Search Results

Search found 10550 results on 422 pages for 'syntax rules'.

Page 374/422 | < Previous Page | 370 371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380 381  | Next Page >

  • How can I pass a hash to a Perl subroutine?

    - by Vishalrix
    In one of my main( or primary) routines,I have two or more hashes. I want the subroutine foo() to recieve these possibly-multiple hashes as distinct hashes. Right now I have no preference if they go by value, or as references. I am struggling with this for the last many hours and would appreciate help, so that I dont have to leave perl for php! ( I am using mod_perl, or will be) Right now I have got some answer to my requirement, shown here From http://forums.gentoo.org/viewtopic-t-803720-start-0.html # sub: dump the hash values with the keys '1' and '3' sub dumpvals { foreach $h (@_) { print "1: $h->{1} 3: $h->{3}\n"; } } # initialize an array of anonymous hash references @arr = ({1,2,3,4}, {1,7,3,8}); # create a new hash and add the reference to the array $t{1} = 5; $t{3} = 6; push @arr, \%t; # call the sub dumpvals(@arr); I only want to extend it so that in dumpvals I could do something like this: foreach my %k ( keys @_[0]) { # use $k and @_[0], and others } The syntax is wrong, but I suppose you can tell that I am trying to get the keys of the first hash ( hash1 or h1), and iterate over them. How to do it in the latter code snippet above?

    Read the article

  • Is there a standard SQL Table design for overriding 'big picture' default values with lower level de

    - by RichardHowells
    Here's an example. Suppose we are trying to calculate a service charge. Say sales in the USA attract a 10 dollar charge, sales in the UK attract a 20 dollar charge So far it's easy - we are starting to imagine a table that lists charges by country. Now lets assume that Alaska and Hawaii are treated as special cases they are both 15 dollars That suggests a table with states, Alaska and Hawaii are charged at 15, but presumably we need 48 (redundant) rows all saying 10. This gives us a maintainance problem, our user only wants to type 10 once NOT 48 times. It does not sit well with the UK either. The UK does not have states. Suppose we throw in another couple of cross cutting rules. If you order by phone there is a 10% supplement on the charge. If you order via the web there is a 10% discount. But for some reason best known to the owners of the business the web/phone supplement/discount are not applied in Hawaii. It seems to me that this is quite a common kind of problem and there is probably a well known arrangement of tables to store the data. Most cases get handled by broad brush answers, but there are some very detailed low level variations that give rise to a huge number of theoretical combinations, most of which are not used.

    Read the article

  • Project management software, available options

    - by canni
    Hey, sorry for posting this here, I know that this question better suites into SuperUser, but I would like to know answers from developers point of view. I have been using Indefero for project management etc. for some time, but I found that Indefero limitations are too big for my team. I'm searching project-management software that best suites this needs: Open-Source, but I can consider commercial apps GIT integration is mandatory, best if it can support multiple repos per project Time-tracking, good if it can have Gannt chart connected with issues etc. Issue, milestone, task tracking Good if it can be integrated with Gitosis, or have similar repository access control It must have an option, to setup on our own server Markdown syntax support is mandatory (or easy way to install plugin for this etc.) Issue tagging will be and advantage It will be used by developers team by 99% of time, but it has to have some simple interface, that clients can fill up bug reports etc. per project. It does not have to fill all this needs, but good if it can :) What options do You know, and can recommend?

    Read the article

  • Why use shorter VARCHAR(n) fields?

    - by chryss
    It is frequently advised to choose database field sizes to be as narrow as possible. I am wondering to what degree this applies to SQL Server 2005 VARCHAR columns: Storing 10-letter English words in a VARCHAR(255) field will not take up more storage than in a VARCHAR(10) field. Are there other reasons to restrict the size of VARCHAR fields to stick as closely as possible to the size of the data? I'm thinking of Performance: Is there an advantage to using a smaller n when selecting, filtering and sorting on the data? Memory, including on the application side (C++)? Style/validation: How important do you consider restricting colunm size to force non-sensical data imports to fail (such as 200-character surnames)? Anything else? Background: I help data integrators with the design of data flows into a database-backed system. They have to use an API that restricts their choice of data types. For character data, only VARCHAR(n) with n <= 255 is available; CHAR, NCHAR, NVARCHAR and TEXT are not. We're trying to lay down some "good practices" rules, and the question has come up if there is a real detriment to using VARCHAR(255) even for data where real maximum sizes will never exceed 30 bytes or so. Typical data volumes for one table are 1-10 Mio records with up to 150 attributes. Query performance (SELECT, with frequently extensive WHERE clauses) and application-side retrieval performance are paramount.

    Read the article

  • C++ IDE for Linux?

    - by Sven
    I want to expand my programming horizons to Linux. A good, dependable basic toolset is important, and what is more basic than an IDE? I could find these SO topics: Lightweight IDE for linux and What tools do you use to develop C++ applications on Linux? I'm not looking for a lightweight IDE. If an IDE is worth the money, then I will pay for it, so it need not be free. My question, then: What good, C++ programming IDE is available for Linux? The minimums are fairly standard: syntax highlighting, code completion (like intellisense or its Eclipse counterpart) and integrated debugging (e.g., basic breakpoints). I have searched for it myself, but there are so many that it is almost impossible to separate the good from the bads by hand, especially for someone like me who has little C++ coding experience in Linux. I know that Eclipse supports C++, and I really like that IDE for Java, but is it any good for C++ and is there something better? The second post actually has some good suggestions, but what I am missing is what exactly makes the sugested IDE so good for the user, what are its (dis)advantages? Maybe my question should therefore be: What IDE do you propose (given your experiences), and why?

    Read the article

  • Organizing development teams

    - by Patrick
    A long time ago, when my company was much smaller, dividing the development work over teams was quite easy: the 'application' team developed the applications-specific logic, often requiring a deep insight of specific industry problems) the 'generic' team developed the parts that were common/generic for all applications (user interface related stuff, database access, low-level Windows stuff, ...) Over the years the boundaries between the teams have become fuzzy: the 'application' teams often write application-specific functionality with a 'generic' part, so instead of asking the 'generic' team to write that part for them, they write it themselves to speed up the developments; then donate it to the 'generic' team the 'generic' team's focus seems to be more 'maintenance oriented'. All of the 'very generic' code has already been written, so no new developments are needed in it, but instead they continuously have to support all the functionality donated by the application teams. All this seems to indicate that it's not a good idea anymore to have this split in teams. Maybe the 'generic' team should evolve into a 'software quality' team (defining and guarding the rules for writing good quality software), or into a 'software deployment' team (defining how software should be deployed, installed, ...). How do you split up the work in different teams if you have different applications? everybody can write generic code and donates it to a central 'generic' team? everybody can write generic code, but nobody 'manages' this generic code (everybody is the owner) generic code is written by a 'generic' team only and the applications have to wait until the 'generic' team delivers the generic part (via a library, via a DLL) there is no overlap in code between the different applications some other way? Notice that thee advantage of having the mix (allowing everybody to write everywhere in the code) is that: code is written in a more flexible way it's easier to debug the code since you can easily step into the 'generic' code in the debugger But the big (and maybe only) disadvantage is that this generic code may become nobody's responsibility if there is no clear team that manages it anymore. What is your vision?

    Read the article

  • C ++ virtual function

    - by user2950788
    masters of C++. I am trying to implement polymorphism in C++. I want to write a base class with a virtual function and then redefine that function in the child class. then demonstrate dynamic binding in my driver program. But I just couldn't get it to work. I know how to do it in C#, so I figured that I might have made some syntactical mistakes where I had used C#'s syntax in my C++ code, but these mistakes are not obvious to me at all. So I'd greatly appreciate it if you would correct my mistakes. class polyTest { public: polyTest(); virtual void type(); virtual ~polyTest(); }; void polyTest::type() { cout << "first gen"; } class polyChild: public polyTest { public: void type(); }; void polyChild::type() { cout << "second gen"; } int main() { polyChild * ptr1; polyChild * ptr2; ptr1 = new polyTest(); ptr2 = new polyChild(); ptr1 -> type(); ptr2 -> type(); }

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to modify the value of a record's primary key in Oracle when child records exist?

    - by Chris Farmer
    I have some Oracle tables that represent a parent-child relationship. They look something like this: create table Parent ( parent_id varchar2(20) not null primary key ); create table Child ( child_id number not null primary key, parent_id varchar2(20) not null, constraint fk_parent_id foreign key (parent_id) references Parent (parent_id) ); This is a live database and its schema was designed long ago under the assumption that the parent_id field would be static and unchanging for a given record. Now the rules have changed and we really would like to change the value of parent_id for some records. For example, I have these records: Parent: parent_id --------- ABC123 Child: child_id parent_id -------- --------- 1 ABC123 2 ABC123 And I want to modify ABC123 in these records in both tables to something else. It's my understanding that one cannot write an Oracle update statement that will update both parent and child tables simultaneously, and given the FK constraint, I'm not sure how best to update my database. I am currently disabling the fk_parent_id constraint, updating each table independently, and then enabling the constraint. Is there a better, single-step way to update this content?

    Read the article

  • How to reference input elements within a specific scope when there are multiple input elements of same kind?

    - by Will Merydith
    How do I select data for input elements within a specific scope? I have the same form multiple times (class "foo-form), and want to ensure I get the values for the hidden inputs within the scope of the form being submitted. Is the scope "this" implied? If not, what is the syntax for selecting input class "foo-text" within the scope of this? Feel free to point me to examples in the jquery docs - I could not find what I was looking for. $('.foo-form').submit(function() { // Store a reference to this form var $thisForm = $(this); }); <form class="foo-form"> <input type="hidden" class="foo-text"/> <input type="submit" class="button" /> </form> <form class="foo-form"> <input type="hidden" class="foo-text"/> <input type="submit" class="button" /> </form> <form class="foo-form"> <input type="hidden" class="foo-text"/> <input type="submit" class="button" /> // user clicks this submit button </form>

    Read the article

  • Rails RESTful routs without #new, rspec trouble

    - by pdkl95
    I'm currently writing a Rails app, and hit a somewhat strange quirk. I have a controller PermissionsController, which is mainly for display purposes at the moment. So my routing is locked down: map.resources :permissions, :only => [:index, :show] Unfortunately, when writing the tests, one of the routing tests fails: it "does not recognize #new" do { :get => "/permissions/new" }.should_not be_routable end with the error: Expected 'GET /permissions/new' to fail, but it routed to {"action"=>"show", "id"=>"new", "controller"=>"permissions"} instead Obviously, the #show action's route is matching with /permissions/:id, which also gives the expected error Couldn't find Permission with ID=new if you actually browse to that URL. This is not a serious error, as it is correctly raising an exception with the bad :id parameter, but it's kind of ugly. Is there any way to actually make Rails reject that route? Some trick in the routing options that I'm missing? I suppose I should just leave that test out and ignore it, or maybe remove the whole RESTful idea altogether and go back to a simpler map.connect 'permissions/:id' style. I strongly suspect I'll be expanding this in the future, though, and kind of wanted to keep my controllers consistent with each other. Just having to add occasional :only or :except rules made routes.rb nice and clean...

    Read the article

  • How to evaluate json member using variable ?

    - by Miftah
    Hi i've got a problem evaluating json. My goal is to insert json member value to a function variable, take a look at this function func_load_session(svar){ var id = ''; $.getJSON('data/session.php?load='+svar, function(json){ eval('id = json.'+svar); }); return id; } this code i load session from php file that i've store beforehand. i store that session variable using dynamic var. <?php /* * format ?var=[nama_var]&val=[nilai_nama_var] */ $var = $_GET['var']; $val = $_GET['val']; $load = $_GET['load']; session_start(); if($var){ $_SESSION["$var"] = $val; echo "Store SESSION[\"$var\"] = '".$_SESSION["$var"]."'"; }else if($load){ echo $_SESSION["$load"]; } ?> using firebug, i get expected response but i also received error uncaught exception: Syntax error, unrecognized expression: ) pointing at this eval('id = json.'+svar); i wonder how to solve this

    Read the article

  • CakePHP 2.0: how to access properties of the parent object?

    - by PaulJ
    I just started learning CakePHP 2.0 a few days ago, and there's one thing that is leaving me stumped: say I have an User model and a Posts model: class User extends AppModel { public $name = "User"; public $hasMany=array( 'Post' => array( 'className' => 'Post', 'foreignKey' => 'author_id' ) ); } class Post extends AppModel { public $name = 'Post'; public $belongsTo = array( 'className' = 'User', 'foreignKey' = 'author_id', ); } (Where "author_id" is the foreign key in the posts table that references the Users table's primary key). And now, in the PostsController, I want to access the properties of the user that owns the current post (to show his display name, for example). What would be the proper syntax? I tried: $this->Post->User->find('first', array('conditions' => array('User.id' => "$usuario"))) But it didn't work (I guess it's because the User is the parent of the Post object, not its child). Or should CakePHP load everything automatically, once you've declared the $hasMany and $belongsTo relationships?

    Read the article

  • Adding functions to Java class libraries

    - by Eric
    I'm using a Java class library that is in many ways incomplete: there are many classes that I feel ought to have additional member functions built in. However, I am unsure of the best practice of adding these member functions. Lets call the insufficient base class A. class A { public A(/*long arbitrary arguments*/) { //... } public A(/*long even more arbitrary arguments*/) { //... } public int func() { return 1; } } Ideally, I would like to add a function to A. However, I can't do that. My choice is between: class B extends A { //Implement ALL of A's constructors here public int reallyUsefulFunction() { return func()+1; } } and class AddedFuncs { public int reallyUsefulFunction(A a) { return a.func()+1; } } The way I see it, they both have advantages and disadvantages. The first choice gives a cleaner syntax than the second, and is more logical, but has problems: Let's say I have a third class, C, within the class library. class C { public A func() { return new A(/*...*/); } } As I see it, there is no easy way of doing this: C c; int useful = c.func().reallyUsefulFunction(); as the type returned by C.func() is an A, not a B, and you can't down-cast. So what is the best way of adding a member function to a read-only library class?

    Read the article

  • Rails: update_attribute vs update_attributes

    - by Sam
    Object.update_attribute(:only_one_field, "Some Value") Object.update_attributes(:field1 => "value", :field2 => "value2", :field3 => "value3") Both of these will update an object without having to explicitly tell AR to update. Rails API says: for update_attribute Updates a single attribute and saves the record without going through the normal validation procedure. This is especially useful for boolean flags on existing records. The regular update_attribute method in Base is replaced with this when the validations module is mixed in, which it is by default. for update_attributes Updates all the attributes from the passed-in Hash and saves the record. If the object is invalid, the saving will fail and false will be returned. So if I don't want to have the object validated I should use update_attribute. What if I have this update on a before_save, will it stackoverflow? My question is does update_attribute also bypass the before save or just the validation. Also, what is the correct syntax to pass a hash to update_attributes... check out my example at the top.

    Read the article

  • Is there a nice way of having static generic parameters is Java?

    - by Chris
    Hello, recently I'm writing some functions that I take from Haskell and translate into Java. One of the main problems I have is I cannot easily create a static property with a generic type. Let me explain by a little example... // An interface to implement functions public interface Func<P, R> { public R apply(P p); } // What I want to do... (incorrect in Java) public class ... { public static <T> Func<T, T> identity = new Func<T, T>() { public T apply(T p) { return p; } } } // What I do right now public class ... { private static Func<Object, Object> identity = new Func<Object, Object>() { public Object apply(Object p) { return p; } } @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public static <T> Func<T, T> getIdentity() { return (Func<T, T>)identity; } } Are there any easier ways to do something like that? What kind of problems might arise if the syntax I used would be valid?

    Read the article

  • Linq-to-sql join/where?

    - by Curtis White
    I've the following table structures Users id Types id isBool UsersTypes userid types I want to select all the UserTypes based on id and isBool. I tried this query var q = from usertype in usertypes from type in types where type.isBool == false where userstypes.user == id select usertype; But this did not work as expected. My questions are: Why? Is there any difference in using the join on syntax vs where, where vs where cond1 && cond2? My understanding is query optimizer will optimize. Is there any difference in using where cond1 == var1 && cond2 == var2 with and without the parenthesis? This seems peculiar that it is possible to build this without parenthesis What type of query do I need in this case? I can see that I could do a subquery or use a group but not 100% sure if it is required. An example might be helpful. I'm thinking a subquery may be required in this case.

    Read the article

  • Use of Java [Interfaces / Abstract classes]

    - by Samuel
    Hello, Lately i decided to take a look at Java so i am still pretty new to it and also to the approach of OO programming, so i wanted to get some things straight before learning more, (i guess it's never to soon to start with good practices). I am programming a little 2D game for now but i think my question applies to any non trivial project. For the simplicity i'll provide examples from my game. I have different kinds of zombies, but they all have the same attributes (x, y, health, attack etc) so i wrote an interface Zombie which i implement by WalkingZombie, RunningZombie TeleportingZombie etc. Is this the best thing to do? Am i better of with an abstract class? Or with a super class? (I am not planning to partially implement functions - therefor my choice for an interface instead of an abstract class) I have one class describing the main character (Survivor) and since it is pretty big i wanted to write an interface with the different functions, so that i can easily see and share the structure of it. Is it good practice? Or is it simply a waste of space and time? I hope this question will not be rated as subjective because i thought that experienced programmers won't disagree about this kind of topic since the use of interfaces / super classes / abstract classes follows logical rules and is thereby not simply a personal choice. Thank you for your time -Samuel

    Read the article

  • How to update attributes without validation

    - by Brian Roisentul
    I've got a model with its validations, and I found out that I can't update an attribute without validating the object before. I already tried to add on => :create syntax at the end of each validation line, but I got the same results. My announcement model have the following validations: validates_presence_of :title validates_presence_of :description validates_presence_of :announcement_type_id validate :validates_publication_date validate :validates_start_date validate :validates_start_end_dates validate :validates_category validate :validates_province validates_length_of :title, :in => 6..255, :on => :save validates_length_of :subtitle, :in => 0..255, :on => :save validates_length_of :subtitle, :in => 0..255, :on => :save validates_length_of :place, :in => 0..50, :on => :save validates_numericality_of :vacants, :greater_than_or_equal_to => 0, :only_integer => true validates_numericality_of :price, :greater_than_or_equal_to => 0, :only_integer => true My rake task does the following: task :announcements_expiration => :environment do announcements = Announcement.expired announcements.each do |a| #Gets the user that owns the announcement user = User.find(a.user_id) puts a.title + '...' a.state = 'deactivated' if a.update_attributes(:state => a.state) puts 'state changed to deactivated' else a.errors.each do |e| puts e end end end This throws all the validation exceptions for that model, in the output. Does anybody how to update an attribute without validating the model?

    Read the article

  • Add Hover display for table cell

    - by Jake
    I have a table, but it is not in a list format, meaning not a column/row format. I look for specific cells to add a hover event that displays a description of the cell. $("#TableID td").hover(function(){ //ifCellThatIWant $(this).append("<span>Message that was brought in</span>"); }, function(){ $(this).children().remove(); }); The problem is right now is that the hover displays a span(with info. inside) that I used jquery to append the span to the cell when mouseover, which expands the cell, which is an effect that I don't like or want. I'm Trying to have an out of the table look,but still be by the cell that triggered the event; because if the span has a lot of info. in it, expanding the cell dynamically will start to look pretty nasty. Also will help if I had some type of css direction on how will I make the display for the mouseover "description" span look nice. My mind thought is that a way to accomplish what I want is giver the appended span the position of my mouse cursor when hover, but not sure if its the right approach or what the syntax would look like.

    Read the article

  • Convert IIS / Tomcat Web Application to a multi-server environment.

    - by bill_the_loser
    I have an existing web application built in .Net, running on IIS that leverages a java servlet that we have running on Tomcat 5.5. We need to scale the application and I'm confused about what relates to our situation and what we need to do to get the servlet running on multiple servers. Right now I have 4 servers that can each individually process results, it almost seems like all I should have to do is add the ajp13 worker processes from three additional machines to the machine hosting the load balancer worker. But I can't imagine it should be that easy. What do I need to do to distribute the Tomcat load to the extra three machines? Thanks. Update: The current configuration is using a workers2.properties configuration file. From all of the documentation online I have not been able to determine the distinction between the workers.properties and the workers2.properties. Most of the examples that I have found are configuring the workers.properties and revolve around adding workers and registering them in the worker.list element. The workers2.properties does not appears to have a worker.list element and the syntax is different enough between the workers.properties and the workers2.properties that I'm doubtful that I can add that element. If I just add my multiple AJP workers to the workers2.properties file do I need to worry about the apparent lack of a worker.list element? [ajp13:localhost:8009] channel=channel.socket:localhost:8009 group=lb [ajp13:host2.mydomain.local:8009] channel=channel.socket:host2.mydomain.local:8009 group=lb [ajp13:host3.mydomain.local:8009] channel=channel.socket:host3.mydomain.local:8009 group=lb A couple of side notes... One I've noticed that sometime Tomcat doesn't seem to reload my changes and I don't know why. Also, I have no idea why this configuration has a workers2.properties and not a workers.properties. I've been assuming that it's based on version but I haven't seen anything to back up that assumption.

    Read the article

  • casting char[][] to char** causes segfault?

    - by Earlz
    Ok my C is a bit rusty but I figured I'd make my next(small) project in C so I could polish back up on it and less than 20 lines in I already have a seg fault. This is my complete code: #define ROWS 4 #define COLS 4 char main_map[ROWS][COLS+1]={ "a.bb", "a.c.", "adc.", ".dc."}; void print_map(char** map){ int i; for(i=0;i<ROWS;i++){ puts(map[i]); //segfault here } } int main(){ print_map(main_map); //if I comment out this line it will work. puts(main_map[3]); return 0; } I am completely confused as to how this is causing a segfault. What is happening when casting from [][] to **!? That is the only warning I get. rushhour.c:23:3: warning: passing argument 1 of ‘print_map’ from incompatible pointer type rushhour.c:13:7: note: expected ‘char **’ but argument is of type ‘char (*)[5]’ Are [][] and ** really not compatible pointer types? They seem like they are just syntax to me.

    Read the article

  • How to enforce that HTTP client uses conditional requests for updates?

    - by Day
    In a (proper RMM level 3) RESTful HTTP API, I want to enforce the fact that clients should make conditional requests when updating resources, in order to avoid the lost update problem. What would be an appropriate response to return to clients that incorrectly attempt unconditional PUT requests? I note that the (abandoned?) mod_atom returns a 405 Method Not Allowed with an Allow header set to GET, HEAD (view source) when an unconditional update is attempted. This seems slightly misleading - to me this implies that PUT is never a valid method to attempt on the resource. Perhaps the response just needs to have an entity body explaining that If-Match or If-Unmodified-Since must be used to make the PUT request conditional in which case it would be allowed? Or perhaps a 400 Bad Request with a suitable explanation in the entity body would be a better solution? But again, this doesn't feel quite right because it's using a 400 response for a violation of application specific semantics when RFC 2616 says (my emphasis): The request could not be understood by the server due to malformed syntax. But than again, I think that using 400 Bad Request for application specific semantics is becoming a widely accepted pragmatic solution (citation needed!), and I'm just being overly pedantic.

    Read the article

  • Is there a set based solution for this problem?

    - by NYSystemsAnalyst
    We have a table set up as follows: |ID|EmployeeID|Date |Category |Hours| |1 |1 |1/1/2010 |Vacation Earned|2.0 | |2 |2 |2/12/2010|Vacation Earned|3.0 | |3 |1 |2/4/2010 |Vacation Used |1.0 | |4 |2 |5/18/2010|Vacation Earned|2.0 | |5 |2 |7/23/2010|Vacation Used |4.0 | The business rules are: Vacation balance is calculated by vacation earned minus vacation used. Vacation used is always applied against the oldest vacation earned amount first. We need to return the rows for Vacation Earned that have not been offset by vacation used. If vacation used has only offset part of a vacation earned record, we need to return that record showing the difference. For example, using the above table, the result set would look like: |ID|EmployeeID|Date |Category |Hours| |1 |1 |1/1/2010 |Vacation Earned|1.0 | |4 |2 |5/18/2010|Vacation Earned|1.0 | Note that record 2 was eliminated because it was completely offset by used time, but records 1 and 4 were only partially used, so they were calculated and returned as such. The only way we have thought of to do this is to get all of the vacation earned records in a temporary table. Then, get the total vacation used and loop through the temporary table, deleting the oldest record and subtracting that value from the total vacation used until the total vacation used is zero. We could clean it up for when the remaining vacation used is only part of the oldest vacation earned record. This would leave us with just the outstanding vacation earned records. This works, but it is very inefficient and performs poorly. Also, the performance will just degrade over time as more and more records are added. Are there any suggestions for a better solution, preferable set based? If not, we'll just have to go with this.

    Read the article

  • Potential Django Bug In QuerySet.query?

    - by Mike
    Disclaimer: I'm still learning Django, so I might be missing something here, but I can't see what it would be... I'm running Python 2.6.1 and Django 1.2.1. (InteractiveConsole) >>> from myproject.myapp.models import * >>> qs = Identifier.objects.filter(Q(key="a") | Q(key="b")) >>> print qs.query SELECT `app_identifier`.`id`, `app_identifier`.`user_id`, `app_identifier`.`key`, `app_identifier`.`value` FROM `app_identifier` WHERE (`app_identifier`.`key` = a OR `app_identifier`.`key` = b ) >>> Notice that it doesn't put quotes around "a" or "b"! Now, I've determined that the query executes fine. So, in reality, it must be doing so. But, it's pretty annoying that printing out the query prints it wrong. Especially if I did something like this... >>> qs = Identifier.objects.filter(Q(key=") AND") | Q(key="\"x\"); DROP TABLE `app_identifier`")) >>> print qs.query SELECT `app_identifier`.`id`, `app_identifier`.`user_id`, `app_identifier`.`key`, `app_identifier`.`value` FROM `app_identifier` WHERE (`app_identifier`.`key` = ) AND OR `app_identifier`.`key` = "x"); DROP TABLE `app_identifier` ) >>> Which, as you can see, not only creates completely malformed SQL code, but also has the seeds of a SQL injection attack. Now, obviously this wouldn't actually work, for quite a number of reasons (1. The syntax is all wrong, intentionally, to show the oddity of Django's behavior. 2. Django won't actually execute the query like this, it will actually put quotes and slashes and all that in there like it's supposed to). But, this really makes debugging confusing, and it makes me wonder if something's gone wrong with my Django installation. Does this happen for you? If so/not, what version of Python and Django do you have? Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • How do I call this function in CodeIgniter controller?

    - by Jason Shultz
    I've got this code, but I'm not sure I make it work: /** * Function: youtube data grabber * * @description : * @param $ : video code, url type (embed/url) * @return : data array * @author : Mamun. * @last -modified-by: Mamun. */ if (! function_exists('youtube_data_grabber')) { function youtube_data_grabber($video_code, $link_type = "embed") { if ($video_code != '') { if ($link_type == "embed") { $splited_data = explode("=",$video_code); $video_unique_code = substr(strrchr($splited_data[4],"/"),1,-strlen(strrchr($splited_data[4],"&"))); } else if ($link_type == "url") { $splited_data = explode("=",$video_code); $video_unique_code = substr($splited_data[1],0,-strlen(strrchr($splited_data[1],"&"))); } else { return; } // set feed URL $feedURL = 'http://gdata.youtube.com/feeds/api/videos/'.$video_unique_code; // read feed into SimpleXML object $sxml = simplexml_load_file($feedURL); return $sxml; } } } // End Youtube Function I'm not sure how to activate it is what I'm trying to say. I placed it in the controller and it's within a function for one of my pages. I don't have any syntax errors. I just don't know how to wake it up and make it work. I thought I could just put youtube_data_grabber('http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=LAcrFym10ZI', 'url'); but that didn't work. I got the code from here: http://bit.ly/b7YnDt and I have the zend functionality working. I tested it earlier and had no errors. I'm just having trouble with this youtube part. Any ideas?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 370 371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380 381  | Next Page >