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  • Are there any shortcuts/easier(VB) style way for raising events in C#?

    - by Eric
    Example in VB I have a worker class Public Class worker Public Event EventNumber1(ByVal messages As Dictionary(Of Integer, String)) Public Event EventNumber2(ByVal message As String) Public Sub CallEventNumber1() Dim dict As New Dictionary(Of Integer, String) dict.Add(1, "EventNumber1 First message") dict.Add(2, "EventNumber1 Second message") RaiseEvent EventNumber1(dict) End Sub Public Sub CallEventNumber2() RaiseEvent EventNumber2("I am an EventNumber2 Message") End Sub End Class and wire them up in another class with AddHandler _worker.EventNumber1, AddressOf EventNumber1Handler AddHandler _worker.EventNumber2, AddressOf EventNumber2Handler and in C# the worker class class Worker { public delegate void EventNumber1Handler(Dictionary<int, string> messages); public delegate void EventNumber2Handler(string message); public event EventNumber1Handler EventNumber1; public event EventNumber2Handler EventNumber2; public void CallEventNumber1() { Dictionary<int, string> dict = new Dictionary<int, string>(); dict.Add(1, "EventNumber1 First message"); dict.Add(2, "EventNumber1 Second message"); if (EventNumber1 != null) EventNumber1(dict); } public void CallEventNumber2() { if (EventNumber2 != null) EventNumber2("I am an EventNumber2 Message"); } } and wire that up with worker.EventNumber1 += new Worker.EventNumber1Handler(worker_EventNumber1); worker.EventNumber2 += new Worker.EventNumber2Handler(worker_EventNumber2); So I guess my question is do I always need to add the delegate along with the event in c#? Is there any new syntax for c# 3.0/4.0? Regards _Eric

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  • Use of Java [Interfaces / Abstract classes]

    - by Samuel
    Hello, Lately i decided to take a look at Java so i am still pretty new to it and also to the approach of OO programming, so i wanted to get some things straight before learning more, (i guess it's never to soon to start with good practices). I am programming a little 2D game for now but i think my question applies to any non trivial project. For the simplicity i'll provide examples from my game. I have different kinds of zombies, but they all have the same attributes (x, y, health, attack etc) so i wrote an interface Zombie which i implement by WalkingZombie, RunningZombie TeleportingZombie etc. Is this the best thing to do? Am i better of with an abstract class? Or with a super class? (I am not planning to partially implement functions - therefor my choice for an interface instead of an abstract class) I have one class describing the main character (Survivor) and since it is pretty big i wanted to write an interface with the different functions, so that i can easily see and share the structure of it. Is it good practice? Or is it simply a waste of space and time? I hope this question will not be rated as subjective because i thought that experienced programmers won't disagree about this kind of topic since the use of interfaces / super classes / abstract classes follows logical rules and is thereby not simply a personal choice. Thank you for your time -Samuel

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  • Name lookup for names not dependent on template parameter in VC++2008 Express. Is it a bug?

    - by Maciej H
    While experimenting a bit with C++ templates I managed to produce this simple code, for which the output is different, than I expected according to my understanding of C++ rules. void bar(double d) { std::cout << "bar(double) function called" << std::endl; } template <typename T> void foo(T t) { bar(3); } void bar(int i) { std::cout << "bar(int) function called" << std::endl; } int main() { foo(3); return 0; } When I compile this code is VC++2008 Express function bar(int) gets called. That would be the behaviour I would expect if bar(3);in the template body was dependent on the template parameter. But it's not. The rule I found here says "The C++ standard prescribes that all names that are not dependent on template parameters are bound to their present definitions when parsing a template function or class". Am I wrong, that "present definition" of bar when parsing the template function foo is the definition of void bar(double d);? Why it's not the case if I am wrong. There are no forward declarations of bar in this compilation unit.

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  • Input html tag not parsing properly in php

    - by Akaash
    I have a database with names that I would like displayed in the form of a table with checkboxes. Everything works until I try to place the html tag into my php code. When I put the input tag in it gives me the error: Parse error: syntax error, unexpected T_STRING, expecting ',' or ';' I can't see where I would put a comma or semi colon. <form> <?php $name = $_POST['name']; $host = "mysql16.000webhost.com"; $user_name = "a1611480_akaash"; $pwd = "****"; $database_name = "a1611480_akaash"; $db = mysql_connect($host, $user_name, $pwd); mysql_select_db($database_name); $result = mysql_query("SELECT name FROM Sort"); $var = array(); while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { $var[] = $row['name']; } $unique = array_unique($var); foreach ($unique as $value) { echo "<p class = Body_text><label>$value</label> <input type="checkbox" name="name" value="$value" /> </p>\n"; } ?> </form>

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  • Sequence Point and Evaluation Order( Preincrement)

    - by Josh
    There was a debate today among some of my colleagues and I wanted to clarify it. It is about the evaluation order and the sequence point in an expression. It is clearly stated in the standard that C/C++ does not have a left-to-right evaluation in an expression unlike languages like Java which is guaranteed to have a sequencial left-to-right order. So, in the below expression, the evaluation of the leftmost operand(B) in the binary operation is sequenced before the evaluation of the rightmost operand(C): A = B B_OP C The following expression according, to CPPReference under the subsection Sequenced-before rules(Undefined Behaviour) and Bjarne's TCPPL 3rd ed, is an UB x = x++ + 1; It could be interpreted as the compilers like BUT the expression below is said to be clearly a well defined behaviour in C++11 x = ++x + 1; So, if the above expression is well defined, what is the "fate" of this? array[x] = ++x; It seems the evaluation of a post-increment and post-decrement is not defined but the pre-increment and the pre-decrement is defined. NOTE: This is not used in a real-life code. Clang 3.4 and GCC 4.8 clearly warns about both the pre- and post-increment sequence point.

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  • static member specialization of templated child class and templated base class

    - by b3nj1
    I'm trying to have a templated class (here C) that inherits from another templated class (here A) and perform static member specialization (of int var here), but I cant get the right syntax to do so (if it's possible #include <iostream> template<typename derived> class A { public: static int var; }; //This one works fine class B :public A<B> { public: B() { std::cout << var << std::endl; } }; template<> int A<B>::var = 9; //This one doesn't works template<typename type> class C :public A<C<type> > { public: C() { std::cout << var << std::endl; } }; //template<> template<typename type> int A<C<type> >::a = 10; int main() { B b; C<int> c; return 0; } I put an example that works with a non templated class (here B) and i can get the static member specialization of var, but for C that just doesn't work. Here is what gcc tells me : test.cpp: In constructor ‘C<type>::C()’: test.cpp:29:26: error: ‘var’ was not declared in this scope test.cpp: At global scope: test.cpp:34:18: error: template definition of non-template ‘int A<C<type> >::a’ I'm using gcc version 4.6.3, thanks for any help

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  • Debugging scripts loaded with GroovyShell (in eclipse)

    - by MSh
    I am working with eclipse and groovy plug in. I am building a test harness to debug and test groovy scripts. The scripts are really simple but long, most of them just if/else/return. I figured out that I can call them using GroovyShell and Bindings to pass in the values. The problem is that, while I can call the script and get the results just fine, I CAN NOT step in there with the debugger. Breakpoints in those scripts are not active. Is there a way to debug the scripts? Maybe I should use something other than GroovyShell? I really don't want to modify the scripts by wrapping them into functions, and then calling those functions from my test classes. That's how I am using Binding and GroovyShell: def binding = new Binding(); binding.lineList = [list1]; binding.count = 5; def shell = new GroovyShell(binding); def result = shell.evaluate(new File("src/Rules/checkLimit.groovy"));

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  • Checking servlet session attribute value in jsp file

    - by Marta
    I have a no framework java application. It consists of jsp files for view and servlets for the business logic. I must set the user session is the servlet with a firstName parameter. In the jsp file, I need to check if my firstName parameter has a value or not. If the firstName parameter is set, I need to display some html in the jsp file. If it is not set, I need to display different html in the jsp file. Servlet.java: HttpSession session = request.getSession(); session.setAttribute("firstName", customer.getFristName()); String url = "/index.jsp"; RequestDispatcher dispatcher = getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher(url); dispatcher.forward(request, response); header.jsp: // Between the <p> tags bellow I need to put some HTML with the following rules // If firstName exist: Hello ${firstName} <a href="logout.jsp">Log out</a> // Else: <a href="login.jsp">Login</a> or <a href="register.jsp">Register</a> <p class="credentials" id="cr"></p> What would be the best way to do this? Any help is much appreciated! Thank you in advance. -Marta

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  • Code casing question for private class fields

    - by user200295
    Take the following example public class Class1{ public string Prop1{ get {return m_Prop1;} set {m_Prop1 = value; } } private string m_Prop1; // this is standard private property variable name // how do we cap this variable name? While the compiler can figure out same casing // it makes it hard to read private Class2 Class2; // we camel case the parameter public Class1(Class2 class2){ this.Class2 = class2; } } Here are my stock rules The class name is capitalized (Class1) The public properties are capitalized (Prop1) The private field tied to a public property has m_ to indicate this. My coworker prefers _ There is some debate if using m_ or _ should be used at all, as it is like Hungarian notation. Private class fields are capitalized. The part I am trying to figure out is what do I do if when the Class name of a private field matches the private field name. For example, private Class2 Class2; This is confusing. If the private field name is not the same class, for example private string Name; , there isn't much issue. Or am I thinking about the issue wrong. Should my classes and private fields be named in such a way that they don't collide?

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  • How can I pass a hash to a Perl subroutine?

    - by Vishalrix
    In one of my main( or primary) routines,I have two or more hashes. I want the subroutine foo() to recieve these possibly-multiple hashes as distinct hashes. Right now I have no preference if they go by value, or as references. I am struggling with this for the last many hours and would appreciate help, so that I dont have to leave perl for php! ( I am using mod_perl, or will be) Right now I have got some answer to my requirement, shown here From http://forums.gentoo.org/viewtopic-t-803720-start-0.html # sub: dump the hash values with the keys '1' and '3' sub dumpvals { foreach $h (@_) { print "1: $h->{1} 3: $h->{3}\n"; } } # initialize an array of anonymous hash references @arr = ({1,2,3,4}, {1,7,3,8}); # create a new hash and add the reference to the array $t{1} = 5; $t{3} = 6; push @arr, \%t; # call the sub dumpvals(@arr); I only want to extend it so that in dumpvals I could do something like this: foreach my %k ( keys @_[0]) { # use $k and @_[0], and others } The syntax is wrong, but I suppose you can tell that I am trying to get the keys of the first hash ( hash1 or h1), and iterate over them. How to do it in the latter code snippet above?

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  • Is there a way to create subdatabases as a kind of subfolders in sql server?

    - by user193655
    I am creating an application where there is main DB and where other data is stored in secondary databases. The secondary databases follow a "plugin" approach. I use SQL Server. A simple installation of the application will just have the mainDB, while as an option one can activate more "plug-ins" and for every plug-in there will be a new database. Now why I made this choice is because I have to work with an exisiting legacy system and this is the smartest thing I could figure to implement the plugin system. MainDB and Plugins DB have exactly the same schema (basically Plugins DB have some "special content", some important data that one can use as a kind of template - think to a letter template for example - in the application). Plugin DBs are so used in readonly mode, they are "repository of content". The "smart" thing is that the main application can also be used by "plugin writers", they just write a DB inserting content, and by making a backup of the database they creaetd a potential plugin (this is why all DBs has the same schema). Those plugins DB are downloaded from internet as there is a content upgrade available, every time the full PlugIn DB is destroyed and a new one with the same name is creaetd. This is for simplicity and even because the size of this DBs is generally small. Now this works, anyway I would prefer to organize the DBs in a kind of Tree structure, so that I can force the PlugIn DBs to be "sub-DBs" of the main application DB. As a workaround I am thinking of using naming rules, like: ApplicationDB (for the main application DB) ApplicationDB_PlugIn_N (for the N-th plugin DB) When I search for plugin 1 I try to connect to ApplicationDB_PlugIn_1, if I don't find the DB i raise an error. This situation can happen for example if som DBA renamed ApplicationDB_Plugin_1. So since those Plugin DBs are really dependant on ApplicationDB only I was trying to "do the subfolder trick". Can anyone suggest a way to do this? Can you comment on this self-made plugin approach I decribed above?

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  • Is there a set based solution for this problem?

    - by NYSystemsAnalyst
    We have a table set up as follows: |ID|EmployeeID|Date |Category |Hours| |1 |1 |1/1/2010 |Vacation Earned|2.0 | |2 |2 |2/12/2010|Vacation Earned|3.0 | |3 |1 |2/4/2010 |Vacation Used |1.0 | |4 |2 |5/18/2010|Vacation Earned|2.0 | |5 |2 |7/23/2010|Vacation Used |4.0 | The business rules are: Vacation balance is calculated by vacation earned minus vacation used. Vacation used is always applied against the oldest vacation earned amount first. We need to return the rows for Vacation Earned that have not been offset by vacation used. If vacation used has only offset part of a vacation earned record, we need to return that record showing the difference. For example, using the above table, the result set would look like: |ID|EmployeeID|Date |Category |Hours| |1 |1 |1/1/2010 |Vacation Earned|1.0 | |4 |2 |5/18/2010|Vacation Earned|1.0 | Note that record 2 was eliminated because it was completely offset by used time, but records 1 and 4 were only partially used, so they were calculated and returned as such. The only way we have thought of to do this is to get all of the vacation earned records in a temporary table. Then, get the total vacation used and loop through the temporary table, deleting the oldest record and subtracting that value from the total vacation used until the total vacation used is zero. We could clean it up for when the remaining vacation used is only part of the oldest vacation earned record. This would leave us with just the outstanding vacation earned records. This works, but it is very inefficient and performs poorly. Also, the performance will just degrade over time as more and more records are added. Are there any suggestions for a better solution, preferable set based? If not, we'll just have to go with this.

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  • MySQL Update query with left join and group by

    - by Rob
    I am trying to create an update query and making little progress in getting the right syntax. The following query is working: SELECT t.Index1, t.Index2, COUNT( m.EventType ) FROM Table t LEFT JOIN MEvents m ON (m.Index1 = t.Index1 AND m.Index2 = t.Index2 AND (m.EventType = 'A' OR m.EventType = 'B') ) WHERE (t.SpecialEventCount IS NULL) GROUP BY t.Index1, t.Index2 It creates a list of triplets Index1,Index2,EventCounts. It only does this for case where t.SpecialEventCount is NULL. The update query I am trying to write should set this SpecialEventCount to that count, i.e. COUNT(m.EventType) in the query above. This number could be 0 or any positive number (hence the left join). Index1 and Index2 together are unique in Table t and they are used to identify events in MEvent. How do I have to modify the select query to become an update query? I.e. something like UPDATE Table SET SpecialEventCount=COUNT(m.EventType)..... but I am confused what to put where and have failed with numerous different guesses.

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  • ForEach loop in Mathematica.

    - by dreeves
    I'd like something like this: ForEach[i_, {1,2,3}, Print[i] ] Or, more generally, to destructure arbitrary stuff in the list you're looping over, like: ForEach[{i_, j_}, {{1,10}, {2,20}, {3,30}}, Print[i*j] ] (Meta-question: is that a good way to call a ForEach loop, with the first argument a pattern like that?) ADDED: Some answerers have rightly pointed out that usually you want to use Map or other purely functional constructs and eschew a non-functional programming style where you use side effects. I agree! But here's an example where I think this ForEach construct is supremely useful: Say I have a list of options (rules) that pair symbols with expressions, like attrVals = {a -> 7, b -> 8, c -> 9} Now I want to make a hash table where I do the obvious mapping of those symbols to those numbers. I don't think there's a cleaner way to do that than ForEach[a_ -> v_, attrVals, h[a] = v] ADDED: I just realized that to do ForEach properly, it should support Break[] and Continue[]. I'm not sure how to implement that. Perhaps it will need to somehow be implemented in terms of For, While, or Do since those are the only loop constructs that support Break[] and Continue[]. If anyone interested in this wants to ask about that as a separate question, please do!

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  • Why use shorter VARCHAR(n) fields?

    - by chryss
    It is frequently advised to choose database field sizes to be as narrow as possible. I am wondering to what degree this applies to SQL Server 2005 VARCHAR columns: Storing 10-letter English words in a VARCHAR(255) field will not take up more storage than in a VARCHAR(10) field. Are there other reasons to restrict the size of VARCHAR fields to stick as closely as possible to the size of the data? I'm thinking of Performance: Is there an advantage to using a smaller n when selecting, filtering and sorting on the data? Memory, including on the application side (C++)? Style/validation: How important do you consider restricting colunm size to force non-sensical data imports to fail (such as 200-character surnames)? Anything else? Background: I help data integrators with the design of data flows into a database-backed system. They have to use an API that restricts their choice of data types. For character data, only VARCHAR(n) with n <= 255 is available; CHAR, NCHAR, NVARCHAR and TEXT are not. We're trying to lay down some "good practices" rules, and the question has come up if there is a real detriment to using VARCHAR(255) even for data where real maximum sizes will never exceed 30 bytes or so. Typical data volumes for one table are 1-10 Mio records with up to 150 attributes. Query performance (SELECT, with frequently extensive WHERE clauses) and application-side retrieval performance are paramount.

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  • C# Linq Select Problem in Method Chain.

    - by Gnought
    Note that the _src inherit IQueryable<U> and V inherit new(); I wrote the following statement, there is no syntax error. IQueryable<V> a = from s in _src where (s.Right - 1 == s.Left) select new V(); But if i re-wrote it as follows, the Visual Studio editor complains an error in the "Select" IQueryable<V> d = _src.Where(s => s.Right - 1 == s.Left).Select(s=> new V()); The Error is: The type arguments cannot be inferred from the usage. Try specifying the type arguments explicitly. Candidates are: System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable<V> Select<U,V>(this System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable<U>, System.Func<U,V>) (in class Enumerable) System.Linq.IQueryable<V> Select<U,V>(this System.Linq.IQueryable<U>, System.Linq.Expressions.Expression<System.Func<U,V>>) (in class Queryable) Could anyone explain this phenomenon, and what the solution is to fix the error?

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  • Add Hover display for table cell

    - by Jake
    I have a table, but it is not in a list format, meaning not a column/row format. I look for specific cells to add a hover event that displays a description of the cell. $("#TableID td").hover(function(){ //ifCellThatIWant $(this).append("<span>Message that was brought in</span>"); }, function(){ $(this).children().remove(); }); The problem is right now is that the hover displays a span(with info. inside) that I used jquery to append the span to the cell when mouseover, which expands the cell, which is an effect that I don't like or want. I'm Trying to have an out of the table look,but still be by the cell that triggered the event; because if the span has a lot of info. in it, expanding the cell dynamically will start to look pretty nasty. Also will help if I had some type of css direction on how will I make the display for the mouseover "description" span look nice. My mind thought is that a way to accomplish what I want is giver the appended span the position of my mouse cursor when hover, but not sure if its the right approach or what the syntax would look like.

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  • How can I "reset" styles for a given HTML element?

    - by Sambo
    I am working on an embeddable javascript which inserts HTML elements onto unknown pages. I have no control of the stylesheets of the pages I'll be inserting HTML into. The problem is that the HTML I insert will mistakenly stylized by the page, and I want to prevent that. What's the least verbose and/or resource intensive to go about ensuring the elements I insert are exactly as I'd like them to be? Is there an easy way to clear all styling for a given HTML element and children? In firebug, for instance, you can remove all styling. I feel like there must, and the very least should, be a native way to exempt certain HTML elements from stylesheet rules? Example: var myHTML = $("<div>my html in here</div>"); myHTML.resetAllStyles(); //<--- what would this function do? myHTML.appendTo("body"); I really want to avoid explicitly stating the attributes I want for each element I insert... PS: I have a lot of experience with JS and CSS, so you can assume that I'll understand pretty much anything you're going to tell me.

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  • Is there a standard SQL Table design for overriding 'big picture' default values with lower level de

    - by RichardHowells
    Here's an example. Suppose we are trying to calculate a service charge. Say sales in the USA attract a 10 dollar charge, sales in the UK attract a 20 dollar charge So far it's easy - we are starting to imagine a table that lists charges by country. Now lets assume that Alaska and Hawaii are treated as special cases they are both 15 dollars That suggests a table with states, Alaska and Hawaii are charged at 15, but presumably we need 48 (redundant) rows all saying 10. This gives us a maintainance problem, our user only wants to type 10 once NOT 48 times. It does not sit well with the UK either. The UK does not have states. Suppose we throw in another couple of cross cutting rules. If you order by phone there is a 10% supplement on the charge. If you order via the web there is a 10% discount. But for some reason best known to the owners of the business the web/phone supplement/discount are not applied in Hawaii. It seems to me that this is quite a common kind of problem and there is probably a well known arrangement of tables to store the data. Most cases get handled by broad brush answers, but there are some very detailed low level variations that give rise to a huge number of theoretical combinations, most of which are not used.

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  • Solving algorithm for a simple problem

    - by maolo
    I'm searching for an algorithm (should be rather simple for you guys) that does nothing but solve the chicken or the egg problem. I need to implement this in C++. What I've got so far is: enum ChickenOrEgg { Chicken, Egg }; ChickenOrEgg WhatWasFirst( ) { ChickenOrEgg ret; // magic happens here return ret; } // testing #include <iostream> using namespace std; if ( WhatWasFirst( ) == Chicken ) { cout << "The chicken was first."; } else { cout << "The egg was first."; } cout << endl; Question: How could the pseudocode for the solving function look? Notes: This is not a joke, not even a bad one. Before you close this, think of why this isn't a perfectly valid question according to the SO rules. If someone here can actually implement an algorithm solving the problem he gets $500 in cookies from me (that's a hell lot of cookies!). Please don't tell me that this is my homework, what teacher would ever give his students homework like that?

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  • How do I call this function in CodeIgniter controller?

    - by Jason Shultz
    I've got this code, but I'm not sure I make it work: /** * Function: youtube data grabber * * @description : * @param $ : video code, url type (embed/url) * @return : data array * @author : Mamun. * @last -modified-by: Mamun. */ if (! function_exists('youtube_data_grabber')) { function youtube_data_grabber($video_code, $link_type = "embed") { if ($video_code != '') { if ($link_type == "embed") { $splited_data = explode("=",$video_code); $video_unique_code = substr(strrchr($splited_data[4],"/"),1,-strlen(strrchr($splited_data[4],"&"))); } else if ($link_type == "url") { $splited_data = explode("=",$video_code); $video_unique_code = substr($splited_data[1],0,-strlen(strrchr($splited_data[1],"&"))); } else { return; } // set feed URL $feedURL = 'http://gdata.youtube.com/feeds/api/videos/'.$video_unique_code; // read feed into SimpleXML object $sxml = simplexml_load_file($feedURL); return $sxml; } } } // End Youtube Function I'm not sure how to activate it is what I'm trying to say. I placed it in the controller and it's within a function for one of my pages. I don't have any syntax errors. I just don't know how to wake it up and make it work. I thought I could just put youtube_data_grabber('http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=LAcrFym10ZI', 'url'); but that didn't work. I got the code from here: http://bit.ly/b7YnDt and I have the zend functionality working. I tested it earlier and had no errors. I'm just having trouble with this youtube part. Any ideas?

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  • SFTP in Python? (platform independent)

    - by Mark Wilbur
    I'm working on a simple tool that transfers files to a hard-coded location with the password also hard-coded. I'm a python novice, but thanks to ftplib, it was easy: import ftplib info= ('someuser', 'password') #hard-coded def putfile(file, site, dir, user=(), verbose=True): """ upload a file by ftp to a site/directory login hard-coded, binary transfer """ if verbose: print 'Uploading', file local = open(file, 'rb') remote = ftplib.FTP(site) remote.login(*user) remote.cwd(dir) remote.storbinary('STOR ' + file, local, 1024) remote.quit() local.close() if verbose: print 'Upload done.' if __name__ == '__main__': site = 'somewhere.com' #hard-coded dir = './uploads/' #hard-coded import sys, getpass putfile(sys.argv[1], site, dir, user=info) The problem is that I can't find any library that supports sFTP. What's the normal way to do something like this securely? Edit: Thanks to the answers here, I've gotten it working with Paramiko and this was the syntax. import paramiko host = "THEHOST.com" #hard-coded port = 22 transport = paramiko.Transport((host, port)) password = "THEPASSWORD" #hard-coded username = "THEUSERNAME" #hard-coded transport.connect(username = username, password = password) sftp = paramiko.SFTPClient.from_transport(transport) import sys path = './THETARGETDIRECTORY/' + sys.argv[1] #hard-coded localpath = sys.argv[1] sftp.put(localpath, path) sftp.close() transport.close() print 'Upload done.' Thanks again!

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  • How to run a javascript function before postback of asp.net button?

    - by Curtis White
    I'm using Javascript to create a DIV element and open up a new page by using onclientclick. This works great. Now, I need to write to it from the server side and this element must be created before it is posted back. How do I get the javascript to execute before the postback? Currently, I have to press the button twice because the element doesn't exist to write too on the first click. To be clear, I need this to execute before the "OnClick" of the button. Update: It looks like the Javascript function is called before the postback but the element is not updated until I run the second postback. Hmm Update: Unfortunately it is a bit more complicated then this. I'm creating a div tag in javascript to open a new window. Inside the div tag, I'm using a databinding syntax <%=Preview% so that I can get access to this element on the server side. From the server side, I'm injecting the code. I'm thinking this may be a chicken-egg problem but not sure. UPDATE! It is not the Javascript not running first. It is the databinding mechanism which is reading the blank variable before I'm able to set it. Hmm

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  • Rails: update_attribute vs update_attributes

    - by Sam
    Object.update_attribute(:only_one_field, "Some Value") Object.update_attributes(:field1 => "value", :field2 => "value2", :field3 => "value3") Both of these will update an object without having to explicitly tell AR to update. Rails API says: for update_attribute Updates a single attribute and saves the record without going through the normal validation procedure. This is especially useful for boolean flags on existing records. The regular update_attribute method in Base is replaced with this when the validations module is mixed in, which it is by default. for update_attributes Updates all the attributes from the passed-in Hash and saves the record. If the object is invalid, the saving will fail and false will be returned. So if I don't want to have the object validated I should use update_attribute. What if I have this update on a before_save, will it stackoverflow? My question is does update_attribute also bypass the before save or just the validation. Also, what is the correct syntax to pass a hash to update_attributes... check out my example at the top.

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  • Is there a nice way of having static generic parameters is Java?

    - by Chris
    Hello, recently I'm writing some functions that I take from Haskell and translate into Java. One of the main problems I have is I cannot easily create a static property with a generic type. Let me explain by a little example... // An interface to implement functions public interface Func<P, R> { public R apply(P p); } // What I want to do... (incorrect in Java) public class ... { public static <T> Func<T, T> identity = new Func<T, T>() { public T apply(T p) { return p; } } } // What I do right now public class ... { private static Func<Object, Object> identity = new Func<Object, Object>() { public Object apply(Object p) { return p; } } @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public static <T> Func<T, T> getIdentity() { return (Func<T, T>)identity; } } Are there any easier ways to do something like that? What kind of problems might arise if the syntax I used would be valid?

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