.DLL")] public static extern IntPtr SetParent(IntPtr hWndChild, IntPtr hWndNewParent); //Sets window attributes [DllImport("USER32.DLL")] public static extern int SetWindowLong(IntPtr hWnd, int nIndex, int dwNewLong); //Gets window attributes [DllImport("USER32.DLL")] public static extern int GetWindowLong(IntPtr hWnd, int nIndex); //assorted constants needed public static int GWL_STYLE = -16; public static int WS_CHILD = 0x40000000; //child window public static int WS_BORDER = 0x00800000; //window with border public static int WS_DLGFRAME = 0x00400000; //window with double border but no title public static int WS_CAPTION= WS_BORDER | WS_DLGFRAME; //window with a title bar /* This function sets the parent of the window with class ClassClass to the form/control the method is in. */ public void Reparent() { //get handle of parent form (.net property) IntPtr par = this.Handle; //get handle of child form (win32) IntPtr child = FindWindow("ClassClass", null); //set parent of child form SetParent(child, par); //get current window style of child form int style = GetWindowLong(child, GWL_STYLE); //take current window style and remove WS_CAPTION from it SetWindowLong(child, GWL_STYLE, (style & ~WS_CAPTION)); }

  Read the article

• MKMapKit exception when using canShowCallout on annotation view

  - by Kendall Helmstetter Gelner

  I'm trying to use a pretty straightforward custom map annotation view and callout - the annotation view when I create it, just adds a UIImageView as a subview to itself. That works fine. However, when I call canShowCallout on the annotation view, An exception is thrown in MapKit immediately after returning the view. The end of the stack looks like: #0 0x94e964e6 in objc_exception_throw #1 0x01e26404 in -[MKOverlayView _addViewForAnnotation:] #2 0x01e22037 in -[MKOverlayView _addViewsForAnnotations:animated:] #3 0x01e1ddf9 in -[MKOverlayView showAddedAnnotationsAnimated:] #4 0x01df9c0e in -[MKMapView _showAddedAnnotationsAndRouteAnimated:] #5 0x01e0371a in -[MKMapView levelView:didLoadTile:] My viewForAnnotation is pretty simple: - (MKAnnotationView *)mapView:(MKMapView *)mapView viewForAnnotation:(id <MKAnnotation>)annotation { if ( ! [annotation isKindOfClass:[MyAnnotation class]] ) return nil; MyAnnotationView *useView = (MyAnnotationView *)[myMapView dequeueReusableAnnotationViewWithIdentifier:@"resuseview"]; if ( useView == nil ) { useView = [[[MyAnnotationView alloc] initWithAnnotation:annotation reuseIdentifier:@"resuseview"] autorelease]; useView.canShowCallout = YES; // if commented out view appears just fine } else { useView.annotation = annotation; } return useView; } As noted in the code, the annotation view works fine as is - until I add canShowCallout, then it crashes the first time the map gets the view.

  Read the article

• What is a fast way to set debugging code at a given line in a function?

  - by Josh O'Brien

  Preamble: R's trace() is a powerful debugging tool, allowing users to "insert debugging code at chosen places in any function". Unfortunately, using it from the command-line can be fairly laborious. As an artificial example, let's say I want to insert debugging code that will report the between-tick interval calculated by pretty.default(). I'd like to insert the code immediately after the value of delta is calculated, about four lines up from the bottom of the function definition. (Type pretty.default to see where I mean.) To indicate that line, I need to find which step in the code it corresponds to. The answer turns out to be step list(c(12, 3, 3)), which I zero in on by running through the following steps: as.list(body(pretty.default)) as.list(as.list(body(pretty.default))[[12]]) as.list(as.list(as.list(body(pretty.default))[[12]])[[3]]) as.list(as.list(as.list(body(pretty.default))[[12]])[[3]])[[3]] I can then insert debugging code like this: trace(what = 'pretty.default', tracer = quote(cat("\nThe value of delta is: ", delta, "\n\n")), at = list(c(12,3,3))) ## Try it a <- pretty(c(1, 7843)) b <- pretty(c(2, 23)) ## Clean up untrace('pretty.default') Questions: So here are my questions: Is there a way to print out a function (or a parsed version of it) with the lines nicely labeled by the steps to which they belong? Alternatively, is there another easier way, from the command line, to quickly set debugging code for a specific line within a function? Addendum: I used the pretty.default() example because it is reasonably tame, but with real/interesting functions, repeatedly using as.list() quickly gets tiresome and distracting. Here's an example: as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(body(# model.frame.default))[[26]])[[3]])[[2]])[[4]])[[3]])[[4]])[[4]])[[4]])[[3]]

  Read the article

• Rails Tableless Model

  - by mplacona

  I'm creating a tableless Rails model, and am a bit stuck on how I should use it. Basically I'm trying to create a little application using Feedzirra that scans a RSS feed every X seconds, and then sends me an email with only the updates. I'm actually trying to use it as an activerecord model, and although I can get it to work, it doesn't seem to "hold" data as expected. As an example, I have an initializer method that parses the feed for the first time. On the next requests, I would like to simply call the get_updates method, which according to feedzirra, is the existing object (created during the initialize) that gets updated with only the differences. I'm finding it really hard to understand how this all works, as the object created on the initialize method doesn't seem to persist across all the methods on the model. My code looks something like: def initialize feed parse here end def get_updates feedzirra update passing the feed object here end Not sure if this is the right way of doing it, but it all seems a bit confusing and not very clear. I could be over or under-doing here, but I'd like your opinion about this approach. Thanks in advance

  Read the article

• How to deserialize implementation classes in OSGi

  - by Daniel Schneller

  In an eRCP OSGi based application the user can push a button and go to a lock screen similar to that of Windows or Mac OS X. When this happens, the current state of the application is serialized to a file and control is handed over to the lock screen. In this mobile application memory is very tight, so we need to get rid of the original view/controller when the lock screen comes up. This works fine and we end up with a binary serialized file. Once the user logs back in, the file is read in again and the original state of the application restored. This works fine as well, except when the controller that was serialized contained a reference to an object which comes from a different bundle. In my concrete case the original controller (from bundle A) can call a web service and gets a result back. Nothing fancy, just some Strings and Numbers in a simple value holder class. However the controller only sees this as a Result interface; the actual runtime object (ResultImpl) is defined and created in a different bundle (bundle B, the webservice client implementation) and returned via a service call. When the deserialization now tries to thaw the controller from the file, it throws a ClassNotFound exception, complaining about not being able to deserialize the result object, because deserialization is called from bundle A, which cannot see the ResultImpl class from bundle B. Any ideas on how to work around that? The only thing I could come up with is to clone all the individual values into another object, defined in the controller's bundle, but this seems like quite a hassle.

  Read the article

• how could application installations/configurations be easier in linux? [closed]

  - by ajsie

  although you can do anything in linux it tends to require a lot of tweaking in config files and reading a lot of manuals/tutorials before you can have it running in your way. i know that it gets a lot easier by time, and the apt-get installations with ubuntu/debian is heading the right way. but how can linux be more userfriendly for us in the future? i thought that if more is automated like an IDE environment, eg. typing svn will give us all the commands and description about each command when you move between commands with your keyboard. that would be great. but that's just one example. another is the navigation in the terminal between folders. now you have to type a lot just to jump from/to different folders. would be great with some more automatization here too. i know that these extra features will slow down the server, but its 2010 now, and these features are not that heavy for the cpu, but makes it more userfriendly and encourage maintainance of a server, not frighten u off. what do you think about this? should/could we have more user friendly linux environment in servers, something that has annoyed you a lot? a lot of things are done in the unix way, but maybe we should reinvent the wheel in some areas, cause apparently, its so...repeatingly today and difficult to do easy tasks. it should be easier i think..

  Read the article

• Greasemonkey script not executed when unusual content loading is being used

  - by Sam Brightman

  I'm trying to write a Greasemonkey script for Facebook and having some trouble with the funky page/content loading that they do (I don't quite understand this - a lot of the links are actually just changing the GET, but I think they do some kind of server redirect to make the URL look the same to the browser too?). Essentially the only test required is putting a GM_log() on its own in the script. If you click around Facebook, even with facebook.com/* as the pattern, it is often not executed. Is there anything I can do, or is the idea of a "page load" fixed in Greasemonkey, and FB is "tricking" it into not running by using a single URL? If I try to do some basic content manipulation like this: GM.log("starting"); var GM_FB=new Object; GM_FB.birthdays = document.evaluate("//div[@class='UIUpcoming_Item']", document, null, XPathResult.UNORDERED_NODE_SNAPSHOT_TYPE, null); for (i = GM_FB.birthdays.snapshotLength - 1; i >= 0; i--) { if (GM_FB.birthdayRegex.test(GM_FB.birthdays.snapshotItem(i).innerHTML)) { GM_FB.birthdays.snapshotItem(i).setAttribute('style','font-weight: bold; background: #fffe88'); } } The result is that sometimes only a manual page refresh will make it work. Pulling up the Firebug console and forcing the code to run works fine. Note that this isn't due to late loading of certain parts of the DOM: I have adding some code later to wait for the relevant elements and, crucially, the message never gets logged for certain transitions. For example, when I switch from Messages to News Feed and back.

  Read the article

• What's the most efficient query?

  - by Aaron Carlino

  I have a table named Projects that has the following relationships: has many Contributions has many Payments In my result set, I need the following aggregate values: Number of unique contributors (DonorID on the Contribution table) Total contributed (SUM of Amount on Contribution table) Total paid (SUM of PaymentAmount on Payment table) Because there are so many aggregate functions and multiple joins, it gets messy do use standard aggregate functions the the GROUP BY clause. I also need the ability to sort and filter these fields. So I've come up with two options: Using subqueries: SELECT Project.ID AS PROJECT_ID, (SELECT SUM(PaymentAmount) FROM Payment WHERE ProjectID = PROJECT_ID) AS TotalPaidBack, (SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT DonorID) FROM Contribution WHERE RecipientID = PROJECT_ID) AS ContributorCount, (SELECT SUM(Amount) FROM Contribution WHERE RecipientID = PROJECT_ID) AS TotalReceived FROM Project; Using a temporary table: DROP TABLE IF EXISTS Project_Temp; CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE Project_Temp (project_id INT NOT NULL, total_payments INT, total_donors INT, total_received INT, PRIMARY KEY(project_id)) ENGINE=MEMORY; INSERT INTO Project_Temp (project_id,total_payments) SELECT `Project`.ID, IFNULL(SUM(PaymentAmount),0) FROM `Project` LEFT JOIN `Payment` ON ProjectID = `Project`.ID GROUP BY 1; INSERT INTO Project_Temp (project_id,total_donors,total_received) SELECT `Project`.ID, IFNULL(COUNT(DISTINCT DonorID),0), IFNULL(SUM(Amount),0) FROM `Project` LEFT JOIN `Contribution` ON RecipientID = `Project`.ID GROUP BY 1 ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE total_donors = VALUES(total_donors), total_received = VALUES(total_received); SELECT * FROM Project_Temp; Tests for both are pretty comparable, in the 0.7 - 0.8 seconds range with 1,000 rows. But I'm really concerned about scalability, and I don't want to have to re-engineer everything as my tables grow. What's the best approach?

  Read the article

• Reverse mapping from a table to a model in SQLAlchemy

  - by Jace

  To provide an activity log in my SQLAlchemy-based app, I have a model like this: class ActivityLog(Base): __tablename__ = 'activitylog' id = Column(Integer, primary_key=True) activity_by_id = Column(Integer, ForeignKey('users.id'), nullable=False) activity_by = relation(User, primaryjoin=activity_by_id == User.id) activity_at = Column(DateTime, default=datetime.utcnow, nullable=False) activity_type = Column(SmallInteger, nullable=False) target_table = Column(Unicode(20), nullable=False) target_id = Column(Integer, nullable=False) target_title = Column(Unicode(255), nullable=False) The log contains entries for multiple tables, so I can't use ForeignKey relations. Log entries are made like this: doc = Document(name=u'mydoc', title=u'My Test Document', created_by=user, edited_by=user) session.add(doc) session.flush() # See note below log = ActivityLog(activity_by=user, activity_type=ACTIVITY_ADD, target_table=Document.__table__.name, target_id=doc.id, target_title=doc.title) session.add(log) This leaves me with three problems: I have to flush the session before my doc object gets an id. If I had used a ForeignKey column and a relation mapper, I could have simply called ActivityLog(target=doc) and let SQLAlchemy do the work. Is there any way to work around needing to flush by hand? The target_table parameter is too verbose. I suppose I could solve this with a target property setter in ActivityLog that automatically retrieves the table name and id from a given instance. Biggest of all, I'm not sure how to retrieve a model instance from the database. Given an ActivityLog instance log, calling self.session.query(log.target_table).get(log.target_id) does not work, as query() expects a model as parameter. One workaround appears to be to use polymorphism and derive all my models from a base model which ActivityLog recognises. Something like this: class Entity(Base): __tablename__ = 'entities' id = Column(Integer, primary_key=True) title = Column(Unicode(255), nullable=False) edited_at = Column(DateTime, onupdate=datetime.utcnow, nullable=False) entity_type = Column(Unicode(20), nullable=False) __mapper_args__ = {'polymorphic_on': entity_type} class Document(Entity): __tablename__ = 'documents' __mapper_args__ = {'polymorphic_identity': 'document'} body = Column(UnicodeText, nullable=False) class ActivityLog(Base): __tablename__ = 'activitylog' id = Column(Integer, primary_key=True) ... target_id = Column(Integer, ForeignKey('entities.id'), nullable=False) target = relation(Entity) If I do this, ActivityLog(...).target will give me a Document instance when it refers to a Document, but I'm not sure it's worth the overhead of having two tables for everything. Should I go ahead and do it this way?

  Read the article

• Multiple UIWebViewNavigationTypeBackForward not only false but make inferring the actual url impossi

  - by SG1

  I have a UIWebView and a UITextField for the url. Naturally, I want the textField to always show the current document url. This works fine for urls directly input in the field, but I also have some buttons attached to the view for reload, back, and forward. So I've added all the UIWebViewDelegate methods to my controller, so it can listen to whenever the webView navigates and change the url in the textField as needed. Here's how I'm using the shouldStartLoadWithRequest: method: - (BOOL)webView:(UIWebView *)webView shouldStartLoadWithRequest:(NSURLRequest *)request navigationType:(UIWebViewNavigationType)navigationType { NSLog(@"navigated via %d", navigationType); //loads the user cares about if ( navigationType == UIWebViewNavigationTypeLinkClicked || navigationType == UIWebViewNavigationTypeBackForward ) { //URL setting [self setUrlQuietly:request.URL]; } return YES; } Now, my problem here is that an actual click will generate a single navigation of type "LinkClicked" followed by a dozen type "Other" (redirects and ad loads I assume), which gets handled correctly by the code, but a back/forward action will generate all its requests as back/forward requests. In other words, a click calls setUrlQuietly: once, but a back/forward calls it multiple times. I am trying to use this method to determine if the user actually initiated the action (and I'd like to catch page redirects too). But if the method has no way of distinguishing between an actual "back" and a "load initiated as a result of a back", how can I make this assessment? Without this, I am completely stumped as to how I can only show the actual url and not intermediate urls. Thank you!

  Read the article

• php OOP function declarations

  - by kris

  I'm a big fan of OOP in php, but i feel like defining class methods gets disorganized so fast. I have a pretty good background in OOP in C++, and i am pretty comfortable with how it is handled there, and am curious if there are ways to do it similarly in php. To be more specific, here is what i mean. I like how in C++ you can define a class header (myclass.h) and then define the actual details of the functions in the implementation file (myclass.cc). Ive found that this can easily be replicated using interfaces in php, but i havent found a good solution for the following: I like to organize my code in C++ in different files based on how they are accessed, so for example, public methods that can be called outside of the class would be in 1 place, and private methods would be organized somewhere else - this is personal preference. Ive tried to define class methods in php like: private function MyPHPClass::myFunction(){ } when the definition isnt directly inside the class block( { } ), but i havent had any success doing this. Ive been through all of the pages on php.net, but couldnt find anything like this. Im assuming that there is no support for something like this, but thought i would ask anyway. thanks

  Read the article

• jQuery AJAX with two domains

  - by Andrew Burns

  OK here is the situation: I have an externally hosted CMS which works great for 99% of our needs. However on the more advanced things I inject my own CSS+JS and do magic. The problem I am running into is loading a simple HTML page from jQuery.ajax() calls. It appears to work in the sense that no warnings or errors are thrown; however in my success handler (which IS ran), the response is blank! I have been scratching my head for the whole morning trying to figure this out and the only thing I can think of is that is has something to do with the cross domain issue (even though it appears to work). Injected JavaScript: $(document).ready(function() { doui(); }); function doui() { $.ajax({ url: 'http://apps.natronacounty-wy.gov/css/feecalc/ui.htm', cache: false, success: ajax_createUI, charset: "utf-8", error: function(e) { alert(e); } }); } function ajax_createUI(data, textStatus) { alert(data); $("#ajax-content").html(data); } My ajax_createUI() success handler is called and textStatus is "success"; however data is empty. This JS file resides @ http://apps.natronacounty-wy.gov/css/js/feecalc.js however the CMS website (which gets the JS injected into it) resides @ http://www.natronacounty-wy.gov/ Am I just being stupid or is it a bug that it looks like it should be working but isn't?

  Read the article

• Accessing global variable in multithreaded Tomcat server

  - by jwegan

  I have a singleton object that I construct like thus: private static volatile KeyMapper mapper = null; public static KeyMapper getMapper() { if(mapper == null) { synchronized(Utils.class) { if(mapper == null) { mapper = new LocalMemoryMapper(); } } } return mapper; } The class KeyMapper is basically a synchronized wrapper to HashMap with only two functions, one to add a mapping and one to remove a mapping. When running in Tomcat 6.24 on my 32bit Windows machine everything works fine. However when running on a 64 bit Linux machine (CentOS 5.4 with OpenJDK 1.6.0-b09) I add one mapping and print out the size of the HashMap used by KeyMapper to verify the mapping got added (i.e. verify size = 1). Then I try to retrieve the mapping with another request and I keep getting null and when I checked the size of the HashMap it was 0. I'm confident the mapping isn't accidentally being removed since I've commented out all calls to remove (and I don't use clear or any other mutators, just get and put). The requests are going through Tomcat 6.24 (configured to use 200 threads with a minimum of 4 threads) and I passed -Xnoclassgc to the jvm to ensure the class isn't inadvertently getting garbage collected (jvm is also running in -server mode). I also added a finalize method to KeyMapper to print to stderr if it ever gets garbage collected to verify that it wasn't being garbage collected. I'm at my wits end and I can't figure out why one minute the entry in HashMap is there and the next it isn't :(

  Read the article

• How frequently IP packets are fragmented at the source host?

  - by Methos

  I know that if IP payload MTU then routers usually fragment the IP packet. Finally all the fragmented packets are assembled at the destination using the fields IP-ID, IP fragment offsets and fragmentation flags. Max length of IP payload is 64K. Thus its very plausible for L4 to hand over payload which is 64K. If the L2 protocol is Ethernet, which often is the case, then the MTU will be about 1600 bytes. Hence IP packet will be fragmented at the source host itself. However, a quick search about IP implementation in Linux tells me that in recent kernels, L4 protocols are fragment friendly i.e. they try to save the fragmentation work for IP by handing over buffers of size which is close to MTU. Considering these two facts, I am wondering about how frequently does the IP packet gets fragmented at the source host itself. Does it occur sometimes/rarely/never? Does anyone know if there are exceptions to the rule of fragmentation in linux kernel (i.e. are there situations where L4 protocols are not fragment friendly)? How is this handled in other common OSes like windows? In general how frequently IP packets are fragmented?

  Read the article

• javascript - rollover effect on overlapping transparent images

  - by user427969

  I want to add rollover effect on overlapping transparent images. For example: The following image is divided into 5 parts and I want to add rollover effect (different image) on each of them When O tried with div or img tag, the image is rendered as a rectangle so rollover effect is not proper. When i rollover on green part between yellow, the yellow image gets highlighted because its z-index is high. Following is the code that I tried: <body> <br /> <img src="part1.png" onclick="console.log('test1');"/> <img src="part2.png" onclick="console.log('test2');" style="position:absolute; left:30px; top: 19px;"/> <img src="part3.png" onclick="console.log('test3');" style="position:absolute; left:70px; top: 15px;"/> <img src="part4.png" onclick="console.log('test4');" style="position:absolute; left:95px; top: 16px;"/> <img src="part5.png" onclick="console.log('test5');" style="position:absolute; left:123px; top: 24px;"/> </body> images = , , , , I don't want to use jQuery, if possible.

  Read the article

• HTML Submit button vs AJAX based Post (ASP.NET MVC)

  - by Graham

  I'm after some design advice. I'm working on an application with a fellow developer. I'm from the Webforms world and he's done a lot with jQuery and AJAX stuff. We're collaborating on a new ASP.MVC 1.0 app. He's done some pretty amazing stuff that I'm just getting my head around, and used some 3rd party tools etc. for datagrids etc. but... He rarely uses Submit buttons whereas I use them most of the time. He uses a button but then attaches Javascript to it that calls an MVC action which returns a JSON object. He then parses the object to update the datagrid. I'm not sure how he deals with server-side validation - I think he adds a message property to the JSON object. A sample scenario would be to "Save" a new record that then gets added to the gridview. The user doesn't see a postback as such, so he uses jQuery to disable the UI whilst the controller action is running. TBH, it looks pretty cool. However, the way I'd do it would be to use a Submit button to postback, let the ModelBinder populate a typed model class, parse that in my controller Action method, update the model (and apply any validation against the model), update it with the new record, then send it back to be rendered by the View. Unlike him, I don't return a JSON object, I let the View (and datagrid) bind to the new model data. Both solutions "work" but we're obviously taking the application down different paths so one of us has to re-work our code... and we don't mind whose has to be done. What I'd prefer though is that we adopt the "industry-standard" way of doing this. I'm unsure as to whether my WebForms background is influencing the fact that his way just "doesn't feel right", in that a "submit" is meant to submit data to the server. Any advice at all please - many thanks.

  Read the article

• Optimize a MySQL count each duplicate Query

  - by Onema

  I have the following query That gets the city name, city id, the region name, and a count of duplicate names for that record: SELECT Country_CA.City AS currentCity, Country_CA.CityID, globe_region.region_name, ( SELECT count(Country_CA.City) FROM Country_CA WHERE City LIKE currentCity ) as counter FROM Country_CA LEFT JOIN globe_region ON globe_region.region_id = Country_CA.RegionID AND globe_region.country_code = Country_CA.CountryCode ORDER BY City This example is for Canada, and the cities will be displayed on a dropdown list. There are a few towns in Canada, and in other countries, that have the same names. Therefore I want to know if there is more than one town with the same name region name will be appended to the town name. Region names are found in the globe_region table. Country_CA and globe_region look similar to this (I have changed a few things for visualization purposes) CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `Country_CA` ( `City` varchar(75) NOT NULL DEFAULT '', `RegionID` varchar(10) NOT NULL DEFAULT '', `CountryCode` varchar(10) NOT NULL DEFAULT '', `CityID` int(11) NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', PRIMARY KEY (`City`,`RegionID`), KEY `CityID` (`CityID`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8; AND CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `globe_region` ( `country_code` char(2) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci NOT NULL, `region_code` char(2) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci NOT NULL, `region_name` varchar(50) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`country_code`,`region_code`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 COLLATE=utf8_unicode_ci; The query on the top does exactly what I want it to do, but It takes way too long to generate a list for 5000 records. I would like to know if there is a way to optimize the sub-query in order to obtain the same results faster. the results should look like this City CityID region_name counter sheraton 2349269 British Columbia 1 sherbrooke 2349270 Quebec 2 sherbrooke 2349271 Nova Scotia 2 shere 2349273 British Columbia 1 sherridon 2349274 Manitoba 1

  Read the article

• Reduce function calls

  - by Curious2learn

  Hello, I profiled my python program and found that the following function was taking too long to run. Perhaps, I can use a different algorithm and make it run faster. However, I have read that I can also possibly increase the speed by reducing function calls, especially when it gets called repeatedly within a loop. I am a python newbie and would like to learn how to do this and see how much faster it can get. Currently, the function is: def potentialActualBuyers(setOfPeople,theCar,price): count=0 for person in setOfPeople: if person.getUtility(theCar) >= price and person.periodCarPurchased==None: count += 1 return count where setOfPeople is a list of person objects. I tried the following: def potentialActualBuyers(setOfPeople,theCar,price): count=0 Utility=person.getUtility for person in setOfPeople: if Utility(theCar) >= price and person.periodCarPurchased==None: count += 1 return count This, however, gives me an error saying local variable 'person' referenced before assignment Any suggestions, how I can reduce function calls or any other changes that can make the code faster. Again, I am a python newbie and even though I may possibly be able to use a better algorithm, it is still worthwhile learning the answer to the above question. Thanks very much.

  Read the article

• Graphical glitches when adding cells and scrolling with UITableView

  - by Daniel I-S

  I am using a UITableView to display the results of a series of calculations. When the user hits 'calculate', I wish to add the latest result to the screen. This is done by adding a new cell to a 'results' section. The UITableViewCell object is added to an array, and then I use the following code to add this new row to what is displayed on the screen: [thisView beginUpdates]; [thisView insertRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:newIndexPath] withRowAnimation: UITableViewRowAnimationFade]; [thisView endUpdates]; This results in the new cell being displayed. However, I then want to immediately scroll the screen down so that the new cell is the lowermost cell on-screen. I use the following code: [thisView scrollToRowAtIndexPath:newIndexPath atScrollPosition:UITableViewScrollPositionBottom animated:YES]; This almost works great. However, the first time a cell is added and scrolled to, it appears onscreen only briefly before vanishing. The view scrolls down to the correct place, but the cell is not there. Scrolling the view by hand until this invisible new cell's position is offscreen, then back again, causes the cell to appear - after which it behaves normally. This only happens the first time a cell is added; subsequent cells don't have this problem. It also happens regardless of the combination of scrollToRowAtIndexPath and insertRowsAtIndexPath animation settings. There is also a problem where, if new cells are added repeatedly and quickly, the new cells stop 'connecting up'. The lowermost cell in a group is supposed to have rounded corners, and when a new cell is added these turn into square corners so that there is a clean join with the next cell in the group. In this case, however, a cell often does not lose its rounded edges despite not being the last cell anymore. This also gets corrected once the affected area moves offscreen and back. This method of adding and scrolling would be perfect for my application if it weren't for these weird glitches. Any ideas as to what I may be doing wrong?

  Read the article

• Building asynchronous cache pattern with JSP

  - by merweirdo

  I have a JSP that will take some 8 minutes to render. The code logic itself can not be made more efficient (it will update often and be updated by basically a pointy haired boss). I tried wrapping it with a caching layer like <%@ taglib uri="/WEB-INF/classes/oscache.tld" prefix="oscache" %> <oscache:cache time="60"> <div class="pagecontent"> ..... my logic </div> </oscache:cache> This is nice until the 60 seconds is over. The next query after that blocks until the 8 minutes of rendering is done with again. I would need a way to build a pattern something like: If there is no version of the dynamic content in the cache run the actual logic (and populate the cache for subsequent requests) If there is a non-expired version of the dynamic content in the cache serve the output of the JSP logic from the cache If there is an expired version of the dynamic content in the cache serve the output of the JSP logic still from the cache AND run the JSP logic in the background so that the cache gets updated transparently to the user - avoiding the user have to wait for 8 minutes I found out that at least EHCache might be able to do some asynchronous cache updating but it did not sadly seem to apply to the JSP tags... Also I have to take in 10-20 parameters for the actual logic of the JSP and some of them should be used as a key for caching. Code example and/or pointers would be greatly appreciated. I do not frankly care if the solution provided is extremely ugly. I just want a simple 5 minute caching with asynchronous cache update taking into account some parameters as a key.

  Read the article

• This web site needs a different Google Maps API key. A new key can be generated at http://code.googl

  - by MJI

  I'm not a developer. I have no domain, nor wish to have one at the time. Rather I'm just a regular person who likes to upload photos to some photo related sites. My uploading process constantly gets interrupted by one of these annoying API errors. I get it at least two times, one when I click the page to upload, and also right after it has uploaded. It also pops up if I go to edit a photo or delete it. This interrupts my browsing experience until I click okay. I just want a fix for the annoying without having to register for a key. I tried before and it required a web domain. I rather not have to create a domain and go through such hoops just to fix this. Is there a solution for this problem that doesn't require registration? Another thing to note: I have used two computers. One has the message pop-up and the other doesn't. What is different about the two computers?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 367 368 369 370 371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378  | Next Page >