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• mysql image disable print download

  - by Vish

  Hi, We use a Flex AIR client and a WAMP server. Tiff images are stored in MySQL. Currently, I can download the image from AIR client and it prompts for a download dialog. Things are fine till this point. We got a new requirement. Requirement is that only some users can print the image which gets downloaded. For other users, they should not be able to print the tiff image. Wondering how to accomplish this. One idea, not sure if its efficient, is to convert the image requested to pdf at the server side, disable print option there(hope there are API's available) and send back the pdf. Please let me know btter ideas. Also, is there a way to prevent file download dialog from popping up everytime the file is requested for download? Can we just get the file stream to the client and manipulate it to open with a particular viewer or write it to pdf... Please help.

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• Empty Postbacks on ASP.NET pages

  - by AaronLS

  We are having a problem that seems to only be a problem when accessing our websites from internal intranet machines. When logged into the domain, and accessing our websites, postbacks are not working. Basically the page behaves as if it were refreshed and nothing was changed. When logging the GETs and POSTs with an HTTP analyzer, the post is complete empty and the ContentLength is 0. It is also very sporadic, but seems to be happening fairly often. In the case where it failed, we could see that there was an extra item in the Header for the POST, it was "Authorization" and the value was the word "Negotiate " followed by a space and then a bunch of characters and two equal symbols at the end, which looked like some kind of base64 encoded value. In a case where it succeeded, this Authorization item was no in the header, but I have logged more than one successful cases to know if that is consistent. We have seen this occur only with IE8 so far, and when it occurs it is sometimes sporadic. I can close and open the browser and it will begin working sometimes, and other times it is still broken. What might be causing the postback to be empty? This means the viewstate is not sent to the server which makes the page basically broken. It seems to certainly be a client side issue, but not sure if it's not aggravated by some server settings. Thanks in advance.

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• Program to find the result of primitive recursive functions

  - by alphomega

  I'm writing a program to solve the result of primitive recursive functions: 1 --Basic functions------------------------------ 2 3 --Zero function 4 z :: Int -> Int 5 z = \_ -> 0 6 7 --Successor function 8 s :: Int -> Int 9 s = \x -> (x + 1) 10 11 --Identity/Projection function generator 12 idnm :: Int -> Int -> ([Int] -> Int) 13 idnm n m = \(x:xs) -> ((x:xs) !! (m-1)) 14 15 --Constructors-------------------------------- 16 17 --Composition constructor 18 cn :: ([Int] -> Int) -> [([Int] -> Int)] -> ([Int] -> Int) 19 cn f [] = \(x:xs) -> f 20 cn f (g:gs) = \(x:xs) -> (cn (f (g (x:xs))) gs) these functions and constructors are defined here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Primitive_recursive_function The issue is with my attempt to create the compositon constructor, cn. When it gets to the base case, f is no longer a partial application, but a result of the function. Yet the function expects a function as the first argument. How can I deal with this problem? Thanks.

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• XSLT 1.0: restrict entries in a nodeset

  - by Mike

  Hi, Being relatively new to XSLT I have what I hope is a simple question. I have some flat XML files, which can be pretty big (eg. 7MB) that I need to make 'more hierarchical'. For example, the flat XML might look like this: <D0011> .... .... and it should end up looking like this: <D0011> .... .... I have a working XSLT for this, and it essentially gets a nodeset of all the b elements and then uses the 'following-sibling' axis to get a nodeset of the nodes following the current b node (ie. following-sibling::*[position() =$nodePos]). Then recursion is used to add the siblings into the result tree until another b element is found (I have parameterised it of course, to make it more generic). I also have a solution that just sends the position in the XML of the next b node and selects the nodes after that one after the other (using recursion) via a *[position() = $nodePos] selection. The problem is that the time to execute the transformation increases unacceptably with the size of the XML file. Looking into it with XML Spy it seems that it is the 'following-sibling' and 'position()=' that take the time in the two respective methods. What I really need is a way of restricting the number of nodes in the above selections, so fewer comparisons are performed: every time the position is tested, every node in the nodeset is tested to see if its position is the right one. Is there a way to do that ? Any other suggestions ? Thanks, Mike

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• scroll bar problems in java Layered Panes

  - by vondip

  Hi all, I've been trying to build this small java app. I find it very difficult to design UI in java, tasks that seem very simple become complicated and all these strange misbehaviors occur. In my app I've created a JLayeredPane which contains two layers. One on top on the other, They both contain scrollbars. Here's an explanation of the two layers: Layer 1: A very big image inside something similar to a scrollpane. The image is scrollable. Layer 2: A graphics2d object, this object draws an image. Once the image reaches a certain length, the layer gets a scrollpane that advances with the drawing with time. I'd like to connect both layers. I want layer two to update the scrollbar on layer 1. Meaning that once it reaches a certain length, both scrollbars will advance together. When I try doing that, the two scroll bars really do advance, but ( ! ) this strange flickering occurs. I don't understand what is the reason for the flickering. Is there any other way to implement this in a simple manner? I must have the second layer on top of the first one (drawing on top of image) since I cannot open a special post for thanking the wonderful people of this forum, I'll do it here. Thank you, you are great help. I hope this problem is solvable as well.

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• How to make ActionController::Base.asset_host and Base.relative_url_root independent?

  - by GSP

  In our Intranet environment we have a decree that common assets (stylesheets, images, etc) should be fed from Apache root while Rails apps runs from from a "sub directory" (a proxy to a Mongrel cluster). In other words: <%= stylesheet_tag '/common' %> # <link href="http://1.1.1.1/stylesheets/common.css" /> <%= link_to 'Home', :controller=>'home', :action=>'index' %> # <a href="http://1.1.1.1/myapp/" /> What I would like to do is define the assets and relative url in my configuration like this: ActionController::Base.asset_host=http://1.1.1.1 ActionController::Base.relative_url_root=/myapp But when I do this, the relative_url_root value gets appended to the asset_host value. (e.g. <link href="http://1.1.1.1/myapp/stylesheets/common.css"> ) Is there a way to stop this? And, more importantly, is there a best practice for how to deploy a rails app to an environment like this? (BTW, I don't want to simply hard code my asset paths since the development environment does not match the test and production environments.) Environment: Rails 2.3.4 Ruby 1.8.7 RedHat Linux 5.4?

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• Radiobutton in iphone

  - by Harita

  hi, i am using radio button image (empty circle) in button to answer the question from 3 options, and the 3 options are radio button's. i have created 3 uibuttons programmatically in tableview delegate method cellforrowatindexpath. i need when one button is selected(with filled circle image) other one if selected before gets unselected. i am using below code in button clicked method. static int _row; -(IBAction) optionClicked:(id)sender { UIButton *btn = (UIButton)sender; _row = btn.tag; if (btn.tag == 0) { if(btn1On) { [btnrad1 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"unfilled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn1On=FALSE; } else { [btnrad1 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"filled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn1On = TRUE; btn2On = FALSE; btn3On = FALSE; } } else if (btn.tag == 1) { if(btn2On) { [btnrad2 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"unfilled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn2On=FALSE; } else { [btnrad2 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"filled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn2On = TRUE; btn1On = FALSE; btn3On = FALSE; } } else if (btn.tag == 2) { if(btn3On) { [btnrad3 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"unfilled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn3On=FALSE; } else { [btnrad3 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"filled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn3On = TRUE; btn1On = FALSE; btn2On = FALSE; } } else { NSLog(@"Error"); } } above code is doing selection of button in another row. like i am selecting 1st option in 1st row but its is selecting 2nd row button. i don't know how to use _row to check for every cell of table view.

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• Recursive problem...

  - by Chronos

  Guys, I'm new to java and multithreading..... and I have a following problem: I have two classes running in two different threads. Class A and Class B. Class A has the method "onNewEvent()". Once that method is invoked, it will ask class B to do some work. As soon as B finishes the work it invokes onJobDone() method of the class A. Now... here comes the problem... what I want is to create new job within onJobDone() method and to send it again to B. here is what I do (pseudo code) ... in the sequence of execution A.onNewEvent(){ //create job //ask B to do it B.do() } B.do{ // Do some stuff A.jobDone() } A.onJobDOne(){ B.do() //doItAgain // print message "Thank you for doing it" } The problem is... that message "Thank you for doing it" never gets printed... in fact, when onJobDone() method is invoked, it invokes B.do()... because B.do() is very fast, it invokes onJobDone() immediatly... so execution flow never comes to PRINT MESSAGE part of code... I suppose this is one of the nasty multithreading problems.... any help would be appreciated.

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• NoSQL for filesystem storage organization and replication?

  - by wheaties

  We've been discussing design of a data warehouse strategy within our group for meeting testing, reproducibility, and data syncing requirements. One of the suggested ideas is to adapt a NoSQL approach using an existing tool rather than try to re-implement a whole lot of the same on a file system. I don't know if a NoSQL approach is even the best approach to what we're trying to accomplish but perhaps if I describe what we need/want you all can help. Most of our files are large, 50+ Gig in size, held in a proprietary, third-party format. We need to be able to access each file by a name/date/source/time/artifact combination. Essentially a key-value pair style look-up. When we query for a file, we don't want to have to load all of it into memory. They're really too large and would swamp our server. We want to be able to somehow get a reference to the file and then use a proprietary, third-party API to ingest portions of it. We want to easily add, remove, and export files from storage. We'd like to set up automatic file replication between two servers (we can write a script for this.) That is, sync the contents of one server with another. We don't need a distributed system where it only appears as if we have one server. We'd like complete replication. We also have other smaller files that have a tree type relationship with the Big files. One file's content will point to the next and so on, and so on. It's not a "spoked wheel," it's a full blown tree. We'd prefer a Python, C or C++ API to work with a system like this but most of us are experienced with a variety of languages. We don't mind as long as it works, gets the job done, and saves us time. What you think? Is there something out there like this?

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• Copy recordset data into multiple sheets to avoid problem of maximum rows limit in Excel VBA

  - by Sam

  I am developing reporting application in Excel/vba 2003. VBA code sends search query to database and gets the data through recordset. It will then be copied to one of excel sheet. The rertrieved data looks like as shown below. ProductID--|---DateProcessed--|----State----- 1................|.. 1/1/2010..............|.....Picked Up 1................|.. 1/1/2010..............|.....Forward To Approver 1................|.. 1/2/2010..............|.....Approver Picked Up 1................|.. 1/3/2010..............|.....Approval Completed 2................|.. 1/1/2010..............|.....Picked Up 3................|.. 1/2/2010..............|.....Picked Up 3................|.. 1/2/2010..............|.....Forward To Approver The problem is data retrieved from search query is so huge that it goes above the excel row limit (65536 rows in excel 2003). So I want to split this data into two excel sheets. While spliting the data I want to ensure that the data for same product shoud remain in one sheet. For example, if the last record in the above result set is 65537th record then I also want to move all records for product 3 into new sheet. So sheet1 will contain records for product id 1 and 2 with total records = 65534. Sheet 2 will cotain records for product id 3 - with total records = 2. How can I acheive this in vba? If it is not possible, is there any alternative solution ? Thanks in Advance !

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• Populate an unmapped property of domain object from result of join with Nhibernate

  - by Adam Pope

  I have a situation where I have 3 tables: StockItem, Office and StockItemPrice. The price for each StockItem can be different for each Office. StockItem( ID Name ) Office( ID Name ) StockItemPrice( ID StockItemID OfficeID Price ) I've set up a schema with 2 many-to-one relations to link StockItem and Office. So in my StockItem domain object I have a property: IList<StockItemPrice> Prices; which gets loaded with the price of the item for each office. That's working fine. Now I'm trying to get the price of an item for a single office. I have the following Criteria query: NHibernateSession.CreateCriteria(persistentType) .Add(Restrictions.Eq("ID", id)) .CreateAlias("Prices", "StockItemPrice") .Add(Restrictions.Eq("StockItemPrice.Office", office)) .UniqueResult<StockItem>(); This appears to work fine as the SQL it generates is what I qould expect. However, I dont know if it populates StockItem.Prices with a single object correctly as as soon as I reference that property NHibernate performs a lazy load of all the office's prices. Also, even if it does work, it feels really crufty having to access the price by using: mystockitem.Prices[0].Price What I would really like is to have a Price field on the StockItem object and have the price of the item put into that field by NHibernate. I've tried adding .CreateCriteria("Price", "StockItemPrice.Price") and the same with CreateAlias, but I get the error NHibernate.QueryException : could not resolve property: Price of: StockItem which makes sense I guess as Price isn't a mapped property. How would I adjust the query to make this possible?

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• Doctrine 2 entity cannot be saved with its many-to-many related entities

  - by user1333185

  I'm writing a project in ZF and have many-to-many related accounts and videos entities and I provide the account with the videos collection. When I try to save the account I receive the following error: A new entity was found through the relationship 'Entities\Account#playlistVideos' that was not configured to cascade persist operations for entity: Entities\Video@000000004d5f02ef00000000196757dc. Explicitly persist the new entity or configure cascading persist operations on the relationship. If you cannot find out which entity causes the problem implement 'Entities\Video#__toString()' to get a clue. I found a suggested solution with cascade={"persist"} which should allow videos to be saved together with the account by only specifying $this-em-persist($account) but then I get the error: Fatal error: method_exists(): The script tried to execute a method or access a property of an incomplete object. Please ensure that the class definition "Proxies\EntitiesAccountProxy" of the object you are trying to operate on was loaded before unserialize() gets called or provide a __autoload() function to load the class definition in... The same happens when I try to manually persist videos and account. Thank you for the help in advance.

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• Global javascript variable not accessible in jquery change event

  - by Dan

  I have to be missing something simple, but I'm really not sure what. I'm not a JS veteran, so this may be an easy answer - sure hope so :). I have a button that, when clicked, gets JSON data. When a drop-down is changed, I check to see if there is data, if there is, I want to clear it out as the drop-down indicates what data to retrieve when the button is clicked The Code: var selected, $locDialog; var locations = []; $(function() { // Save the selected Name selected = $("#selected option:selected").val(); // Setup Dialog for Locations $locDialog = $('#location-dialog').dialog({ autoOpen: false }); // If user changes the selected // 1. Prompt for confirmation // 2. If users confirms, clear data $('#selected').change(function() { if (locations) { var confirmed = confirm("Oh Rly?"); if (confirmed) { // Clear data var locations; } } }); // When user clicks "Location" Button.. $('.loc-select button').click(function() { if (!locations) { $.getJSON("/Controller/JSONAction", { selectedId: selected, pageNum: 1, pageSize: 100 }, function(data) { locations = data; $.each(locations, function(index, loc) { var $tr = $('<tr/>') .append($('<td/>') .append('<input type="checkbox" name="TEST-'+index+'" value="'+loc.Id+'"/>')) .append('<td>' + loc.Name + '</td>'); $("#location-dialog table tbody").append($tr); }); }); } $locDialog.dialog('open'); return false; }); }); Here's the thing, Inside the .click(...) callback, I can see locations is []. Now, when I am in the .change(...) callback, I see locations is undefined. Any help/insight, as always, is appreciated!

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• How to exclude rows where matching join is in an SQL tree

  - by Greg K

  Sorry for the poor title, I couldn't think how to concisely describe this problem. I have a set of items that should have a 1-to-1 relationship with an attribute. I have a query to return those rows where the data is wrong and this relationship has been broken (1-to-many). I'm gathering these rows to fix them and restore this 1-to-1 relationship. This is a theoretical simplification of my actual problem but I'll post example table schema here as it was requested. item table: +------------+------------+-----------+ | item_id | name | attr_id | +------------+------------+-----------+ | 1 | BMW 320d | 20 | | 1 | BMW 320d | 21 | | 2 | BMW 335i | 23 | | 2 | BMW 335i | 34 | +------------+------------+-----------+ attribute table: +---------+-----------------+------------+ | attr_id | value | parent_id | +---------+-----------------+------------+ | 20 | SE | 21 | | 21 | M Sport | 0 | | 23 | AC | 24 | | 24 | Climate control | 0 | .... | 34 | Leather seats | 0 | +---------+-----------------+------------+ A simple query to return items with more than one attribute. SELECT item_id, COUNT(DISTINCT(attr_id)) AS attributes FROM item GROUP BY item_id HAVING attributes > 1 This gets me a result set like so: +-----------+------------+ | item_id | attributes | +-----------+------------+ | 1 | 2 | | 2 | 2 | | 3 | 2 | -- etc. -- However, there's an exception. The attribute table can hold a tree structure, via parent links in the table. For certain rows, parent_id can hold the ID of another attribute. There's only one level to this tree. Example: +---------+-----------------+------------+ | attr_id | value | parent_id | +---------+-----------------+------------+ | 20 | SE | 21 | | 21 | M Sport | 0 | .... I do not want to retrieve items in my original query where, for a pair of associated attributes, they related like attributes 20 & 21. I do want to retrieve items where: the attributes have no parent for two or more attributes they are not related (e.g. attributes 23 & 34) Example result desired, just the item ID: +------------+ | item_id | +------------+ | 2 | +------------+ How can I join against attributes from items and exclude these rows? Do I use a temporary table or can I achieve this from a single query? Thanks.

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• Euler Project Help (Problem 12) - Prime Factors and the like

  - by Richie_W

  I hate to have to ask, but I'm pretty stuck here. I need to test a sequence of numbers to find the first which has over 500 factors: http://projecteuler.net/index.php?section=problems&id=12 -At first I attempted to brute force the answer (finding a number with 480 after a LONG time) -I am now looking at determining the prime factors of a number and then use them to find all other factors. I am currently at the stage where I can get an array of prime factors for any number I input - i.e 300 has the prime factors 2 2 3 5 5 Using this array of prime factors I need to be able to calculate the remaining factors - This is the part I am stuck on. Basically, as I understand it, I need to calculate ALL possible combinations of the numbers in the array... i.e 2 * 2 2 * 2 * 3 2 * 2 * 3 * 5 2 * 3 2 * 3 * 3 ...and so forth - But where it gets interesting is with things like... 2 * 5 2 * 3 * 5 ...i.e Numbers which are not adjacent to each other in the array I can't think of a way to code this in a generic fashion for any length array... I need help! P.S - I am working in Java EDIT: My brute force code - As it has been suggested brute forcing the problem will work and so there may be an error in my code :( package euler.problem12; public class Solution { public static void main(String[] args) { int next = 1; int triangle = 0; int maxFactors = 0; while(true) { triangle = triangle + next; int factors = 1; int max = (int) triangle / 2; for(int i = 1; i <= max; ++i) { if(triangle % i == 0) { factors ++; } } if(factors > maxFactors) { maxFactors = factors; System.out.println(triangle + "\t" + factors); } next++; } } }

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• Out of memory while iterating through rowset

  - by Phliplip

  Hi All, I have a "small" table of 60400 rows with zipcode data. I wan't to iterate through them all, update a column value, and then save it. The following is part of my Zipcodes model which extends My_Db_Table that a totalRows function that - you guessed it.. returns the total number of rows in the table (60400 rows) public function normalizeTable() { $this->getAdapter()->setProfiler(false); $totalRows = $this->totalRows(); $rowsPerQuery = 5; for($i = 0; $i < $totalRows; $i = $i + $rowsPerQuery) { $select = $this->select()->limit($i, $rowsPerQuery); $rowset = $this->fetchAll($select); foreach ($rowset as $row) { $row->{self::$normalCityColumn} = $row->normalize($row->{self::$cityColumn}); $row->save(); } unset($rowset); } } My rowClass contains a normalize function (basicly a metaphone wrapper doing some extra magic). At first i tried a plain old $this-fetchAll(), but got a out of memory (128MB) right away. Then i tried splitting the rowset into chunks, only difference is that some rows actually gets updated. Any ideas on how i can acomplish this, or should i fallback to ye'olde mysql_query()

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• DataGridView update datasource directly after changed Checkbox value

  - by SchlaWiener

  I have a System.Windows.Forms DataGridView that is bound to a List<MyObject>. The class MyObject contains a boolean property that is bound to DataGridViewCheckboxCell within the DataGridView. public class MyObject { public decimal DefaultValue {get; set; } public bool HasCustomValue {get;set; } public decimal CustomValue {get;set; } public decimal CurrentValue { get { return HasCustomValue ? CustomValue : DefaultValue; } } If I change the value of HasCustomValue another (readonly) property CurrentValue changes it's value, too. That is done by implementing the INotifyPropertyChanged event (I left that part in the source example for simplicity) If I changed HasCustomValue from outside the DataGridView, the column bound to CurrentValue gets updated immediately. Howevery, If the users enables/disables the checkbox, HasCustomValue is not changed in the underlying datasource unless he leaves the column by clicking with the mouse or pressing the TAB key. Is there a way to force the grid to update the datasource directly after changing a checkbox value? If I bind a Control Property I have the ability to set the DataSourceUpdateMode to Windows.Forms.DataSourceUpdateMode.OnPropertyChanged but I haven't found anything like that in a DataGridView

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• Extract history from Korn shell

  - by Luc

  I am not happy about the history file in binary format of the Korn shell. I like to "collect" some of my command lines, many of them actually, and for a long time. I'm talking about years. That doesn't seem easy in Korn because the history file is not plain text so I can't edit it, and a lot of junk is piling up in it. By "junk" I mean lines that I don'twant to keep, like 'cat' or 'man'. So I added these lines to my .profile: fc -ln 1 9999 ~/khistory.txt source ~/loghistory.sh ~/khistory.txt loghistory.sh contains a handful of sed and sort commands that gets rid of a lot of the junk. But apparently it is forbidden to run fc in the .profile file. I can't login whenever I do, the shell exits right away with signal 11. So I removed that 'fc -l' line from my .profile file and added it to the loghistory.sh script, but the shell still crashes. I also tried this line in my .profile: strings ~/.sh_history ~/khistory.txt source ~/loghistory.sh That doesn't crash, but the output is printed with an additional, random character in the beginning of many lines. I can run 'fc -l' on the command line, but that's no good. I need to automate that. But how? How can I extract my ksh history as plain text? TIA

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• On C++ global operator new: why it can be replaced

  - by Jimmy

  I wrote a small program in VS2005 to test whether C++ global operator new can be overloaded. It can. #include "stdafx.h" #include "iostream" #include "iomanip" #include "string" #include "new" using namespace std; class C { public: C() { cout<<"CTOR"<<endl; } }; void * operator new(size_t size) { cout<<"my overload of global plain old new"<<endl; // try to allocate size bytes void *p = malloc(size); return (p); } int main() { C* pc1 = new C; cin.get(); return 0; } In the above, my definition of operator new is called. If I remove that function from the code, then operator new in C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft Visual Studio 8\VC\crt\src\new.cpp gets called. All is good. However, in my opinion, my implementations of operator new does NOT overload the new in new.cpp, it CONFLICTS with it and violates the one-definition rule. Why doesn't the compiler complain about it? Or does the standard say since operator new is so special, one-definition rule does not apply here? Thanks.

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• How do I detect proximity of the mouse pointer to a line in Flex?

  - by Hanno Fietz

  I'm working on a charting UI in Flex. One of the features I want to implement is "snapping" of the mousepointer to the data points in the diagram. I. e., if the user hovers the mouse pointer over a line diagram and gets close to the data point, I want the pointer to move to the exact coordinates and show a marker, like this: Currently, the lines are drawn on a Shape, using the Graphics API. The Shape is a child DisplayObject of a custom UIComponent subclass with the exact same dimensions. This means, I already get mouseOver events on the parent of the diagram's canvas. Now I need a way to detect if the pointer is close to one of the data points. I. e. I need an answer to the question "Which data points lie within a radius of x pixels from my current position and which of them is closest?" upon each move of the mouse. I can think of the following possibilities: draw the lines not as simple lines in the graphics API, but as more advanced objects that can have their own mouseOver events. However, I want the snapping to trigger before the mouse is actually over the line. check the original data for possible candidates upon each mouse movement. Using binary search, I might be able to reduce the number of items I have to compare sufficently. prepare some kind of new data structure from the raw data that makes the above search more efficient. I don't know how that would look like. I'm guessing this is a pretty standard problem for a number of applications, but probably the actual code usually is inside of some framework. Is there anything I can read about this topic?

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• Java - Call to start method on thread : how does it route to Runnable interface's run () ?

  - by Bhaskar

  Ok , I know the two standard ways to create a new thread and run it in Java : 1 Implement Runnable in a class , define run method ,and pass an instance of the class to a new Thread. When the start method on the thread instance is called , the run method of the class instance will be invoked. 2 Let the class derive from Thread, so it can to override the method run() and then when a new instance's start method is called , the call is routed to overridden method. In both methods , basically a new Thread object is created and its start method invoked. However , while in the second method , the mechanism of the call being routed to the user defined run() method is very clear ,( its a simple runtime polymorphism in play ), I dont understand how the call to start method on the Thread object gets routed to run() method of the class implementing Runnable interface. Does the Thread class have an private field of Type Runnable which it checks first , and if it is set then invokes the run method if it set to an object ? that would be a strange mechanism IMO. How does the call to start() on a thread get routed to the run method of the Runnable interface implemented by the class whose object is passed as a parameter when contructing the thread ?

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• ASP.NET MVC Unit Testing Controllers - Repositories

  - by Brian McCord

  This is more of an opinion seeking question, so there may not be a "right" answer, but I would welcome arguments as to why your answer is the "right" one. Given an MVC application that is using Entity Framework for the persistence engine, a repository layer, a service layer that basically defers to the repository, and a delete method on a controller that looks like this: public ActionResult Delete(State model) { try { if( model == null ) { return View( model ); } _stateService.Delete( model ); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View( model ); } } I am looking for the proper way to Unit Test this. Currently, I have a fake repository that gets used in the service, and my unit test looks like this: [TestMethod] public void Delete_Post_Passes_With_State_4() { //Arrange var stateService = GetService(); var stateController = new StateController( stateService ); ViewResult result = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var model = (State)result.ViewData.Model; //Act RedirectToRouteResult redirectResult = stateController.Delete( model ) as RedirectToRouteResult; stateController = new StateController( stateService ); var newresult = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var newmodel = (State)newresult.ViewData.Model; //Assert Assert.AreEqual( redirectResult.RouteValues["action"], "Index" ); Assert.IsNull( newmodel ); } Is this overkill? Do I need to check to see if the record actually got deleted (as I already have Service and Repository tests that verify this)? Should I even use a fake repository here or would it make more sense just to mock the whole thing? The examples I'm looking at used this model of doing things, and I just copied it, but I'm really open to doing things in a "best practices" way. Thanks.

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• Property on business objects - getting and setting

  - by Mike

  Hi, I am using LINQ to SQL for the DataAccess layer. I have similar business objects to what is in the data access layer. I have got the dataprovider getting the message #23. On instantiation of the message, in the message constructor, it gets the MessageType and makes a new instance of MessageType class and fills in the MessageType information from the database. Therefore; I want this to get the Name of the MessageType of the Message. user.Messages[23].MessageType.Name I also want an administrator to set the MessageType user.Messages[23].MessageType = MessageTypes.LoadType(3); but I don't want the user to publicly set the MessageType.Name. But when I make a new MessageType instance, the access modifier for the Name property is public because I want to set that from an external class (my data access layer). I could change this to property to internal, so that my class can access it like a public variable, and not allow my other application access to modify it. This still doesn't feel right as it seems like a public property. Are public access modifiers in this situation bad? Any tips or suggestions would be appreciated. Thanks.

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• Open txt files from a directory, compare the values, and output the top 15 in PHP

  - by Anon

  Hello, I recently designed a referral game website for the fun of it. There's a simple MySQL user system with a email verification. It's using the UserCake user management system. On top of this i added a php page that the user could give to "victims" that when they visit it they get "infected" and can infect other users or "victims". This page uses GET to get the username from the url. I have a folder that when a user registers it creates a file with 4 digits and then the username. (ex; 0000Username.txt) All the numbers are the same, it's just so that if a user discovers the folder they won't be able to find the files. There is also a txt file in the same format with IPS in the name. (ex; 0000IPSUsername.txt) The file when visited gets the username from the url, then checks if the text file for that username exists. If the username is present in the url, and a valid user it opens the IPS file and adds the IP of the visitor, then opens the user text file, takes the value and adds one to it, and saves. At the end it makes the difference between saying "You are infected, Username has infected (amount) people." or just you have been infected. Now to what i need! I need to add a hi-scores to the website so people can compete to be the one with the most "infections". I thought i could use readdir to get a list of the files and open them with the value in an array, but i need it to also strip the username from the file name. It would be best if it just saves to a text file like "Username | value" because then i can add echo's of the html tags and have it include the file in the page i want it to be one. Many thanks in advance.

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• Passing javascript object to webservice via Jquery ajax

  - by kralco626

  I have a webservice that returns an object [WebMethod] public List<User> ContractorApprovals() I also have a webservice that accepcts an object [WebMethod] public bool SaveContractor(Object u) When I make my webservice calls via Jquery: function ServiceCall(method, parameters, onSucess, onFailure) { var parms = "{" + (($.isArray(parameters)) ? parameters.join(',') : parameters) + "}"; // to json $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "services/"+method, data: parms, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(msg) { if (typeof onSucess == 'function' || typeof onSucess == 'object') onSucess(msg.d); }, error: function(msg, err) { $("#dialog-error").dialog('open');} }); I can call the first one just fine. My onSucess function gets passed a javascript object exactly structured like my User object on the service. However, I am now having trouble getting the object back to the server. I'm accepting Object as a parameter on the server side so I can't inagine there is an issue there. So I'm thinking something is wrong with the parms on the client side but i'm not sure what... I am doing something to the effect ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/ContractorApprovals", "", function(data,args){$("#div").data('user',data[0])}, null) then ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/SaveContractor", $("#div").data('user'), //These also do not work: "{'u': ' + $("#div").data("user") + '}", NOR JSON.stringify({u: userObject}) function(data,args){(alert(data)}, null) I know the first service call works, I can get the data. The second one is causing the "onFailure" method to execute rather then "OnSuccess". Any ideas?

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