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  • UIWebView is ignoring cookies?!

    - by A. Miladinovic
    Hello everybody, I am creating an app for the iPhone that fetches a specific page from a website, but to be able to view this site you need to log in with a username and a password. I've created this code: NSString *urlAddress = @"http://www.wdg-hamburg.de"; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:urlAddress]; NSString *post = @"name=loginname&pass=pass&form_id=user_login&op=Anmelden"; NSData *postData = [post dataUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding]; NSString *postLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", [postData length]]; NSMutableURLRequest *request = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [request setHTTPMethod: @"POST"]; [request setValue:postLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [request setValue:@"application/x-www-form-urlencoded" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [request setHTTPBody:postData]; [vPlan loadRequest:request]; But I am not logged in at the UIWebView! I am logging NSHTTPCookieStorage to the console and it shows me the necessary cookie, but I dont get logged in. Does anybody knows how I can fix that? Kind regards, A. Miladinovic

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  • Force Postback from code behind? Or reload JavaScript from an Asynchronous Postback?

    - by sah302
    Hi all, I've got a Jquery UI dialog that pops up to confirm the creation of an item after filling out a form. I have the form in an update panel due to various needs of the form, and especially because I want validation being done on the form without reloading the page. JavaScript appears to not reload on an asynchronoous postback. This means when the form is a success and I change the variable 'formSubmitPass' to true, it does not get passed to the Javascript via <%= formSubmitPass %. If I add a trigger to the submit button to do a full postback, it works. However I don't want the submit button to do a full postback as I said so I can validate the form within the update panel. How can I have this so my form validates asynchronously, but my javaScript will properly reload when the form is completed successfully and the item is saved to the database? Javascript: var formSubmitPass = '<%= formSubmitPass %>'; var redirectUrl = '<%= redirectUrl %>'; function pageLoad() { $('#formPassBox').dialog({ autoOpen: false, width: 400, resizable: false, modal: true, draggable: false, buttons: { "Ok": function() { window.location.href = redirectUrl; } }, open: function(event, ui) { $(".ui-dialog-titlebar-close").hide(); var t = window.setTimeout("goToUrl()", 5000); } }); if(formSubmitPass == 'True') { $('#formPassBox').dialog({ autoOpen: true }); } So how can I force a postback from the code behind, or reload the JavaScript on an Asynchronous Postback, or do this in a way that will work such that I can continue to do Async form validation? Edit: I change formSubmitPass at the very end of the code behind: If errorCount = 0 Then formSubmitPass = True upForm.Update() Else formSubmitPass = False End If So on a full postback, the value does change.

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  • Faster way to transfer table data from linked server

    - by spender
    After much fiddling, I've managed to install the right ODBC driver and have successfully created a linked server on SQL Server 2008, by which I can access my PostgreSQL db from SQL server. I'm copying all of the data from some of the tables in the PgSQL DB into SQL Server using merge statements that take the following form: with mbRemote as ( select * from openquery(someLinkedDb,'select * from someTable') ) merge into someTable mbLocal using mbRemote on mbLocal.id=mbRemote.id when matched /*edit*/ /*clause below really speeds things up when many rows are unchanged*/ /*can you think of anything else?*/ and not (mbLocal.field1=mbRemote.field1 and mbLocal.field2=mbRemote.field2 and mbLocal.field3=mbRemote.field3 and mbLocal.field4=mbRemote.field4) /*end edit*/ then update set mbLocal.field1=mbRemote.field1, mbLocal.field2=mbRemote.field2, mbLocal.field3=mbRemote.field3, mbLocal.field4=mbRemote.field4 when not matched then insert ( id, field1, field2, field3, field4 ) values ( mbRemote.id, mbRemote.field1, mbRemote.field2, mbRemote.field3, mbRemote.field4 ) WHEN NOT MATCHED BY SOURCE then delete; After this statement completes, the local (SQL Server) copy is fully in sync with the remote (PgSQL server). A few questions about this approach: is it sane? it strikes me that an update will be run over all fields in local rows that haven't necessarily changed. The only prerequisite is that the local and remote id field match. Is there a more fine grained approach/a way of constraining the merge statment to only update rows that have actually changed?

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  • Ajax Asynchronous in IE - Error "The Data Necessary to Complete This Operation is Not Yet Available"

    - by Supernovah
    Hey there. I have a 100% valid Ajax model written in Javascript with a few inputs I use being, Get or Post method, What page to communicate with, What String to send to that page and What element on my own page I might be fiddling with when I receive my response. The problem is that, should I set the request to Asynchronous (Hence Ajax), IE returns the error "The Data Necessary to Complete This Operation is Not Yet Available" in the onreadystatechange event where all I do is check if the readystate is 4 and the status is 200. The error doesn't come up in Firefox or Chrome as I would exepect as the Ajax is Asynchronous. Heres a snippet from the Post method xmlhttp.open("POST", commPage, true); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-Type","application/x-www-form-urlencoded; charset=UTF-8"); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState == 4 && xmlhttp.status == 200) { j = xmlhttp.responseText; i.innerHTML = j; } } xmlhttp.send(str); Edit: I should point out that in IE, I'm using the ActiveX Control - Msxml2.XMLHTTP or Microsoft.XMLHTTP or whichever returns true first.

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  • Stuck in itunesconnect submission version number limbo...

    - by Kevin Beimers
    I did a very very stupid thing. I was uploading an update to my app on itunesconnect, but typed in the wrong version number. The version number I typed (1.02) was smaller than the one that's already up there (1.1). Apple accepted the submission, and planned to upload binary later. Went to upload the binary (also 1.02), but only AFTER uploading did Apple inform me that it can't accept my binary because it's a smaller number than the current version. BUT I CAN'T CHANGE THE VERSION NUMBER IN THE SUBMISSION FORM. AND I CAN'T CANCEL THE UPDATE. [string of profanity symbols] So now, Apple is waiting for an update that it will never accept. Surely I'm not the only dope who's done this. I've written to the Contact Us form, but is there anything else I can do? Anyone else had to deal with this, if so, how long did it take to sort out? Thanks for anything on this, even if it's just moral support, -k.

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  • How to correctly calculate FPS in XNA?

    - by Tomek Tarczynski
    I wrote a component to display current FPS. The most important part of it is: public override void Update(GameTime gameTime) { elapseTime += (float)gameTime.ElapsedRealTime.TotalSeconds; frameCounter++; if (elapseTime > 1) { FPS = frameCounter; frameCounter = 0; elapseTime = 0; } base.Update(gameTime); } In most cases it works ok, but recently I had a problem. When I put following code into Update method of game strange thing starts to happen. if (threadPath == null || threadPath.ThreadState != ThreadState.Running) { ThreadStart ts = new ThreadStart(current.PathFinder.FindPaths); threadPath = new Thread(ts); threadPath.Priority = ThreadPriority.Highest; threadPath.Start(); } Main idea of this code is to run pathFinding algorithm in different thread all the time. By strange things I mean that sometimes FPS drasticly decreases, this is obvious, but displayed FPS changes more often than once a second. If I understand this code FPS can't change more often than once a second. Can someone explain me what's going on?

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  • Deploying an MVC 2.0 .Net 4.0 application to Windows Server 2003

    - by Brett Rigby
    I've spent the past couple of nights on this, and have come to the conclusions that I'm doing something wrong! Basically, I have my .Net 4.0 MVC 2.0 application deployed to my 2003 Server and it's constantly giving me the following error: The value for the 'compilerVersion' attribute in the provider options must be 'v4.0' or later if you are compiling for version 4.0 or later of the .NET Framework. To compile this Web application for version 3.5 or earlier of the .NET Framework, remove the 'targetFramework' attribute from the element of the Web.config file. I also have the .Net 3.5 MVC 1.0 application also deployed to the same server (from before the upgrade to .Net 4.0), and it works absolutely fine. I have re-run through Phil Haack's post on IIS6, making the necessary changes for .Net 4.0, but no luck. I have been through the steps in the British Developer's post too, but no joy. I have also tried the steps outlined in Johan's blog post, but the settings he mentions were already enabled. Obviously, I can't simply upgrade to a 2008 box, nor do I want to downgrade my software back to < 4.0 - any other ideas?

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  • How to clone a Model using Entity Framework and ASP.Net Mvc 2

    - by Picflight
    I have the following class: [MetadataType(typeof(PortalMetaData))] [System.Web.Mvc.Bind(Exclude = "PortalId")] public partial class Portal { public Portal() { this.Created = DateTime.Now; } } public class PortalMetaData { [Required(ErrorMessage = "Portal name is required")] [StringLength(50, ErrorMessage = "Portal name must be under 50 characters")] public object PortalName { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Description is required")] public object Description { get; set; } } I have a corresponding Table in the database Portal I use the Portal table with a PortalController for the Site Admin to update the records in the Portal Table. I want another user with a different Role (AsstAdmin) to be able to update this table as well. To facilitate that I am thinking of creating a separate partial class that somehow links back to the Portal Model. This would allow me to display limited Fields for update by the AsstAdmin and I can display a different name for the Field as well. How can I accomplish this task? If I add the following class which inherits from Portal than I get an exception: Unable to cast object of type 'Project1.Mvc.Models.Portal' to type 'Prpject1.Mvc.Models.Site'. [MetadataType(typeof(SiteMetaData))] public class Site : Portal { public Site() { } } public class SiteMetaData { [Required(DisplayName = "Site Description")] public object Description { get; set; } }

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  • Ruby - Feedzirra and updates

    - by mplacona
    Hi, trying to get my head around Feedzirra here. I have it all setup and everything, and can even get results and updates, but something odd is going on. I came up with the following code: def initialize(feed_url) @feed_url = feed_url @rssObject = Feedzirra::Feed.fetch_and_parse(@feed_url) end def update_from_feed_continuously() @rssObject = Feedzirra::Feed.update(@rssObject) if @rssObject.updated? puts @rssObject.new_entries.count else puts "nil" end end Right, what I'm doing above, is starting with the big feed, and then only getting updates. I'm sure I must be doing something stupid, as even though I'm able to get the updates, and store them on the same instance variable, after the first time, I'm never able to get those again. Obviously this happens because I'm overwriting my instance variable with only updates, and lose the full feed object. I then thought about changing my code to this: def update_from_feed_continuously() feed = Feedzirra::Feed.update(@rssObject) if feed.updated? puts feed.new_entries.count else puts "nil" end end Well, I'm not overwriting anything and that should be the way to go right? WRONG, this means I'm doomed to always try to get updates to the same static feed object, as although I get the updates on a variable, I'm never actually updating my "static feed object", and newly added items will be appended to my "feed.new_entries" as they in theory are new. I'm sure I;m missing a step here, but I'd really appreciate if someone could shed me a light on it. I've been going through this code for hours, and can't get to grips with it. Obviously it should work fine, if I did something like: if feed.updated? puts feed.new_entries.count @rssObject = initialize(@feed_url) else Because that would reinitialize my instance variable with a brand new feed object, and the updates would come again. But that also means that any new update added on that exact moment would be lost, as well as massive overkill, as I'd have to load the thing again. Thanks in advance!

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  • EclEmma JAVA Code coverage - Unable to coverage service layer of RESTful Webservice

    - by Radhika
    I am using EMMA eclipse plugin to generate code coverage reports. My application is a RESTFul webservice. Junits are written such that a client is created for the webservice and invoked with various inputs. However EMMA shows 0% coverage for the source folder. The test folder alone is covered. The application server(jetty server) is started using a main method. Report: Element Coverage Covered Instructions Total Instructions MyRestFulService 13.6% 900 11846 src 0.5% 49 10412 test 98% 1021 1434 Junit Test method: @Test public final void testAddFlow() throws Exception { Client c = Client.create(); WebResource webResource = c.resource(BASE_URI); // Sample files for Add String xhtmlDocument = null; Iterator iter = mapOfAddFiles.entrySet().iterator(); while (iter.hasNext()) { Map.Entry pairs = (Map.Entry) iter.next(); try { document = helper.readFile(requestPath + pairs.getKey()); } catch (Exception e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } /* POST */ MultiPart multiPart = new MultiPart(); multiPart.bodyPart(.... ........... ClientResponse response = webResource.path("/add").type( MEDIATYPE_MULTIPART_MIXED).post(ClientResponse.class, multiPart); assertEquals("TESTING ADD FOR >>>>>>> " + pairs.getKey(), Status.OK, response.getClientResponseStatus()); } } } Invoked service method: @POST @Path("add") @Consumes("multipart/mixed") public Response add(MultiPart multiPart) throws Exception { Status status = null; List<BodyPart> bodyParts = null; bodyParts = multiPart.getBodyParts(); status = //call to business layer return Response.ok(status).build(); }

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  • Naming of ASP.NET controls inside User Controls with ASP.NET MVC

    - by skb
    I am wondering if there is a way to make ASP.NET controls play nicely with my ASP.NET MVC app. Here is what I am doing. I have an order page which displays info about a single Order object. The page will normally have a bunch of rows of data, each row representing an OrderItem object. Each row is an ASP.NET User Control. On the user control there is a form element with two text boxes (Quantity and Price), and an update button. When I click the update button, I expect the form to post the data for that individual OrderItem row to a controller method and update the OrderItem record in the database. Here is my problem: When the post happens, the framework complains because the fields on the form don't match the parameters on the controller method. Each form field is something like "OrderItem_1$Quantity" or "OrderItem_2$Price" instead of just "Quantity" or "Price" which would match my method parameters. I have been told that I can overcome this by making sure that the IDs of all my controls are unique for the page, but allow the NAMEs to be repeated between different forms, so that if a form for an individual row is posted, the name can be something that will match what is on my controller method. The only problem is that I am using ASP.NET controls for my text boxes (which I REALLY want to continue doing) and I can't find any way to override the name field. There is no Name propery on an ASP.NET control, and even when I try to set it using the Attributes accessor property by saying "control.Attributes["Name"] = "Price";" it just adds another name= attribute to the HTML tag which doesn't work. Does any one know how I can make this work? I really don't like all of the HtmlHelper functions like TextBox and DropDown because I hate having my .aspx be so PHP or ASP like with the <%% tags and everything. Thanks!

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  • django {% tag %} problem

    - by Sevenearths
    I don't know if its me but {% tag ??? %} has bee behaving a bit sporadically round me (django ver 1.2.3). I have the following main.html file: <html> {% include 'main/main_css.html' %} <body> test! <a href="{% url login.views.logout_view %}">logout</a> test! <a href="{% url client.views.client_search_last_name_view %}">logout</a> </body> </html> with the urls.py being: from django.conf.urls.defaults import * import settings from login.views import * from mainapp.views import * from client.views import * # Uncomment the next two lines to enable the admin: from django.contrib import admin admin.autodiscover() urlpatterns = patterns('', # Example: # (r'^weclaim/', include('weclaim.foo.urls')), (r'^login/$', 'login.views.login_view'), (r'^logout/$', 'login.views.logout_view'), (r'^$', 'mainapp.views.main_view'), (r'^client/search/last_name/(A-Za-z)/$', 'client.views.client_search_last_name_view'), #(r'^client/search/post_code/(A-Za-z)/$', 'client.views.client_search_last_name_view'), # Uncomment the next line to enable the admin: (r'^admin/', include(admin.site.urls)), (r'^static/(?P<path>.*)$', 'django.views.static.serve',{'document_root': settings.MEDIA_ROOT}), ) and the views.py for login being: from django.shortcuts import render_to_response, redirect from django.template import RequestContext from django.contrib import auth import mainapp.views def login_view(request): if request.method == 'POST': uname = request.POST.get('username', '') psword = request.POST.get('password', '') user = auth.authenticate(username=uname, password=psword) # if the user logs in and is active if user is not None and user.is_active: auth.login(request, user) return redirect(mainapp.views.main_view) else: return render_to_response('loginpage.html', {'login_failed': '1',}, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) else: return render_to_response('loginpage.html', {'dave': '1',}, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) def logout_view(request): auth.logout(request) return render_to_response('loginpage.html', {'logged_out': '1',}, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) and the views.py for clients being: from django.shortcuts import render_to_response, redirect from django.template import RequestContext import login.views def client_search_last_name_view(request): if request.user.is_authenticated(): return render_to_response('client/client_search_last_name.html', {}, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) else: return redirect(login.views.login_view) Yet when I login it django raises an 'NoReverseMatch' for {% url client.views.client_search_last_name_view %} but not for {% url login.views.logout_view %} Now why would this be?

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  • Cannot add Authorization field to HttpsUrlConnection in order to complete Basic authentication

    - by ES
    Hi, I'm using the Sun API HttpsURLConnection class, and have been trying for a day now to get it to send a simple request: URL url = new URL("https://thirdpartyserver.com/somelocation"); connection = (HttpsURLConnection)url.openConnection(); connection.setDoOutput(true); connection.setRequestMethod("POST"); if (doAuthorization) { Base64Converter converter = new Base64Converter(); connection.setRequestProperty("Authorization", "Basic " + converter.encode("username:password")); } OutputStreamWriter writer = new OutputStreamWriter(connection.getOutputStream()); writer.write("param1=100&param2=hello"); writer.flush(); writer.close(); I keep getting 401 from the third part server. When I look at the connection through the debugger, the method shows up as GET even though I set it to POST; the collection of request properties shows up as null. If I print the values out, the method shows up as POST, but the request parameters collection is still empty. I would love to be able to print the request and understand what's going on, but I could not figure out how to print the content of an output buffer. Any ideas? Thanks! ES

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  • We have multiple app servers running against a single database. How do I ensure that each row in a q

    - by Dave
    We have about 7 app servers running .NET windows services that ping a single sql server 2005 queue table and fetch a fixed amount of records to process at fixed intervals. The amount of records to process and the amount of time between fetches are both configurable and are initially set to 100 and 30 seconds initially. Currently, my queue table has an int status column which can be either "Ready, Processing, Complete, Error". The proc that fetches the records has a sql transaction with the following code inside the transaction: 1) Fetch x number of records into temp table where the status is "Ready". The select uses a holdlock hint 2) Update the status on those records in the Queue table to "Processing" The .NET services do some processing that may take seconds or even minutes per record. Another proc is called per record that simply updates the status to "Complete". The update proc has no transaction as I'm leaning on the implicit transaction as part of the update clause here. I don't know the traffic exceptions for this but figure it will be under 10k records per day. Is this the best way to handle this scenario? If so, are there any details that I've left out, such as a hint here or there? Thanks! Dave

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  • jQuery AJAX slow in Firefox, fast in IE

    - by Brandon Montgomery
    I'm using jQuery to post to an ASP .NET Web Service to implement a custom auto-complete function. The code works great, except it's slow in FireFox (can't get it to go faster than 1 second). IE is blazing fast - works great. I watch the post in Firefox using Firebug. Here's the service code: <ScriptService(), _ WebService(Namespace:="http://tempuri.org/"), _ WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo:=WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1), _ ToolboxItem(False)> _ Public Class TestWebSvc Inherits System.Web.Services.WebService <WebMethod(), _ ScriptMethod(ResponseFormat:=Script.Services.ResponseFormat.Json, UseHttpGet:=True)> _ Public Function GetAccounts(ByVal q As String) As Object 'Code taken out for simplicity Return result End Function End Class And the jQuery ajax call: $.ajax({ beforeSend: function (req) { req.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/json"); }, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", type: "GET", url: "http://localhost/Suggest/TestWebSvc.asmx/GetAccounts", data: "q='" + element.val() + "'", dataType: "json", success: testWebSvcSuccess }); As you can see, I've tried to use the HTTP GET verb instead in hopes that that would make the call faster. As it does not, I'll probably switch it back to using POST if I can. Right now I'm just focused on why it's super fast in IE and super slow in Firefox. Versions: jQuery 1.3.2; Firefox 3.0.11; IE 8.0.6001.18783 (64-bit) Thank you for any insight you can provide.

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  • Paperclip and xhr.sendAsBinary

    - by Denis
    Hi, I use paperclip to add a file to my model. I want to use the new feature of firefox 3.6, xhr.sendAsBinary, to send a file with an ajax request. Here is how I build my request : var xhr = new XMLHttpRequest(); xhr.open("POST", "/photos?authenticity_token=" + token + "&photo[name]=" + img.name + "&photo[size]=" + img.size); xhr.overrideMimeType('text/plain; charset=x-user-defined-binary'); xhr.sendAsBinary(bin); name and size are saved in my model without problem but the file itself is not catched by paperclip. my model class Photo < ActiveRecord::Base has_attached_file :photo, :styles => { :medium => "300x300>", :thumb => "100x100>" } end the migration def self.up add_column :photos, :photo_file_name, :string add_column :photos, :photo_content_type, :string add_column :photos, :photo_file_size, :integer add_column :photos, :photo_updated_at, :datetime end and my controller # POST /photos # POST /photos.xml def create @photo = Photo.new(params[:photo]) respond_to do |format| if @photo.save format.html { redirect_to(@photo, :notice => 'Photo was successfully created.') } format.xml { render :xml => @photo, :status => :created, :location => @photo } else format.html { render :action => "new" } format.xml { render :xml => @photo.errors, :status => :unprocessable_entity } end end end Any idea how to solve this issue? Thanks

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  • Is it possible to store ObjectContext on the client when using WCF and Entity Framework?

    - by Sergey
    Hello, I have a WCF service which performs CRUD operation on my data model: Add, Get, Update and Delete. And I'm using Entity Framework for my data model. On the other side there is a client application which calls methods of the WCF service. For example I have a Customer class: [DataContract] public class Customer { public Guid CustomerId {get; set;} public string CustomerName {get; set;} } and WCF service defines this method: public void AddCustomer(Customer c) { MyEntities _entities = new MyEntities(); _entities.AddToCustomers(c); _entities.SaveChanges(); } and the client application passes objects to the WCF service: var customer = new Customer(){CustomerId = Guid.NewGuid, CustomerName="SomeName"}; MyService svc = new MyService(); svc.Add(customer); // or svc.Update(customer) for example But when I need to pass a great amount of objects to the WCF it could be a perfomance issue because of I need to create ObjectContext each time when I'm doing Add(), Update(), Get() or Delete(). What I'm thinking on is to keep ObjectContext on the client and pass ObjectContext to the wcf methods as additional parameter. Is it possible to create and keep ObjectContext on the client and don't recreate it for each operation? If it is not, how could speed up the passing of huge amount of data to the wcf service? Sergey

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  • Storing info in a PostgreSQl database issue

    - by MrEnder
    Ok I am making a registry for my website. First page asks for some personal info if($error==false) { $query = pg_query("INSERT INTO chatterlogins(firstName, lastName, gender, password, ageMonth, ageDay, ageYear, email, createDate) VALUES('$firstNameSignup', '$lastNameSignup', '$genderSignup', md5('$passwordSignup'), $monthSignup, $daySignup, $yearSignup, '$emailSignup', now());"); $query = pg_query("INSERT INTO chatterprofileinfo(email, lastLogin) VALUES('$emailSignup', now());"); $userNameSet = $emailSignup; $_SESSION['$userNameSet'] = $userNameSet; header('Location: signup_step2.php'.$rdruri); } The first query works. The second query works but doesn't save the email... the session doesn't work but the header works and sends me to the next page I get no errors even if I comment out header next page @session_start(); $conn = pg_connect("host=localhost dbname=brittains_db user=brittains password=XXXX" ); $signinCheck = false; $checkForm = ""; if(isset($_SESSION['$userName'])) { $userName = $_SESSION['$userName']; $signinCheck = true; $query = pg_query("UPDATE chatterprofileinfo SET lastLogin='now()' WHERE email='$userName'"); } if(isset($_SESSION['$userNameSet'])) { $userName = $_SESSION['$userNameSet']; $signinCheck = true; $query = pg_query("UPDATE chatterprofileinfo SET lastLogin='now()' WHERE email='$userName'"); } This is the top starting the session depending on if your logged in or not. then if I enter in the info here and put it through this if($error==false) { $query = pg_query("UPDATE chatterprofileinfo SET aboutSelf='$aboutSelf', hobbies='$hobbies', music='$music', tv='$tv', sports='$sports', lastLogin='now()' WHERE email='$userName'") or exit(pg_last_error()); //header('Location: signup_step3.php'.$rdruri); } nothing shows up for on my database from this. I have no idea where I went wrong the website is http://opentech.durhamcollege.ca/~intn2201/brittains/chatter/

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  • Extjs to call a RESTful webservice

    - by VSC
    Hello, I am trying to make a RESTful webservice call using Extjs. Below is the code i am using: Ext.Ajax.request({ url: incomingURL , method: 'POST', params: {param1:p1, param2:p2}, success: function(responseObject){ var obj = Ext.decode(responseObject.responseText); alert(obj); }, failure: function(responseObject){ var obj = Ext.decode(responseObject.responseText); alert(obj); } }); but it does not work, the request is sent using OPTIONS method instead of POST. I also tried to do the same thing using below code but result is the same: var conn = new Ext.data.Connection(); conn.request({ url: incomingURL, method: 'POST', params: {param1:p1, param2:p2}, success: function(responseObject) { Ext.Msg.alert('Status', 'success'); }, failure: function(responseObject) { Ext.Msg.alert('Status', 'Failure'); } }); But when i tried to do the same thing using basic ajax call ( using the browser objects directly i.e. XMLHttpRequest() or ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP")) it works fine and i get the response as expected. Can anyone please help me, as i am not able to understand what i am doing wrong with extjs ajax call?

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  • flushing database cache in SWI-Prolog

    - by JPro
    We are using swi-prolog to run our testcases. Whenever the test starts, I am opening the connection to MYSQL database and storing the Name of the Test hat is being done and then closing the DB. These tests run for about 2 days continuously. After the tests are done, the results basically gets stored in folder in the server. There is a predicate in another prolog file that is called to update the results to the MYSQL database. The code is simple, I use odbc library and just call odbc_* predicates to connect and update the mysql by issuing direct queries. The actual problem is : If I try to call the Predicate from the same Prolog window, where the test just got completed, I get an error as updating to the DB server. Although I do not get any error in the connection. If I close the session of that prolog with halt and closing all the open prolog windows , then open an other complete new instance of Prolog and run the predicate the update goes well. I have a feeling that there is some connection reference to the MySQL DB in Prolog database. Is there any way to clear the database in prolog so that I can run the same predicate without closing any existing prolog windows? Any ideas appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Spring Security HTTP Basic Authentication

    - by Raspayu
    Hi people! I am trying to do a really simple basic authentication with Spring Security. I have configured properly the namespace, and there are no Exceptions in the server. In my "servlet.xml" I have got the next for Spring Security: <security:http> <security:http-basic></security:http-basic> <security:intercept-url method="POST" pattern="/**" access="ROLE_USER" /> </security:http> <security:authentication-manager alias="authenticationManager"> <security:authentication-provider> <security:user-service> <security:user name="cucu" password="tas" authorities="ROLE_USER" /> <security:user name="bob" password="bobspassword" authorities="ROLE_USER" /> </security:user-service> </security:authentication-provider> </security:authentication-manager> It nearly all goes perfect: the methods that are not POST doesn't prompt any login form, and the POST method prompt it. The problem is, that nor "cucu", neither "bob" can login there. Can anyone see what am I doing wrong? Thanks in advance! ;-)

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  • Using a4j:support 's onchange event with h:selectOneMenu

    - by user339637
    <h:selectOneMenu id="selectOneMenu" value="#{Bean1.val1}" > <f:selectItems value="#{Bean1.selectItems}"/> <a4j:support event="onchange" action="#{Bean1.onSelectOneMenuChange}" reRender="textbox1 , textbox2 , textbox3, textbox4" /> </h:selectOneMenu> <h:inputText id="textbox1" value="#{Bean1.textbox1}"> </h:inputText> <h:inputText id="textbox2" value="#{Bean1.textbox2}"> </h:inputText> <h:inputText id="textbox3" value="#{Bean1.textbox3}"> </h:inputText> <h:inputText id="textbox4" value="#{Bean1.textbox4}"> </h:inputText> Bean1.onSelectOneMenuChange() will change the value of Bean1.textbox1 , Bean1.textbox2,Bean1.textbox3 and Bean1.textbox4 depending on the value selected (Bean1.val1) .Sometimes , it will change all the textbox value and sometimes it will only changes some textbox value. When users change the value in the "selectOneMenu" drop down list control , the JSF framework will not call the update model values phase but call the Bean1.onSelectOneMenuChange() directly. After that , the all the textbox are reRender. Because the update model values phase is not called , the values entered by the user is never set the the Bean1 and the original value is shown in the textbox after reRender . So I want to ask: How can I manually call the update model values phase inside Bean1.onSelectOneMenuChange() ?How can I get the value input input by the users inside Bean1.onSelectOneMenuChange() and set it to the corresponding fields of the Bean1 ? 2.Another approach is that only reRender those textbox whose values are updated inside the Bean1.onSelectOneMenuChange() .However , there are many cases . For example , a value will change all the textbox value and a values may only change some textbox value.How can I reRender conditionally ? What method is more prefer for maintainability?

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  • MVC/HTML - input submit won't trigger when HTML is in a text area

    - by cw
    Any idea why the below code doesn't trigger if I were to put some HTML inside the textarea? It works fine it I don't have HTML in it, but I'm not sure why it doesn't work with it. Here is the code. <form action="/Home/AddPost" method="post"> <table> <tr> <td>Post Title:</td> <td><input id="Title" type="text" name="title" /></td> </tr> <tr> <td>Post Description:</td> <td><textarea id="Description" rows="10" cols="60" name="description"></textarea></td> </tr> </table> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </form>

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  • What do you do when your team leader doesn't know something simple?

    - by leppie
    What do you do when your team leader does not know why the following is wrong: a.SomeProp = a.SomeProp; // no funny side-effects, plain old property He claims 15 years of programming experience, and 7 years of C#/.NET. To me, someone of 3-6 months experience should know this. What I have done: Tried to make him understand why it is wrong. He told me not to criticize him. Told him it's not about criticism, but project risk. He got upset with me. I have addressed the risk of this person with our manager (few weeks back). I have addressed my concerns with this person with our manager several times, since 1 month after I started there (7 months now). Currently, I just feel like just not going back to work... I hardly have any nails left, and this is really just the tip of the iceberg. As nothing has changed after I have spoken to the manager for the last 6 months, I feel like I need to make some sort of ultimatum. Do you have any suggestions? PS: Please do not make this subjective. I have no need for arguing. The level of incompetence is pretty clear. I just need some advice before going insane. Update: Thanks for all the answers (trying to update before close, buggers). I think I will forward this thread to our manager :) Update 2: I sent my manager another mail with my concerns, and a link to this question. Awaiting response.

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  • Command /Developer/usr/bin/dsymutil failed with exit code 10

    - by Evan Robinson
    I am getting the above error message randomly (so far as I can tell) on iPhone projects. Occasionally it will go away upon either: Clean Restart XCode Reboot Reinstall XCode But sometimes it won't. When it won't the only solution I have found is to take all the source material, import it into a new project, and then redo all the connections in IB. Then I'm good until it strikes again. Anybody have any suggestions? [update 20091030] I have tried building both debug and release versions, both full and lite versions. I've also tried switching the debug symbols from DWARF with external dSYM file to DWARF and to stabs. Clean builds in all formats make no differences. Permission repairs change nothing. Setting up a new user has no effect. Same error on the builds. Thanks for the suggestions! [Update 20091031] Here's an easier and (apparently) reliable workaround. It hinges upon the discovery that the problem is linked to a target not a project In the same project file, create a new target Option-Drag (copy) all the files from the BAD target 'Copy Bundle Resources' folder to the NEW target 'Copy Bundle Resources' folder Repeat (2) with 'Compile Sources' and 'Link Binary With Libraries' Duplicate the Info.plist file for the BAD target and name it correctly for the NEW target. Build the NEW target! [Update 20100222] Apparently an IDE bug, now apparently fixed, although Apple does not allow direct access to the original bug of a duplicate. I can no longer reproduce this behaviour, so hopefully it is dead, dead, dead.

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