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  • LINQ: display results from empty lists

    - by Douglas H. M.
    I've created two entities (simplified) in C#: class Log { entries = new List<Entry>(); DateTime Date { get; set; } IList<Entry> entries { get; set; } } class Entry { DateTime ClockIn { get; set; } DateTime ClockOut { get; set; } } I am using the following code to initialize the objects: Log log1 = new Log() { Date = new DateTime(2010, 1, 1), }; log1.Entries.Add(new Entry() { ClockIn = new DateTime(0001, 1, 1, 9, 0, 0), ClockOut = new DateTime(0001, 1, 1, 12, 0, 0) }); Log log2 = new Log() { Date = new DateTime(2010, 2, 1), }; The method below is used to get the date logs: var query = from l in DB.GetLogs() from e in l.Entries orderby l.Date ascending select new { Date = l.Date, ClockIn = e.ClockIn, ClockOut = e.ClockOut, }; The result of the above LINQ query is: /* Date | Clock In | Clock Out 01/01/2010 | 09:00 | 12:00 */ My question is, what is the best way to rewrite the LINQ query above to include the results from the second object I created (Log2), since it has an empty list. In the other words, I would like to display all dates even if they don't have time values. The expected result would be: /* Date | Clock In | Clock Out 01/01/2010 | 09:00 | 12:00 02/01/2010 | | */

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  • In Python, how to make sure database connection will always close before leaving a code block?

    - by Cawas
    I want to prevent database connection being open as much as possible, because this code will run on an intensive used server and people here already told me database connections should always be closed as soon as possible. def do_something_that_needs_database (): dbConnection = MySQLdb.connect(host=args['database_host'], user=args['database_user'], passwd=args['database_pass'], db=args['database_tabl'], cursorclass=MySQLdb.cursors.DictCursor) dbCursor = dbConnection.cursor() dbCursor.execute('SELECT COUNT(*) total FROM table') row = dbCursor.fetchone() if row['total'] == 0: print 'error: table have no records' dbCursor.execute('UPDATE table SET field="%s"', whatever_value) return None print 'table is ok' dbCursor.execute('UPDATE table SET field="%s"', another_value) # a lot more of workflow done here dbConnection.close() # even more stuff would come below I believe that leaves a database connection open when there is no row on the table, tho I'm still really not sure how it works. Anyway, maybe that is bad design in the sense that I could open and close a DB connection after each small block of execute. And sure, I could just add a close right before the return in that case... But how could I always properly close the DB without having to worry if I have that return, or a raise, or continue, or whatever in the middle? I'm thinking in something like a code block, similar to using try, like in the following suggestion, which obviously doesn't work: def do_something_that_needs_database (): dbConnection = MySQLdb.connect(host=args['database_host'], user=args['database_user'], passwd=args['database_pass'], db=args['database_tabl'], cursorclass=MySQLdb.cursors.DictCursor) try: dbCursor = dbConnection.cursor() dbCursor.execute('SELECT COUNT(*) total FROM table') row = dbCursor.fetchone() if row['total'] == 0: print 'error: table have no records' dbCursor.execute('UPDATE table SET field="%s"', whatever_value) return None print 'table is ok' dbCursor.execute('UPDATE table SET field="%s"', another_value) # again, that same lot of line codes done here except ExitingCodeBlock: closeDb(dbConnection) # still, that "even more stuff" from before would come below I don't think there is anything similar to ExitingCodeBlock for an exception, tho I know there is the try else, but I hope Python already have a similar feature... Or maybe someone can suggest me a paradigm move and tell me this is awful and highly advise me to never do that. Maybe this is just something to not worry about and let MySQLdb handle it, or is it?

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  • CURL request incomplete, suspect timeout but not sure.

    - by girlygeek
    I am currently using CURL via a php script running as daily cron to export product data in csv format from a site's admin area. The normal way of exporting data will be to go to the Export page in a browser, and set the configuration, then click on "export data" button. But as the number of products I am exporting is very large, and it takes more than 5-10 mins to export the data, I've decided to use php's curl function to mimic this on a daily basis via cron. Previously, it is working fine, but recently as I increased the number of products in the store by 500+, the script fails to return the exported data. Testing it manually via clicking on the "export" button in a browser, does return the data correctly. Thus there is no "timeout" issue with running the export in a browser manually. I've tested and by removing/decreasing the number of products (thus the time needed), the php-curl script works fine again when run from cron. So I suspect that it has something to do with timeouts issue, specifically with the curl function in php. I've set both CURLOPT_TIMEOUT and CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT to '0' respectively to try. In the php-curl script, I've also set "set_time_limit(3000)". But still it does not work, and the request will timeout, with the script failing to return with a complete set of csv data. Any help in helping me resolve/understand this issue will be much appreciated!

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  • Asp.Net Cookie sharing

    - by SH
    This is C#.Net code: How to share Cookie between 2 HttpWebRequest calls? Details: I am posting a form in first request, this form contains some setting variables which are used by the system. lets say there is a input field in the form which sets the size of grid pages to be displayed in other pages. Once i have updated the setings in previous request, i go to send a request to another page which shows off asp.net gridview/grid. The grid might contaian several pages and the page size should be the one which i set in previous request. But when i do this via HttpWebReeust it does not happen. When i do it via browser, loading the setting page in the browser and then going to the grid view page... i see the page size is updated. I want to achieve this via code. Sicne i am scraping this grid. i have to set page size or visit the gird pages one by one via code. Or is it possible to set a cookie on 2nd request which is used to set in first request? It will be great if i go this way. any solution?

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  • How can I keep the the logic to translate a ViewModel's values to a Where clause to apply to a linq query out of My Controller?

    - by Mr. Manager
    This same problem keeps cropping up. I have a viewModel that doesn't have any persistent backing. It is just a ViewModel to generate a search input form. I want to build a large where clause from the values the user entered. If the Action Accepts as a parameter SearchViewModel How do I do this without passing my viewModel to my service layer? Service shouldn't know about ViewModels right? Oh and if I serialize it, then it would be a big string and the key/values would be strongly typed. SearchViewModel this is just a snippet. [Display(Name="Address")] public string AddressKeywords { get; set; } /// <summary> /// Gets or sets the census. /// </summary> public string Census { get; set; } /// <summary> /// Gets or sets the lot block sub. /// </summary> public string LotBlockSub { get; set; } /// <summary> /// Gets or sets the owner keywords. /// </summary> [Display(Name="Owner")] public string OwnerKeywords { get; set; } In my controller action I was thinking of something like this. but I would think all this logic doesn't belong in my Controller. ActionResult GetSearchResults(SearchViewModel model){ var query = service.GetAllParcels(); if(model.Census != null){ query = query.Where(x=>x.Census == model.Census); } if (model.OwnerKeywords != null){ query = query.Where(x=>x.Owners == model.OwnerKeywords); } return View(query.ToList()); }

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  • How do I add a where filter using the original Linq-to-SQL object in the following scenario

    - by GenericTypeTea
    I am performing a select query using the following Linq expression: Table<Tbl_Movement> movements = context.Tbl_Movement; var query = from m in movements select new MovementSummary { Id = m.DocketId, Created = m.DateTimeStamp, CreatedBy = m.Tbl_User.FullName, DocketNumber = m.DocketNumber, DocketTypeDescription = m.Ref_DocketType.DocketType, DocketTypeId = m.DocketTypeId, Site = new Site() { Id = m.Tbl_Site.SiteId, FirstLine = m.Tbl_Site.FirstLine, Postcode = m.Tbl_Site.Postcode, SiteName = m.Tbl_Site.SiteName, TownCity = m.Tbl_Site.TownCity, Brewery = new Brewery() { Id = m.Tbl_Site.Ref_Brewery.BreweryId, BreweryName = m.Tbl_Site.Ref_Brewery.BreweryName }, Region = new Region() { Description = m.Tbl_Site.Ref_Region.Description, Id = m.Tbl_Site.Ref_Region.RegionId } } }; I am also passing in an IFilter class into the method where this select is performed. public interface IJobFilter { int? PersonId { get; set; } int? RegionId { get; set; } int? SiteId { get; set; } int? AssetId { get; set; } } How do I add these where parameters into my SQL expression? Preferably I'd like this done in another method as the filtering will be re-used across multiple repositories. Unfortunately when I do query.Where it has become an IQueryable<MovementSummary>. I'm assuming it has become this as I'm returning an IEnumerable<MovementSummary>. I've only just started learning LINQ, so be gentle.

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  • Class with property referenced with dll not serializing

    - by djerry
    Hey guys, I got this class TapiCall. It has 4 properties : 2 datetimes, 1 string and an object. The object is a class that's referenced by Atapi3.dll, so i cannot alter it. My class TapiCall looks like this : [DataContract] public class TapiCall { private DateTime start, end; private TCall call; private string status; [DataMember] public string Status { get { return status; } set { status = value; } } [DataMember] public TCall Call { get { return call; } set { call = value; } } [DataMember] public DateTime End { get { return end; } set { end = value; } } [DataMember] public DateTime Start { get { return start; } set { start = value; } } public TapiCall() { } public TapiCall(DateTime start, DateTime end, TCall call) { this.Start = start; this.End = end; this.Call = call; } } Now when i use my visual studio command line, to generate my proxy class, it generates an error. When i remove TapiCall from the method in my app, i can rebuild my proxy again, so i know [OperationContract] void StuurUpdatedCall(TapiCall tpCall); is causing the problem. My question now is can i Serialize a class that's referenced by a dll? Thanks in advance.

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  • How do I make a function in SQL Server that accepts a column of data?

    - by brandon k
    I made the following function in SQL Server 2008 earlier this week that takes two parameters and uses them to select a column of "detail" records and returns them as a single varchar list of comma separated values. Now that I get to thinking about it, I would like to take this table and application-specific function and make it more generic. I am not well-versed in defining SQL functions, as this is my first. How can I change this function to accept a single "column" worth of data, so that I can use it in a more generic way? Instead of calling: SELECT ejc_concatFormDetails(formuid, categoryName) I would like to make it work like: SELECT concatColumnValues(SELECT someColumn FROM SomeTable) Here is my function definition: FUNCTION [DNet].[ejc_concatFormDetails](@formuid AS int, @category as VARCHAR(75)) RETURNS VARCHAR(1000) AS BEGIN DECLARE @returnData VARCHAR(1000) DECLARE @currentData VARCHAR(75) DECLARE dataCursor CURSOR FAST_FORWARD FOR SELECT data FROM DNet.ejc_FormDetails WHERE formuid = @formuid AND category = @category SET @returnData = '' OPEN dataCursor FETCH NEXT FROM dataCursor INTO @currentData WHILE (@@FETCH_STATUS = 0) BEGIN SET @returnData = @returnData + ', ' + @currentData FETCH NEXT FROM dataCursor INTO @currentData END CLOSE dataCursor DEALLOCATE dataCursor RETURN SUBSTRING(@returnData,3,1000) END As you can see, I am selecting the column data within my function and then looping over the results with a cursor to build my comma separated varchar. How can I alter this to accept a single parameter that is a result set and then access that result set with a cursor?

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  • Does IE completely ignore cache control headers for AJAX requests?

    - by Joshua Hayworth
    Hello there, I've got, what I would consider, a simple test web site. A single page with a single button. Here is a copy of the source I'm working with if you would like to download it and play with it. When that button is clicked, it creates a JavaScript timer that executes once a second. When the timer function is executed, An AJAX call is made to retrieve a text value. That text value is then placed into the DOM. What's my problem? IE Caching. Crack open Task Manager and watch what happens to the iexplorer.exe process (IE 8.0.7600.16385 for me) while the timer in that page is executing. See the memory and handle count getting larger? Why is that happening when, by all accounts, I have caching turned off. I've got the jQuery cache option set to false in $.ajaxSetup. I've got the CacheControl header set to no-cache and no-store. The Expires header is set to DateTime.Now.AddDays(-1). The headers are set in both the page code-behind as well as the HTTP Handler's response. Anybody got any ideas as to how I could prevent IE from caching the results of the AJAX call? Here is what the iexplorer.exe process looks like in ProcessMonitor. I believe that the activity shown in this picture is exactly what I'm attempting to prevent.

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  • C#: Determine Type for (De-)Serialization

    - by dbemerlin
    Hi, i have a little problem implementing some serialization/deserialization logic. I have several classes that each take a different type of Request object, all implementing a common interface and inheriting from a default implementation: This is how i think it should be: Requests interface IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class DefaultRequest : IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class LoginRequest : DefaultRequest { public String User {get;set;} public String Pass {get;set;} } Handlers interface IHandler<T> { public Type GetRequestType(); public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request); } class DefaultHandler<T> : IHandler<T> // Used as fallback if the handler cannot be determined { public Type GetRequestType() { return /* ....... how to get the Type of T? ((new T()).GetType()) ? .......... */ } public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request) { /* ... */ } } class LoginHandler : DefaultHandler<LoginRequest> { public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel mode, LoginRequest request) { } } Calling class Controller { public ProcessRequest(String action, String serializedRequest) { IHandler handler = GetHandlerForAction(action); IRequest request = serializer.Deserialize<handler.GetRequestType()>(serializedRequest); handler(this.Model, request); } } Is what i think of even possible? My current Solution is that each handler gets the serialized String and is itself responsible for deserialization. This is not a good solution as it contains duplicate code, the beginning of each HandleRequest method looks the same (FooRequest request = Deserialize(serializedRequest); + try/catch and other Error Handling on failed deserialization). Embedding type information into the serialized Data is not possible and not intended. Thanks for any Hints.

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  • Automating Excel through the PIA makes VBA go squiffy.

    - by Jon Artus
    I have absolutely no idea how to start diagnosing this, and just wondered if anyone had any suggestions. I'm generating an Excel spreadsheet by calling some Macros from a C# application, and during the generation process it somehow breaks. I've got a VBA class containing all of my logging/error-handling logic, which I instantiate using a singleton-esque accessor, shown here: Private mcAppFramework As csys_ApplicationFramework Public Function AppFramework() As csys_ApplicationFramework If mcAppFramework Is Nothing Then Set mcAppFramework = New csys_ApplicationFramework Call mcAppFramework.bInitialise End If Set AppFramework = mcAppFramework End Function The above code works fine before I've generated the spreadsheet, but afterwards fails. The problem seems to be the following line; Set mcAppFramework = New csys_ApplicationFramework which I've never seen fail before. If I add a watch to the variable being assigned here, the type shows as csys_ApplicationFramework/wksFoo, where wksFoo is a random worksheet in the same workbook. What seems to be happening is that while the variable is of the right type, rather than filling that slot with a new instance of my framework class, it's making it point to an existing worksheet instead, the equivalent of Set mcAppFramework = wksFoo which is a compiler error, as one might expect. Even more bizarrely, if I put a breakpoint on the offending line, edit the line, and then resume execution, it works. For example, I delete the word 'New' move off the line, move back, re-type 'New' and resume execution. This somehow 'fixes' the workbook and it works happily ever after, with the type of the variable in my watch window showing as csys_ApplicationFramework/csys_ApplicationFramework as I'd expect. This implies that manipulating the workbook through the PIA is somehow breaking it temporarily. All I'm doing in the PIA is opening the workbook, calling several macros using Excel.Application.Run(), and saving it again. I can post a few more details if anyone thinks that it's relevant. I don't know how VBA creates objects behind the scenes or how to debug this. I also don't know how the way the code executes can change without the code itself changing. As previously mentioned, VBA has frankly gone a bit squiffy on me... Any thoughts?

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  • Should I still be using jquery .getJson in 1.4.2?

    - by chobo2
    Hi I was looking at the 14 days of jquery http://jquery14.com/day-01/jquery-14 and I saw this and it got me to wondering is there a point to use getJson anymore? JSON and script types auto-detected by content-type (jQuery.ajax Documentation, Commit 1, Commit 2) If the response to an Ajax request is returned with a JSON mime type (application/json), the dataType defaults to “json” (if no dataType is specified). Additionally, if the response to an Ajax request is returned with a JavaScript mime type (text/javascript or application/x-javascript) , the dataType defaults to “script” (if no dataType is specified), causing the script to automatically execute. First I can see such a huge benefit of this. In jquery 1.3 I came to a situation where in some cases I would return a partial view and some cases I would return a json result (asp.net mvc). It worked in firefox but in no other browser and one of the problems was I basically had to tell jquery to either do json or text/html. With it automatically detecting I could get away with this. Anyways I found a solution around this at that time. So now it just makes me wonder if there is any point to using GetJson. I am also unsure how to set these JavaScript mime types? I am assuming that if you return a JsonResult from asp.net mvc it will set it. but I am not sure if I was just sending a text result if it would be set( I am not sure if ContentResult would set this).

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  • Utilizing a Queue

    - by Nathan
    I'm trying to store records of transactions all together and by category for the last 1, 7, 30 or 360 days. I've tried a couple things, but they've brutally failed. I had an idea of using a queue with 360 values, one for each day, but I don't know enough about queue's to figure out how that would work. Input will be an instance of this class: class Transaction { public string TotalEarned { get; set; } public string TotalHST { get; set; } public string TotalCost { get; set; } public string Category { get; set; } } New transactions can occur at any time during the day, and there could be as many as 15 transactions in a day. My program is using a plain text file as external storage, but how I load it depends on how I decide to store this data. What would be the best way to do this?

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  • Passing additional data value to strongly typed partial views in ASP.NET MVC

    - by fearofawhackplanet
    I have an OrderForm domain class, which has property subclasses, something like: interface IOrderForm { int OrderId { get; } ICustomerDetails CustomerDetails { get; set; } IDeliveryDetails DeliveryDetails{ get; set; } IPaymentsDetails PaymentsDetails { get; set; } IOrderDetails OrderDetails { get; set; } } My "Details" view is strongly typed inheriting from IOrderForm. I then have a strongly type partial for rendering each section: <div id="CustomerDetails"> <% Html.RenderPartial("CustomerDetails", Model.CustomerDetails); %> </div> <div id="DeliveryDetails"> <% Html.RenderPartial("DeliveryDetails", Model.DeliveryDetails); %> </div> ... etc This works ok up to this point, but I'm trying to add some nice ajax bits for updating some parts of the order form, and I've realised that each of my partial views also needs access to the IOrderForm.OrderId. Whats the easiest way to give my partials access to this value?

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  • how to fill missing values from a list

    - by Stephane
    I have an object containing a date and a count. public class Stat { public DateTime Stamp {get; set;} public int Count {get; set ;} } I have a Serie object that holds a list of thoses Stat plus some more info such as name and so on... public class Serie { public string Name { get; set; } public List<Stat> Data { get; set; } ... } Consider that I have a List of Serie but the series don't all contain the same Stamps. I need to fill in the missing stamps in all series with a default value. I thought of an extension method with signature like this (please provide better name if you find one :) ) : public static IEnumerable<Serie> Equalize(this IEnumerable<ChartSerie> series, int defaultCount) this question seems to treat the same problem, but when querying directly the DB. of course I could loop through the dates and create another list. But is there any more elegant way to achieve this? i.e.: Serie A: 01.05.2010 1 03.05.2010 3 Serie B: 01.05.2010 5 02.05.2010 6 I should get : Serie A : 01.05.2010 1 02.05.2010 0 03.05.2010 3 Serie B: 01.05.2010 5 02.05.2010 6 03.05.2010 0

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  • Fluent NHibernate no data being returned

    - by czuroski
    Hello, I have been successfully using NHibernate, but now I am trying to move to Fluent NHibernate. I have created all of my mapping files and set up my session manager to use a Fluent Configuration. I then run my application and it runs successfully, but no data is returned. There are no errors or any indication that there is a problem, but nothing runs. when using NHibernate, if I don't set my hbm xml files as an embedded resource, this same thing happens. This makes me wonder what I have to set my Map classes to. Right now, they are just set to Compile, and they are compiled into the dll, which I can see by disassembling it. Does anyone have any thoughts as to what may be happening here? Thanks private ISessionFactory GetSessionFactory() { return Fluently.Configure() .Database( IfxOdbcConfiguration .Informix1000 .ConnectionString("Provider=Ifxoledbc.2;Password=mypass;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=myuser;Data Source=mysource") .Dialect<InformixDialect1000>() .ProxyFactoryFactory<ProxyFactoryFactory>() .Driver<OleDbDriver>() .ShowSql() ) .Mappings( m => m.FluentMappings .AddFromAssemblyOf<cmCase>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<attorney>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<creditor>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<party>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<person>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<sardbk>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<schedule>() //x => x.FluentMappings.AddFromAssembly(System.Reflection.Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly()) //.ExportTo("C:\\mappings") ) .BuildSessionFactory(); }

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  • overridePendingTransition doesn't work

    - by Ixx
    Have found already some people asking the same, but the solutions didn't work for me. I see no animation. Calling it this way: Intent intent = new Intent(this, MyActivity.class); startActivity(intent); overridePendingTransition(R.anim.fadein, R.anim.fadeout); fadein.xml and fadeout.xml are in the anim folder: fadein.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <set xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" > <alpha android:duration="1000" android:fromAlpha="0.0" android:interpolator="@android:anim/accelerate_interpolator" android:toAlpha="1.0" /> </set> fadeout.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <set xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <alpha android:duration="1000" android:fromAlpha="1.0" android:interpolator="@android:anim/accelerate_interpolator" android:toAlpha="0.0" /> </set> Using min. API 7: manifest: <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="7"/> API 7 is also in my project.properties file: target=android-7 What am I doing wrong? P.D. Removing the lines with the interpolator doesn't change anything. Already seen / tried: overridePendingTransition doesn't work overridePendingTransition does not work when flag_activity_reorder_to_front is used Fade in Activity from previous Activity in Android Fade in Activity from previous Activity in Android Activity transition in Android

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  • Binding the selected value from a combobox to a member of a class.

    - by CM
    I have a combobox that is bound to a an instance of a class. I need to get the user's selection ID of the combobox and set a class property equal to it. For example, here is the class: public class robot { private string _ID; private string _name; private string _configFile; [XmlElement("hardware")] public hardware[] hardware; public string ID { get { return _ID; } set { _ID = value; } } public string name { get { return _name; } set { _name = value; } } public string configFile { get { return _configFile; } set { _configFile = value; } } } Now here is the code to bind the combobox to an instance of that class. This display's the name of each robot in the array in the combobox. private void SetupDevicesComboBox() { robot[] robot = CommConfig.robot; cmbDevices.DataSource = robot; cmbDevices.DisplayMember = "name"; cmbDevices.ValueMember = "ID"; } But now I can't seem to take what the user selects and use it. How do I use the "ID" of what the user select's from the combobox? Settings.selectedRobotID = cmbDevices.ValueMember; //This just generates "ID" regardless of what is selected. I also tried Settings.selectedRobotID = cmbDevices.SelectedItem.ToString(); //This just generates "CommConfig.robot" Thanks

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  • LINQ2SQL: How to let a column accept null values as zero (0) in Self-Relation table

    - by Remon
    As described in the img, I got a parent-Children relation and since the ParentID not accepting null values (and I can't change to nullabel due to some restriction in the UI I have), how can I remove an existence relation between ReportDataSources in order to change the parent for them (here i want to set the parentId for one of them = 0) how could i do that since i cant change the ParentID directly and setting Parent = null is not valid public void SetReportDataSourceAsMaster(ReportDataSource reportDataSource) { //Some logic - not necessarily for this scenario //Reset Master this.ReportDataSources.ToList().ForEach(rds => rds.IsMaster = false); //Set Master reportDataSource.IsMaster = true; //Set Parent ID for the rest of the Reports data sources this.ReportDataSources.Where(rds => rds.ID != reportDataSource.ID).ToList().ForEach(rds => { //Change Parent ID rds.Parent = reportDataSource; //Remove filttering data rds.FilteringDataMembers.Clear(); //Remove Grouping Data rds.GroupingDataMembers.Clear(); }); //Delete parent HERE THE EXCEPTION THROWN AFTER CALLING SUBMITCHANGES() reportDataSource.Parent = null; //Other logic } Exception thrown after calling submitChanges An attempt was made to remove a relationship between a ReportDataSource and a ReportDataSource. However, one of the relationship's foreign keys (ReportDataSource.ParentID) cannot be set to null.

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  • INotifyPropertyChanged event listener within respective class not firing on client side (silverlight)

    - by Rob
    I'm trying to work out if there's a simple way to internalize the handling of a property change event on a Custom Entity as I need to perform some bubbling of the changes to a child collection within the class when the Background Property is changed via a XAML binding: public class MyClass : INotifyPropertyChanged { [Key] public int MyClassId { get; set; } [DataMember] public ObservableCollection<ChildMyClass> MyChildren { get; set; } public string _backgroundColor; [DataMember] public string BackgroundColor { get { return this._backgroundColor; } set { this._backgroundColor = value; if (this.PropertyChanged != null) { this.PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("BackgroundColor")); } } } public MyClass() { this.BackgroundColor = "#FFFFFFFF"; this.PropertyChanged += MyClass_PropertyChanged; } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; void MyClass_PropertyChanged(object sender, System.ComponentModel.PropertyChangedEventArgs e) { //Do something here - fires client side but not server side } } I can listen to the event by externalizing it without any problems but it's an ugly way to handle something that want to set and forget inside my class e.g.: public class SomeOtherClass { public SomeOtherClass() { MyClass mc = new MyClass(); mc.PropertyChanged += MyClass_PropertyChanged; } void MyClass_PropertyChanged(object sender, System.ComponentModel.PropertyChangedEventArgs e) { MyClass mc = (MyClass)sender; mc.UpdateChildren(); } }

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  • XML Serialization : Has property of type Class1 : Class1 has another property : How to write the property of Class1 into XML?

    - by Wonderlander
    I want to serialize a class. In this class there's a property, type of Class1, while there are other properties in Class1. public abstract class ComponentBase { [ToSerialize]//An attribute defined my me, indicating whether or not to serialize this property. public ComponentArgs Parameters { get; set; } } public class ComponentArgs { public string WorkingPath { get; set; } public IList<Language> Languages { get; set; } public string ComponentOutputPath { get; set; } } The information serialized must be put into a Dictionary, such as ComponentSettings[str_Name]=str_Value. The method used in reading this value is Reflection. pinfo: Property Info got via Type.GetProperties(); componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue((object)this, null).ToString()); The information after serialization is: <Parameters>MS.STBIntl.Pippin.Framework.ComponentArgs</Parameters> instead of the value of ComponentArgs.WorkingPath. The solution I thought of is to append to the following line an if judgement: componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue((object)this, null).ToString()); if(pinfo is ComponentArgs) componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue( (ComponentArgs)this, null).WorkingPath+"\n"+ LanguageList+"\n"+ //Language list is a concatinated string of all elements in the list. (ComponentArgs)this, null).ComponentOutputPath+"\n"+ ); When deserializing, add a judgement of whether the value contains more than 2 "\n", if so, extract each value from the string. But this way seems clumsy and much more like an workaround. I wonder if there's any more professional way of doing it? My reviewer is very particular and he won't accept such a solution. If you know a way, could you please share it with me? Thanks a lot.

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  • C# properties: How are they instantiated?

    - by Pedery
    Hi! This might be a pretty straightforward question, but I'm trying to understand some of the internal workings of the compilation. Very simply put, imagine an arbitrary object being instantiated. This object is then allocated on the heap. The object has a property of type PointF (which is value type), with a get and a set method. Imagine the get and the set method containing a few calculations for doing their work. How and where (stack/heap) and when is this code instantiated? This is the background for this question: I'm writing get and set methods for an object and these methods need to be accessed very frequently. The get and set code in itself is rather massive so I feared that in a worst case scenario the methods would be instantiated as an object or a value type with all internal code for every access of the property. On the other hand the code is probably instantiated when the main object is created and the CPU is simply told to jmp to the property code start. Anyway, this is what I want to have clarified.

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  • What is a better, cleaner way of using List<T>

    - by Tim Meers
    I'm looking to implement a few nicer ways to use List in a couple of apps I'm working on. My current implementation looks like this. MyPage.aspx.cs protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { BLL.PostCollection oPost = new BLL.PostCollection(); oPost.OpenRecent(); rptPosts.DataSource = oArt; rptPosts.DataBind(); } BLL Class(s) public class Post { public int PostId { get; set; } public string PostTitle { get; set; } public string PostContent { get; set; } public string PostCreatedDate { get; set; } public void OpenRecentInitFromRow(DataRow row) { this.PostId = (int) row["id"]; this.PostTitle = (string) row["title"]; this.PostContent = (string) row["content"]; this.PostCreatedDate = (DateTime) row["createddate"]; } } public class PostCollection : List<Post> { public void OpenRecent() { DataSet ds = DbProvider.Instance().Post_ListRecent(); foreach (DataRow row in ds.Tables[0].Rows) { Post oPost = new Post(); oPost.OpenRecentInitFromRow(row); Add(oPost); } } } Now while this is working all well and good, I'm just wondering if there is any way to improve it, and just make it cleaner that having to use the two different classes do to something I think can happen in just one class or using an interface.

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  • SQL Server 2005: Internal Query Processor Error:

    - by Geetha
    I am trying to execute this following procedure in SQL Server 2005. I was able to execute this in my development server and when i tried to use this in the Live Server I am getting an Error "Internal Query Processor Error: The query processor could not produce a query plan. For more information, contact Customer Support Services". am using the same Database and the same format. when we searched in the web it shows some fixes to be used in sql server 2005 to avoid this error but my DBA has confirmed that all the patches are updated in our server. can anyone give me some clue on this. Query: create Procedure [dbo].[sample_Select] @ID as varchar(40) as Declare @Execstring as varchar(1000) set @Execstring = ' Declare @MID as varchar(40) Set @MID = '''+@ID+''' select * from ( select t1.field1, t1.field2 AS field2 , t1.field3 AS field3 , L.field1 AS field1 , L. field2 AS field2 from table1 AS t1 INNER JOIN MasterTable AS L ON L. field1 = t1. field2 where t1. field2 LIKE @MID ) as DataTable PIVOT ( Count(field2) FOR field3 IN (' Select @Execstring=@Execstring+ L.field2 +',' FROM MasterTable AS L inner join table1 AS t1 ON t1.field1= L.field2 Where t1.field2 LIKE @ID set @Execstring = stuff(@Execstring, len(@Execstring), 1, '') set @Execstring =@Execstring +')) as pivotTable' exec (@Execstring)

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  • copy rows with special condition

    - by pooria_googooli
    I have a table with a lot of columns. For example I have a table with these columns : ID,Fname,Lname,Tel,Mob,Email,Job,Code,Company,...... ID column is auto number column. I want to copy all rows in this table to this table and change the company column value to 12 in this copied row. I don't want to write name all of the columns because I have a lot of table with a lot of columns. I tried this code but I had this error : declare @c int; declare @i int; select * into CmDet from CmDet; select @C= count(id) from CmDet; while @i < @C begin UPDATE CmDet SET company =12 WHERE company=11 set @i += 1 end error : Msg 2714, Level 16, State 6, Line 3 There is already an object named 'CmDet' in the database. I changed the code to this declare @c int declare @i int insert into CmDet select * from CmDet; select @C= count(id) from CmDet; while @i < @C begin UPDATE CmDet SET company =12 WHERE company=11 set @i += 1 end and I had this error : Msg 8101, Level 16, State 1, Line 3 An explicit value for the identity column in table 'CmDet' can only be specified when a column list is used and IDENTITY_INSERT is ON. What should I do ?

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