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  • Expressjs route param as variable in main app

    - by MoDFoX
    For my app I have two route set up, app.get('/', routes.index); app.get('/:name', routes.index); I would like it to be so that if I don't specify a param, say just go to appurl.com (localhost:3000), it would load a default user, but if I do specify a param(localhost:3000/user), use that as the variable "username" in the following function (placed after my routes). (function getUser(){ var body = '', username = 'WillsonSM', options = { host: 'ws.audioscrobbler.com', port: 80, path: '/2.0/?method=user.gettopartists&user=' + username + '&format=json&limit=20&api_key=APIKEYGOESHERE' }; require('http').request(options, function(res) { res.setEncoding('utf8'); res.on('data', function(chunk) { body += chunk; }); res.on('end', function() { body = JSON.parse(body); artists = body.topartists.artist; }); }).end(); })(); Along with this I have my route set up like so: exports.index = function(req, res){ res.render('index', { title: 'LasTube' }); username = req.params.name; console.log(username); }; unfortunately setting username there to req.params.name does not seem to be accessible from the main app function. My question is: How can I set expressjs/nodejs to use the parameter set via /name when available, and just use a default - in this example "WillsonSM" if not available. I've tried taking "username" out of the main app, and just leaving it in the function, but username becomes undefined, as it is inaccessible from the route, and the app will not run. I can spit out "username" via the routes console.log, so assigning it there is not an issue, but as I am new to expressjs, I am unaware of how I should go about doing this. I have tried all I can think of and find from looking around the internet. Also, if there is a better way of doing this, or I am doing something wrong, please let me know. If I've left out any information, just throw in a comment and I'll try to address it.

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  • SQL Server 2005: Internal Query Processor Error:

    - by Geetha
    I am trying to execute this following procedure in SQL Server 2005. I was able to execute this in my development server and when i tried to use this in the Live Server I am getting an Error "Internal Query Processor Error: The query processor could not produce a query plan. For more information, contact Customer Support Services". am using the same Database and the same format. when we searched in the web it shows some fixes to be used in sql server 2005 to avoid this error but my DBA has confirmed that all the patches are updated in our server. can anyone give me some clue on this. Query: create Procedure [dbo].[sample_Select] @ID as varchar(40) as Declare @Execstring as varchar(1000) set @Execstring = ' Declare @MID as varchar(40) Set @MID = '''+@ID+''' select * from ( select t1.field1, t1.field2 AS field2 , t1.field3 AS field3 , L.field1 AS field1 , L. field2 AS field2 from table1 AS t1 INNER JOIN MasterTable AS L ON L. field1 = t1. field2 where t1. field2 LIKE @MID ) as DataTable PIVOT ( Count(field2) FOR field3 IN (' Select @Execstring=@Execstring+ L.field2 +',' FROM MasterTable AS L inner join table1 AS t1 ON t1.field1= L.field2 Where t1.field2 LIKE @ID set @Execstring = stuff(@Execstring, len(@Execstring), 1, '') set @Execstring =@Execstring +')) as pivotTable' exec (@Execstring)

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  • INotifyPropertyChanged event listener within respective class not firing on client side (silverlight)

    - by Rob
    I'm trying to work out if there's a simple way to internalize the handling of a property change event on a Custom Entity as I need to perform some bubbling of the changes to a child collection within the class when the Background Property is changed via a XAML binding: public class MyClass : INotifyPropertyChanged { [Key] public int MyClassId { get; set; } [DataMember] public ObservableCollection<ChildMyClass> MyChildren { get; set; } public string _backgroundColor; [DataMember] public string BackgroundColor { get { return this._backgroundColor; } set { this._backgroundColor = value; if (this.PropertyChanged != null) { this.PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("BackgroundColor")); } } } public MyClass() { this.BackgroundColor = "#FFFFFFFF"; this.PropertyChanged += MyClass_PropertyChanged; } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; void MyClass_PropertyChanged(object sender, System.ComponentModel.PropertyChangedEventArgs e) { //Do something here - fires client side but not server side } } I can listen to the event by externalizing it without any problems but it's an ugly way to handle something that want to set and forget inside my class e.g.: public class SomeOtherClass { public SomeOtherClass() { MyClass mc = new MyClass(); mc.PropertyChanged += MyClass_PropertyChanged; } void MyClass_PropertyChanged(object sender, System.ComponentModel.PropertyChangedEventArgs e) { MyClass mc = (MyClass)sender; mc.UpdateChildren(); } }

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  • copy rows with special condition

    - by pooria_googooli
    I have a table with a lot of columns. For example I have a table with these columns : ID,Fname,Lname,Tel,Mob,Email,Job,Code,Company,...... ID column is auto number column. I want to copy all rows in this table to this table and change the company column value to 12 in this copied row. I don't want to write name all of the columns because I have a lot of table with a lot of columns. I tried this code but I had this error : declare @c int; declare @i int; select * into CmDet from CmDet; select @C= count(id) from CmDet; while @i < @C begin UPDATE CmDet SET company =12 WHERE company=11 set @i += 1 end error : Msg 2714, Level 16, State 6, Line 3 There is already an object named 'CmDet' in the database. I changed the code to this declare @c int declare @i int insert into CmDet select * from CmDet; select @C= count(id) from CmDet; while @i < @C begin UPDATE CmDet SET company =12 WHERE company=11 set @i += 1 end and I had this error : Msg 8101, Level 16, State 1, Line 3 An explicit value for the identity column in table 'CmDet' can only be specified when a column list is used and IDENTITY_INSERT is ON. What should I do ?

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  • jQuery trigger function on change

    - by Michael Pasqualone
    I have the following two slider functions which work well and display like so: I have diskAmount and transferAmount stored in global vars, however what I am now trying to figure out is how do I get the sum of the two to initially show as the monthly fee, and then update when either of the two sliders are changed. So in my screenshot above the initial state will be $24.75, and the fee will update if the sliders change. Can anyone point me in the right direction? I get can the initial fee to show, but can't figure out how to get 1 function to call another function within jQuery. $(function() { $("#disk").slider({ value:3, min: 1, max: 80, step: 1, slide: function(event, ui) { $("#diskamount").val(ui.value + ' Gb'); $("#diskamountUnit").val('$' + parseFloat(ui.value * diskCost).toFixed(2)); } }); // Set initial diskamount state $("#diskamount").val($("#disk").slider("value") + ' Gb'); // Set initial diskamountUnit state diskAmount = $("#disk").slider("value") * diskCost; $("#diskamountUnit").val('$' + diskAmount.toFixed(2)); }); $(function() { $("#data").slider({ value:25, min: 1, max: 200, step: 1, slide: function(event, ui) { $("#dataamount").val(ui.value + ' Gb'); $("#dataamountUnit").val('$' + parseFloat(ui.value * transferCost).toFixed(2)); } }); // Set initial dataamount state $("#dataamount").val($("#data").slider("value") + ' Gb'); // Set initial dataamountUnit state transferAmount = $("#data").slider("value") * transferCost; $("#dataamountUnit").val('$' + transferAmount.toFixed(2)); });

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  • Is it possible to create a timer in jscript that you can manually change without it being affected by timezones?

    - by Lixorp
    is it possible to create a timer where I can manually set the hours each day to a set number of hours but still remains accurate? For example; if I set the countdown for 5 hours at 2pm I want the timer to stop as soon as it hits 7pm. Also, when I set the timer for 5 hours I would like everyone in the world to see it countdown from 5 hours, no matter what the time is in their country. In the format: days hours minutes seconds. The reason I want to do this is for a streamer's website. He needs a flexible timer which can be manually changed and is the same worldwide for his viewers to know when he starts streaming. The current timer we're using at the moment; setInterval(function(){ var currentTime = new Date(); if(currentTime.getHours() > 19){ var countdownHours = (24 - currentTime.getHours()) + 19; }else if(currentTime.getHours() < 19){ var countdownHours = 19 - currentTime.getHours(); }else{ var countdownHours = 0; } var countdownMins = 59 - currentTime.getMinutes(); var countdownSecs = 60 - currentTime.getSeconds(); $('#countdown-days h1').text('0'); $('#countdown-hours h1').text(countdownHours); $('#countdown-minutes h1').text(countdownMins); $('#countdown-seconds h1').text(countdownSecs); }, 1000); As you can tell it isn't ideal for what we need it for since it counts down to 7pm in the timezone you're in. Any help/examples would be greatly appreciated, Thank you in advance, Lixorp.

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  • C# properties: How are they instantiated?

    - by Pedery
    Hi! This might be a pretty straightforward question, but I'm trying to understand some of the internal workings of the compilation. Very simply put, imagine an arbitrary object being instantiated. This object is then allocated on the heap. The object has a property of type PointF (which is value type), with a get and a set method. Imagine the get and the set method containing a few calculations for doing their work. How and where (stack/heap) and when is this code instantiated? This is the background for this question: I'm writing get and set methods for an object and these methods need to be accessed very frequently. The get and set code in itself is rather massive so I feared that in a worst case scenario the methods would be instantiated as an object or a value type with all internal code for every access of the property. On the other hand the code is probably instantiated when the main object is created and the CPU is simply told to jmp to the property code start. Anyway, this is what I want to have clarified.

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  • How to select "child" entities in subview?

    - by Andy
    I am trying to manage a drill-down list of data. I've got an entity, Contact, that has a to-many relationship with another entity, Rule. In my root view controller, I use a fetched results controller to manage and display the list of Contacts. When a Contact is tapped, I push a new view controller onto the stack with a list of the Contact's Rules. I have not been able to figure out how to use a second fetched results controller to display the Rules, so I'm using the following: // create a set of the contact's rules rules = [NSMutableSet set]; rules = [self.contact mutableSetValueForKey:@"rule"]; // create an array of rules from the set arrayOfRules = [NSMutableArray arrayWithCapacity:[rules count]]; for (id oneObject in rules) [arrayOfRules addObject:oneObject]; // sort the array of rules NSSortDescriptor *descriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"phoneLabel" ascending:YES]; [arrayOfRules sortUsingDescriptors:[NSArray arrayWithObject:descriptor]]; [descriptor release]; I create a set of Rules, then use that to create an array of Rules for sorting. I then use these two collections to populate the grouped table view. All of this appears to be working correctly. Here's my problem: There are several different actions a user can take in this view, and most of them require that I know which Rule was tapped. But I can't figure out how to get that. For instance, say a user wants to delete a Rule. It seems to me the proper approach is something like... [rules removeObject:ruleObjectToBeRemoved] ...but I can't figure out how to specifiy ruleObjectToBeRemoved. I hope all of this makes sense. As usual, thanks in advance for any advice you can offer.

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  • How to efficiently get all instances from deeper level in Cocoa model?

    - by Johan Kool
    In my Cocoa Mac app I have an instance A which contains an unordered set of instances B which in turn has an ordered set of instances C. An instance of C can only be in one instance B and B only in one A.   I would like to have an unordered set of all instances C available on instance A. I could enumerate over all instances B each time, but that seems expensive for something I need to do often. However, I am a bit worried that keeping track of instances C in A could become cumbersome and be the cause of  inconsistencies, for example if an instance C gets removed from B but not from A.  Solution 1 Use a NSMutableSet in A and add or remove C instances whenever I do the same operation in B.  Solution 2 Use a weak referenced NSHashTable in A. When deleting a C from B, it should disappear for A as well.  Solution 3 Use key value observing in A to keep track of changes in B, and update a NSMutableSet in A accordingly.  Solution 4 Simply iterate over all instances B to create the set whenever I need it.   Which way is best? Are there any other approaches that I missed?  NB I don't and won't use CoreData for this app.

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  • Is fetching data from database a get-method thing?

    - by theva
    I have a small class that I call Viewer. This class is supposed to view the proper layout of each page or something like that... I have a method called getFirstPage, when called the user of this method will get a setting value for which page is currently set as the first page. I have some code here, I think it works but I am not really shure that I have done it the right way: class Viewer { private $db; private $user; private $firstPage; function __construct($db, $user) { $this->db = $db; if(isset($user)) { $this->user = $user; } else { $this->user = 'default'; } } function getFistPage() { $std = $db->prepare("SELECT firstPage FROM settings WHERE user = ':user'"); $std->execute(array(':user' => $user)); $result = $std->fetch(); $this->firstPage = $result['firstPage']; return $this->firstPage; } } My get method is fetching the setting from databse (so far so good?). The problem is that then I have to use this get method to set the private variable firstPage. It seems like I should have a set method to do this, but I cannot really have a set method that just fetch some setting from database, right? Because the user of this object should be able to assume that there already is a setting defined in the object... How should I do that?

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  • scala 2.8 CanBuildFrom

    - by oxbow_lakes
    Following on from another question I asked, I wanted to understand a bit more about the Scala method TraversableLike[A].map whose signature is as follows: def map[B, That](f: A => B)(implicit bf: CanBuildFrom[Repr, B, That]): That Notice a few things about this method: it takes a function turning each A in the traversable into a B it returns That and takes an implicit argument of type CanBuildFrom[Repr, B, That] I can call this as follows: > val s: Set[Int] = List("Paris", "London").map(_.length) s: Set[Int] Set(5,6) What I cannot quite grasp is how the fact that That is bound to B (i.e. it is some collection of B's) is being enforced by the compiler. The type parameters look to be independent in both the signature above and in the signature of the trait CanBuildFrom itself: trait CanBuildFrom[-From, -Elem, +To] How is the scala compiler ensuring that That cannot be forced into something which does not make sense? > val s: Set[String] = List("Paris", "London").map(_.length) //will not compile EDIT - this question of course boils down to: How does the compiler decide what implicit CanBuildFrom objects are in scope for the call?

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  • Hibernate many-to-many relationship

    - by Capitan
    I have two mapped types, related many-to-many. @Entity @Table(name = "students") public class Student{ ... @ManyToMany(fetch = FetchType.EAGER) @JoinTable( name = "students2courses", joinColumns = { @JoinColumn( name = "student_id", referencedColumnName = "_id") }, inverseJoinColumns = { @JoinColumn( name = "course_id", referencedColumnName = "_id") }) public Set<Course> getCourses() { return courses; } public void setCourses(Set<Course> courses) { this.courses = courses; } ... } __ @Entity @Table(name = "courses") public class Course{ ... @ManyToMany(fetch = FetchType.EAGER, mappedBy = "courses") public Set<Student> getStudents() { return students; } public void setStudents(Set<Student> students) { this.students = students; } ... } But if I update/delete Course entity, records are not created/deleted in table students2courses. (with Student entity updating/deleting goes as expected) I wrote abstract class HibObject public abstract class HibObject { public String getRemoveMTMQuery() { return null; } } which is inherited by Student and Course. In DAO I added this code (for delete() method): String query = obj.getRemoveMTMQuery(); if (query != null) { session.createSQLQuery(query).executeUpdate(); } and I ovrerided method getRemoveMTMQuery() for Course @Override @Transient public String getRemoveMTMQuery() { return "delete from students2courses where course_id = " + id + ";"; } Now it works but I think it's a bad code. Is there a best way to solve this problem?

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  • jQuery Code Only Fires On Hard Refresh?

    - by Rob Vanders
    The XFBML version of the Facebook Registration plugin only loads HTTPS. I need it to load HTTP so my form does not call a security error mismatch between domains. I wrote this code to get the SRC and rewrite it with out HTTPS It works fine on the first load, however on Chrome and Safari it only loads the first time and on HARD refreshes. It does not load on standard reloads or by pressing "enter" on the address bar. Here is the code $(window).load(function () { // Replace HTTPS with HTTP when frame has loaded $(".subscribe iframe").each(function(){ var source = $(this).attr("src"); //alert(source); var sourceNew = source.replace("https", "http"); // change https to http alert(sourceNew); $(this).attr("src", sourceNew); }); }); I have .HTACCESS set to disable server cache <Files *> Header set Cache-Control: "private, pre-check=0, post-check=0, max-age=0" Header set Expires: 0 Header set Pragma: no-cache </Files> What is causing this to not fire reliably? Thanks

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  • excel:mysql: rs.Update not working

    - by every_answer_gets_a_point
    i am updating a table using an ODBC connection from excel to mysql unfortunately the only column that gets updated is this one: .Fields("instrument") = "NA" where i am assigning variables to .Fields, it is putting NULL values!! what is going on here? here's the code Option Explicit Dim oConn As ADODB.Connection Private Sub ConnectDB() Set oConn = New ADODB.Connection oConn.Open "DRIVER={MySQL ODBC 5.1 Driver};" & _ "SERVER=localhost;" & _ "DATABASE=employees;" & _ "USER=root;" & _ "PASSWORD=pas;" & _ "Option=3" End Sub Function esc(txt As String) esc = Trim(Replace(txt, "'", "\'")) End Function Private Sub InsertData() Dim dpath, atime, rtime, lcalib, aname, rname, bstate, instrument As String Dim rs As ADODB.Recordset Set rs = New ADODB.Recordset ConnectDB With wsBooks rs.Open "batchinfo", oConn, adOpenKeyset, adLockOptimistic, adCmdTable Worksheets.Item("Report 1").Select dpath = Trim(Range("B2").Text) atime = Trim(Range("B3").Text) rtime = Trim(Range("B4").Text) lcalib = Trim(Range("B5").Text) aname = Trim(Range("B6").Text) rname = Trim(Range("B7").Text) bstate = Trim(Range("B8").Text) ' instrument = GetInstrFromXML(wbBook.FullName) With rs .AddNew ' create a new record ' add values to each field in the record .Fields("datapath") = dpath .Fields("analysistime") = atime .Fields("reporttime") = rtime .Fields("lastcalib") = lcalib .Fields("analystname") = aname .Fields("reportname") = rname .Fields("batchstate") = bstate .Fields("instrument") = "NA" .Update ' stores the new record End With ' get the last id Set rs = oConn.Execute("SELECT @@identity", , adCmdText) 'MsgBox capture_id rs.Close Set rs = Nothing End With End Sub

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  • Deserializing child elements as attributes of parent

    - by LloydPickering
    I have XML files which I need to deserialize. I used the XSD tool from Visual Studio to create c# object files. the generated classes do deserialize the files except not in the way which I need. I would appreciate any help figuring out how to solve this problem. The child elements named 'data' should be attributes of the parent element 'task'. A shortened example of the XML is below: <task type="Nothing" id="2" taskOnFail="false" > <data value="" name="prerequisiteTasks" /> <data value="" name="exclusionTasks" /> <data value="" name="allowRepeats" /> <task type="Wait for Tasks" id="10" taskOnFail="false" > <data value="" name="prerequisiteTasks" /> <data value="" name="exclusionTasks" /> <data value="" name="allowRepeats" /> </task> <task type="Wait for Tasks" id="10" taskOnFail="false" > <data value="" name="prerequisiteTasks" /> <data value="" name="exclusionTasks" /> <data value="" name="allowRepeats" /> </task> </task> The Class definition I am trying to deserialize to is in the form: public class task { public string prerequisiteTasks {get;set;} public string exclusionTasks {get;set;} public string allowRepeats {get;set;} [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlElementAttribute("task")] public List<task> ChildTasks {get;set;} } The child 'task's are fine, but the generated files put the 'data' elements into an array of data[] rather than as named members of the task class as I need.

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  • Does Entity Framework saves related classes automatically?

    - by herbatnic
    Let's assume that we have such classes public class A{ string someField { get; set; } public virtual B B {get; set; } } public class B { int someIntField {get; set; } [ForeignKey("Id")] [Required] public virtual A A { get; set; } } In code I create new instances for both of them and making relation like: A a = new A () { someField = "abcd"}; B b = new B () { someIntField = 42 }; A.B = b; B.A = a; Should I using DBContext to save both classes like that: using (var db = new myDbContext()) { myDbContext.As.Add(A); myDbContext.Bs.Add(B); myDBContext.SaveChanges(); } Or saving it like that: using (var db = new myDbContext()) { myDbContext.As.Add(A); myDbContext.SaveChanges(); } is enough to store related objects into database?

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  • c# How to implement a collection of generics

    - by Amy
    I have a worker class that does stuff with a collection of objects. I need each of those objects to have two properties, one has an unknown type and one has to be a number. I wanted to use an interface so that I could have multiple item classes that allowed for other properties but were forced to have the PropA and PropB that the worker class requires. This is the code I have so far, which seemed to be OK until I tried to use it. A list of MyItem is not allowed to be passed as a list of IItem even though MyItem implements IItem. This is where I got confused. Also, if possible, it would be great if when instantiating the worker class I don't need to pass in the T, instead it would know what T is based on the type of PropA. Can someone help get me sorted out? Thanks! public interface IItem<T> { T PropA { get; set; } decimal PropB { get; set; } } public class MyItem : IItem<string> { public string PropA { get; set; } public decimal PropB { get; set; } } public class WorkerClass<T> { private List<T> _list; public WorkerClass(IEnumerable<IItem<T>> items) { doStuff(items); } public T ReturnAnItem() { return _list[0]; } private void doStuff(IEnumerable<IItem<T>> items) { foreach (IItem<T> item in items) { _list.Add(item.PropA); } } } public void usage() { IEnumerable<MyItem> list= GetItems(); var worker = new WorkerClass<string>(list);//Not Allowed }

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  • binding list variable one after another

    - by prince23
    hi, this is my class public class Users { public string Name { get; set; } public int Age { get; set; } public string Gender { get; set; } public string Country { get; set; } } i am defing an list variable List<Users> myList = new List<Users> i have four functions each one returing a string array {of data content like, names, age, gender, country} **functions names** FunNames(); FunAge(); Fungender(); Funcountry(); now i need to bind these these return values of all these functions into list one by one like. myList =FunNames(); myList =FunAge(); myList Fungender(); ..... hope my Question is clear. any help would be great thank you.

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  • Vacancy Tracking Algorithm implementation in C++

    - by Dave
    I'm trying to use the vacancy tracking algorithm to perform transposition of multidimensional arrays in C++. The arrays come as void pointers so I'm using address manipulation to perform the copies. Basically, there is an algorithm that starts with an offset and works its way through the whole 1-d representation of the array like swiss cheese, knocking out other offsets until it gets back to the original one. Then, you have to start at the next, untouched offset and do it again. You repeat until all offsets have been touched. Right now, I'm using a std::set to just fill up all possible offsets (0 up to the multiplicative fold of the dimensions of the array). Then, as I go through the algorithm, I erase from the set. I figure this would be fastest because I need to randomly access offsets in the tree/set and delete them. Then I need to quickly find the next untouched/undeleted offset. First of all, filling up the set is very slow and it seems like there must be a better way. It's individually calling new[] for every insert. So if I have 5 million offsets, there's 5 million news, plus re-balancing the tree constantly which as you know is not fast for a pre-sorted list. Second, deleting is slow as well. Third, assuming 4-byte data types like int and float, I'm using up actually the same amount of memory as the array itself to store this list of untouched offsets. Fourth, determining if there are any untouched offsets and getting one of them is fast -- a good thing. Does anyone have suggestions for any of these issues?

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  • EventHandlers saved to databases.

    - by Stacey
    In a database application (using Sql Server right now, in C#, with Entity Framework 4.0) I have a situation where I need to trigger events when some values change. For instance assume a class "Trackable". class Trackable { string Name { get; set; } int Positive { get; set; } int Negative { get; set; } int Total { get; set; } // event OnChanged } Trackable is represented in the database as follows; table Trackables Id | guid name | varchar(32) positive | int negative | int Total is of course, calculated at runtime. When a trackable event changes, I want to inspect its previous value, and then see what it is changing to, and be capable of reacting accordingly. However different trackables need to trigger different events (to avoid a huge, massive cascading switch/if block). If this were just only C# code it would be easy - but they have to be saved to the database. I can't divide up each different trackable into a different table/class, that would be silly - they are all identical, but the event raised is different based on how they are made. So I guess my question is, is there any way to store an event handler in a database such that.. Trackable t1 = new Trackable() { Name = "Trackable1" OnChange += TrackableChangedEventHandler(OnTrackable1Change) } Trackable t2 = new Trackable() { Name = "Trackable2", OnChange += TrackableChangedEventHandler(OnTrackable2Change) }

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  • How to break an object into chunks based on some property?

    - by CurlyFro
    public class InvestorMailing { public string To { get; set; } public IEnumerable<string> Attachments { get; set; } public int AttachmentCount { get; set; } public long AttachmentSize { get; set; } } i have an IList<InvestorMailing> mailingList. if the attachment size is greater than x, then i need to split my object into chunks. is there an easy linq-y way to do this? Edited: this is how i'm generating my mailings: var groupedMailings = mailingList.GroupBy(g => g.GroupBy); var investorMailings = groupedMailings.Select( g => new DistinctInvestorMailing { Id = g.Select(x => x.Id).FirstOrDefault(), To = g.Key.Trim(), From = g.Select(x => x.From).FirstOrDefault(), FromName = g.Select(x => x.FromName).FirstOrDefault(), Bcc = g.Select(x => x.Bcc).FirstOrDefault(), DeliveryCode = g.Select(x => x.DeliveryCode).FirstOrDefault(), Subject = g.Select(x => x.Subject).FirstOrDefault(), Body = g.Select(x => x.Body).FirstOrDefault(), CommentsOnStatus = g.Select(x => x.CommentsOnStatus).FirstOrDefault(), Attachments = g.Select(x => x.AttachmentPath), AttachmentCount = g.Select(x => x.AttachmentPath).Count(), AttachmentSize = g.Sum(x => x.AttachmentSize), MailType = g.Select(x => x.MessageType).FirstOrDefault() } ).ToList();

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  • Calling child constructor by casting (ChildClass)parentObject; to track revisions

    - by FreshCode
    To track revisions of a Page class, I have a PageRevision class which inherits from Page and adds a revision ID (Guid RevisionID;). If possible, how should I cast an existing Page object to a PageRevision and ensure that the PageRevision constructor is called to create a new revision ID? I could could have a PageRevision(Page page) constructor which generates the Guid and copies all the Page attributes, but I want to automate it, especially if a Page class has many attributes (and I later add one, and forget to modify the copy constructor). Desired use Page page = new Page(123, "Page Title", "Page Body"); // where 123 is page ID PageRevision revision = (PageRevision)page; // now revision.RevisionID should be a new Guid. Page, PageRevision classes: public class Page { public int ID { get; set; } public string Title { get; set; } public string Body { get; set; } } public class PageRevision : Page { public Guid RevisionID { get; set; } public PageRevision() { this.RevisionID = Guid.NewGuid(); } }

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  • How Can I Accept a Generic Class and Use Its Properties / Methods

    - by Blake Blackwell
    I want to create a class that could hold any of a number of same type of classes. For example lets says I have a base class like follows: public class BaseClass { public string MyBaseString { get; set; } } And then I have a few derived classes like this: public class DerivedClass : BaseClass { public MyDerivedClassString { get; set; } } public class DerivedClass2 : BaseClass { public MyDerivedClass2String { get; set; } } Now I would like a class that accepts one of these implementations and does stuff with it. Here is the only thing I can think of, but there must be a better way: public class ClassA { public object MyClass { get; set; } public ClassA (object myClass) { MyClass = myClass; if (object is BaseClass) { //do something } else if (object is DerivedClass) { //do something specific to derived class } else if (object is DerivedClass2) { //do something specific to derived class 2 } } } I'm not sure really what I'm looking for here. Any ideas would be great!

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  • # how to split the column values using stored procedure

    - by user1444281
    I have two tables table 1 is SELECT * FROM dbo.TBL_WD_WEB_DECK WD_ID WD_TITLE ------------------ 1 2 and data in 2nd table is WS_ID WS_WEBPAGE_ID WS_SPONSORS_ID WS_STATUS ----------------------------------------------------- 1 1 1,2,3,4 Y I wrote the following stored procedure to insert the data into both the tables catching the identity of main table dbo.TBL_WD_WEB_DECK. WD_ID is related with WS_WEBPAGE_ID. I wrote the cursor in update action to split the WS_SPONSORS_ID column calling the split function in the cursor. But it is not working. The stored procedure is: ALTER procedure [dbo].[SP_Example_SPLIT] ( @action char(1), @wd_id int out, @wd_title varchar(50), @ws_webpage_id int, @ws_sponsors_id varchar(250), @ws_status char(1) ) as begin set nocount on IF (@action = 'A') BEGIN INSERT INTO dbo.TBL_WD_WEB_DECK(WD_TITLE)VALUES(@WD_TITLE) DECLARE @X INT SET @X = @@IDENTITY INSERT INTO dbo.TBL_WD_SPONSORS(WS_WEBPAGE_ID,WS_SPONSORS_ID,WS_STATUS) VALUES (@ws_webpage_id,@ws_sponsors_id,@ws_status) END ELSE IF (@action = 'U') BEGIN UPDATE dbo.TBL_WD_WEB_DECK SET WD_TITLE = @wd_title WHERE WD_ID = @WD_ID UPDATE dbo.TBL_WD_SPONSORS SET WS_STATUS = 'N' where WS_SPONSORS_ID not in (@ws_sponsors_id) and ws_webpage_id = @wd_id BEGIN /* Declaring Cursor to split the value in ws_sponsors_id column */ Declare @var int Declare splt cursor for /* used the split function and calling the parameter in that split function */ select * from iter_simple_intlist_to_tbl(@WS_SPONSORS_ID) OPEN splt FETCH NEXT FROM splt INTO @var WHILE (@@FETCH_STATUS = 0) begin if not exists(select * from dbo.TBL_WD_SPONSORS where WS_WEBPAGE_ID = @wd_id and WS_SPONSORS_ID = @var) begin insert into dbo.TBL_WD_SPONSORS (WS_WEBPAGE_ID,WS_SPONSORS_ID) values(@wd_id,@var) end end CLOSE SPONSOR DEALLOCATE SPONSOR END END END The result I want is if I insert the data in WD_ID and IN WS_SPONSORS_ID column the data in the WS_SPONSORS_ID column should split and I need to compare it with WD_ID. The result I need is: WD_ID WD_TITLE --------------------- 1 TEST 2 TEST1 3 WS_ID WS_WEBPAGE_ID WS_SPONSORS_ID WS_STATUS -------------------------------------------------------- 1 1 1 Y 2 1 2 N 3 1 3 Y If I pass the string in WS_SPONSORS_ID as 1,2,3 it has to split like the above. Can you help?

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  • adding uri escaped xml as queryparam

    - by aguilarsoto
    Hello and thanks for any support. So I have an API that is expecting an escaped xml as part of the query params. so I tried a couple of things. <Set> <QueryParams> <QueryParam name="xml">%3CcreateSession%3E%3CapiKey+type%3D%22integer%22%3123123123123123123%3C%2FapiKey%3E%3C%2FcreateSession%3E</QueryParam> </QueryParams> </Set> this actually gets extra escaped and we end up with an invalid xml <Set> <QueryParams> <QueryParam name="xml"> <createSession><apiKey type=\"integer\">123123123123</apiKey> </createSession> </QueryParam> </QueryParams> </Set> this one is not even saved. <Payload variablePrefix="#" variableSuffix="#" contentType="application/json"> { 'xml': '<createSession><apiKey type=\"integer\">123123123123</apiKey></createSession>'} </Payload> this is not helping me either. so what would be the best way to add an xml to the params without getting extra escaped or escaped only once

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