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  • Performing dynamic sorts on EF4 data

    - by Jaxidian
    I'm attempting to perform dynamic sorting of data that I'm putting into grids into our MVC UI. Since MVC is abstracted from everything else via WCF, I've created a couple utility classes and extensions to help with this. The two most important things (slightly simplified) are as follows: public static IQueryable<T> ApplySortOptions<T, TModel, TProperty>(this IQueryable<T> collection, IEnumerable<ISortOption<TModel, TProperty>> sortOptions) where TModel : class { var sortedSortOptions = (from o in sortOptions orderby o.Priority ascending select o).ToList(); var results = collection; foreach (var option in sortedSortOptions) { var currentOption = option; var propertyName = currentOption.Property.MemberWithoutInstance(); var isAscending = currentOption.IsAscending; if (isAscending) { results = from r in results orderby propertyName ascending select r; } else { results = from r in results orderby propertyName descending select r; } } return results; } public interface ISortOption<TModel, TProperty> where TModel : class { Expression<Func<TModel, TProperty>> Property { get; set; } bool IsAscending { get; set; } int Priority { get; set; } } I've not given you the implementation for MemberWithoutInstance() but just trust me in that it returns the name of the property as a string. :-) Following is an example of how I would consume this (using a non-interesting, basic implementation of ISortOption<TModel, TProperty>): var query = from b in CurrentContext.Businesses select b; var sortOptions = new List<ISortOption<Business, object>> { new SortOption<Business, object> { Property = (x => x.Name), IsAscending = true, Priority = 0 } }; var results = query.ApplySortOptions(sortOptions); As I discovered with this question, the problem is specific to my orderby propertyName ascending and orderby propertyName descending lines (everything else works great as far as I can tell). How can I do this in a dynamic/generic way that works properly?

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  • Using embedded resources in Silverlight (4) - other cultures not being compiled

    - by Andrei Rinea
    I am having a bit of a hard time providing localized strings for the UI in a small Silverlight 4 application. Basically I've put a folder "Resources" and placed two resource files in it : Statuses.resx Statuses.ro.resx I do have an enum Statuses : public enum Statuses { None, Working } and a convertor : public class StatusToMessage : IValueConverter { public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { if (!Enum.IsDefined(typeof(Status), value)) { throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException("value"); } var x = Statuses.None; return Statuses.ResourceManager.GetString(((Status)value).ToString(), Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture); } public object ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } in the view I have a textblock : <TextBlock Grid.Column="3" Text="{Binding Status, Converter={StaticResource StatusToMessage}}" /> Upon view rendering the converter is called but no matter what the Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture is set it always returns the default culture value. Upon further inspection I took apart the XAP resulted file, taken the resulted DLL file to Reflector and inspected the embedded resources. It only contains the default resource!! Going back to the two resource files I am now inspecting their properties : Build action : Embedded Resource Copy to output directory : Do not copy Custom tool : ResXFileCodeGenerator Custom tool namespace : [empty] Both resource (.resx) files have these settings. The .Designer.cs resulted files are as follows : Statuses.Designer.cs : //------------------------------------------------------------------------------ // <auto-generated> // This code was generated by a tool. // Runtime Version:4.0.30319.1 // // Changes to this file may cause incorrect behavior and will be lost if // the code is regenerated. // </auto-generated> //------------------------------------------------------------------------------ namespace SilverlightApplication5.Resources { using System; /// <summary> /// A strongly-typed resource class, for looking up localized strings, etc. /// </summary> // This class was auto-generated by the StronglyTypedResourceBuilder // class via a tool like ResGen or Visual Studio. // To add or remove a member, edit your .ResX file then rerun ResGen // with the /str option, or rebuild your VS project. [global::System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Resources.Tools.StronglyTypedResourceBuilder", "4.0.0.0")] [global::System.Diagnostics.DebuggerNonUserCodeAttribute()] [global::System.Runtime.CompilerServices.CompilerGeneratedAttribute()] internal class Statuses { // ... yadda-yadda Statuses.ro.Designer.cs [empty] I've taken both files and put them in a console application and they behave as expected in it, not like in this silverlight application. What is wrong?

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  • Using in app purchase to unlock features vs. using free & paid app versions for iPhone

    - by yabada
    I have an app that I was going to release as a free (lite) version with some of the total functionality and a paid full version with advanced functionality. Now, with in app purchase for free apps I am thinking of going that route with the ability to unlock features as needed. I'm not talking about a trial version that expires.I want people to be able to try out the app and get an idea of the interface and functionality before deciding to purchase the full functionality of each major section of the app, basically. Here's an analogy of what my app would be like. Let's say you have a cooking app that teaches you to cook in different styles. There could be major section for French, Italian, and Chinese. Each section could have some rudiments unlocked in the free app so users can see the UI and basics of the functionality. Then, the user could decide to purchase each major section (or not) individually with in app purchase or buy the full versioned app (with the free/paid model). One concern I have with offering a free app with in app purchase would be with feedback. I would be very clear in my description in the app store that there is in app purchase for full features but I'm worried that less serious users could/would leave negative feedback. I suppose that's always a risk but curious about any experience with this. It also seems that it could be a whole lot more complicated keeping track of what portions of the app are locked and unlocked with in app purchase. I know I'd have to have all the code for the full functionality and "lock" the portions that haven't been purchased. How do people usually lock portions of their code? I'm not talking about the process of purchasing (I've read the In App Purchase Programming Guide) but after the purchase has been made. Would I just keep track of what the user has purchased and put conditionals on the sections that are initially locked? Or is there another way to do this as well? My instinct is for the in app purchase (particularly since users could purchase the major sections that they want individually).

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  • Web Safe Area (optimal resolution) for web app design

    - by M.A.X
    I'm in the process of designing a new web app and I'm wondering for what 'web safe area' should I optimize the app layout and design. I did some investigation and thinking on my own but wanted to share this to see what the general opinion is. Here is what I found: Optimal Display Resolution: w3schools web stats seems to be the most referenced source (however they state that these are results from their site and is biased towards tech savvy users) http://www.w3counter.com/globalstats.php (aggregate data from something like 15,000 different sites that use their tracking services) StatCounter Global Stats Display Resolution (Stats are based on aggregate data collected by StatCounter on a sample exceeding 15 billion pageviews per month collected from across the StatCounter network of more than 3 million websites) NetMarketShare Screen Resolutions (marketshare.hitslink.com) (a web analytics consulting firm, they get data from browsers of site visitors to their on-demand network of live stats customers. The data is compiled from approximately 160 million visitors per month) Display Resolution Summary: There is a bit of variation between the above sources but in general as of Jan 2011 looks like 1024x768 is about 20%, while ~85% have a higher resolution of at least 1280x768 (1280x800 is the most common of these with 15-20% of total web, depending on the source; 1280x1024 and 1366x768 follow behind with 9-14% of the share). My guess would be that the higher resolution values will be even more common if we filter on North America, and even higher if we filter on N.American corporate users (unfortunately I couldn't find any free geographically filtered statistics). Another point to note is that the 1024x768 desktop user population is likely lower than the aforementioned 20%, seeing as the iPad (1024x768 native display) is likely propping up those number. My recommendation would be to optimize around the 1280x768 constraint (*note: 1280x768 is actually a relatively rare resolution, but I think it's a valid constraint range considering that 1366x768 is relatively common and 1280 is the most common horizontal resolution). Browser + OS Constraints: To further add to the constraints we have to subtract the space taken up by the browser (assuming IE, which is the most space consuming) and the OS (assuming WinXP-Win7): Win7 has the biggest taskbar footprint at a height of 40px (XP's and Vista's is 30px) The default IE8 view uses up 25px at the bottom of the screen with the status bar and a further 120px at the top of the screen with the windows title bar and the browser UI (assuming the default 'favorites' toolbar is present, it would instead be 91px without the favorites toolbar). Assuming no scrollbar, we also loose a total of 4px horizontally for the window outline. This means that we are left with 583px of vertical space and 1276px of horizontal. In other words, a Web Safe Area of 1276 x 583 Is this a correct line of thinking? I tried to Google some design best practices but most still talk about designing around 1024x768 which seems to be quickly disappearing. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated! Thanks.

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  • Dropdown OnSelectedIndexChanged not firing

    - by Jim
    The OnSelectedIndexChanged event is not firing for my dropdown box. All forums I have looked at told me to add the AutoPostBack="true", but that didn't change the results. HTML: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text="Current Time: " /> <br /> <asp:Label ID="lblCurrent" runat="server" Text="Label" /><br /><br /> <asp:DropDownList ID="cboSelectedLocation" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true" OnSelectedIndexChanged="cboSelectedLocation_SelectedIndexChanged" /><br /><br /> <asp:Label ID="lblSelectedTime" runat="server" Text="Label" /> </div> </form> </body> </html> Code behind: public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { string _sLocation = string.Empty; string _sCurrentLoc = string.Empty; TimeSpan _tsSelectedTime; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { AddTimeZones(); cboSelectedLocation.Focus(); lblCurrent.Text = "Currently in " + _sCurrentLoc + Environment.NewLine + DateTime.Now; lblSelectedTime.Text = _sLocation + ":" + Environment.NewLine + DateTime.UtcNow.Add(_tsSelectedTime); } //adds all timezone displaynames to combobox //defaults combo location to seoul, South Korea //defaults current location to current location private void AddTimeZones() { foreach(TimeZoneInfo tz in System.TimeZoneInfo.GetSystemTimeZones()) { string s = tz.DisplayName; cboSelectedLocation.Items.Add(s); if (tz.StandardName == "Korea Standard Time") cboSelectedLocation.Text = s; if (tz.StandardName == System.TimeZone.CurrentTimeZone.StandardName) _sCurrentLoc = tz.StandardName; } } //changes timezone name and time depending on what is selected in the cbobox. protected void cboSelectedLocation_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { foreach (TimeZoneInfo tz in System.TimeZoneInfo.GetSystemTimeZones()) { if (cboSelectedLocation.Text == tz.DisplayName) { _sLocation = tz.StandardName; _tsSelectedTime = tz.GetUtcOffset(DateTime.UtcNow); } } } } Any advice into what to look at for a rookie asp coder? EDIT: added more code behind

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  • "Wrapping" a BindingList<T> propertry with a List<T> property for serialization.

    - by Eric
    I'm writing an app that allows users search and browse catalogs of widgets. My WidgetCatalog class is serialized and deserialized to and from XML files using DataContractSerializer. My app is working now but I think I can make the code a lot more efficient if I started taking advantage of data binding rather then doing everything manually. Here's a stripped down version of my current WidgetCatalog class. [DataContract(Name = "WidgetCatalog")] class WidgetCatalog { [DataContract(Name = "Name")] public string Name { get; set; } [DataContract(Name = "Widgets")] public List<Widget> Widgets { get; set; } } I had to write a lot of extra code to keep my UI in sync when widgets are added or removed from a catalog, or their internal properties change. I'm pretty inexperienced with data-binding, but I think I want a BindingList<Widget> rather than a plain old List<Widget>. Is this right? In the past when I had similar needs I found that BindingList<T> does not serialize very well. Or at least the Event Handers between the items and the list are not serialized. I was using XmlSerializer though, and DataContractSerializer may work better. So I'm thinking of doing something like the code below. [DataContract(Name = "WidgetCatalog")] class WidgetCatalog { [DataMember(Name = "Name")] public string Name { get; set; } [DataMember(Name = "Widgets")] private List<Widget> WidgetSerializationList { get { return this._widgetBindingList.ToList<Widget>(); } set { this._widgetBindingList = new BindingList<Widget>(value); } } //these do not get serialized private BindingList<Widget> _widgetBindingList; public BindingList<Widget> WidgetBindingList { get { return this._widgetBindingList; } } public WidgetCatalog() { this.WidgetSerializationList = new List<Widget>(); } } So I'm serializing a private List<Widget> property, but the GET and SET accessors of the property are reading from, and writing to theBindingList<Widget> property. Will this even work? It seems like there should be a better way to do this.

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  • How to implement login page using Spring Security so that it works with Spring web flow?

    - by simon
    I have a web application using Spring 2.5.6 and Spring Security 2.0.4. I have implemented a working login page, which authenticates the user against a web service. The authentication is done by defining a custom authentincation manager, like this: <beans:bean id="customizedFormLoginFilter" class="org.springframework.security.ui.webapp.AuthenticationProcessingFilter"> <custom-filter position="AUTHENTICATION_PROCESSING_FILTER" /> <beans:property name="defaultTargetUrl" value="/index.do" /> <beans:property name="authenticationFailureUrl" value="/login.do?error=true" /> <beans:property name="authenticationManager" ref="customAuthenticationManager" /> <beans:property name="allowSessionCreation" value="true" /> </beans:bean> <beans:bean id="customAuthenticationManager" class="com.sevenp.mobile.samplemgmt.web.security.CustomAuthenticationManager"> <beans:property name="authenticateUrlWs" value="${WS_ENDPOINT_ADDRESS}" /> </beans:bean> The authentication manager class: public class CustomAuthenticationManager implements AuthenticationManager, ApplicationContextAware { @Transactional @Override public Authentication authenticate(Authentication authentication) throws AuthenticationException { //authentication logic return new UsernamePasswordAuthenticationToken(principal, authentication.getCredentials(), grantedAuthorityArray); } The essential part of the login jsp looks like this: <c:url value="/j_spring_security_check" var="formUrlSecurityCheck"/> <form method="post" action="${formUrlSecurityCheck}"> <div id="errorArea" class="errorBox"> <c:if test="${not empty param.error}"> ${sessionScope["SPRING_SECURITY_LAST_EXCEPTION"].message} </c:if> </div> <label for="loginName"> Username: <input style="width:125px;" tabindex="1" id="login" name="j_username" /> </label> <label for="password"> Password: <input style="width:125px;" tabindex="2" id="password" name="j_password" type="password" /> </label> <input type="submit" tabindex="3" name="login" class="formButton" value="Login" /> </form> Now the problem is that the application should use Spring Web Flow. After the application was configured to use Spring Web Flow, the login does not work anymore - the form action to "/j_spring_security_check" results in a blank page without error message. What is the best way to adapt the existing login process so that it works with Spring Web Flow?

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  • Java Nimbus LAF with transparent text fields

    - by Software Monkey
    I have an application that uses disabled JTextFields in several places which are intended to be transparent - allowing the background to show through instead of the text field's normal background. When running the new Nimbus LAF these fields are opaque (despite setting setOpaque(false)), and my UI is broken. It's as if the LAF is ignoring the opaque property. Setting a background color explicitly is both difficult in several places, and less than optimal due to background images actually doesn't work - it still paints it's LAF default background over the top, leaving a border-like appearance (the splash screen below has the background explicitly set to match the image). Any ideas on how I can get Nimbus to not paint the background for a JTextField? Note: I need a JTextField, rather than a JLabel, because I need the thread-safe setText(), and wrapping capability. Note: My fallback position is to continue using the system LAF, but Nimbus does look substantially better. See example images below. Conclusions The surprise at this behavior is due to a misinterpretation of what setOpaque() is meant to do - from the Nimbus bug report: This is a problem the the orginal design of Swing and how it has been confusing for years. The issue is setOpaque(false) has had a side effect in exiting LAFs which is that of hiding the background which is not really what it is ment for. It is ment to say that the component my have transparent parts and swing should paint the parent component behind it. It's unfortunate that the Nimbus components also appear not to honor setBackground(null) which would otherwise be the recommended way to stop the background painting. Setting a fully transparent background seems unintuitive to me. In my opinion, setOpaque()/isOpaque() is a faulty public API choice which should have been only: public boolean isFullyOpaque(); I say this, because isOpaque()==true is a contract with Swing that the component subclass will take responsibility for painting it's entire background - which means the parent can skip painting that region if it wants (which is an important performance enhancement). Something external cannot directly change this contract (legitimately), whose fulfillment may be coded into the component. So the opacity of the component should not have been settable using setOpaque(). Instead something like setBackground(null) should cause many components to "no long have a background" and therefore become not fully opaque. By way of example, in an ideal world most components should have an isOpaque() that looks like this: public boolean isOpaque() { return (background!=null); }

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  • Can a View Controller manage more than 1 nib based view?

    - by Hugo Brynjar
    I have a VC controlling a screen of content that has 2 modes; a normal mode and an edit mode. Can I create a single VC with 2 views, each from separate nibs? In many situations on the iphone, you have a VC which controls an associated view. Then on a button press or other event, a new VC is loaded and its view becomes the top level view etc. But in this situation, I have 2 modes that I want to use the same VC for, because they are closely related. So I want a VC which can swap in/out 2 views. As per here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/863321/iphone-how-to-load-a-view-using-a-nib-file-created-with-interface-builder/2683153#2683153 I have found that I can load a VC with an associated view from a nib and then later on load a different view from another nib and make that new view the active view. NSArray *nibObjects = [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"EditMode" owner:self options:nil]; UIView *theEditView = [nibObjects objectAtIndex:0]; self.editView = theEditView; [self.view addSubview:theEditView]; The secondary nib has outlets wired up to the VC like the primary nib. When the new nib is loaded, the outlets are all connected up fine and everything works nicely. Unfortunately when this edit view is then removed, there doesn't seem to be any elegant way of getting the outlets hooked up again to the (normal mode) view from the original nib. Nib loading and outlet setting seems a once only thing. So, if you want to have a VC that swaps in/out 2 views without creating a new VC, what are the options? 1) You can do everything in code, but I want to use nibs because it makes creating the UI simpler. 2) You have 1 nib for your VC and just hide/show elements using the hidden property of UIView and its subclasses. 3) You load a new nib as described above. This is fine for the new nib, but how do you sort the outlets when you go back to the original nib. 4) Give up and accept having a 1:1 between VCs and nibs. There is a nib for normal mode, a nib for edit mode and each mode has a VC that subclasses a common superclass. In the end, I went with 4) and it works, but requires a fair amount of extra work, because I have a model class that I instantiate in normal mode and then have to pass to the edit mode VC because both modes need access to the model. I'm also using NSTimer and have to start and stop the timer in each mode. It is because of all this shared functionality that I wanted a single VC with 2 nibs in the first place.

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  • Creating meaningful routes in wizard style ASP.NET MVC form

    - by R0MANARMY
    I apologize in advance for a long question, figured better have a bit more information than not enough. I'm working on an application with a fairly complex form (~100 fields on it). In order to make the UI a little more presentable the fields are organized into regions and split across multiple (~10) tabs (not unlike this, but each tab does a submit/redirect to next tab). This large input form can also be in one of 3 views (read only, editable, print friendly). The form represents a large domain object (let's call it Foo). I have a controller for said domain object (FooController). It makes sense to me to have the controller be responsible for all the CRUD related operations. Here are the problems I'm having trouble figuring out. Goals: I'd like to keep to conventions so that Foo/Create creates a new record Foo/Delete deletes a record Foo/Edit/{foo_id} takes you to the first tab of the form ...etc I'd like to be able to not repeat the data access code such that I can have Foo/Edit/{foo_id}/tab1 Foo/View/{foo_id}/tab1 Foo/Print/{foo_id}tab1 ...etc use the same data access code to get the data and just specify which view to use to render it. My current implementation has a massive FooController with Create, Delete, Tab1, Tab2, etc actions. Tab actions are split out into separate files for organization (using partial classes, which may or may not be abuse of partial classes). Problem I'm running into is how to organize my controller(s) and routes to make that happen. I have the default route {controller}/{action}/{id} Which handles goal 1 properly but doesn't quite play nice with goal 2. I tried to address goal 2 by defining extra routes like so: routes.MapRoute( "FooEdit", "Foo/Edit/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "Edit", id = (string)null } ); routes.MapRoute( "FooView", "Foo/View/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "View", id = (string)null } ); routes.MapRoute( "FooPrint", "Foo/Print/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "Print", id = (string)null } ); However defining these extra routes causes the Url.Action to generate routs like Foo/Edit/Create instead of Foo/Create. That leads me to believe I designed something very very wrong, but this is my first attempt an asp.net mvc project and I don't know any better. Any advice with this particular situation would be awesome, but feedback on design in similar projects is welcome.

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  • capture data from FORM using jquery/ajax/json

    - by nisardotnet
    i have few textbox on the form and when the user submit i want to capture the data and insert into db here is what my code looks like beforeSubmit: function(data) { // called just before the form is submitted var item = $("[id$='item']"); var category = $("[id$='category']"); var record = $("[id$='record']"); var json = "{'ItemName':'" + escape(item.val()) + "','CategoryID':'" + category.val() + "','RecordID':'" + record.val() + "'}"; var ajaxPage = "DataProcessor.aspx?Save=1"; //this page is where data is to be retrieved and processed var options = { type: "POST", url: ajaxPage, data: json, contentType: "application/json;charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", async: false, success: function(response) { alert("success: " + response); }, error: function(msg) { alert("failed: " + msg); } }; //execute the ajax call and get a response var returnText = $.ajax(options).responseText; if (returnText == 1) { record.html(returnText); $("#divMsg").html("<font color=blue>Record saved successfully.</font>"); } else { record.html(returnText); $("#divMsg").html("<font color=red>Record not saved successfully.</font>"); } // $("#data").html("<font color=blue>Data sent to the server :</font> <br />" + $.param(data)); }, here is what is the Data sent to the server: if i uncomment this line: // $("#data").html("Data sent to the server : " + $.param(data)); _VIEWSTATE=%2FwEPDwULLTE4ODM1ODM4NDFkZOFEQfA7cHuTisEwOQmIaj1nYR23&_EVENTVALIDATION=%2FwEWDwLuksaHBgLniKOABAKV8o75BgLlosbxAgKUjpHvCALf9YLVCgLCtfnhAQKyqcC9BQL357nNAQLW9%2FeuDQKvpuq2CALyveCRDwKgoPWXDAKhwImNCwKiwImNC1%2Fq%2BmUXqcSuJ0z0F%2FQXKM3pH070&firstname=Nisar&surname=Khan&day_fi=12&month_fi=12&year_fi=1234&lastFour_fi=777&countryPrefix_fi=1&areaCode_fi=555-555&phoneNumber_fi=5555&email_fi=nisardotnet%40gmail.com&username=nisarkhan&password=123456&retypePassword=123456 DataProcessor.aspx.cs: public partial class DataProcessor : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) ProcessAjaxRequest(); } private void ProcessAjaxRequest() { if (Request.ContentType.Contains("json") && Request.QueryString["Save"] != null) SaveMyData(); } private void SaveMyData() { //data passed in as JSON format System.IO.StreamReader sr = new System.IO.StreamReader(Request.InputStream); string line = ""; line = sr.ReadToEnd(); //This is all you need to parse JSON string into an JObject. //Require namespace Newtonsoft.Json.Linq; JObject jo = JObject.Parse(line); Console.WriteLine((string)jo["RecordID"]); Console.WriteLine(Server.UrlDecode((string)jo["ItemName"])); //use Server.UrlDecode to reverse the text that was escaped before it was passed in to its original state Response.Write((string)jo["CategoryID"]); //this send to responseText of .ajax(options).responseText } } the above code is not working and i need a way to capture the values before i insert into db. any help? Thanks.

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  • Offline backup synchronization

    - by Pavan Kumar
    There is a Central Server running Windows Server 2003 and SQL Server 2005 and there are 7 client machines situated in various places and has XP Pro & SQL Server 2005 installed in all of them. They are not interconnected so they are physically seperate. One person goes to each of these centers maybe twice a month and takes the backup (Full database consisting of mdf and ldf files) with a pen drive and brings it to the Central server which contains the central database holding same schema as all the other client databases. I need to synchronize each backup database (belonging to different centers) one by one to update the existing data or inserting new data in the central database . The solution i got was Replication. The pendrive is brought to central server consisting of 7 instances of the databases and then the databases is attached to the central server one by one to the same SQL Server where the central database exists. Then my idea was to replicate the backup database one by one i.e using single subscription (Central Database) and multiple publication ( i.e 7 instances of databases in my case) toplogy by performing replication locally (i.e in the same machine). So i tried to develop a UI in C# .Net to programatically run the Transactional Replication with push subscription using RMO Programming (which is incomplete as of now because there is no point in developing when you already know it is not the solution). Transactional Replication can either be set to initialize with a snapshot or without a snapshot. If i go for the first option i.e with a snapshot , the data whatever is present in Central Database is overwritten by the new data . So the data present initially in the central database is lost. If i try to initialize without snapshot , no data (the data already has the updated and new data) will be sent from the backup database to server. The replication will work in a scenario where any incremental changes is done only after you set the replication . So the initial data whatever was present in the backup database when setting up the replication will not be replicated when running the snapshot agent for the first time to synchronize. Only changes in the backup database thereafter will be reflected to the central database .(Remember I am not going to insert new data or make any changes to the backup database after i attach it to the Central Server. ) So this solution is not feasible. I want a solution for synchronizing from one client database to central database present in the same machine using C#.NET. If you can provide me small example maybe with two databases(with same schema) DB1(Client) to DB2(Server) consisting of one or two tables it will be very helpful. The synchronization is not bidirectional.I want to only update existing data or insert new data from DB1 to DB2 (DB2 may contain some data initially). Thanks and Regards Pavan

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  • Determining what frequencies correspond to the x axis in aurioTouch sample application

    - by eagle
    I'm looking at the aurioTouch sample application for the iPhone SDK. It has a basic spectrum analyzer implemented when you choose the "FFT" option. One of the things the app is lacking is X axis labels (i.e. the frequency labels). In the aurioTouchAppDelegate.mm file, in the function - (void)drawOscilloscope at line 652, it has the following code: if (displayMode == aurioTouchDisplayModeOscilloscopeFFT) { if (fftBufferManager->HasNewAudioData()) { if (fftBufferManager->ComputeFFT(l_fftData)) [self setFFTData:l_fftData length:fftBufferManager->GetNumberFrames() / 2]; else hasNewFFTData = NO; } if (hasNewFFTData) { int y, maxY; maxY = drawBufferLen; for (y=0; y<maxY; y++) { CGFloat yFract = (CGFloat)y / (CGFloat)(maxY - 1); CGFloat fftIdx = yFract * ((CGFloat)fftLength); double fftIdx_i, fftIdx_f; fftIdx_f = modf(fftIdx, &fftIdx_i); SInt8 fft_l, fft_r; CGFloat fft_l_fl, fft_r_fl; CGFloat interpVal; fft_l = (fftData[(int)fftIdx_i] & 0xFF000000) >> 24; fft_r = (fftData[(int)fftIdx_i + 1] & 0xFF000000) >> 24; fft_l_fl = (CGFloat)(fft_l + 80) / 64.; fft_r_fl = (CGFloat)(fft_r + 80) / 64.; interpVal = fft_l_fl * (1. - fftIdx_f) + fft_r_fl * fftIdx_f; interpVal = CLAMP(0., interpVal, 1.); drawBuffers[0][y] = (interpVal * 120); } cycleOscilloscopeLines(); } } From my understanding, this part of the code is what is used to decide which magnitude to draw for each frequency in the UI. My question is how can I determine what frequency each iteration (or y value) represents inside the for loop. For example, if I want to know what the magnitude is for 6kHz, I'm thinking of adding a line similar to the following: if (yValueRepresentskHz(y, 6)) NSLog(@"The magnitude for 6kHz is %f", (interpVal * 120)); Please note that although they chose to use the variable name y, from what I understand, it actually represents the x-axis in the visual graph of the spectrum analyzer, and the value of the drawBuffers[0][y] represents the y-axis.

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  • ASP Web Service Not Working

    - by BlitzPackage
    Good people, Hello. Our webservice is not working. We should be receiving information via an HTTP POST. However, nothing is working. Below are the code files. Let me know what you think. Thanks in advance for any help or information you can provide. (By the way, some information (e.g. class names, connection strings, etc...) has been removed or changed in order to hide any sensitive information. Imports System.Web.Mail Imports System.Data Imports System.Data.SqlClient Imports System.IO Partial Class hbcertification Inherits System.Web.UI.Page Public strBody As String = "" Public sqlInsertStr As String = "" Public errStr As String = "" Public txn_id, first_name, last_name, address_street, address_city, address_state, address_zip, address_country, address_phone, payer_email, Price, key, invoice, payment_date, mc_fee, buyer_ip As String Dim myConn As New SqlConnection(ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings("ConnectionInfo")) '******************************************************************************************* Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load strBody += "Test email sent.Customer name: " & Request("first_name") & " " & Request("last_name") strBody += "Reg Key: " & Request("key") & "Transaction ID: " & Request("txn_id") & "Tran Type: " & Request("txn_type") updateFile(Server.MapPath("log.txt"), strBody) txn_id = Request("txn_id") first_name = Request("first_name") last_name = Request("last_name") address_street = Request("address_street") address_city = Request("address_city") address_state = Request("address_state") address_zip = Request("address_zip") address_country = Request("address_country") address_phone = Request("address_phone") payer_email = Request("payer_email") Price = Request("Price") key = Request("key") invoice = Request("invoice") payment_date = Request("payment_date") mc_fee = Request("mc_fee") buyer_ip = Request("buyer_ip") If Request("first_name") "" And Request("last_name") "" Then SendMail("[email protected]", "[email protected]", strBody, "Software Order Notification", "[email protected]") Else Response.Write("Email not sent. Name missing.") End If Dim sItem As String Response.Write("") If Request.Form("dosubmit") = "1" Then Response.Write("FORM VALS:") For Each sItem In Request.Form Response.Write("" & sItem & " - [" & Request.Form(sItem) & "]") Next sqlInsertStr += "insert into aspnet_MorrisCustomerInfo (TransactionID,FirstName,LastName,AddressStreet,AddressCity,AddressState,AddressZip,AddressCountry,AddressPhone,PayerEmail,Price,AuthenticationCode,InvoiceID,PurchaseDate,PaypalFee,PurchaseIPAddress) values ('" & SQLSafe(txn_id) & "','" & SQLSafe(first_name) & "','" & SQLSafe(last_name) & "','" & SQLSafe(address_street) & "','" & SQLSafe(address_city) & "','" & SQLSafe(address_state) & "','" & SQLSafe(address_zip) & "','" & SQLSafe(address_country) & "','" & SQLSafe(address_phone) & "','" & SQLSafe(payer_email) & "','" & SQLSafe(Price) & "','" & SQLSafe(key) & "','" & SQLSafe(invoice) & "','" & SQLSafe(payment_date) & "','" & SQLSafe(mc_fee) & "','" & SQLSafe(buyer_ip) & "')" runMyQuery(sqlInsertStr, False) End If Response.Write("sqlInsertStr is: " & sqlInsertStr) Response.Write("") End Sub '******************************************************************************************* Sub SendMail(ByVal strEmailAddress, ByVal strEmailAddress_cc, ByVal Email_Body, ByVal Email_Subject, ByVal Email_From) If Request.ServerVariables("server_name") "localhost" Then Try Dim resumeEmail As New MailMessage resumeEmail.To = strEmailAddress resumeEmail.Cc = strEmailAddress_cc resumeEmail.From = Email_From resumeEmail.Subject = Email_Subject resumeEmail.Priority = MailPriority.High 'resumeEmail.BodyFormat = MailFormat.Html resumeEmail.BodyFormat = MailFormat.Html resumeEmail.Body = Email_Body 'System.Web.Mail.SmtpMail.SmtpServer = "morris.com" System.Web.Mail.SmtpMail.SmtpServer = "relay-hosting.secureserver.net" System.Web.Mail.SmtpMail.Send(resumeEmail) Response.Write("Email sent.") Catch exc As Exception Response.Write("MAIL ERROR OCCURRED" & exc.ToString() & "From: " & Email_From) End Try Else Response.Write("TEST RESPONSE" & strBody & "") End If End Sub End Function End Class Process Data Asp.Net Configuration option in Visual Studio. A full list of settings and comments can be found in machine.config.comments usually located in \Windows\Microsoft.Net\Framework\v2.x\Config -- section enables configuration of the security authentication mode used by ASP.NET to identify an incoming user. -- section enables configuration of what to do if/when an unhandled error occurs during the execution of a request. Specifically, it enables developers to configure html error pages to be displayed in place of a error stack trace. --

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  • create text inside a rectangle using inkscape

    - by mr calendar
    I've put some text inside a rectangle using inkscape so the tree is like <svg:rect><svg:text><svg:tspan>text.... The problem is, I can't see the text. I've tried fiddling with the opacity of the rect to no avail. There should be a way of doing this from the UI? Edit example as requested <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <!-- Created with Inkscape (http://www.inkscape.org/) --> <svg xmlns:dc="http://purl.org/dc/elements/1.1/" xmlns:cc="http://creativecommons.org/ns#" xmlns:rdf="http://www.w3.org/1999/02/22-rdf-syntax-ns#" xmlns:svg="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" xmlns:sodipodi="http://sodipodi.sourceforge.net/DTD/sodipodi-0.dtd" xmlns:inkscape="http://www.inkscape.org/namespaces/inkscape" width="184.25197" height="262.20471" id="svg2" sodipodi:version="0.32" inkscape:version="0.46" version="1.0" sodipodi:docname="ex1.svg" inkscape:output_extension="org.inkscape.output.svg.inkscape"> <defs id="defs4"> <inkscape:perspective sodipodi:type="inkscape:persp3d" inkscape:vp_x="0 : 526.18109 : 1" inkscape:vp_y="0 : 1000 : 0" inkscape:vp_z="744.09448 : 526.18109 : 1" inkscape:persp3d-origin="372.04724 : 350.78739 : 1" id="perspective10" /> </defs> <sodipodi:namedview id="base" pagecolor="#ffffff" bordercolor="#666666" borderopacity="1.0" gridtolerance="10000" guidetolerance="10" objecttolerance="10" inkscape:pageopacity="0.0" inkscape:pageshadow="2" inkscape:zoom="0.64" inkscape:cx="195.9221" inkscape:cy="335.3072" inkscape:document-units="px" inkscape:current-layer="layer1" showgrid="false" inkscape:window-width="640" inkscape:window-height="675" inkscape:window-x="44" inkscape:window-y="44" /> <metadata id="metadata7"> <rdf:RDF> <cc:Work rdf:about=""> <dc:format>image/svg+xml</dc:format> <dc:type rdf:resource="http://purl.org/dc/dcmitype/StillImage" /> </cc:Work> </rdf:RDF> </metadata> <g inkscape:label="Layer 1" inkscape:groupmode="layer" id="layer1"> <rect style="opacity:0.25480766;fill:#ff0000;fill-opacity:1;stroke:#000000;stroke-width:12.94795799;stroke-miterlimit:4;stroke-dasharray:none;stroke-opacity:1" id="rect2383" width="150.87796" height="84.226181" x="18.221733" y="39.557121"> <text xml:space="preserve" style="font-size:56.0331955px;font-style:normal;font-weight:normal;fill:#000000;fill-opacity:1;stroke:none;stroke-width:1px;stroke-linecap:butt;stroke-linejoin:miter;stroke-opacity:1;font-family:Bitstream Vera Sans" x="44.815186" y="114.0088" id="text2385" transform="scale(1.0054479,0.9945816)"><tspan sodipodi:role="line" id="tspan2387" x="44.815186" y="114.0088">text</tspan></text> </rect> </g> </svg> I'd expect to be able to see this in inkscape. The workaround is to put text on a layer above the box (the intent is that the box obscures the layers below it) and not try and get clever with nested tags. Shame it doesn't work though.

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  • Entity Framework in n-layered application - Lazy loading vs. Eager loading patterns

    - by Marconline
    Hi all. This questions doesn't let me sleep as it's since one year I'm trying to find a solution but... still nothing happened in my mind. Probably you can help me, because I think this is a very common issue. I've a n-layered application: presentation layer, business logic layer, model layer. Suppose for simplicity that my application contains, in the presentation layer, a form that allows a user to search for a customer. Now the user fills the filters through the UI and clicks a button. Something happens and the request arrives to presentation layer to a method like CustomerSearch(CustomerFilter myFilter). This business logic layer now keeps it simple: creates a query on the model and gets back results. Now the question: how do you face the problem of loading data? I mean business logic layer doesn't know that that particular method will be invoked just by that form. So I think that it doesn't know if the requesting form needs just the Customer objects back or the Customer objects with the linked Order entities. I try to explain better: our form just wants to list Customers searching by surname. It has nothing to do with orders. So the business logic query will be something like: (from c in ctx.CustomerSet where c.Name.Contains(strQry) select c).ToList(); now this is working correctly. Two days later your boss asks you to add a form that let you search for customers like the other and you need to show the total count of orders created by each customer. Now I'd like to reuse that query and add the piece of logic that attach (includes) orders and gets back that. How would you front this request? Here is the best (I think) idea I had since now. I'd like to hear from you: my CustomerSearch method in BLL doesn't create the query directly but passes through private extension methods that compose the ObjectQuery like: private ObjectQuery<Customer> SearchCustomers(this ObjectQuery<Customer> qry, CustomerFilter myFilter) and private ObjectQuery<Customer> IncludeOrders(this ObjectQuery<Customer> qry) but this doesn't convince me as it seems too complex. Thanks, Marco

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  • Rails scalar query

    - by Craig
    I need to display a UI element (e.g. a star or checkmark) for employees that are 'favorites' of the current user (another employee). The Employee model has the following relationship defined to support this: has_and_belongs_to_many :favorites, :class_name => "Employee", :join_table => "favorites", :association_foreign_key => "favorite_id", :foreign_key => "employee_id" The favorites has two fields: employee_id, favorite_id. If I were to write SQL, the following query would give me the results that I want: SELECT id, account, IF( ( SELECT favorite_id FROM favorites WHERE favorite_id=p.id AND employee_id = ? ) IS NULL, FALSE, TRUE) isFavorite FROM employees Where the '?' would be replaced by the session[:user_id]. How do I represent the isFavorite scalar query in Rails? Another approach would use a query like this: SELECT id, account, IF(favorite_id IS NULL, FALSE, TRUE) isFavorite FROM employees e LEFT OUTER JOIN favorites f ON e.id=f.favorite_id AND employee_id = ? Again, the '?' is replaced by the session[:user_id] value. I've had some success writing this in Rails: ee=Employee.find(:all, :joins=>"LEFT OUTER JOIN favorites ON employees.id=favorites.favorite_id AND favorites.employee_id=1", :select=>"employees.*,favorites.favorite_id") Unfortunately, when I try to make this query 'dynamic' by replacing the '1' with a '?', I get errors. ee=Employee.find(:all, :joins=>["LEFT OUTER JOIN favorites ON employees.id=favorites.favorite_id AND favorites.employee_id=?",1], :select=>"employees.*,favorites.favorite_id") Obviously, I have the syntax wrong, but can :joins expressions be 'dynamic'? Is this a case for a Lambda expression? I do hope to add other filters to this query and use it with will_paginate and acts_as_taggable_on, if that makes a difference. edit errors from trying to make :joins dynamic: ActiveRecord::ConfigurationError: Association named 'LEFT OUTER JOIN favorites ON employees.id=favorites.favorite_id AND favorites.employee_id=?' was not found; perhaps you misspelled it? from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/associations.rb:1906:in `build' from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/associations.rb:1911:in `build' from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/associations.rb:1910:in `each' from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/associations.rb:1910:in `build' from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/associations.rb:1830:in `initialize' from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:1789:in `new' from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:1789:in `add_joins!' from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:1686:in `construct_finder_sql' from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:1548:in `find_every' from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:615:in `find'

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  • WPF MVVM: Convention over Configuration for ResourceDictionary ?

    - by Jeffrey Knight
    Update In the wiki spirit of StackOverflow, here's an update: I spiked Joe White's IValueConverter suggestion below. It works like a charm. I've written a "quickstart" example of this that automates the mapping of ViewModels-Views using some cheap string replacement. If no View is found to represent the ViewModel, it defaults to an "Under Construction" page. I'm dubbing this approach "WPF MVVM White" since it was Joe White's idea. Here are a couple screenshots. The first image is a case of "[SomeControlName]ViewModel" has a corresponding "[SomeControlName]View", based on pure naming convention. The second is a case where the ModelView doesn't have any views to represent it. No more ResourceDictionaries with long ViewModel to View mappings. It's pure naming convention now. I'm hosting a download of the project here: http://rootsilver.com/files/Mvvm.White.Quickstart.zip I'll follow up with a longer blog post walk through. Original Post I read Josh Smith's fantastic MSDN article on WPF MVVM over the weekend. It's destined to be a cult classic. It took me a while to wrap my head around the magic of asking WPF to render the ViewModel. It's like saying "Here's a class, WPF. Go figure out which UI to use to present it." For those who missed this magic, WPF can do this by looking up the View for ModelView in the ResourceDictionary mapping and pulling out the corresponding View. (Scroll down to Figure 10 Supplying a View ). The first thing that jumps out at me immediately is that there's already a strong naming convention of: classNameView ("View" suffix) classNameViewModel ("ViewModel" suffix) My question is: Since the ResourceDictionary can be manipulated programatically, I"m wondering if anyone has managed to Regex.Replace the whole thing away, so the lookup is automatic, and any new View/ViewModels get resolved by virtue of their naming convention? [Edit] What I'm imagining is a hook/interception into ResourceDictionary. ... Also considering a method at startup that uses interop to pull out *View$ and *ViewModel$ class names to build the DataTemplate dictionary in code: //build list foreach .... String.Format("<DataTemplate DataType=\"{x:Type vm:{0} }\"><v:{1} /></DataTemplate>", ...)

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  • drag and drop working funny when using variable draggables and droppables

    - by Lina
    Hi, i have some containers that contain some divs like: <div id="container1"> <div id="task1" onMouseOver="DragDrop("+1+");">&nbsp;</div> <div id="task2" onMouseOver="DragDrop("+2+");">&nbsp;</div> <div id="task3" onMouseOver="DragDrop("+3+");">&nbsp;</div> <div id="task4" onMouseOver="DragDrop("+4+");">&nbsp;</div> </div> <div id="container2"> <div id="task5" onMouseOver="DragDrop("+5+");">&nbsp;</div> <div id="task6" onMouseOver="DragDrop("+6+");">&nbsp;</div> </div> <div id="container3"> <div id="task7" onMouseOver="DragDrop("+7+");">&nbsp;</div> <div id="task8" onMouseOver="DragDrop("+8+");">&nbsp;</div> <div id="task9" onMouseOver="DragDrop("+9+");">&nbsp;</div> <div id="task10" onMouseOver="DragDrop("+10+");">&nbsp;</div> </div> i'm trying to drag tasks and drop them in one of the container divs, then reposition the dropped task so that it doesn't affect the other divs nor fall outside one of them and to do that i'm using the event onMouseOver to call the following function: function DragDrop(id) { $("#task" + id).draggable({ revert: 'invalid' }); for (var i = 0; i < nameList.length; i++) { $("#" + nameList[i]).droppable({ drop: function (ev, ui) { var pos = $("#task" + id).position(); if (pos.left <= 0) { $("#task" + id).css("left", "5px"); } else { var day = parseInt(parseInt(pos.left) / 42); var leftPos = (day * 42) + 5; $("#task" + id).css("left", "" + leftPos + "px"); } } }); } } where: nameList = [container1, container2, container3]; the drag is working fine, but the drop is not really, it's just a mess! any help please?? when i hardcode the id and the container, then it works beautifully, but as soon as i use id in drop then it begins to work funny! any suggestions??? thanks a million in advance Lina

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  • Eclipselink read complex oject model in an ordered way

    - by Raven
    Hi, I need to read a complex model in an ordered way with eclipselink. The order is mandantory because it is a huge database and I want to have an output of a small portion of the database in a jface tableview. Trying to reorder it in the loading/quering thread takes too long and ordering it in the LabelProvider blocks the UI thread too much time, so I thought if Eclipselink could be used that way, that the database will order it, it might give me the performance I need. Unfortunately the object model can not be changed :-( The model is something like: @SuppressWarnings("serial") @Entity public class Thing implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.TABLE) private int id; private String name; @OneToMany(cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @PrivateOwned private List<Property> properties = new ArrayList<Property>(); ... // getter and setter following here } public class Property implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.TABLE) private int id; @OneToOne private Item item; private String value; ... // getter and setter following here } public class Item implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.TABLE) private int id; private String name; .... // getter and setter following here } // Code end In the table view the y-axis is more or less created with the query Query q = em.createQuery("SELECT m FROM Thing m ORDER BY m.name ASC"); using the "name" attribute from the Thing objects as label. In the table view the x-axis is more or less created with the query Query q = em.createQuery("SELECT m FROM Item m ORDER BY m.name ASC"); using the "name" attribute from the Item objects as label. Each cell has the value Things.getProperties().get[x].getValue() Unfortunately the list "properties" is not ordered, so the combination of cell value and x-axis column number (x) is not necessarily correct. Therefore I need to order the list "properties" in the same way as I ordered the labeling of the x-axis. And exactly this is the thing I dont know how it is done. So querying for the Thing objects should return the list "properties" "ORDER BY name ASC" but of the "Item"s objects. My ideas are something like having a query with two JOINs. Joing Things with Property and with Item but somehow I was unable to get it to work yet. Thank you for your help and your ideas to solve this riddle.

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  • Html Agility Pack: DescendantsOrSelf() not returning HTML element

    - by Program.X
    I have some HTML, eg: <%@ Page Title="About Us" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Site.master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="ContentManagedTargetPage.aspx.cs" Inherits="xxx.ContentManagedTargetPage" %> <%@ Register TagPrefix="CxCMS" Namespace="xxx.ContentManagement.ASPNET.UI" Assembly="xxx.ContentManagement.ASPNET" %> <asp:Content ID="HeaderContent" runat="server" ContentPlaceHolderID="HeadContent"> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="BodyContent" runat="server" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent"> <h2> Content Managed </h2> <p> Put content here. [<CxCMS:ContentManagedPlaceHolder Key="keyThingy" runat="server" />] </p> </asp:Content> And I want to find all the instances of the CxCMS:ContentManagedPlaceHolder element. I'm using HTML Agility Pack, which seems the best fit. However, despite looking at the [meagre] documentation, I can't get my code to work. I would expect the following to work: string searchForElement = "CxCMS:ContentManagedPlaceHolder"; IEnumerable<HtmlNode> contentPlaceHolderHtmlNodes = HtmlDocument.DocumentNode.Descendants(searchForElement); int count = contentPlaceHolderHtmlNodes.Count(); But I get nothing back. If I change to DescendantsOrSelf, I get the document node back, "#document" - which is incorrect: string searchForElement = "CxCMS:ContentManagedPlaceHolder"; IEnumerable<HtmlNode> contentPlaceHolderHtmlNodes = HtmlDocument.DocumentNode.DescendantsOrSelf(searchForElement); int count = contentPlaceHolderHtmlNodes.Count(); I also tried using LINQ: string searchForElement = "CxCMS:ContentManagedPlaceHolder"; IEnumerable<HtmlNode> contentPlaceHolderHtmlNodes = HtmlDocument.DocumentNode.DescendantsOrSelf().Where(q=>q.Name==searchForElement); int count = contentPlaceHolderHtmlNodes.Count(); As neither of these methods work, I moved onto using SelectNodes, instead: string searchForElement = "CxCMS:ContentManagedPlaceHolder"; string xPath="//"+searchForElement // "//CxCMS:ContentManagedPlaceHolder" var nodes= HtmlDocument.DocumentNode.SelectNodes(xPath); This just throws the exception: "Namespace Manager or XsltContext needed. This query has a prefix, variable, or user-defined function.". I can't find any way of adding namespace management to the HtmlDocument object. What am I missing, here? The DescendantsOrSelf() method works if using a "standard" HTML tag, such as "p", but not the one I have. Surely it should work? (It needs to!)

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  • Network communication for a turn based board game

    - by randooom
    Hi all, my first question here, so please don't be to harsh if something went wrong :) I'm currently a CS student (from Germany, if this info is of any use ;) ) and we got a, free selectable, programming assignment, which we have to write in a C++/CLI Windows Forms Application. My team, two others and me, decided to go for a network-compatible port of the board game Risk. We divided the work in 3 Parts, namely UI, game logic and network. Now we're on the part where we have to get everything working together and the big question mark is, how to get the clients synchronized with each other? Our approach so far is, that each client has all information necessary to calculate and/or execute all possible actions. Actually the clients have all information available at all, aside from the game-initializing phase (add players, select map, etc.), which needs one "super-client" with some extra stuff to control things. This is the standard scenario of our approach: player performs action, the action is valid and got executed on the players client action is sent over the network action is executed on the other clients The design (i.e. no or code so far) we came up with so far, is something like the following pseudo sequence diagram. Gui, Controller and Network implement all possible actions (i.e. all actions which change data) as methods from an interface. So each part can implement the method in a way to get their job done. Example with Action(): On the player side's Client: Player-->Gui.Action() Gui-->Controller.Action() Controller-->Logic.Action (Logic.Action() == NoError)? Controller-->Network.Action() Network-->Parser.ParseAction() Network.Send(msg) On all other clients: Network.Recv(msg) Network-->Parser.Deparse(msg) Parser-->Logic.Action() Logic-->Gui.Action() The questions: Is this a viable approach to our task? Any better/easier way to this? Recommendations, critique? Our knowledge (so you can better target your answer): We are on the beginner side, in regards to programming on a somewhat larger projects with a small team. All of us have some general programming experience and basic understanding of the .Net Libraries and Windows Forms. If you need any further information, please feel free to ask.

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  • Wondering why DisplayName attribute is ignored in LabelFor on an overridden property

    - by Lasse Krantz
    Hi, today I got confused when doing a couple of <%=Html.LabelFor(m=>m.MyProperty)%> in ASP.NET MVC 2 and using the [DisplayName("Show this instead of MyProperty")] attribute from System.ComponentModel. As it turned out, when I put the attribute on an overridden property, LabelFor didn't seem to notice it. However, the [Required] attribute works fine on the overridden property, and the generated errormessage actually uses the DisplayNameAttribute. This is some trivial examplecode, the more realistic scenario is that I have a databasemodel separate from the viewmodel, but for convenience, I'd like to inherit from the databasemodel, add View-only properties and decorating the viewmodel with the attributes for the UI. public class POCOWithoutDataAnnotations { public virtual string PleaseOverrideMe { get; set; } } public class EditModel : POCOWithoutDataAnnotations { [Required] [DisplayName("This should be as label for please override me!")] public override string PleaseOverrideMe { get { return base.PleaseOverrideMe; } set { base.PleaseOverrideMe = value; } } [Required] [DisplayName("This property exists only in EditModel")] public string NonOverriddenProp { get; set; } } The strongly typed ViewPage<EditModel> contains: <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.PleaseOverrideMe) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.PleaseOverrideMe) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.PleaseOverrideMe) %> </div> <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.NonOverriddenProp) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.NonOverriddenProp) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.NonOverriddenProp) %> </div> The labels are then displayed as "PleaseOverrideMe" (not using the DisplayNameAttribute) and "This property exists only in EditModel" (using the DisplayNameAttribute) when viewing the page. If I post with empty values, triggering the validation with this ActionMethod: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(EditModel model) { if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(model); return View("Thanks"); } the <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.PleaseOverrideMe) %> actually uses [DisplayName("This should be as label for please override me!")] attribute, and produces the default errortext "The This should be as label for please override me! field is required." Would some friendly soul shed some light on this?

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  • Updating a deallocated UIWebView from a background thread

    - by Dan Ray
    As you can see from the title, I've programmed myself into a corner and I've got several things working against me... In a UIViewController subclass that manages a large and complex view. One part of it is a UIWebView that contains output from a web request that I had to build and execute, and manually assemble HTML from. Since it takes a second or two to run, I dropped it into the background by calling self performSelectorInBackground:. Then from that method I call there, I use self performSelectorOnMainThread: to get back to the surface of the thread stack to update the UIWebView with what I just got. Like this (which I've cut down to show only the relevant issues): -(void)locationManager:(CLLocationManager *)manager didUpdateToLocation:(CLLocation *)newLocation fromLocation:(CLLocation *)oldLocation { //then get mapquest directions NSLog(@"Got called to handle new location!"); [manager stopUpdatingLocation]; [self performSelectorInBackground:@selector(getDirectionsFromHere:) withObject:newLocation]; } - (void)getDirectionsFromHere:(CLLocation *)newLocation { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; CLLocationCoordinate2D here = newLocation.coordinate; // assemble a call to the MapQuest directions API in NSString *dirURL // ...cut for brevity NSLog(@"Query is %@", dirURL); NSString *response = [NSString stringWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL URLWithString:dirURL] encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding error:NULL]; NSMutableString *directionsOutput = [[NSMutableString alloc] init]; // assemble response into an HTML table in NSString *directionsOutput // ...cut for brevity [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(updateDirectionsWithHtml:) withObject:directionsOutput waitUntilDone:NO]; [directionsOutput release]; [pool drain]; [pool release]; } - (void)updateDirectionsWithHtml:(NSString *)directionsOutput { [self.directionsWebView loadHTMLString:directionsOutput baseURL:nil]; } This all works totally great, UNLESS I've backed out of this view controller before CLLocationManager hits its delegate method. If this happens after I've already left this view, I get: 2010-06-07 16:38:08.508 EverWondr[180:760b] bool _WebTryThreadLock(bool), 0x1b6830: Tried to obtain the web lock from a thread other than the main thread or the web thread. This may be a result of calling to UIKit from a secondary thread. Crashing now... Despite what this says, I can repeatably cause this crash when I back out too early. I'm not at all convinced that attempting a UI update from a background thread is really the issue; I think it's that my UIWebView is deallocated. I suspect that the fact I was just IN a background thread makes the runtime suspect something's up about that, but I feel fairly sure that's not it. So how do I tell CLLocationManager not to worry about it, when I'm backing out of that view? I tried [self.locationManager stopUpdatingLocation] inside my viewWillDisappear method, but that didn't do it. (Incidentally, MapQuest's apis are FANTASTIC. Way WAY better than anything Google provides. I can't recommend them highly enough.)

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  • How to get jQuery to work with Prototype

    - by thinkfuture
    Ok so here is the situation. Been pulling my hair out on this one. I'm a noob at this. Only been using rails for about 6 weeks. I'm using the standard setup package, and my code leverages prototype helpers heavily. Like I said, noob ;) So I'm trying to put in some jQuery effects, like PrettyPhoto. But what happens is that when the page is first loaded, PrettyPhoto works great. However, once someone uses a Prototype helper, like a link created with link_to_remote, Prettyphoto stops working. I've tried jRails, all of the fixes proposed on the JQuery site to stop conflicts... http://docs.jquery.com/Using_jQuery_with_Other_Libraries ...even done some crazy things likes renaming all of the $ in prototype.js to $$$ to no avail. Either the prototype helpers break, or jQuery breaks. Seems nothing I do can get these to work together. Any ideas? Here is part of my application.html.erb <%= javascript_include_tag 'application' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'tooltip' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'jquery' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'jquery-ui' %> <%= javascript_include_tag "jquery.prettyPhoto" %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'prototype' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'scriptalicious' %> </head> <body> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> jQuery(document).ready( function() { jQuery("a[rel^='prettyPhoto']").prettyPhoto(); }); </script> If I put prototype before jquery, the prototype helpers don't work If I put the noconflict clause in, neither works. Thanks in advance! Chris BTW: when I try this, from the jQuery site: <script> jQuery.noConflict(); // Use jQuery via jQuery(...) jQuery(document).ready(function(){ jQuery("div").hide(); }); // Use Prototype with $(...), etc. $('someid').hide(); </script> my page disappears!

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