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  • Having trouble hiding keyboard using invisible button which sits on top of uiscrollview

    - by phil
    I have 3 items in play... 1) UIView sits at the base of the hierarchy and contains the UIScrollview. 2) UIScrollview that is presenting a lengthy user form. 3) An invisible button on the UIScrollview that I'm using to provide "hide the keyboard" features. Notice in the code below that I'm registering to be notified when the keyboard is going to appear and again when it's going to disappear. These are working great. My problem is seemingly one of "layers". See below where I insert the button into the view atIndex:0. This causes the button to be activated and "stuffed" behind the scrollview so that when you click on it, the scrollview grabs the touch and the button is unaware. There is no way to "reach" the button and suppress the keyboard. However, if I insert atIndex:1, the button gets super imposed on top of the text entry fields and so any touch at all is acted upon by the button, which immediately suppresses the keyboard and then disappears. How do I insert the button on top of the UIScrollview but behind the UITextfields that sit there? other logistics: I have a -(void) hidekeyboard function that I have setup with the UIButtion as an IBAction(). And I have the UIButton connected to "files owner" via a ctrl-drag/drop. (Do I need both of those conventions?) This code in ViewDidLoad()... [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserverForName:UIKeyboardWillShowNotification object:nil queue:nil usingBlock:^(NSNotification *notification){ [self.view insertSubview:self.keyboardDismissalButton atIndex:0]; }];

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  • C++ socket concurrent server

    - by gregpi
    Hi all; Im writing a concurrent server that's supposed to have a communication channel and a data channel. The client initially connect to the communication channel to authenticate, upon successful authentication, the client is then connected to the data channel to access data. My program is already doing that, and im using threads.My only issue is that if I try to connect another client, I get a "cannot bind : address already in use" error. I have it this way: PART A Client connect to port 4567 (and enter his login info). A thread spawn to handle the client(repeated for each client that connects). In the thread created, I have a function(let's call it FUNC_A) that checks the client's login info(dont worry about how the check is done), if successful, the thread starts the data server(listening on 8976) then sends an OK to the client, once received the client attempts to connect to the data server. PART B Once a client connect to the data server, from inside FUNC_A the client is accepted and another thread is spawn to handle the client's connection to the data server.(hopefully everything is clear). Now, all that is working fine. However, if I try to connect with second client when it gets to PART B I get a "cannot bind error: address already in use". I've tried so many different ways, I've even tried spawning a thread to start the data server and accept the client and then start another thread to handle that connection. still no luck. Please give me a suggestion as to what I'm doing wrong, how do I go about doing this or what's the best way to implement it. Thank you

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  • JSP:Include not rendering the page correctly

    - by sreekanth
    am having trouble with including a jsp page with tag. This is what is happening. I making changes to a portlet application running on Websphere 7 server. This is the hierarchy of the jsp pages. blankPage.jsp --bookingViewTabs.jsp -- availableRooms.jsp meaning blankPage is included in bookingViewTabs which is inturn included in availableRooms.jsp I have 2 problems with this. (1). The blankPage.jsp does not render correctly on the screen. It gets cutoff (2). The other is in blankPage.jsp there is a form called "guestProfileSearchResultsFormId". this form has several hidden fields for data. example, "guestId" which is a child of that form and can be accessed formname.fieldname, but when i include that page into another jsp as the first include(there are several includes on the page) under the another form tag, the form field is not being rendered as a child of the form, but as a sibling of the form. If i change the order and include some other page and include this, it is working as it is supposed to have. meaning with children intact. I don't understand this behavior. I HAVE ATTACHED A GIF IMAGE OF WHAT I SEE ON THE BROWSER Any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance

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  • How do I set Perl's @INC for a CGI script?

    - by pistacchio
    I have the follwing, simplest Perl CGI script: use strict; use warnings; use CGI(); use CGI::Carp qw(fatalsToBrowser); use Template; print CGI::header(); foreach(@INC) { print "$_\n"; } When called (http://[..]/cgi-bin/p.cgi) I am given the following error: Can't locate Template.pm in @INC (@INC contains: /usr/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.8/i386-linux-thread-multi /usr/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.8 /usr/lib/perl5/site_perl /usr/lib/perl5/vendor_perl/5.8.8/i386-linux-thread-multi /usr/lib/perl5/vendor_perl/5.8.8 /usr/lib/perl5/vendor_perl /usr/lib/perl5/5.8.8/i386-linux-thread-multi /usr/lib/perl5/5.8.8 .) at /home/pistacchio/webapps/htdocs/cgi-bin/p.cgi line 8. BEGIN failed--compilation aborted at /home/pistacchio/webapps/htdocs/cgi-bin/p.cgi line 8. I made sure that Template is installed and indeed when running this program from shell it works (loads Template) and outputs: Content-Type: text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1 /home/pistacchio/lib/perl5 /home/pistacchio/lib/perl5/lib/i386-linux-thread-multi /home/pistacchio/lib/perl5/lib /home/pistacchio/lib/perl5/lib/i386-linux-thread-multi /usr/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.8/i386-linux-thread-multi /usr/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.8 /usr/lib/perl5/site_perl /usr/lib/perl5/vendor_perl/5.8.8/i386-linux-thread-multi /usr/lib/perl5/vendor_perl/5.8.8 /usr/lib/perl5/vendor_perl /usr/lib/perl5/5.8.8/i386-linux-thread-multi /usr/lib/perl5/5.8.8 Template is installed in /home/pistacchio/lib/perl5/lib/i386-linux-thread-multi [pistacchio@web118 i386-linux-thread-multi]$ pwd /home/pistacchio/lib/perl5/lib/i386-linux-thread-multi [pistacchio@web118 i386-linux-thread-multi]$ ls auto perllocal.pod Template Template.pm This directory is correctly listed in env and, as previously posted, in @INC. In @INC it is shown twice, so I even tried to pop it out before calling use Template, but without result. From env: [pistacchio@web118 i386-linux-thread-multi]$ env [..] PERL5LIB=/home/pistacchio/lib/perl5:/home/pistacchio/lib/perl5/lib:/home/pistacchio/lib/perl5/lib/i386-linux-thread-multi [..] Removing use Template gets rid of the problem.

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  • ASP.net MVC Routing on Postback

    - by Mark Kadlec
    In my ASP.net MVC View I have a dropdown that I want to get details on selection and asynchronously update a div. My aspx is as follows: <% using (Html.BeginForm("Index", "Portal", FormMethod.Post, new { id = "TheForm" })) {%> <h2>Index</h2> <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("Details", new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "mpkResults" })) { %> <%=Html.DropDownList("Docs", (IEnumerable<SelectListItem>)ViewData["Docs"], new { onchange = "document.getElementById('TheForm').submit();" })%> <p><input type="submit" value="Details" /></p> <% } %> <div id="mpkResults" style="margin:10px 0px 0px 0px;"></div> ... The onchange event fires correctly on selection of the dropdown, but instead of the Details method in my code behind firing, it hits my Index method. Why is the details method not getting hit on the onchange event? My Details() method in the controller is: public ActionResult Details() { ... < It never gets here, just goes to the index() method } It's a little frustrating right now since I'm sure it is a simple mistake but not sure what it could be. I looked at the Source of my page and sure enough, the form looks like it should be routing to the Details Action: <form action="/Portal/Details" method="post" ... Any help would be appreciated.

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  • When does the call() method get called in a Java Executor using Callable objects?

    - by MalcomTucker
    This is some sample code from an example. What I need to know is when call() gets called on the callable? What triggers it? public class CallableExample { public static class WordLengthCallable implements Callable { private String word; public WordLengthCallable(String word) { this.word = word; } public Integer call() { return Integer.valueOf(word.length()); } } public static void main(String args[]) throws Exception { ExecutorService pool = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(3); Set<Future<Integer>> set = new HashSet<Future<Integer>>(); for (String word: args) { Callable<Integer> callable = new WordLengthCallable(word); Future<Integer> future = pool.submit(callable); //**DOES THIS CALL call()?** set.add(future); } int sum = 0; for (Future<Integer> future : set) { sum += future.get();//**OR DOES THIS CALL call()?** } System.out.printf("The sum of lengths is %s%n", sum); System.exit(sum); } }

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  • Deal with undefined values in code or in the template?

    - by David
    I'm writing a web application (in Python, not that it matters). One of the features is that people can leave comments on things. I have a class for comments, basically like so: class Comment: user = ... # other stuff where user is an instance of another class, class User: name = ... # other stuff And of course in my template, I have <div>${comment.user.name}</div> Problem: Let's say I allow people to post comments anonymously. In that case comment.user is None (undefined), and of course accessing comment.user.name is going to raise an error. What's the best way to deal with that? I see three possibilities: Use a conditional in the template to test for that case and display something different. This is the most versatile solution, since I can change the way anonymous comments are displayed to, say, "Posted anonymously" (instead of "Posted by ..."), but I've often been told that templates should be mindless display machines and not include logic like that. Also, other people might wind up writing alternate templates for the same application, and I feel like I should be making things as easy as possible for the template writer. Implement an accessor method for the user property of a Comment that returns a dummy user object when the real user is undefined. This dummy object would have user.name = 'Anonymous' or something like that and so the template could access it and print its name with no error. Put an actual record in my database corresponding to a user with user.name = Anonymous (or something like that), and just assign that user to any comment posted when nobody's logged in. I know I've seen some real-world systems that operate this way. (phpBB?) Is there a prevailing wisdom among people who write these sorts of systems about which of these (or some other solution) is the best? Any pitfalls I should watch out for if I go one way vs. another? Whoever gives the best explanation gets the checkmark.

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  • Identity.Name is disposed in a IIS7 Asp.NET MVC application Thread

    - by vIceBerg
    I have made the smallest demo project to illustrate my problem. You can download the sources Here Visual Studio 2008, .NET 3.5, IIS7, Windows 7 Ultimate 32 bits. The IIS Website is configured ONLY for Windows Authentication in an Integreated pipeline app pool (DefaultAppPool). Here's the problem. I have an Asp.NET MVC 2 application. In an action, I start a thread. The View returns. The thread is doing it's job... but it needs to access Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name BANG The worker process of IIS7 stops. I have a window that says: "Visual Studio Just-In-Time Debugger An unhandled exception ('System.Object.DisposedException') occured in w3wp.exe [5524]" I checked with the debugger and the Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity is valid, but the Name property is disposed. If I put a long wait in the action before it returns the view, then the Thread can do it's job and the Identity.Name is not disposed. So I think the Name gets disposed when the view is returned. For the sake of the discussion, here's the code that the thread runs (but you can also download the demo project. The link is on top of this post): private void Run() { const int SECTOWAIT = 3; //wait SECTOWAIT seconds long end = DateTime.Now.Ticks + (TimeSpan.TicksPerSecond * SECTOWAIT); while (DateTime.Now.Ticks <= end) continue; //Check the currentprincipal. BANG!!!!!!!!!!!!! var userName = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; } Here's the code that starts the thread public void Start() { Thread thread = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(ThreadProc)); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.MTA); thread.Name = "TestThread"; thread.Start(this); } static void ThreadProc(object o) { try { Builder builder = (Builder)o; builder.Run(); } catch (Exception ex) { throw; } } So... what am i doing wrong? Thanks

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  • Refresh table after using jQuery .append()

    - by Aaron Salazar
    The following code gets a JSON object and then spits its contents out into a <table>. The first time I do it I get my JSON content just fine. However, when I refresh, the refreshed data is stuck onto the bottom of my table. How do I refresh the data to show the new data only? I tried using .remove() but there was an obvious deleting and then a refresh of data. $(function() { $('#ReportedIssue').change(function() { //$('.data').remove() $.getJSON('/CurReport/GetUpdatedTableResults', function(json) { for (var i = 0; i < json.GetDocumentResults.length; i++) { $('#DocumentInfoTable').append( "<tr class='data'>" + "<td>" + json.GetDocumentResults[i].Document.DocumentId + "</td>" + "<td>" + json.GetDocumentResults[i].Document.LanguageCode + "</td>" + "<td>" + json.GetDocumentResults[i].ReportedIssue + "</td>" + "<td>" + json.GetDocumentResults[i].PageNumber + "</td>" + "</tr>" ); }; }); }); }); Thank you, Aaron

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  • Structure's with strings and input

    - by Beginnernato
    so i have the following structure and function that add's things to the function - struct scoreentry_node { struct scoreentry_node *next; int score; char* name; } ; typedef struct scoreentry_node *score_entry; score_entry add(int in, char* n, score_entry en) { score_entry r = malloc(sizeof(struct scoreentry_node)); r->score = in; r->name = n; r->next = en; return r; } i have input that take it in the following main file: int score; char name[]; int main(void) { score_entry readin = NULL; while(1) { scanf("%s%d", name, &score); readin = add(score, name, readin); // blah blah I dont know why but when input a name it gets added to readin, but when i input another name all the name's in readin have this new name for example: input: bob 10 readin = 10 bob NULL jill 20 readin = 20 jill 10 jill NULL I dont know why bob disappear's... any reason why it does that ?

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  • jQuery when div is clicked update input field issue

    - by stogdilla
    Hello, I'm rather new to jquery so this may be the issue. I have a script that outputs several divs all with different text data in them. I would like it when I click one of them that an input field's value is updated to that text currently I have: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("a.results]").click(function() { data= this.text(); $("#updateme").val(data); }); }); </script> <p> <label>Field <input type="text" name="updateme" id="updateme"> </label> </p> <a href="#" class="results">Florida</a> <a href="#" class="results">Florida 2</a> <a href="#" class="results">Florida 3</a> How can I make it so that whatever link is clicked that is the data that gets updated into the input's value? I can get it to take one or I can script out different cases of each changing the class name but I think there has to be a way where it references whatever link is being clicked instead of what it's currently doing. Thanks in advance!

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  • mysql image disable print download

    - by Vish
    Hi, We use a Flex AIR client and a WAMP server. Tiff images are stored in MySQL. Currently, I can download the image from AIR client and it prompts for a download dialog. Things are fine till this point. We got a new requirement. Requirement is that only some users can print the image which gets downloaded. For other users, they should not be able to print the tiff image. Wondering how to accomplish this. One idea, not sure if its efficient, is to convert the image requested to pdf at the server side, disable print option there(hope there are API's available) and send back the pdf. Please let me know btter ideas. Also, is there a way to prevent file download dialog from popping up everytime the file is requested for download? Can we just get the file stream to the client and manipulate it to open with a particular viewer or write it to pdf... Please help.

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  • Drag Drop copy file

    - by Graham Warrender
    I've perhaps done something marginally stupid, but can't see what it is!! string pegasusKey = @"HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Pegasus\"; string opera2ServerPath = @"Server VFP\"; string opera3ServerPath = @"O3 Client VFP\"; string opera2InstallationPath = null; string opera3InstallationPath = null; //Gets the opera Installtion paths and reads to the string opera*InstallationPath opera2InstallationPath = (string)Registry.GetValue(pegasusKey + opera2ServerPath + "System", "PathToServerDynamic", null); opera3InstallationPath = (string)Registry.GetValue(pegasusKey + opera3ServerPath + "System", "PathToServerDynamic", null); string Filesource = null; string[] FileList = (string[])e.Data.GetData(DataFormats.FileDrop, false); foreach (string File in FileList) Filesource = File; label.Text = Filesource; if (System.IO.Directory.Exists(opera3InstallationPath)) { System.IO.File.Copy(Filesource, opera3InstallationPath); MessageBox.Show("File Copied from" + Filesource + "\n to" + opera3InstallationPath); } else { MessageBox.Show("Directory Doesn't Exist"); } The user drags the file onto the window, I then get the installation path of an application which is then used as the destination for the source file.. When the application is runs, it throws the error directory not found. But surely if the directory doesn't exists is should step into the else statement? a simple application that is becoming a headache!!

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  • ASP.NET MVC Unit Testing Controllers - Repositories

    - by Brian McCord
    This is more of an opinion seeking question, so there may not be a "right" answer, but I would welcome arguments as to why your answer is the "right" one. Given an MVC application that is using Entity Framework for the persistence engine, a repository layer, a service layer that basically defers to the repository, and a delete method on a controller that looks like this: public ActionResult Delete(State model) { try { if( model == null ) { return View( model ); } _stateService.Delete( model ); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View( model ); } } I am looking for the proper way to Unit Test this. Currently, I have a fake repository that gets used in the service, and my unit test looks like this: [TestMethod] public void Delete_Post_Passes_With_State_4() { //Arrange var stateService = GetService(); var stateController = new StateController( stateService ); ViewResult result = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var model = (State)result.ViewData.Model; //Act RedirectToRouteResult redirectResult = stateController.Delete( model ) as RedirectToRouteResult; stateController = new StateController( stateService ); var newresult = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var newmodel = (State)newresult.ViewData.Model; //Assert Assert.AreEqual( redirectResult.RouteValues["action"], "Index" ); Assert.IsNull( newmodel ); } Is this overkill? Do I need to check to see if the record actually got deleted (as I already have Service and Repository tests that verify this)? Should I even use a fake repository here or would it make more sense just to mock the whole thing? The examples I'm looking at used this model of doing things, and I just copied it, but I'm really open to doing things in a "best practices" way. Thanks.

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  • Search engine recommendation for 100 sites of about 4000 pages

    - by fwkb
    I am looking for a search engine that can regularly (daily-ish) scan about 100 pages for changes and index an associated site if changes since the last scan are found. It should be able to handle about 100 sites, each averaging 4000 pages of about 5k average size, each on a different server (but only the one centralized search engine). Each of these sites will have a search form that gets submitted to this search engine. The results that are returned must be specific to the site that submitted them. I create the templates for the external sites, so I can give the search form a hidden field that specifies which site the form is submitted from. What would you recommend I look into? I would love to use a Python-based system for this, if feasible. I am currently using something called iSearch2. It doesn't seem very stable at this scale, the description of the product states it is not really intended to do multiple sites, is in PHP (which is less comfortable to me than Python), and has a few other shortcomings for my specific situation.

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  • Javascript Getting Objects to Fallback to One Another

    - by Ian
    Here's a ugly bit of Javascript it would be nice to find a workaround. Javascript has no classes, and that is a good thing. But it implements fallback between objects in a rather ugly way. The foundational construct should be to have one object that, when a property fails to be found, it falls back to another object. So if we want a to fall back to b we would want to do something like: a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; a.__fallback__ = b; then a.dock == 2; But, Javascript instead provides a new operator and prototypes. So we do the far less elegant: function A(sun) { this.sun = sun; }; A.prototype.dock = 2; a = new A(1); a.dock == 2; But aside from elegance, this is also strictly less powerful, because it means that anything created with A gets the same fallback object. What I would like to do is liberate Javascript from this artificial limitation and have the ability to give any individual object any other individual object as its fallback. That way I could keep the current behavior when it makes sense, but use object-level inheritance when that makes sense. My initial approach is to create a dummy constructor function: function setFallback(from_obj, to_obj) { from_obj.constructor = function () {}; from_obj.constructor.prototype = to_obj; } a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; setFallback(a, b); But unfortunately: a.dock == undefined; Any ideas why this doesn't work, or any solutions for an implementation of setFallback? (I'm running on V8, via node.js, in case this is platform dependent)

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  • Radiobutton in iphone

    - by Harita
    hi, i am using radio button image (empty circle) in button to answer the question from 3 options, and the 3 options are radio button's. i have created 3 uibuttons programmatically in tableview delegate method cellforrowatindexpath. i need when one button is selected(with filled circle image) other one if selected before gets unselected. i am using below code in button clicked method. static int _row; -(IBAction) optionClicked:(id)sender { UIButton *btn = (UIButton)sender; _row = btn.tag; if (btn.tag == 0) { if(btn1On) { [btnrad1 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"unfilled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn1On=FALSE; } else { [btnrad1 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"filled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn1On = TRUE; btn2On = FALSE; btn3On = FALSE; } } else if (btn.tag == 1) { if(btn2On) { [btnrad2 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"unfilled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn2On=FALSE; } else { [btnrad2 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"filled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn2On = TRUE; btn1On = FALSE; btn3On = FALSE; } } else if (btn.tag == 2) { if(btn3On) { [btnrad3 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"unfilled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn3On=FALSE; } else { [btnrad3 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"filled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn3On = TRUE; btn1On = FALSE; btn2On = FALSE; } } else { NSLog(@"Error"); } } above code is doing selection of button in another row. like i am selecting 1st option in 1st row but its is selecting 2nd row button. i don't know how to use _row to check for every cell of table view.

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  • How do I detect proximity of the mouse pointer to a line in Flex?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    I'm working on a charting UI in Flex. One of the features I want to implement is "snapping" of the mousepointer to the data points in the diagram. I. e., if the user hovers the mouse pointer over a line diagram and gets close to the data point, I want the pointer to move to the exact coordinates and show a marker, like this: Currently, the lines are drawn on a Shape, using the Graphics API. The Shape is a child DisplayObject of a custom UIComponent subclass with the exact same dimensions. This means, I already get mouseOver events on the parent of the diagram's canvas. Now I need a way to detect if the pointer is close to one of the data points. I. e. I need an answer to the question "Which data points lie within a radius of x pixels from my current position and which of them is closest?" upon each move of the mouse. I can think of the following possibilities: draw the lines not as simple lines in the graphics API, but as more advanced objects that can have their own mouseOver events. However, I want the snapping to trigger before the mouse is actually over the line. check the original data for possible candidates upon each mouse movement. Using binary search, I might be able to reduce the number of items I have to compare sufficently. prepare some kind of new data structure from the raw data that makes the above search more efficient. I don't know how that would look like. I'm guessing this is a pretty standard problem for a number of applications, but probably the actual code usually is inside of some framework. Is there anything I can read about this topic?

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  • AJAX AutoCompletExtender doesn't allow to move ahead of first item with arrow-key

    - by dharmbhav
    Hi, I am using an AJAX AutoCompleteExtender to display a list of suburbs-postcodes after the user presses 3 keys in the given textbox. The problem is that on the page, I can't move my selection below the first item (with down arrow key/mouse). However with mouse if I click on any item, it gets selected. <asp:TextBox ID="txtPostalSuburb" runat="server" CssClass="select_insert_menu_text1" MaxLength="40" TabIndex="9"></asp:TextBox> <cc1:AutoCompleteExtender ID="txtPostalSuburb_AutoCompleteExtender" runat="server" DelimiterCharacters="" Enabled="True" ServicePath="~/Web/Common/ListingService.asmx" TargetControlID="txtPostalSuburb" UseContextKey="False" ServiceMethod="GetSuburbList" MinimumPrefixLength="3" CompletionListCssClass="contact-details-suggestion-list" OnClientItemSelected="AutoCompleteExtender_ItemSelected" CompletionListItemCssClass="contact-details-suggestion-list-item" > </cc1:AutoCompleteExtender> CSS: .contact-details-suggestion-list { background-color: window; color: windowtext; cursor: default; list-style-image: none; list-style-position: outside; list-style-type: none; padding:0px; text-align: left; border: solid 1px #005883; margin-top: 0px; font-size: 10px; } .contact-details-suggestion-list-item { border-bottom: dotted 1px black; } Any help is appreciated. Thanks

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  • How to make ActionController::Base.asset_host and Base.relative_url_root independent?

    - by GSP
    In our Intranet environment we have a decree that common assets (stylesheets, images, etc) should be fed from Apache root while Rails apps runs from from a "sub directory" (a proxy to a Mongrel cluster). In other words: <%= stylesheet_tag '/common' %> # <link href="http://1.1.1.1/stylesheets/common.css" /> <%= link_to 'Home', :controller=>'home', :action=>'index' %> # <a href="http://1.1.1.1/myapp/" /> What I would like to do is define the assets and relative url in my configuration like this: ActionController::Base.asset_host=http://1.1.1.1 ActionController::Base.relative_url_root=/myapp But when I do this, the relative_url_root value gets appended to the asset_host value. (e.g. <link href="http://1.1.1.1/myapp/stylesheets/common.css"> ) Is there a way to stop this? And, more importantly, is there a best practice for how to deploy a rails app to an environment like this? (BTW, I don't want to simply hard code my asset paths since the development environment does not match the test and production environments.) Environment: Rails 2.3.4 Ruby 1.8.7 RedHat Linux 5.4?

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  • SQL Server race condition issue with range lock

    - by Freek
    I'm implementing a queue in SQL Server (please no discussions about this) and am running into a race condition issue. The T-SQL of interest is the following: set transaction isolation level serializable begin tran declare @RecordId int declare @CurrentTS datetime2 set @CurrentTS=CURRENT_TIMESTAMP select top 1 @RecordId=Id from QueuedImportJobs with (updlock) where Status=@Status and (LeaseTimeout is null or @CurrentTS>LeaseTimeout) order by Id asc if @@ROWCOUNT> 0 begin update QueuedImportJobs set LeaseTimeout = DATEADD(mi,5,@CurrentTS), LeaseTicket=newid() where Id=@RecordId select * from QueuedImportJobs where Id = @RecordId end commit tran RecordId is the PK and there is also an index on Status,LeaseTimeout. What I'm basically doing is select a record of which the lease happens to be expired, while simultaneously updating the lease time with 5 minutes and setting a new lease ticket. So the problem is that I'm getting deadlocks when I run this code in parallel using a couple of threads. I've debugged it up to the point where I found out that the update statement sometimes gets executing twice for the same record. Now, I was under the impression that the with (updlock) should prevent this (it also happens with xlock btw, not with tablockx). So it actually look like there is a RangeS-U and a RangeX-X lock on the same range of records, which ought to be impossible. So what am I missing? I'm thinking it might have something to do with the top 1 clause or that SQL Server does not know that where Id=@RecordId is actually in the locked range? Deadlock graph: Table schema (simplified):

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  • Word forms with too many ActiveX checkboxes load slowly.

    - by Luke
    Hi there, my company's software product has a feature that allows users to generate forms from Word templates. The program auto fills some fields from the SQL database and the user can fill in other data that they desire. So we have a .dotx template that holds the design of the form, and then the user gets the .docx file to fill out when they call it from our program. The problem we're having is that some of our users have been finding that the forms take an exceptionally long time to open up and then, once open, are so slow to respond (scroll around, etc) that they're unusable. So in my investigations so far, I've found out that the problem systems are one with lower powered CPUs (unfortunately it happens for systems above our system requirements) and the Word forms that cause the problems are ones with large amount of ActiveX style checkboxes on them. I verified that reducing the ActiveX checkboxes fixes the form loading problems. So I have the following questions about solutions (we're using Word 2007): 1) Is there any way to configure Word, or some other settings, so that there won't be such a strain opening a Word form with lots of ActiveX checkboxes? Any way of speeding up Word's opening? 2) Using Legacy style checkboxes instead of the ActiveX ones makes the forms load fine, but it looks like the user has to double-click the checkbox and change Default Value-Checked. Is there a way to configure it so that they can simply click on the checkbox to tick it? "Legacy Forms" checkbox as a name kind of worries me (Legacy…), does that mean a future version of word at some point wouldn't load the checkboxes because they're "legacy"? 3) Yes, it became clear to me after a little bit of research into solutions that Word is not the tool for the job for forms like I'm describing. InfoPath seems to be exactly what we should have been using all along but unfortunately I wasn't involved in the decision making or development of these forms, just tasked with coming up with a solution. I'd appreciate answers to any of these, or if anyone has any other ideas for solutions to this problem. Thanks

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  • Passing javascript object to webservice via Jquery ajax

    - by kralco626
    I have a webservice that returns an object [WebMethod] public List<User> ContractorApprovals() I also have a webservice that accepcts an object [WebMethod] public bool SaveContractor(Object u) When I make my webservice calls via Jquery: function ServiceCall(method, parameters, onSucess, onFailure) { var parms = "{" + (($.isArray(parameters)) ? parameters.join(',') : parameters) + "}"; // to json $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "services/"+method, data: parms, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(msg) { if (typeof onSucess == 'function' || typeof onSucess == 'object') onSucess(msg.d); }, error: function(msg, err) { $("#dialog-error").dialog('open');} }); I can call the first one just fine. My onSucess function gets passed a javascript object exactly structured like my User object on the service. However, I am now having trouble getting the object back to the server. I'm accepting Object as a parameter on the server side so I can't inagine there is an issue there. So I'm thinking something is wrong with the parms on the client side but i'm not sure what... I am doing something to the effect ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/ContractorApprovals", "", function(data,args){$("#div").data('user',data[0])}, null) then ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/SaveContractor", $("#div").data('user'), //These also do not work: "{'u': ' + $("#div").data("user") + '}", NOR JSON.stringify({u: userObject}) function(data,args){(alert(data)}, null) I know the first service call works, I can get the data. The second one is causing the "onFailure" method to execute rather then "OnSuccess". Any ideas?

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  • Is it possible to specify Jquery File Upload to post back only once (for multiple files)?

    - by JaJ
    When I upload multiple files (per bluimp jquery file upload) the [httppost] action is entered once per file. Is it possible to specify one and only one postback with an enumerated file container to iterate? View: <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.7.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.ui.widget.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.iframe-transport.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.fileupload.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <input id="fileupload" type="file" name="files" multiple="multiple"/> Controller: public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(IEnumerable<HttpPostedFileBase> files) { // This is posted back for every file that gets uploaded...I would prefer it only post back once // with a actual collection of files to iterate. foreach (var file in files) // There is only ever one file in files { var filename = Path.Combine(Server.MapPath("~/App_Data"), file.FileName); file.SaveAs(filename); } return View(); }

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  • Doctrine 2 entity cannot be saved with its many-to-many related entities

    - by user1333185
    I'm writing a project in ZF and have many-to-many related accounts and videos entities and I provide the account with the videos collection. When I try to save the account I receive the following error: A new entity was found through the relationship 'Entities\Account#playlistVideos' that was not configured to cascade persist operations for entity: Entities\Video@000000004d5f02ef00000000196757dc. Explicitly persist the new entity or configure cascading persist operations on the relationship. If you cannot find out which entity causes the problem implement 'Entities\Video#__toString()' to get a clue. I found a suggested solution with cascade={"persist"} which should allow videos to be saved together with the account by only specifying $this-em-persist($account) but then I get the error: Fatal error: method_exists(): The script tried to execute a method or access a property of an incomplete object. Please ensure that the class definition "Proxies\EntitiesAccountProxy" of the object you are trying to operate on was loaded before unserialize() gets called or provide a __autoload() function to load the class definition in... The same happens when I try to manually persist videos and account. Thank you for the help in advance.

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