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  • Ruby and public_method_defined? : strange behaviour

    - by aXon
    Hi there Whilst reading through the book "The well grounded Rubyist", I came across some strange behaviour. The idea behind the code is using one's own method_missing method. The only thing I am not able to grasp is, why this code gets executed, as I do not have any Person.all_with_* class methods defined, which in turn means that the self.public_method_defined?(attr) returns true (attr is friends and then hobbies). #!/usr/bin/env ruby1.9 class Person PEOPLE = [] attr_reader :name, :hobbies, :friends def initialize(mame) @name = name @hobbies = [] @friends = [] PEOPLE << self end def has_hobby(hobby) @hobbies << hobby end def has_friend(friend) @friends << friend end def self.method_missing(m,*args) method = m.to_s if method.start_with?("all_with_") attr = method[9..-1] if self.public_method_defined?(attr) PEOPLE.find_all do |person| person.send(attr).include?(args[0]) end else raise ArgumentError, "Can't find #{attr}" end else super end end end j = Person.new("John") p = Person.new("Paul") g = Person.new("George") r = Person.new("Ringo") j.has_friend(p) j.has_friend(g) g.has_friend(p) r.has_hobby("rings") Person.all_with_friends(p).each do |person| puts "#{person.name} is friends with #{p.name}" end Person.all_with_hobbies("rings").each do |person| puts "#{person.name} is into rings" end The output is is friends with is friends with is into rings which is really understandable, as there is nothing to be executed.

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  • How to change button background color depending on bound command canexecute ??

    - by LaurentH
    Hi, I Have a ItemTemplate in which is a simple button bound on a command, which can be executable or not depending on some property. I'd like the color of this button's background to change if the command isn't executable. I tried several methods, but I can't find anyway to do this purely in XAML (I'm doing this in a study context, and code behind isn't allowed). Here's my code for the button : <Button x:Name="Dispo" HorizontalAlignment="Center" Margin="0" VerticalAlignment="Center" Width="30" Height="30" Grid.Column="2" Grid.Row="0" Command="{Binding AddEmpruntCommandModel.Command}" CommandParameter="{Binding ElementName='flowCars', Path='SelectedItem'}" vm:CreateCommandBinding.Command="{Binding AddEmpruntCommandModel}" > <Button.Style> <Style TargetType="{x:Type Button}"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsEnabled" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Button.Background" Value="Green"/> </Trigger> <Trigger Property="IsEnabled" Value="False"> <Setter Property="Button.Background" Value="Red"/> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> </Button.Style> </Button>

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  • Issue with Callback method and maintaining CultureInfo and ASP.Net HttpRuntime

    - by Little Larry Sellers
    Hi All, Here is my issue. I am working on an E-commerce solution that is deployed to multiple European countries. We persist all exceptions within the application to SQL Server and I have found that there are records in the DB that have a DateTime in the future! We define the culture in the web.config, for example pt-PT, and the format expected is DD-MM-YYYY. After debugging I found the issue with these 'future' records in the DB is because of Callback methods we use. For example, in our Caching architecture we use Callbacks, as such - CacheItemRemovedCallback ReloadCallBack = new CacheItemRemovedCallback(OnRefreshRequest); When I check the current threads CultureInfo, on these Callbacks it is en-US instead of pt-PT and also the HttpContext is null. If an exception occurs on the Callback our exception manager reports it as MM-DD-YYYY and thus it is persisted to SQL Server incorrectly. Unfortunately, in the exception manager code, we use DateTime.Now, which is fine if it is not a callback. I can't change this code to be culture specific due to it being shared across other verticals. So, why don't callbacks into ASP.Net maintain context? Is there any way to maintain it on this callback thread? What are the best practices here? Thanks.

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  • In-order tree traversal

    - by Chris S
    I have the following text from an academic course I took a while ago about in-order traversal (they also call it pancaking) of a binary tree (not BST): In-order tree traversal Draw a line around the outside of the tree. Start to the left of the root, and go around the outside of the tree, to end up to the right of the root. Stay as close to the tree as possible, but do not cross the tree. (Think of the tree — its branches and nodes — as a solid barrier.) The order of the nodes is the order in which this line passes underneath them. If you are unsure as to when you go “underneath” a node, remember that a node “to the left” always comes first. Here's the example used (slightly different tree from below) However when I do a search on google, I get a conflicting definition. For example the wikipedia example: Inorder traversal sequence: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I (leftchild,rootnode,right node) But according to (my understanding of) definition #1, this should be A, B, D, C, E, F, G, I, H Can anyone clarify which definition is correct? They might be both describing different traversal methods, but happen to be using the same name. I'm having trouble believing the peer-reviewed academic text is wrong, but can't be certain.

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  • Are there any downsides in using C++ for network daemons?

    - by badcat
    Hey guys! I've been writing a number of network daemons in different languages over the past years, and now I'm about to start a new project which requires a new custom implementation of a properitary network protocol. The said protocol is pretty simple - some basic JSON formatted messages which are transmitted in some basic frame wrapping to have clients know that a message arrived completely and is ready to be parsed. The daemon will need to handle a number of connections (about 200 at the same time) and do some management of them and pass messages along, like in a chat room. In the past I've been using mostly C++ to write my daemons. Often with the Qt4 framework (the network parts, not the GUI parts!), because that's what I also used for the rest of the projects and it was simple to do and very portable. This usually worked just fine, and I didn't have much trouble. Being a Linux administrator for a good while now, I noticed that most of the network daemons in the wild are written in plain C (of course some are written in other languages, too, but I get the feeling that 80% of the daemons are written in plain C). Now I wonder why that is. Is this due to a pure historic UNIX background (like KISS) or for plain portability or reduction of bloat? What are the reasons to not use C++ or any "higher level" languages for things like daemons? Thanks in advance! Update 1: For me using C++ usually is more convenient because of the fact that I have objects which have getter and setter methods and such. Plain C's "context" objects can be a real pain at some point - especially when you are used to object oriented programming. Yes, I'm aware that C++ is a superset of C, and that C code is basically C++. But that's not the point. ;)

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  • Android: CustomListAdapter

    - by primal
    Hi, I have implemented a custom list view which looks like the twitter timeline. adapter = new MyClickableListAdapter(this, R.layout.timeline, mObjectList); setListAdapter(adapter); The constructor for MyClickableListAdapter is as follows private class MyClickableListAdapter extends ClickableListAdapter{ public MyClickableListAdapter(Context context, int viewId, List objects) { super(context, viewId, objects); } ClickableListAdapter extends BaseAdapter and implements the necessary methods. The xml code for the list view is as follows <ListView android:id="@+id/android:list" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" /> This is what it looks like. I have 3 questions 1) I tried registering a context menu for the list view by adding the line after setting the list adapter registerforContextMenu(getListView()); But on long-click the menu doesnt get displayed. I cannot understand what I am doing wrong! 2) Is it possible to display a textview above the listview? I tried it by adding the code for textview above the listview. But then, only the textview gets displayed. 3) I have seen in many twitter clients that on clicking post a window pops up from the top covering only some portion of the screen and rest of the timeline is visible. How can this be done possibly without starting a new activity? Any help would be much appreciated..

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  • Moving from NHibernate to FluentNHibernate: assembly error (related to versions)?

    - by goober
    Not sure where to start, but I had gotten the most recent version of NHibernate, successfully mapped the most simple of business objects, etc. When trying to move to FluentNHibernate and do the same thing, I got this error message on build: "System.IO.FileLoadException: Could not load file or assembly 'NHibernate, Version=2.1.0.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4' or one of its dependencies. The located assembly's manifest definition does not match the assembly reference." Background: I'm new to Hibernate, NHibernate, and FluentNHibernate -- but not to .NET, C#, etc. Database I have a database table called Category: (PK) CategoryID (type: int), unique, auto-incrementing UserID (type: uniqueidentifier) -- given the value of the user Guid in ASP.NET database Title (type: varchar(50) -- the title of the category Components involved: I have a SessionProviderClass which creates the mapping to the database I have a Category class which has all the virtual methods for FluentNHibernate to override I have a CategoryMap : ClassMap class, which does the fluent mappings for the entity I have a CategoryRepository class that contains the method to add & save the category I have the TestCatAdd.aspx file which uses the CategoryRepository class. Would be happy to post code for any of those, but I'm not sure that it's necessary, as I think the issue is that somewhere there's a version conflict between what FluentNHibernate references and the NHibernate I have installed from before. Thanks in advance for any help you can give!

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  • Passing session between jsf backing bean and model

    - by Rachel
    Background : I am having backing bean which has upload method that listen when file is uploaded. Now I pass this file to parser and in parser am doing validation check for row present in csv file. If validation fails, I have to log information and saving in logging table in database. My end goal : Is to get session information in logging bean so that I can get initialContext and make call to ejb to save data to database. What is happening : In my upload backing bean, am getting session but when i call parser, I do not pass session information as I do not want parser to be dependent on session as I want to unit test parser individually. So in my parser, I do not have session information, from parser am making call to logging bean(just a bean with some ejb methods) but in this logging bean, i need session because i need to get initial context. Question Is there a way in JSF, that I can get the session in my logging bean that I have in my upload backing bean? I tried doing: FacesContext ctx = FacesContext.getCurrentInstance(); HttpSession session = (HttpSession) ctx.getExternalContext().getSession(false); but session value was null, more generic question would be : How can I get session information in model bean or other beans that are referenced from backing beans in which we have session? Do we have generic method in jsf using which we can access session information throughout JSF Application?

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  • Unzip .zip file uploaded from Android via PHP to IIS 7

    - by HaOx
    I'm sending compressed file in .zip extension from Android via PHP to IIS server. Almost is working everything, but I cannot achieve unzip files with php. I've this code: <?php $target_path1 = "C:/Windows/Temp/"; $target_path1 = $target_path1 . basename( $_FILES['uploaded_file']['name']); /* I'm making the folder */ $directorio = substr($target_path1, 0, 32); if (!is_dir($directorio)) { mkdir($directorio); } /* I declare a path */ $barra = "/"; $target_path1 = $directorio . $barra . basename( $_FILES['uploaded_file']['name']); $target_path2 = $directorio . $barra; if(move_uploaded_file($_FILES['uploaded_file']['tmp_name'], $target_path1)) { /* Here I want to unzip the uploaded file */ } else{ echo "There was an error uploading the file, please try again!"; echo "filename: " . basename( $_FILES['uploaded_file']['name']); echo "target_path: " .$target_path1; } ?> So, how can I unzip uploaded file? I tried so many methods but no one worked. I'd be appreciated if someone could tell what I have to do to unzip the uploaded file. And if I have to configure some parameters in php.ini or IIS server. Thanks in advance.

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  • Best Practice: Access form elements by HTML id or name attribute?

    - by seth
    As any seasoned JavaScript developer knows, there are many (too many) ways to do the same thing. For example, say you have a text field as follows: <form name="myForm"> <input type="text" name="foo" id="foo" /> There are many way to access this in JavaScript: [1] document.forms[0].elements[0]; [2] document.myForm.foo; [3] document.getElementById('foo'); [4] document.getElementById('myForm').foo; ... and so on ... Methods [1] and [3] are well documented in the Mozilla Gecko documentation, but neither are ideal. [1] is just too general to be useful and [3] requires both an id and a name (assuming you will be posting the data to a server side language). Ideally, it would be best to have only an id attribute or a name attribute (having both is somewhat redundant, especially if the id isn't necessary for any css, and increases the likelihood of typos, etc). [2] seems to be the most intuitive and it seems to be widely used, but I haven't seen it referenced in the Gecko documentation and I'm worried about both forwards compatibility and cross browser compatiblity (and of course I want to be as standards compliant as possible). So what's best practice here? Can anyone point to something in the DOM documentation or W3C specification that could resolve this? Note I am specifically interested in a non-library solution (jQuery/Prototype).

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  • Visual Studio / Blend... how you organize that?

    - by TomTom
    Virst time more complex stuff in WPF. I am a little lost on the split betwen VS and Blend. It seems I am VERY limited with editors in Visual Studio for editing controls - when customizing, for example, it seems I Can enter astyle in XML... but in blend I Can tell it to make a copy of the CURRENT style and use that as a starter, definitely more convenient. I understand the "difference in focus", but it seems to me that i Really need both tools to work, especially if the controls I Do are: More complex Not user controls "on purpose" (to allow more customization by programmes using the application). THis means when I do a control, my approach would be: Work on the backend as good as it gets without front end (i.e. implement all methods needed etc., but can be dummies) Switch over to Blend (closing visual studio - as the projcet must be closed) Put in the initial templating Switch over to VIsual Studio (closing blend) Put logic in and debug. This seems pretty counterintuitively. Am I missing something obvious here?

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  • Just need someone familiar with HTTPClient to check over a piece of code

    - by jax
    here are two little helper methods I have made for downloading files. I have had to mix and match different tutorials of the web to get what I have here. Now is there anything that I have done blatantly wrong here? public static InputStream simplePostRequest(URL url, List<NameValuePair> postData) throws ClientProtocolException, IOException { DefaultHttpClient httpclient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpPost postMethod=new HttpPost(url.toExternalForm()); postMethod.setEntity(new UrlEncodedFormEntity(postData, HTTP.UTF_8)); HttpResponse response = httpclient.execute(postMethod); HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); return entity.getContent(); } public static InputStream simpleGetRequest(URL url, List<NameValuePair> queryString) throws ClientProtocolException, IOException { Uri.Builder uri = new Uri.Builder(); uri.path(url.getPath()); for(NameValuePair nvp: queryString) { uri.appendQueryParameter(nvp.getName(), nvp.getValue()); } DefaultHttpClient httpClient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpHost host = new HttpHost(url.getHost()); HttpResponse response = httpClient.execute(host, new HttpGet(uri.build().toString())); HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); return entity.getContent(); }

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  • Reference to the Main Form whilst trying to Serialize objects in C#

    - by Paul Matthews
    I have a button on my main form which calls a method to serialize some objects to disk. I am trying to add these objects to an ArrayList and then serialize them using a BinaryFormatter and a FileStream. public void SerializeGAToDisk(string GenAlgName) { // Let's make a list that includes all the objects we // need to store a GA instance ArrayList GAContents = new ArrayList(); GAContents.Add(GenAlgInstances[GenAlgName]); // Structure and info for a GA GAContents.Add(RunningGAs[GenAlgName]); // There may be several running GA's using (FileStream fStream = new FileStream(GenAlgName + ".ga", FileMode.Create, FileAccess.Write, FileShare.None)) { BinaryFormatter binFormat = new BinaryFormatter(); binFormat.Serialize(fStream, GAContents); } } When running the above code I get the following exception: System.Runtime.Serialization.SerializationException was unhandled Message=Type 'WindowsFormsApplication1.Form1' in Assembly 'GeneticAlgApp, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' is not marked as serializable. So that means that somewhere in the objects I'm trying to save there must be a reference to the main form. The only possible references I can see are 3 delegates which all point to methods in the main form code. Do delegates get serialized as well? I can't seem to apply the [NonSerialized] attribute to them. Is there anything else I might be missing? Even better, is there a quick method to find the reference(s) that are causing the problem?

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  • Accessing a struct collection property from within another collection

    - by paddyb
    I have a struct that I need to store in a collection. The struct has a property that returns a Dictionary. public struct Item { private IDictionary<string, string> values; public IDictionary<string, string> Values { get { return this.values ?? (this.values = new Dictionary<string, string>()); } } } public class ItemCollection : Collection<Item> {} When testing I've found that if I add the item to the collection and then try to access the dictionary the structs values property is never updated. var collection = new ItemCollection { new Item() }; // pre-loaded with an item collection[0].Values.Add("myKey", "myValue"); Trace.WriteLine(collection[0].Values["myKey"]); // KeyNotFoundException here However if I load up the item first and then add it to a collection the values field is maintained. var collection = new ItemCollection(); var item = new Item(); item.Values.Add("myKey", "myValue"); collection.Add(item); Trace.WriteLine(collection[0].Values["myKey"]); // ok I've already decided that a struct is the wrong option for this type, and when using a class the issue doesn't occur, but I'm curious what's different between the two methods. Can anybody explain what's happening?

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  • How can I cluster short messages [Tweets] based on topic ? [Topic Based Clustering]

    - by Jagira
    Hello, I am planning an application which will make clusters of short messages/tweets based on topics. The number of topics will be limited like Sports [ NBA, NFL, Cricket, Soccer ], Entertainment [ movies, music ] and so on... I can think of two approaches to this Ask for users to tag questions like Stackoverflow does. Users can select tags from a predefined list of tags. Then on server side I will cluster them on based of tags. Pros:- Simple design. Less complexity in code. Cons:- Choices for users will be restricted. Clusters will not be dynamic. If a new event occurs, the predefined tags will miss it. Take the message, delete the stopwords [ predefined in a dictionary ] and apply some clustering algorithm to make a cluster and depending on its popularity, display the cluster. The cluster will be maintained according to its sustained popularity. New messages will be skimmed and assigned to corresponding clusters. Pros:- Dynamic clustering based on the popularity of the event/accident. Cons:- Increased complexity. More server resources required. I would like to know whether there are any other approaches to this problem. Or are there any ways of improving the above mentioned methods? Also suggest some good clustering algorithms.I think "K-Nearest Clustering" algorithm is apt for this situation.

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  • Is it better to use a relational database or document-based database for an app like Wufoo?

    - by mboyle
    I'm working on an application that's similar to Wufoo in that it allows our users to create their own databases and collect/present records with auto generated forms and views. Since every user is creating a different schema (one user might have a database of their baseball card collection, another might have a database of their recipes) our current approach is using MySQL to create separate databases for every user with its own tables. So in other words, the databases our MySQL server contains look like: main-web-app-db (our web app containing tables for users account info, billing, etc) user_1_db (baseball_cards_table) user_2_db (recipes_table) .... And so on. If a user wants to set up a new database to keep track of their DVD collection, we'd do a "create database ..." with "create table ...". If they enter some data in and then decide they want to change a column we'd do an "alter table ....". Now, the further along I get with building this out the more it seems like MySQL is poorly suited to handling this. 1) My first concern is that switching databases every request, first to our main app's database for authentication etc, and then to the user's personal database, is going to be inefficient. 2) The second concern I have is that there's going to be a limit to the number of databases a single MySQL server can host. Pretending for a moment this application had 500,000 user databases, is MySQL designed to operate this way? What if it were a million, or more? 3) Lastly, is this method going to be a nightmare to support and scale? I've never heard of MySQL being used in this way so I do worry about how this affects things like replication and other methods of scaling. To me, it seems like MySQL wasn't built to be used in this way but what do I know. I've been looking at document-based databases like MongoDB, CouchDB, and Redis as alternatives because it seems like a schema-less approach to this particular problem makes a lot of sense. Can anyone offer some advice on this?

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  • difference between http.context.user and thread.currentprincipal and when to use them?

    - by yamspog
    I have just recently run into an issue running an asp.net web app under visual studio 2008. I get the error 'type is not resolved for member...customUserPrincipal'. Tracking down various discussion groups it seems that there is an issue with Visual Studio's web server when you assign a custom principal against the Thread.CurrentPrincipal. In my code, I now use... HttpContext.Current.User = myCustomPrincipal //Thread.CurrentPrincipal = myCustomPrincipal I'm glad that I got the error out of the way, but it begs the question "What is the difference between these two methods of setting a principal?". There are other stackoverflow questions related to the differences but they don't get into the details of the two approaches. I did find one tantalizing post that had the following grandiose comment but no explanation to back up his assertions... Use HttpConext.Current.User for all web (ASPX/ASMX) applications. Use Thread.CurrentPrincipal for all other applications like winForms, console and windows service applications. Can any of you security/dot.net gurus shed some light on this subject?

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  • Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

    - by Jason Evans
    I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

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  • Custom UITableView headerView disappears after memory warning

    - by psychotik
    I have a UITableViewController. I create a custom headerView for it's tableView in the loadView method like so: (void)loadView { [super loadView]; UIView* containerView = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, width, height * 2 )]; containerView.tag = 'cont'; containerView.autoresizingMask = UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleLeftMargin | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleRightMargin | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleTopMargin; UIButton* button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; button.frame = CGRectMake(padding, height, width, height); ... //configure UIButton and events UIImageView* imageView = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"image.png"] highlightedImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"highlight.png"]]; imageView.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, width, height ); ... //configure UIImageView [containerView addSubview:button]; [containerView addSubview:imageView]; self.tableView.tableHeaderView = containerView; [imageView release]; [containerView release]; } None of the other methods (viewDidLoad/Unload, etc) are overloaded. This controller is hosted in a tab. When I switch to another tab and simulate a memory warning, and then come back to this tab, my UITableView is missing my custon header. All the rows/section are visible as I would expect. Putting a BP in the loadView code above, I see it being invoked when I switch back to the tab after the memory warning, and yet I can't actually see the header. Any ideas about what I'm missing here? EDIT: This happens on the device and the simulator. On the device, I just let a memory warning occur by opening a bunch of different apps while mine is in the background.

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  • Where do I put the logic of my MFC program?

    - by Matthew
    I created an application core, in C++, that I've compiled into a static library in Visual Studio. I am now at the process of writing a GUI for it. I am using MFC to do this. I figured out how to map button presses to execute certain methods of my application core's main class (i.e. buttons to have it start and stop). The core class however, should always be sampling data from an external source every second or two. The GUI should then populate some fields after each sample is taken. I can't seem to find a spot in my MFC objects like CDialog that I can constantly check to see if my class has grabbed the data.. then if it has put that data into some of the text boxes. A friend suggested that I create a thread on the OnInit() routine that would take care of this, but that solution isn't really working for me. Is there no spot where I can put an if statement that keeps being called until the program quits? i.e. if( coreapp.dataSampleReady() ) { // put coreapp.dataItem1() in TextBox1 // set progress bar to coreapp.dataItem2() // etc. // reset dataSampleReady }

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  • ImageViews sometimes not displaying in FrameLayout activity

    - by Ken
    The top level layout in my activity is a framelayout. I have completed, debugged and tested this app and it works exactly like it should in all respects on my g1 and on various emulators. But on 3.7-inch displays running 2.1+, some imageviews packed in a linearlayout are periodically not visible. I know that they are there because you can touch and drag them with effect in the app. So I assume somehow they have gotten under the SurfaceView that is the main component of the app. This is apparently so even though the SurfaceView is declared in the xml prior to the LinearLayout. However, the ImageViews IN the LinearLayout are added programmatically towards the end of onCreate(). Framelayout stacks everything that is added to it, one on top of the other--the only way you will see more than one child of a frame layout is if they are smaller than the screen and are placed apart from eachother. Oddly, sometimes the imageviews ARE visible--it is random. Anyway, I've been trying to combat this with framelayout.bringChildToFront(View v) on the linearlayout without success. I wonder if anyone has any insight into how the behavior could be random like that, and how I should code these imageviews to keep this from happening, and why the problem appears only to occur on 3.7 vs 3.2 inch screens (as it happens, the two 3.2-inch screens were both htc, so vendor might be factor too). [edit] Actually, I've determined that this is a 2.2 issue, not a screen size (or even vendor) issue. Can't ensure that ImageViews added to a framelayout with a SurfaceView in it will appear on top of the surfaceview. I ran some tests in the respective onDraw() methods and the imageviews are 'visible' (0), and nothing does anything to the alpha of the drawables, which are there as well at ondraw(). [/edit] Any insight would be welcomed. Ken T.

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  • Questions regarding detouring by modifying the virtual table

    - by Elliott Darfink
    I've been practicing detours using the same approach as Microsoft Detours (replace the first five bytes with a jmp and an address). More recently I've been reading about detouring by modifying the virtual table. I would appreciate if someone could shed some light on the subject by mentioning a few pros and cons with this method compared to the one previously mentioned! I'd also like to ask about patched vtables and objects on the stack. Consider the following situation: // Class definition struct Foo { virtual void Call(void) { std::cout << "FooCall\n"; } }; // If it's GCC, 'this' is passed as the first parameter void MyCall(Foo * object) { std::cout << "MyCall\n"; } // In some function Foo * foo = new Foo; // Allocated on the heap Foo foo2; // Created on the stack // Arguments: void ** vtable, uint offset, void * replacement PatchVTable(*reinterpret_cast<void***>(foo), 0, MyCall); // Call the methods foo->Call(); // Outputs: 'MyCall' foo2.Call(); // Outputs: 'FooCall' In this case foo->Call() would end up calling MyCall(Foo * object) whilst foo2.Call() call the original function (i.e Foo::Call(void) method). This is because the compiler will try to decide any virtual calls during compile time if possible (correct me if I'm wrong). Does that mean it does not matter if you patch the virtual table or not, as long as you use objects on the stack (not heap allocated)?

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  • Groovy as a substitute for Java when using BigDecimal?

    - by geejay
    I have just completed an evaluation of Java, Groovy and Scala. The factors I considered were: readability, precision The factors I would like to know: performance, ease of integration I needed a BigDecimal level of precision. Here are my results: Java void someOp() { BigDecimal del_theta_1 = toDec(6); BigDecimal del_theta_2 = toDec(2); BigDecimal del_theta_m = toDec(0); del_theta_m = abs(del_theta_1.subtract(del_theta_2)) .divide(log(del_theta_1.divide(del_theta_2))); } Groovy void someOp() { def del_theta_1 = 6.0 def del_theta_2 = 2.0 def del_theta_m = 0.0 del_theta_m = Math.abs(del_theta_1 - del_theta_2) / Math.log(del_theta_1 / del_theta_2); } Scala def other(){ var del_theta_1 = toDec(6); var del_theta_2 = toDec(2); var del_theta_m = toDec(0); del_theta_m = ( abs(del_theta_1 - del_theta_2) / log(del_theta_1 / del_theta_2) ) } Note that in Java and Scala I used static imports. Java: Pros: it is Java Cons: no operator overloading (lots o methods), barely readable/codeable Groovy: Pros: default BigDecimal means no visible typing, least surprising BigDecimal support for all operations (division included) Cons: another language to learn Scala: Pros: has operator overloading for BigDecimal Cons: some surprising behaviour with division (fixed with Decimal128), another language to learn

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  • Unity: Replace registered type with another type at runtime

    - by gehho
    We have a scenario where the user can choose between different hardware at runtime. In the background we have several different hardware classes which all implement an IHardware interface. We would like to use Unity to register the currently selected hardware instance for this interface. However, when the user selects another hardware, this would require us to replace this registration at runtime. The following example might make this clearer: public interface IHardware { // some methods... } public class HardwareA : IHardware { // ... } public class HardwareB : IHardware { // ... } container.RegisterInstance<IHardware>(new HardwareA()); // user selects new hardware somewhere in the configuration... // the following is invalid code, but can it be achieved another way? container.ReplaceInstance<IHardware>(new HardwareB()); Can this behavior be achieved somehow? BTW: I am completely aware that instances which have already been resolved from the container will not be replaced with the new instances, of course. We would take care of that ourselves by forcing them to resolve the instance once again.

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  • Host WCF in MVC2 Site

    - by Basiclife
    Hi, We've got a very large, complex MVC2 website. We want to add an API for some internal tools and decided to use WCF. Ideally, we want MVC itself to host the WCF service. Reasons include: Although there's multiple tiers to the application, some functionality we'd like in the API requires the website itself (e.g. formatting emails). We use TFS to auto-build (continuous integration) and deploy - The less we need to modify the build and release mechanism the better We use the Unity container and Inversion of Control throughout the application. Being part of the Website would allow us to re-use configuration classes and other helper methods. I've written a custom ServiceBehavior which in turn has a custom InstanceProvider - This allows me to instantiate and configure a container which is then used to service all requests for class instances from WCF. So my question is; Is it possible to host a WCF service from within MVC itself? I've only had experience in Services / Standard Asp.Net websites before and didn't realise MVC2 might be different until I actually tried to wire it into the config and nothing happened. After some googling, there don't seem to be many references to doing this - so thought I'd ask here.

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