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  • Robotlegs: Warning: Injector already has a rule for type

    - by MikeW
    I have a bunch of warning messages like this appear when using Robotlegs/Signals. Everytime this command class executes, which is every 2-3 seconds ..this message displays below If you have overwritten this mapping intentionally you can use "injector.unmap()" prior to your replacement mapping in order to avoid seeing this message. Warning: Injector already has a rule for type "mx.messaging.messages::IMessage", named "". The command functions fine otherwise but I think I'm doing something wrong anyhow. public class MessageReceivedCommand extends SignalCommand { [Inject] public var message:IMessage; ...etc.. do something with message.. } the application context doesnt map IMessage to this command, as I only see an option to mapSignalClass , besides the payload is received fine. Wonder if anyone knows how I might either fix or suppress this message. I've tried calling this as the warning suggests injector.unmap(IMessage, "") but I receive an error - no mapping found for ::IMessage named "". Thanks Edit: A bit more info about the error Here is the signal that I dispatch to the command public class GameMessageSignal extends Signal { public function GameMessageSignal() { super(IMessage); } } which is dispatched from a IPushDataService class gameMessage.dispatch(message.message); and the implementation is wired up in the app context via injector.mapClass(IPushDataService, PushDataService); along with the signal signalCommandMap.mapSignalClass(GameMessageSignal, MessageReceivedCommand); Edit #2: Probably good to point out also I inject an instance of GameMessageSignal into IPushDataService public class PushDataService extends BaseDataService implements IPushDataService { [Inject] public var gameMessage:GameMessageSignal; //then private function processMessage(message:MessageEvent):void { gameMessage.dispatch(message.message); } } Edit:3 The mappings i set up in the SignalContext: injector.mapSingleton(IPushDataService); injector.mapClass(IPushDataService, PushDataService);

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  • Scalability 101: How can I design a scalable web application using PHP?

    - by Legend
    I am building a web-application and have a couple of quick questions. From what I learnt, one should not worry about scalability when initially building the app and should only start worrying when the traffic increases. However, this being my first web-application, I am not quite sure if I should take an approach where I design things in an ad-hoc manner and later "fix" them. I have been reading stories about how people start off with an app that gets millions of users in a week or two. Not that I will face the same situation but I can't help but wonder, how do these people do it? Currently, I bought a shared hosting account on Lunarpages and that got me started in building and testing the application. However, I am interested in learning how to build the same application in a scalable-manner using the cloud, for instance, Amazon's EC2. From my understanding, I can see a couple of components: There is a load balancer that first receives requests and then decides where to route each request This request is then handled by a server replica that then processes the request and updates (if required) the database and sends back the response to the client If a similar request comes in, then a caching mechanism like memcached kicks into picture and returns objects from the cache A blackbox that handles database replication Specifically, I am trying to do the following: Setting up a load balancer (my homework revealed that HAProxy is one such load balancer) Setting up replication so that databases can be synchronized Using memcached Configuring Apache to work with multiple web servers Partitioning application to use Amazon EC2 and Amazon S3 (my application is something that will need great deal of storage) Finally, how can I avoid burning myself when using Amazon services? Because this is just a learning phase, I can probably do with 2-3 servers with a simple load balancer and replication but until I want to avoid paying loads of money accidentally. I am able to find resources on individual topics but am unable to find something that starts off from the big picture. Can someone please help me get started?

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  • Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

    - by Jason Evans
    I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

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  • programs hangs during socket interaction

    - by herrturtur
    I have two programs, sendfile.py and recvfile.py that are supposed to interact to send a file across the network. They communicate over TCP sockets. The communication is supposed to go something like this: sender =====filename=====> receiver sender <===== 'ok' ======= receiver or sender <===== 'no' ======= receiver if ok: sender ====== file ======> receiver I've got The sender and receiver code is here: Sender: import sys from jmm_sockets import * if len(sys.argv) != 4: print "Usage:", sys.argv[0], "<host> <port> <filename>" sys.exit(1) s = getClientSocket(sys.argv[1], int(sys.argv[2])) try: f = open(sys.argv[3]) except IOError, msg: print "couldn't open file" sys.exit(1) # send filename s.send(sys.argv[3]) # receive 'ok' buffer = None response = str() while 1: buffer = s.recv(1) if buffer == '': break else: response = response + buffer if response == 'ok': print 'receiver acknowledged receipt of filename' # send file s.send(f.read()) elif response == 'no': print "receiver doesn't want the file" # cleanup f.close() s.close() Receiver: from jmm_sockets import * s = getServerSocket(None, 16001) conn, addr = s.accept() buffer = None filename = str() # receive filename while 1: buffer = conn.recv(1) if buffer == '': break else: filename = filename + buffer print "sender wants to send", filename, "is that ok?" user_choice = raw_input("ok/no: ") if user_choice == 'ok': # send ok conn.send('ok') #receive file data = str() while 1: buffer = conn.recv(1) if buffer=='': break else: data = data + buffer print data else: conn.send('no') conn.close() I'm sure I'm missing something here in the sorts of a deadlock, but don't know what it is.

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  • Function Returning Negative Value

    - by Geowil
    I still have not run it through enough tests however for some reason, using certain non-negative values, this function will sometimes pass back a negative value. I have done a lot of manual testing in calculator with different values but I have yet to have it display this same behavior. I was wondering if someone would take a look at see if I am missing something. float calcPop(int popRand1, int popRand2, int popRand3, float pERand, float pSRand) { return ((((((23000 * popRand1) * popRand2) * pERand) * pSRand) * popRand3) / 8); } The variables are all contain randomly generated values: popRand1: between 1 and 30 popRand2: between 10 and 30 popRand3: between 50 and 100 pSRand: between 1 and 1000 pERand: between 1.0f and 5500.0f which is then multiplied by 0.001f before being passed to the function above Edit: Alright so after following the execution a bit more closely it is not the fault of this function directly. It produces an infinitely positive float which then flips negative when I use this code later on: pPMax = (int)pPStore; pPStore is a float that holds popCalc's return. So the question now is, how do I stop the formula from doing this? Testing even with very high values in Calculator has never displayed this behavior. Is there something in how the compiler processes the order of operations that is causing this or are my values simply just going too high? If the later I could just increase the division to 16 I think.

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  • My Rails session is getting reset when I have concurrent requests

    - by alex_c
    I think I might be misunderstanding something about Rails sessions, so please bear with me, I might not be phrasing my question the best way. I'm working on an iPhone app with a Ruby on Rails backend. I have a web view which by default goes to the index action of one controller (and uses sessions), and in the background a bunch of API calls going to a different controller (and which don't need to use sessions). The problem is, the sessions set by my web view seem to be overwitten by the API calls. My staging server is pretty slow, so there's lots of time for the requests to overlap each other - what I see in the logs is basically this: Request A (first controller) starts. Session is empty. Request B (second controller) starts. Session is empty. Request A finishes. Request A has done authentication, and stored the user ID in the session. Session contains user ID. Request B finishes. Session is empty. Request C starts. Session is empty - not what I want. Now, the strange thing is that request B should NOT be writing anything to the session. I do have before and after filters which READ from the session - things like: user = User.find_by_id(session[:id]) or logger.debug session.inspect and if I remove all of those, then everything works as expected - session contents get set by request A, and they're still there when request C starts. So. I think I'm missing something about how sessions work. Why would reading from the session overwrite it? Should I be accessing it some other way? Am I completely on the wrong track and the problem is elsewhere? Thank you for any insights!

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  • How to set buffer size in client-server app using sockets?

    - by nelly
    First of all i am new to networking so i may say dumb thing in here. Considering a client-server application using sockets(.net with c# if that matters). The client sends some data, the server process it and sends back a string. The client sends some other data, the serve process it, queries the db and sends back several hundreds of items from the database The client sends some other type of data and the server notifies some other clients . My question is how to set the buffer size correctly for reading/writing operation. Should i do something like this: byte[] buff = new byte[client.ReceiveBufferSize] ? I am thinking of something like this: Client sends data to the server(and the server will follow the same pattern) byte[] bytesToSend=new byte[2048] //2048 to be standard for any command send by the client bytes 0..1 ->command type bytes 1..2047 ->command parameters byte[] bytesToReceive=new byte[8]/byte[64]/byte[8192] //switch(command type) But..what is happening when a client is notified by the server without sending data? What is the correct way to accomplish what i am trying to do? Thanks for reading.

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  • Using h:outputFormat to message-format the f:selectItems of a h:selectOneRadio

    - by msharma
    I am having some trouble with using h:selectOneRadio. I have a list of objects which is being returned which needs to be displayed. I am trying something like this: <h:selectOneRadio id="selectPlan" layout="pageDirection"> <f:selectItems value="#{detailsHandler.planList}" /> </h:selectOneRadio> and planList is a List of Plans. Plan is defined as: public class Plan { protected String id; protected String partNumber; protected String shortName; protected String price; protected boolean isService; protected boolean isOption; //With all getters/setters } The text that must appear for each radio button is actually in a properties file, and I need to insert params in the text to fill out some value in the bean. For example the text in my properties file is: plan_price=The price of this plan is {0}. I was hoping to do something like this: <f:selectItems value="<h:outputFormat value="#{i18n.plan_price}"> <f:param value="#{planHandler.price}"> </h:outputFormat>" /> Usually if it's not a h:selectOneRadio component, if it's just text I use the h:outputFormat along with f:param tags to display the messages in my .property file called i18n above, and insert a param which is in the backing bean. here this does not work. Does anyone have any ideas how I can deal with this? I am being returned a list of Plans each with their own prices and the text to be displayed is held in property file. Any help much appreciated. Thanks!

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  • String comparison in Python: is vs. ==

    - by Coquelicot
    I noticed a Python script I was writing was acting squirrelly, and traced it to an infinite loop, where the loop condition was "while line is not ''". Running through it in the debugger, it turned out that line was in fact ''. When I changed it to != rather than 'is not', it worked fine. I did some searching, and found this question, the top answer to which seemed to be just what I needed. Except the answer it gave was counter to my experience. Specifically, the answerer wrote: For all built-in Python objects (like strings, lists, dicts, functions, etc.), if x is y, then x==y is also True. I double-checked the type of the variable, and it was in fact of type str (not unicode or something). Is his answer just wrong, or is there something else afoot? Also, is it generally considered better to just use '==' by default, even when comparing int or Boolean values? I've always liked to use 'is' because I find it more aesthetically pleasing and pythonic (which is how I fell into this trap...), but I wonder if it's intended to just be reserved for when you care about finding two objects with the same id.

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  • Help with a loop to return UIImage from possible matches

    - by Canada Dev
    I am parsing a list of locations and would like to return a UIImage with a flag based on these locations. I have a string with the location. This can be many different locations and I would like to search this string for possible matches in an NSArray, and when there's a match, it should find the appropriate filename in an NSDictionary. Here's an example of the NSDictionary and NSArray: NSDictionary *dict = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: @"franceFlag", @"france", @"greeceFlag", @"greece", @"spainFlag", @"spain", @"norwayFlag", @"norway", nil]; NSArray *array = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: @"france" @"greece" @"spain" @"portugal" @"ireland" @"norway", nil]; Obviously I'll have a lot more countries and flags in both. Here's what I have got to so far: -(UIImage *)flagFromOrigin:(NSString *)locationString { NSRange range; for (NSString *arrayString in countryArray) { range = [locationString rangeOfString:arrayString]; if (range.location != NSNotFound) { return [UIImage imageWithContentsOfFile:[[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:[dictionary objectForKey: arrayString] ofType:@"png"]]; } } return nil; } Now, the above doesn't actually work. I am missing something (and perhaps not even doing it right in the first place) The issue is, the locationString could have several locations in the same country, described something like this "Barcelona, Spain", "Madrid, Spain", "North Spain", etc., but I just want to retrieve "Spain" in this case. (Also, notice caps for each country). Basically, I want to search the locationString I pass into the method for a possible match with one of the countries listed in the NSArray. If/When one is found, it should continue into the NSDictionary and grab the appropriate flag based on the correct matched string from the array. I believe the best way would then to take the string from the array, as this would be a stripped-out version of the location. Any help to point me in the right direction for the last bit is greatly appreciated.

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  • how to achieve functionality of #def of c in PHP

    - by Sabya
    Well, I don't know if thats what I want. But here is my problem: In case of some error I am logging the FILE, CLASS, FUNCTION and LINE in a file. For that I am doing something like: myLog('['. __FILE__ . ']' . '[' . __CLASS__ . ']' . '[' . __FUNCTION__ . ']' . '[' . __LINE__ . ']'); The problem is everywhere I've to repeat that code in the parameter. and If I want to change the format, I've to change everywhere. How can I have something like: myLog(LOG_MSG_FORMAT); With PHP define it is not possible since it will give my the LINE number of the place where that definition is, not where the definition is getting used. Any solution to this is welcome. I am not bitchy about having C like functionality of #def.

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  • PHP post programmatically

    - by Tural Teyyuboglu
    After user registration, website send activation code to email. something like that. www.domain.com/?activate=<code> I'm creating 2 variants of activation: 1.manual 2.auto Lets say we have index.php. 1.Manual method. When someone wants to activate user manually all things are obvious: User opens page www.domain.com/?activate Index.php checks with following script and includes div file (which contains activation form) if (isset($_GET['activate'])) { $page='activate'; $divfile = 'path to div.php'; } include $divfile; Then page sends form data via ajax to activation.php file. 2.Auto method. Lets say user clicked directly to www.domain.com/?activate=<code>. What I wanna do is, to check if(!empty($_GET['activate'])), if all right ... I can't figure out how to act?! Programmatically send something like POST to activation.php or what? Please help. Thx in advance

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  • Passing Extras and screen rotation

    - by Luis A. Florit
    This kind of questions appear periodically. Sorry if this has been covered before, but I'm a newbie and couldn't find the appropriate answer. It deals with the correct implementation of communication between classes and activities. I made a gallery app. It has 3 main activities: the Main one, to search for filenames using a pattern; a Thumb one, that shows all the images that matched the pattern as thumbnails in a gridview, and a Photo activity, that opens a full sized image when you click a thumb in Thumbs. I pass to the Photo activity via an Intent the filenames (an array), and the position (an int) of the clicked thumb in the gridview. This third Photo activity has only one view on it: a TouchImageView, that I adapted for previous/next switching and zooming according to where you shortclick on the image (left, right or middle). Moreover, I added a longclick listener to Photo to show EXIF info. The thing is working, but I am not happy with the implementation... Some things are not right. One of the problems I am experiencing is that, if I click on the right of the image to see the next in the Photo activity, it switches fine (position++), but when rotating the device the original one at position appears. What is happening is that Photo is destroyed when rotating the image, and for some reason it restarts again, without obeying super.onCreate(savedInstanceState), loading again the Extras (the position only changed in Photo, not on the parent activities). I tried with startActivityForResult instead of startActivity, but failed... Of course I can do something contrived to save the position data, but there should be something "conceptual" that I am not understanding about how activities work, and I want to do this right. Can someone please explain me what I am doing wrong, which is the best method to implement what I want, and why? Thanks a lot!!!

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  • SQL Duplicates Issue

    - by jeff
    I have two tables : Product and ProductRateDetail. The parent table is Product. I have duplicate records in the product table which need to be unique. There are entries in the ProductRateDetail table which correspond to duplicate records in the product table. Somehow I need to update the ProductRateDetail table to match the original (older) ID from the Product table and then remove the duplicates from the product table. I would do this manually but there are 100's of records. I.e. something like UPDATE tbl_productRateDetail SET productID = (originalID from tbl_product) then something like DELETE from tbl_product WHERE duplicate ID and only delete the recently added ID data example: (sorry can't work out this formatting thing) select * from dbo.Product where ProductCode = '10003' tbl_product ProductID ProductTypeID ProductDescription ProductCode ProductSize 365 1 BEND DOUBLE FLANGED 10003 80mmX90deg 1354 1 BEND DOUBLE FLANGED 10003 80mmX90deg SELECT * FROM [MSTS2].[dbo].[ProductRateDetail] WHERE ProductID in (365,1354) tbl_productratedetail ProductRateDetailID ProductRateID ProductID UnitRate 365 1 365 16.87 1032 5 365 16.87 2187 10 365 16.87 2689 11 365 16.87 3191 12 365 16.87 7354 21 1354 21.30 7917 22 1354 21.30 8480 23 1354 21.30 9328 25 1354 21.30 9890 26 1354 21.30 10452 27 1354 21.30 Please help!

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  • Mysql count and sum from two diferent tables

    - by Agent_x
    Hi all, i have a problem with some querys in php and mysql: I have 2 diferent tables with one field in common: table 1 id | hits | num_g | cats | usr_id |active 1 | 10 | 11 | 1 | 53 | 1 2 | 13 | 16 | 3 | 53 | 1 1 | 10 | 22 | 1 | 22 | 1 1 | 10 | 21 | 3 | 22 | 1 1 | 2 | 6 | 2 | 11 | 1 1 | 11 | 1 | 1 | 11 | 1 table 2 id | usr_id | points 1 | 53 | 300 Now i use this statement to sum just the total from the table 1 every id count + 1 too SELECT usr_id, COUNT( id ) + SUM( num_g + hits ) AS tot_h FROM table1 WHERE usr_id!='0' GROUP BY usr_id ASC LIMIT 0 , 15 and i get the total for each usr_id usr_id| tot_h | 53 | 50 22 | 63 11 | 20 until here all is ok, now i have a second table with extra points (table2) I try this: SELECT usr_id, COUNT( id ) + SUM( num_g + hits ) + (SELECT points FROM table2 WHERE usr_id != '0' ) AS tot_h FROM table1 WHERE usr_id != '0' GROUP BY usr_id ASC LIMIT 0 , 15 but it seems to sum the 300 extra points to all users: usr_id| tot_h | 53 | 350 22 | 363 11 | 320 Now how i can get the total like the first try but + the secon table in one statement? because now i have just one entry in the second table but i can be more there. thanks for all the help. =============================================================================== hi thomas thanks for your reply, i think is in the right direction, but im getting weirds results, like usr_id | tot_h 22 | NULL <== i think the null its because that usr_id as no value in the table2 53 | 1033 Its like the second user is getting all the the values. then i try this one: SELECT table1.usr_id, COUNT( table1.id ) + SUM( table1.num_g + table1.hits + table2.points ) AS tot_h FROM table1 LEFT JOIN table2 ON table2.usr_id = table1.usr_id WHERE table1.usr_id != '0' AND table2.usr_id = table1.usr_id GROUP BY table1.usr_id ASC Same result i just get the sum of all values and not by each user, i need something like this result: usr_id | tot_h 53 | 53 <==== plus 300 points on table1 22 | 56 <==== plus 100 points on table2 /////////the result i need //////////// usr_id | tot_h 53 | 353 <==== plus 300 points on table2 22 | 156 <==== plus 100 points on table2 I think the structure need to be something like this Pseudo statements ;) from table1 count all id to get the number of record where the usr_id are then sum hits + num_g and from table2 select the extra points where the usr_id are the same as table1 and get teh result: usr_id | tot_h 53 | 353 22 | 156

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  • Complicated .NET factory design

    - by Tom W
    Hello SO; I'm planning to ask a fairly elaborate question that is also something of a musing here, so bear with me... I'm trying to design a factory implementation for a simulation application. The simulation will consist of different sorts of entities i.e. it is not a homogenous simulation in any respect. As a result, there will be numerous very different concrete implementations and only the very general properties will be abstracted at the top level. What I'd like to be able to do is create new simulation entities by calling a method on the model with a series of named arguments representing the parameters of the entity, and have the model infer what type of object is being described by the inbound parameters (from the names of the parameters and potentially the sequence they occur in) and call a factory method on the appropriate derived class. For example, if I pass the model a pair of parameters (Param1=5000, Param2="Bacon") I would like it to infer that the names Param1 and Param2 'belong' to the class "Blob1" and call a shared function "getBlob1" with named parameters Param1:=5000, Param2:="Bacon" whereas if I pass the model (Param1=5000, Param3=50) it would call a similar factory method for Blob2; because Param1 and Param3 in that order 'belong' to Blob2. I foresee several issues to resolve: Whether or not I can reflect on the available types with string parameter names and how to do this if it's possible Whether or not there's a neat way of doing the appropriate constructor inference from the combinatoric properties of the argument list or whether I'm going to have to bodge something to do it 'by hand'. If possible I'd like the model class to be able to accept parameters as parameters rather than as some collection of keys and values, which would require the model to expose a large number of parametrised methods at runtime without me having to code them explicitly - presumably one for every factory method available in the relevant namespace. What I'm really asking is how you'd go about implementing such a system, rather than whether or not it's fundamentally possible. I don't have the foresight or experience with .NET reflection to be able to figure out a way by myself. Hopefully this will prove an informative discussion.

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  • Xcode 4: nib files not loading when run, can't find UI elements

    - by Jordan
    So, I just downloaded Xcode 4 and installed it. I was actually quite looking forward to the single window and integrated IB... - However, when I open and run one of my projects, the nib files that the project uses don't seem to load. Instead I'm left looking at a blank white screen (iPhone). This project ran well and fine on Xcode 3.2. So I thought... this can't be that hard to fix. So I opened up a nib file, thinking that maybe editing or creating a new one from scratch could point me in the right direction. But I can't find the old resources panel from interface builder anywhere. How am I meant to create a new view or add buttons? I know I'm probably just missing something obvious :s Did anyone else have the same nib file problems - is there a fix (or something stupidly simple that I'm forgetting about)? - EDIT: Ok. If I background and un-background the app, the view loads fine. But this happens every time I build, on both iPhone and iOS simulator, i.e. the app doesn't work properly until it's been backgrounded. All the code for loading the view follows from - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application. Now I am really confused. - Thanks :)

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  • Is it possible to tie nested generics?

    - by Michael Deardeuff
    Is it possible to tie nested generics/captures together? I often have the problem of having a Map lookup of class to genericized item of said class. In concrete terms I want something like this (no, T is not declared anywhere). private Map<Class<T>, ServiceLoader<T>> loaders = Maps.newHashMap(); In short, I want loaders.put/get to have semantics something like these: <T> ServiceLoader<T> get(Class<T> klass) {...} <T> void put(Class<T> klass, ServiceLoader<T> loader) {...} Is the following the best I can do? Do I have to live with the inevitable @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") somewhere down the line? private Map<Class<?>, ServiceLoader<?>> loaders = Maps.newHashMap();

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  • Speed comparison - Template specialization vs. Virtual Function vs. If-Statement

    - by Person
    Just to get it out of the way... Premature optimization is the root of all evil Make use of OOP etc. I understand. Just looking for some advice regarding the speed of certain operations that I can store in my grey matter for future reference. Say you have an Animation class. An animation can be looped (plays over and over) or not looped (plays once), it may have unique frame times or not, etc. Let's say there are 3 of these "either or" attributes. Note that any method of the Animation class will at most check for one of these (i.e. this isn't a case of a giant branch of if-elseif). Here are some options. 1) Give it boolean members for the attributes given above, and use an if statement to check against them when playing the animation to perform the appropriate action. Problem: Conditional checked every single time the animation is played. 2) Make a base animation class, and derive other animations classes such as LoopedAnimation and AnimationUniqueFrames, etc. Problem: Vtable check upon every call to play the animation given that you have something like a vector<Animation>. Also, making a separate class for all of the possible combinations seems code bloaty. 3) Use template specialization, and specialize those functions that depend on those attributes. Like template<bool looped, bool uniqueFrameTimes> class Animation. Problem: The problem with this is that you couldn't just have a vector<Animation> for something's animations. Could also be bloaty. I'm wondering what kind of speed each of these options offer? I'm particularly interested in the 1st and 2nd option because the 3rd doesn't allow one to iterate through a general container of Animations. In short, what is faster - a vtable fetch or a conditional?

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  • Using Visual Studio 2010 Express to create a surface I can draw to

    - by Joel
    I'm coming from a Java background and trying to port a simple version of Conway's Game of Life that I wrote to C# in order to learn the language. In Java, I drew my output by inheriting from JComponent and overriding paint(). My new canvas class then had an instance of the simulation's backend which it could read/manipulate. I was then able to get the WYSIWYG GUI editor (Matisse, from NetBeans) to allow me to visually place the canvas. In C#, I've gathered that I need to override OnPaint() to draw things, which (as far as I know) requires me to inherit from something (I chose Panel). I can't figure out how to get the Windows forms editor to let me place my custom class. I'm also uncertain about where in the generated code I need to place my class. How can I do this, and is putting all my drawing code into a subclass really how I should be going about this? The lack of easy answers on Google suggests I'm missing something important here. If anyone wants to suggest a method for doing this in WPF as well, I'm curious to hear it. Thanks

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  • Java constructor using generic types

    - by Beer Me
    I'm having a hard time wrapping my head around Java generic types. Here's a simple piece of code that in my mind should work, but I'm obviously doing something wrong. Eclipse reports this error in BreweryList.java: The method breweryMethod() is undefined for the type <T> The idea is to fill a Vector with instances of objects that are a subclass of the Brewery class, so the invocation would be something like: BreweryList breweryList = new BreweryList(BrewerySubClass.class, list); BreweryList.java package com.beerme.test; import java.util.Vector; public class BreweryList<T extends Brewery> extends Vector<T> { public BreweryList(Class<T> c, Object[] j) { super(); for (int i = 0; i < j.length; i++) { T item = c.newInstance(); // breweryMethod() is an instance method // of Brewery, of which <T> is a subclass (right?) c.breweryMethod(); // "The method breweryMethod() is undefined // for the type <T>" } } } Brewery.java package com.beerme.test; public class Brewery { public Brewery() { super(); } protected void breweryMethod() { } } BrewerySubClass.java package com.beerme.test; public class BrewerySubClass extends Brewery { public BrewerySubClass() { super(); } public void brewerySubClassMethod() { } } I'm sure this is a complete-generics-noob question, but I'm stuck. Thanks for any tips!

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  • Why is it that an int in C++ that isnt initialized (then used) doesn't return an error?

    - by omizzle
    I am new to C++ (just starting). I come from a Java background and I was trying out the following piece of code that would sum the numbers between 1 and 10 (inclusive) and then print out the sum: /* * File: main.cpp * Author: omarestrella * * Created on June 7, 2010, 8:02 PM */ #include <cstdlib> #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main() { int sum; for(int x = 1; x <= 10; x++) { sum += x; } cout << "The sum is: " << sum << endl; return 0; } When I ran it it kept printing 32822 for the sum. I knew the answer was supposed to be 55 and realized that its print the max value for a short (32767) plus 55. Changing int sum; to int sum = 0; would work (as it should, since the variable needs to be initialized!). Why does this behavior happen, though? Why doesnt the compiler warn you about something like this? I know Java screams at you when something isnt initialized. Thank you.

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  • boost thread pool

    - by Dtag
    I need a threadpool for my application, and I'd like to rely on standard (C++11 or boost) stuff as much as possible. I realize there is an unofficial(!) boost thread pool class, which basically solves what I need, however I'd rather avoid it because it is not in the boost library itself -- why is it still not in the core library after so many years? In some posts on this page and elsewhere, people suggested using boost::asio to achieve a threadpool like behavior. At first sight, that looked like what I wanted to do, however I found out that all implementations I have seen have no means to join on the currently active tasks, which makes it useless for my application. To perform a join, they send stop signal to all the threads and subsequently join them. However, that completely nullifies the advantage of threadpools in my use case, because that makes new tasks require the creation of a new thread. What I want to do is: ThreadPool pool(4); for (...) { for (int i=0;i<something;i++) pool.pushTask(...); pool.join(); // do something with the results } Can anyone suggest a solution (except for using the existing unofficial thread pool on sourceforge)? Is there anything in C++11 or core boost that can help me here? Thanks a lot

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  • jQuery ajax only works first time

    - by Michael Itzoe
    I have a table of data that on a button click certain values are saved to the database, while other values are retrieved. I need the process to be continuous, but I can only get it to work the first time. At first I was using .ajax() and .replaceWith() to rewrite the entire table, but because this overwrites the DOM it was losing events associated with the table. I cannot use .live() because I'm using stopPropagation() and .live() doesn't support it due to event bubbling. I was able to essentially re-bind the click event onto the table within the .ajax() callback, but a second call to the button click event did nothing. I changed the code to use .get() for the ajax and .html() to put the results in the table (the server-side code now returns the complete table sans the <table> tags). I no longer have to rebind the click event to the table, but subsequent clicks to the button still do nothing. Finally, I changed it to .load(), but with the same (non-) results. By "do nothing" I mean while the ajax call is returning the new HTML as expected, it's not being applied to the table. I'm sure it has something to do with altering the DOM, but I thought since I'm only overwriting the table contents and not the table object itself, it should work. Obviously I'm missing something; what is it? Edit: HTML: <table id="table1" class="mytable"> <tr> <td><span id="item1" class="myitem"></span> <td><span id="item2" class="myitem"></span> </tr> </table> <input id="Button1" type="button" value="Submit" /> jQuery: $( "Button1" ).click( function() { $( "table1" ).load( "data.aspx", function( data ) { //... } ); } );

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  • Using git svn with some awkward permissions

    - by Migs
    Due to some funky permissions on our client's side that we can't change, we have a project whose hierarchy looks something like: projectname/trunk: foo/, bar/, baz/ projectname/branches: branch1/, branch2/ (where branch1 and branch2 each contain foo, bar, and baz.) The thing is, I have no permission to access trunk, so I can't just do a clone of project/trunk. I do have permission to access branches. What I am currently doing is checking out each subdirectory individually via git svn clone, so that each one has their own git repo. I use a script to update/commit them all, but what I would prefer to do is to check them all out under a single repo, and be able to commit changes with a single call to git svn dcommit. Is this possible? I mentioned the branches hierarchy because if possible, I'd also like to be able to track the branches the way I could if the permissions were more sane. I've tried permuting a lot of options that sounded useful, but I haven't found one that gives me exactly what I want. I sense that the solution may have something to do with --no-minimize-url, but I'm not even sure about that, as it didn't help me when I tried it.

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