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  • Spring MVC: should service layer be returning operation specific DTO's ?

    - by arrages
    In my Spring MVC application I am using DTO in the presentation layer in order to encapsulate the domain model in the service layer. The DTO's are being used as the spring form backing objects. hence my services look something like this: userService.storeUser(NewUserRequestDTO req); The service layer will translate DTO - Domain object and do the rest of the work. Now my problem is that when I want to retrieve a DTO from the service to perform say an Update or Display I can't seem to find a better way to do it then to have multiple methods for the lookup that return different DTO's like... EditUserRequestDTO userService.loadUserForEdit(int id); DisplayUserDTO userService.loadUserForDisplay(int id); but something does not feel right about this approach. The reason do have separate DTO's is that DisplayUserDTO is strongly typed to be read only and also there are many properties of user that are entities from a lookup table in the db (like city and state) so the DisplayUserDTO would have the string description of the properties while the EditUserRequestDTO will have the id's that will back the select drop down lists in the forms. What do you think? thanks

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  • How would you code an efficient Circular Buffer in Java or C#

    - by Cheeso
    I want a simple class that implements a fixed-size circular buffer. It should be efficient, easy on the eyes, generically typed. EDIT: It need not be MT-capable, for now. I can always add a lock later, it won't be high-concurrency in any case. Methods should be: .Add and I guess .List, where I retrieve all the entries. On second thought, Retrieval I think should be done via an indexer. At any moment I will want to be able to retrieve any element in the buffer by index. But keep in mind that from one moment to the next Element[n] may be different, as the Circular buffer fills up and rolls over. This isn't a stack, it's a circular buffer. Regarding "overflow": I would expect internally there would be an array holding the items, and over time the head and tail of the buffer will rotate around that fixed array. But that should be invisible from the user. There should be no externally-detectable "overflow" event or behavior. This is not a school assignment - it is most commonly going to be used for a MRU cache or a fixed-size transaction or event log.

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  • Best Way to View Generated Source of Webpage?

    - by jeremy
    I'm looking for a tool that will give me the proper generated source including DOM changes made by AJAX requests for input into W3's validator. I've tried the following methods: Web Developer Toolbar - Generates invalid source according to the doc-type (e.g. it removes the self closing portion of tags). Loses the doctype portion of the page. Firebug - Fixes potential flaws in the source (e.g. unclosed tags). Also loses doctype portion of tags and injects the console which itself is invalid HTML. IE Developer Toolbar - Generates invalid source according to the doc-type (e.g. it makes all tags uppercase, against XHTML spec). Highlight + View Selection Source - Frequently difficult to get the entire page, also excludes doc-type. Is there any program or add-on out there that will give me the exact current version of the source, without fixing or changing it in some way? So far, Firebug seems the best, but I worry it may fix some of my mistakes. Solution It turns out there is no exact solution to what I wanted as Justin explained. The best solution seems to be to validate the source inside of Firebug's console, even though it will contain some errors caused by Firebug. I'd also like to thank Forgotten Semicolon for explaining why "View Generated Source" doesn't match the actual source. If I could mark 2 best answers, I would.

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  • How to encapsulate a WinAPI application into a C++ class

    - by Semen Semenych
    There is a simple WinAPI application. All it does currently is this: register a window class register a tray icon with a menu create a value in the registry in order to autostart and finally, it checks if it's unique using a mutex As I'm used to writing code mainly in C++, and no MFC is allowed, I'm forced to encapsulate this into C++ classes somehow. So far I've come up with such a design: there is a class that represents the application it keeps all the wndclass, hinstance, etc variables, where the hinstance is passed as a constructor parameter as well as the icmdshow and others (see WinMain prototype) it has functions for registering the window class, tray icon, reigstry information it encapsulates the message loop in a function In WinMain, the following is done: Application app(hInstance, szCmdLIne, iCmdShow); return app.exec(); and the constructor does the following: registerClass(); registerTray(); registerAutostart(); So far so good. Now the question is : how do I create the window procedure (must be static, as it's a c-style pointer to a function) AND keep track of what the application object is, that is, keep a pointer to an Application around. The main question is : is this how it's usually done? Am I complicating things too much? Is it fine to pass hInstance as a parameter to the Application constructor? And where's the WndProc? Maybe WndProc should be outside of class and the Application pointer be global? Then WndProc invokes Application methods in response to various events.

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  • Is there a Scala version of .irbrc or another way to define some default libraries for REPL use?

    - by Tom Morris
    I've written a little library that uses implicits to add functionality that one only needs when using the REPL in Scala. Ruby has libraries like this - for things like pretty printing, firing up text editors (like the interactive_editor gem which invokes Vim from irb - see this post), debuggers and the like. The library I am trying to write adds some methods to java.lang.Class and java.lang.reflect classes using the 'pimp my library' implicit conversion process to help you go and find documentation (initially, with Google, then later possibly with a JavaDoc/ScalaDoc viewer, and maybe the StackOverflow API eventually!). It's an itch-scratching library: I spend so much time copying and pasting classnames into Google that I figured I may as well automate the process. It is the sort of functionality that developers will want to add to their system for use only in the REPL - they shouldn't really be adding it to projects (partly because it may not be something that their fellow developers want, but also because if you are doing some exploratory development, it may be with just a Scala REPL that's not being invoked by an IDE or build tool). In my case, I want to include a few classes and set up some implicits - include a .jar on the CLASSPATH and import it, basically. In Ruby, this is the sort of thing that you'd add to your .irbrc file. Other REPLs have similar ways of setting options and importing libraries. Is there a similar file or way of doing this for the Scala REPL?

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  • ASP.NET MVC - Wrong redirecting, how to debug?

    - by Xorty
    I am stuck with redirecting problem in ASP.NET MVC project. I have mapped tables via LINQtoSQL and each has unique ID as primary key. I am implementing functionallity of 'CREATE'. Basically, after new value is added into SQL table (which means I pressed Save button), I want to be redirected to Details of this freshly added item. Here's little code how I am doing it : [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post), Authorize] public ActionResult Create(Item item) { .... return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = item.ItemID }); Trouble is, I am never redirected to Details view (I have Details.aspx view for items). When I check CallHierarchy in Visual Studio (2010 pro) the hierarchy is indeed little strange, like this : RedirectToAction(string,object) Calls To 'RedirectToAction' Create Calls To Create (no results) Calls From Create (methods of created instance. From there I'll get back to 'RedirectToAction' and to 'Calls to Create' and 'Calls From Create' etc. etc. - loop Edit Calls From 'RedirectToAction' Not supported I am looking for some tools or more specifically 'know how' (since VS probably has some tools) to debug this kind of situations. PS: rooting is default :"{controller}/{action}/{id}", Thanks

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  • Validating JSP's and HTML Forms, Server-side or Client-side, or both?

    - by CitadelCSAlum
    I am aware that I can Google "HTML Form Validation" and would get a billion tutorials. I am well aware that I can use simple JavaScript to validate form input, but I have been told that this is not necessarily an efficient method. I have also heard that it is a best practice to validate both client and server-side code. OK! Well, What exactly does this mean besides writing code on both? Does it mean I do some with JavaScript and other with Servlet's or does it mean that I write identical validation methods on both? My real question is can anybody give me insight and direction as how to go about validation my HTML forms. I am using JSP's and Servlet's and I have tons of form validation to do. I have already done minor form validation with regex in Java, but want to figure out if Im heading in the right track before I write any more code. Only productive answers please, If I wanted negative feedback on how inexperienced I was, I would have gone to Reddit. Thanks!

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  • Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

    - by Jason Evans
    I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

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  • In M-V-VM where does my code go?

    - by Nate Bross
    So, this is a pretty basic question I hope. I have a web service that I've added through Add Service Reference. It has some methods to get list and get detail of a perticular table in my database. What I'm trying to do is setup a UI as follows: App Load Load service proxy Call the GetList(); method display the results in a ListBox control User Double Clicks item in ListBox, display a modal dialog with a "detail" view I'm extremely new to using MVVM, so any help would be greatly appreciated. Additional information: // Service Interface (simplification): interface IService { IEnumerable<MyObject> GetList(); MyObject GetDetail(int id); } // Data object (simplification) class MyObject { public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } I'm thinking I should have something like this: MainWindow MyObjectViewUserControl Displays list Opens modal window on double click Specific Questions: What would my ViewModel class look like? Where does the code to handle the double click go? Inside the UserControl? Sorry for the long details, but I'm very new to the whole thing and I'm not educated enough to ask the right questions. I checked out the MVVM Sample from wpf.codeplex.com and something isn't quite clicking for me yet, because it seems very confusing.

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  • How to send a future email using AT command.

    - by BHare
    I just need to send one email into the future, so I figured i'd be best at using at rather than using cron. This is what I have so far, its messy and ugly and not that great at escaping: <pre> <?php $out = array(); // Where is the email going? $email = "[email protected]"; // What is the body of the email (make sure to escape any double-quotes) $body = "This is what is actually emailed to me"; $body = escapeshellcmd($body); $body = str_replace('!', '\!', $body); // What is the subject of the email (make sure to escape any double-quotes) $subject = "It's alive!"; $subject = escapeshellcmd($subject); $subject = str_replace('!', '\!', $subject); // How long from now should this email be sent? IE: 1 minute, 32 days, 1 month 2 days. $when = "1 minute"; $command= <<<END echo " echo \"$body\" > /tmp/email; mail -s \"$subject\" $email < /tmp/email; rm /tmp/email; " | at now + $when; END; $ret = exec($command, $out); print_r($out); ?> </pre> The output should be something like warning: commands will be executed using /bin/sh job 60 at Thu Dec 30 19:39:00 2010 However I am doing something wrong with exec and not getting the result? The main thing is this seem very messy. Is there any alternative better methods for doing this? PS: I had to add apache's user (www-data for me) to /etc/at.allow ...Which I don't like, but I can live with it.

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  • A simple way to put a UIImage in a UIButton

    - by Alice
    I have a UIButton in my iPhone app. I set its size to 100x100. I have an image that is 400x200 that I wish to display in the button. The button STILL needs to stay at 100x100... and I want the image to downsize to fit... but keep the correct aspect ratio. I thought that's what "Aspect Fit" was used for. Do I include my image with setImage, or setBackgroundImage? Do I set AspectFit for the button? or the image? or the background image? (I need the smaller images to INCREASE in size. While larger images should DESCREASE in size. Always keeping the button at 100x100.) I've tried countless combinations of all of the above... and I just can't seem to get everything to work at the same time: Don't change the button's size of 100x100. Don't destroy the image's aspect ratio. Always increase small images to fit the button. Always decrease large images to fit the button. Never clip any of the image edges. Never require the "put UIButtons over all your UIimages" hack. Don't require everyone to upgrade to v4.2.1 just to use new framework methods. I see so many apps, with so many fully-working image-buttons... that I can't believe I can't figure out this very simple, very common thing. Ugh.

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  • Method having an abstract class as a parameter

    - by Ferhat
    I have an abstract class A, where I have derived the classes B and C. Class A provides an abstract method DoJOB(), which is implemented by both derived classes. There is a class X which has methods inside, which need to call DoJOB(). The class X may not contain any code like B.DoJOB() or C.DoJOB(). Example: public class X { private A foo; public X(A concrete) { foo = concrete; } public FunnyMethod() { foo.DoJOB(); } } While instantiating class X I want to decide which derived class (B or C) must be used. I thought about passing an instance of B or C using the constructor of X. X kewl = new X(new C()); kewl.FunnyMethod(); //calls C.DoJOB() kewl = new X(new B()); kewl.FunnyMethod(); // calls B.DoJOB() My test showed that declaring a method with a parameter A is not working. Am I missing something? How can I implement this correctly? (A is abstract, it cannot be instantiated)

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  • Imlpementations of an Interface with Different Types?

    - by b3njamin
    Searched as best I could but unfortunately I've learned nothing relevant; basically I'm trying to work around the following problem in C#... For example, I have three possible references (refA, refB, refC) and I need to load the correct one depending on a configuration option. So far however I can't see a way of doing it that doesn't require me to use the name of said referenced object all through the code (the referenced objects are provided, I can't change them). Hope the following code makes more sense: public ??? LoadedClass; public Init() { /* load the object, according to which version we need... */ if (Config.Version == "refA") { Namespace.refA LoadedClass = new refA(); } else if (Config.Version == "refB") { Namespace.refB LoadedClass = new refB(); } else if (Config.Version == "refC") { Namespace.refC LoadedClass = new refC(); } Run(); } private void Run(){ { LoadedClass.SomeProperty... LoadedClass.SomeMethod(){ etc... } } As you can see, I need the Loaded class to be public, so in my limited way I'm trying to change the type 'dynamically' as I load in which real class I want. Each of refA, refB and refC will implement the same properties and methods but with different names. Again, this is what I'm working with, not by my design. All that said, I tried to get my head around Interfaces (which sound like they're what I'm after) but I'm looking at them and seeing strict types - which makes sense to me, even if it's not useful to me. Any and all ideas and opinions are welcome and I'll clarify anything if necessary. Excuse any silly mistakes I've made in the terminology, I'm learning all this for the first time. I'm really enjoying working with an OOP language so far though - coming from PHP this stuff is blowing my mind :-)

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  • Is there a way to automatically load navigational property using the .NET Entity Framework?

    - by René Wolferink
    Stepping away more and more from writing SQL for my applications, I decided to give the Entity Framework a try. However, I've run into something I believe is causing me to write more code than I think is strictly necessary. When I accessed some navigational properties, I discovered that all many-to-one relations (simple references) were null and all one-to-many and many-to-many relations (EntityCollections) were empty. For example: I have a User with a reference to a Group. When I have retieved a User, by using a simple select-by-id, the Group property is null. If I want to access the Group I have to manually load it (using User.GroupReference.Load()). So I added a GetGroup() method in User which checks whether the Group is loaded already and, if not, does so and then returns the Group. Now this will result in a lot of highly similar methods for all navigational properties. And it all results in the navigational properties not being used, only my custom-made Get"PropertyName"() method's are now being used. I don't want to expand my queries (linq to entities) to immediately load all these properties, because it's not always known at first what is needed. And besides, it would cause a lot of queries to have to be made. Is there a way to configure the Entity Framework to load these objects when they happen to not be present? So when I access User.Group and the group is not loaded yet, it is loaded automatically? Or am I stuck using my own Get"PropertyName"() method's as long as I'm trying to load objects only on demand (or "just-in-time")? Some extra info: I'm using VS2008 SP1 with .NET 3.5 SP1. The Entity Framework I'm using is the one that got shipped with it.

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  • Why won't WPF databindings show text when ToString() has a collaborating object?

    - by Jay
    In a simple form, I bind to a number of different objects -- some go in listboxes; some in textblocks. A couple of these objects have collaborating objects upon which the ToString() method calls when doing its work -- typically a formatter of some kind. When I step through the code I see that when the databinding is being set up, ToString() is called the collaborating object is not null and returns the expected result when inspected in the debugger, the objects return the expected result from ToString() BUT the text does not show up in the form. The only common thread I see is that these use a collaborating object, whereas the other bindings that show up as expected simply work from properties and methods of the containing object. If this is confusing, here is the gist in code: public class ThisThingWorks { private SomeObject some_object; public ThisThingWorks(SomeObject s) { some_object = s; } public override string ToString() { return some_object.name; } } public class ThisDoesntWork { private Formatter formatter; private SomeObject some_object; public ThisDoesntWork(SomeObject o, Formatter f) { formatter = f; some_object = o; } public override string ToString() { return formatter.Format(some_object.name); } } Again, let me reiterate -- the ToString() method works in every other context -- but when I bind to the object in WPF and expect it to display the result of ToString(), I get nothing. Update: The issue seems to be what I see as a buggy behaviour in the TextBlock binding. If I bind the Text property to a property of the DataContext that is declared as an interface type, ToString() is never called. If I change the property declaration to an implementation of the interface, it works as expected. Other controls, like Label work fine when binding the Content property to a DataContext property declared as either the implementation or the interface. Because this is so far removed from the title and content of this question, I've created a new question here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2917878/why-doesnt-textblock-databinding-call-tostring-on-a-property-whose-compile-tim

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  • BlackBerry Deployment Strategies

    - by cagreen
    I'm new to large scale BB app deployment and I'm looking for some clarification on the various methods of deployment. Please bear with me as I'm sure there is more to it than my naive view would lead me to believe. My app is very targeted to corporate users and requires a subscription to some additional services before it can be used. In other words, it's not targeted towards the consumer market, so I'm not worried about people not being able to easily find it online. What do I need to be aware of when looking at deployment strategies? Any gotchas? From my understanding my choices are: - App World small upfront vendor fee users can easily search for and find my app billing handled by RIM 4 licensing models (static, single, pool, dynamic). Though I'm not sure I've seen enough info on the pool and dynamic to fully appreciate how it might help me. - Download from my website billing is handled by me can I enforce the number of licenses that are in use within an organization? is this easier/harder for a user? - What else am I missing?

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  • Why won't my Setup Project Perform my Custom Registration Process

    - by Jordan S
    I am trying to write an Setup Project/Installer for a class library driver that I wrote in C# using Visual Studio 2008. The driver project has a section of code that looks like this... [ComRegisterFunction] public static void RegisterASCOM(Type t) { Trace.WriteLine("Registration Started."); DoRegistration(true); } In the driver project Properties - "Assembly Information" I have set checked the box that says Make COM-Visible = true. I added a Setup Project to the solution in VS, added the output dll from the driver project so that it installs on the target machine and set the Register property of the dll to "vsdraCOM". So, my understanding is that when the installer runs it SHOULD execute the methods of the dll that are marked with [COMRegisterFunction]. Using SysInternals Debug View I can monitor when the above code snippet is hit by watching for the "Registration started" text to show up in the window. When I build the solution, I can see the text show up so I know the driver is registering properly. The problem is that when I run the installer, I don't think it is doing the registration bit. I see nothing show up in Debug View. And if i try to access my driver via another application I get an error saying it "Cannot create ActiveX object". Why does the registration not occur during the install process? The driver does register for COM but it does NOT call my custom registration method. Does anyone have and suggestions of what I could be missing? Is there another way I can debug this? (I can provide more code if anyone want's to take a look!!)

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  • NSNotification vs. Delegate Protocols?

    - by jr
    I have an iPhone application which basically is getting information from an API (in XML, but maybe JSON eventually). The result objects are typically displayed in view controllers (tables mainly). Here is the architecture right now. I have NSOperation classes which fetch the different objects from the remote server. Each of these NSOperation classes, will take a custom delegate method which will fire back the resulting objects as they are parsed, and then finally a method when no more results are available. So, the protocol for the delegates will be something like: (void) ObjectTypeResult:(ObjectType *)result; (void) ObjectTypeNoMoreResults; I think the solution works well, but I do end up with a bunch of delegate protocols around and then my view controllers have to implement all these delegate methods. I don't think its that bad, but I'm always on the lookout for a better design. So, I'm thinking about using NSNotifications to remove the use of the delegates. I could include the object in the userInfo part of the notification and just post objects as received, and then a final event when no more are available. Then I could just have one method in each view controller to receive all the data, even when using multiple objects in one controller.† So, can someone share with me some pros/cons of each approach. Should I consider refactoring my code to use Events rather then the delegates? Is one better then the other in certain situations? In my scenario I'm really not looking to receive notifications in multiple places, so maybe the protocol based delegates are the way to go. Thanks!

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  • Javascript Closures, Callbacks, This and That

    - by nazbot
    I am having some trouble getting a callback function to work. Here is my code: SomeObject.prototype.refreshData = function() { var read_obj = new SomeAjaxCall("read_some_data", { }, this.readSuccess, this.readFail); } SomeObject.prototype.readSuccess = function(response) { this.data = response; this.someList = []; for (var i = 0; i < this.data.length; i++) { var systemData = this.data[i]; var system = new SomeSystem(systemData); this.someList.push(system); } this.refreshList(); } Basically SomeAjaxCall is making an ajax request for data. If it works we use the callback 'this.readSuccess' and if it fails 'this.readFail'. I have figured out that 'this' in the SomeObject.readSuccess is the global this (aka the window object) because my callbacks are being called as functions and not member methods. My understanding is that I need to use closures to keep the 'this' around, however, I have not been able to get this to work. If someone is able show me what I should be doing I would appreciate it greatly. I am still wrapping my head around how closures work and specifically how they would work in this situation. Thanks!

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  • Upcasting without any added data fields.

    - by Benjamin Manns
    In my project I have a generic Packet class. I would like to be able to upcast to other classes (like LoginPacket or MovePacket). The base class contains a command and arguments (greatly simplified): public class Packet { public String Command; public String[] Arguments; } I would like to have be able to convert from Packet to LoginPacket (or any other) based on a check if Packet.Command == "LOGIN". The login packet would not contain any new data members, but only methods for accessing specific arguments. For example: public class LoginPacket : Packet { public String Username { get { return Arguments[0]; } set { Arguments[0] == value; } } public String Password { get { return Arguments[1]; } set { Arguments[1] == value; } } } It would be great if I could run a simple code that would cast from Packet to LoginPacket with something like LoginPacket _Login = (LoginPacket)_Packet;, but that throws a System.InvalidCastException. It seems like this would be an easy task, as no new data is included, but I can't figure out any other way than copying everything from the Packet class to a new LoginPacket class.

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  • How to unit test generic classes

    - by Rowland Shaw
    I'm trying to set up some unit tests for an existing compact framework class library. However, I've fallen at the first hurdle, where it appears that the test framework is unable to load the types involved (even though they're both in the class library being tested) Test method MyLibrary.Tests.MyGenericClassTest.MyMethodTest threw exception: System.MissingMethodException: Could not load type 'MyLibrary.MyType' from assembly 'MyLibrary, Version=1.0.3778.36113, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null'.. My code is loosely: public class MyGenericClass<T> : List<T> where T : MyType, new() { public bool MyMethod(T foo) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } With test methods: public void MyMethodTestHelper<T>() where T : MyType, new() { MyGenericClass<T> target = new MyGenericClass<T>(); foo = new T(); expected = true; actual = target.MyMethod(foo); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); } [TestMethod()] public void MyMethodTest() { MyMethodTestHelper<MyType>(); } I'm a bit stumped though, as I can't even get it to break in the debugger to get to the inner exception, so what else do I check? EDIT this does seem to be something specific to the Compact Framework - recompiling the class libraries and the unit tests for the full framework, gives the expected output (i.e. the debugger stops when I'm going to throw a NotImplementedException).

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  • Change a finder method w/ parameters to an association

    - by Sai Emrys
    How do I turn this into a has_one association? (Possibly has_one + a named scope for size.) class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :assets, :foreign_key => 'creator_id' def avatar_asset size = :thumb # The LIKE is because it might be a .jpg, .png, or .gif. # More efficient methods that can handle that are OK. ;) self.assets.find :first, :conditions => ["thumbnail = '#{size}' and filename LIKE ?", self.login + "_#{size}.%"] end end EDIT: Cuing from AnalogHole on Freenode #rubyonrails, we can do this: has_many :assets, :foreign_key => 'creator_id' do def avatar size = :thumb find :first, :conditions => ["thumbnail = ? and filename LIKE ?", size.to_s, proxy_owner.login + "_#{size}.%"] end end ... which is fairly cool, and makes syntax a bit better at least. However, this still doesn't behave as well as I would like. Particularly, it doesn't allow for further nice find chaining (such that it doesn't execute this find until it's gotten all its conditions). More importantly, it doesn't allow for use in an :include. Ideally I want to do something like this: PostsController def show post = Post.get_cache(params[:id]) { Post.find(params[:id], :include => {:comments => {:users => {:avatar_asset => :thumb}} } ... end ... so that I can cache the assets together with the post. Or cache them at all, really - e.g. get_cache(user_id){User.find(user_id, :include => :avatar_assets)} would be a good first pass. This doesn't actually work (self == User), but is correct in spirit: has_many :avatar_assets, :foreign_key => 'creator_id', :class_name => 'Asset', :conditions => ["filename LIKE ?", self.login + "_%"] (Also posted on Refactor My Code.)

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  • How do I send data between two computers over the internet

    - by Johan
    I have been struggling with this for the entire day now, I hope somebody can help me with this. My problem is fairly simple: I wish to transfer data (mostly simple commands) from one PC to another over the internet. I have been able to achieve this using sockets in Java when both computers are connected to my home router. I then connected both computers to the internet using two different mobile phones and attempted to transmit the data again. I used the mobile phones as this provides a direct route to the internet and if I use my router I have to set up port forwarding, at least, that is how I understand it. I think the problem lies in the method that I set up the client socket. I used: Socket kkSocket = new Socket(ipAddress, 3333); where ipAddress is the IP address of the computer running the server. I got the IP address by right-clicking on the connection, status, support. Is that the correct IP address to use or where can I obtain the address of the server? Also, is it possible to get a fixed name for my computer that I can use instead of entering the IP address, as this changes every time I connect to the internet using my mobile phone? Alternatively, are there better methods to solving my problem such as using http, and if so, where can I find more information about this? Thanks!

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  • protect form hijacking hack

    - by Karem
    Yes hello today I discovered a hack for my site. When you write a msg on a users wall (in my communitysite) it runs a ajax call, to insert the msg to the db and will then on success slide down and show it. Works fine with no problem. So I was rethinking alittle, I am using POST methods for this and if it was GET method you could easily do ?msg=haxmsg&usr=12345679. But what could you do to come around the POST method? I made a new html document, made a form and on action i set "site.com/insertwall.php" (the file that normally are being used in ajax), i made some input fields with names exactly like i am doing with the ajaxcall (msg, uID (userid), BuID (by userid) ) and made a submit button. I know I have a page_protect() function on which requires you to login and if you arent you will be header to index.php. So i logged in (started session on my site.com) and then I pressed on this submit button. And then wops I saw on my site that it has made a new message. I was like wow, was it so easy to hijack POST method i thought maybe it was little more secure or something. I would like to know what could I do to prevent this hijacking? As i wouldnt even want to know what real hackers could do with this "hole". The page_protect secures that the sessions are from the same http user agent and so, and this works fine (tried to run the form without logging in, and it just headers me to startpage) but yea wouldnt take long time to figure out to log in first and then run it. Any advices are appreciated alot. I would like to keep my ajax calls most secure as possible and all of them are running on the POST method. What could I do to the insertwall.php, to check that it comes from the server or something.. Thank you

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  • redirecting the root domain - SEO and other issues, need some guidance!

    - by Jim Sp
    I'm not familiar with some of these forwarding methods and I need help. My issue is this: I have a site hosted on discountasp.net. My domain was registered through 1&1 and I redirected the DNS to what discountasp.net wanted. So when a user types www.mydomain.com, he/she sees the ASP.NET site hosted on discountasp.net, which is all fine My main page is Index.aspx, I really suck at html page design and I don't have time or the talent to fiddle with it (or money to get it done by a pro). The rest of the pages are fine. I want to use a good theme from tumblr or bloggr - one of the blog sites and create a page that I want to use as the first page - directly on blogger or tumblr - say yyy.blogspot.com (I have many reasons, so for now please don't bash my decision - let's just say that's what I want). That means when a user types www.mydomain.com, it should redirect it to the blogger or tumblr page. Everything else stays the sme - the links on the blogger page will say www.mydomain.com/xxxx and show up what's on the hosted website. I have setup the IIS rewrite rules etc. etc. so that all works just fine The bottom line is I want to show an external site's web page as my root page. I suppose I'm struggling to even explain what I want! I can of course do a response.redirect on the Index.aspx page - which is the simplest way to manage this, but the big question is will this hurt SEO in some way? If not, that would be what I do and leave the rest of the infrastructure intact (I have already done this to test and it works fine) Thank you very much j

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